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ECVN exam study > Neurons and Glial cells > Flashcards

Neurons and Glial cells Flashcards

1
Q

Four functions of astrocytes

A

formation of BBB
potassium buffer
removes excess neurotransmitters
glycogen reserve

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2
Q

Parts of BBB

A

endothelial cells (tight junctions)
basal lamina (connective tissue)
foot process of astrocyte
(+/- pericytes)

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3
Q

What can easily pass thru BBB?

A

small gasses (O2, CO2)
lipid soluble molecules

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4
Q

Role of astrocytes in the BBB

A

secrets growth factors which stimulate formation of tight junctions between endothelial cells

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5
Q

Areas without BBB (or incomplete BBB)

A

1) area postrema of brainstem (vomiting)
2) osmoreceptors
3) hypophysis
choroid plexus
4) median eminence (link between the hypothalamus and the anterior hypophysis)
5) pineal gland

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6
Q

PNS counterpart of astrocytes?

A

satellite cells (same functions as astrocytes, just no BBB bc PNS)

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7
Q

Where are satellite cells found?

A

dorsal root ganglion
autonomic ganglia

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8
Q

Functions of oligodendrocytes?

A

myelinate axons of CNS (+CNII)

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9
Q

Functions of Schwann cell?

A

myelinate axons in PNS (spinal nerves + CNIII-XII)

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10
Q

Differences between oligos and Schwann cells?

A

1) oligos CNS vs Schwan cells PNS
2) oligos myelinate up to 30-60 axons, Shwan cells one axon
3) oligos cant regenerate, Schwann cells can regenerate

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11
Q

Types of impulse conduction depending on myelin insulation (2)

A

1) saltatory (myelinated fibers, faster)
2) continuous (unmyelinated, slower)

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12
Q

Factors that increase the conduction velocity

A

1) myelination
2) diameter (larger diameter decreases the resistance thereby increasing flow)

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13
Q

Myelinated neuron fibre velocity? (A, B, C)

A

Aalpha, Abeta, agamma, Adelta - fastest velocity
B - moderate velocity
C - slowest velocity

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14
Q

Blood - CSF barrier layers (3)

A

1) endothelial cells (fenestrated)
2) basal lamina (connective tissue)
3) ependimal cells (tight junctions)

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15
Q

Roles of ependimal cells (2)

A

1) production of CSF (thru B-CSF barrier)
2) movement of CSF (using cillia)

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16
Q

Where do microglia cells come from?

A

bone marrow -> monocytes -> microglia

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17
Q

Which molecules are released from microglia in response to tissue damage (3)

A

1) Nitric oxide
2) free radicals
3) cytokines

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18
Q

Name the different methods of transmitting nerve signals from neurons to other structures (neurons, skeletal muscle, smooth or cardiac muscle)

A

1) synapse (neuron-neuron)
2) NMJ (neuron-skeletal muscle)
3) boutons en passage (neuron-smooth or cardiac muscle)

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19
Q

Name the 3 types of neurons based on the number of cellular processes

A

1) unipolar (sensory neurons of PNS)
2) bipolar (sensory: retina, spiral ganglion of cochlea, vestibular ganglion, olfactory epithelium)
3) multipolar (most prevalent)

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20
Q

Classification of peripheral nerve fibers in regards to speed and myelination

A

Nerve fibers are classified according to their fiber diameter, speed of conduction, and functions. The largest nerve fibers are classified as Aα and the smallest ones as C.

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21
Q

Unipolar neurons are:
A Motor neurons
B Interneurons
C Sensory neurons

A

c

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22
Q

Dendrites of neurons receive signals from other neurons.
A True
B False

A

a

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23
Q

Neurons with one axon and numerous dendrites are classified as:
A Bipolar neuron
B Multipolar neuron
C Unipolar neuron

A

b

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24
Q

The axon hillock is a site that generates action potentials.
A True
B False

A

a

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25
Q

The neuroglia that is a part of the choroid plexus is:
A Astrocyte
B Ependymal cell
C Microglia
D Oligodendrocyte

A

b

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26
Q

The ventricles and central canal are lined with ependymal cells?
A True
B False

A

a

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27
Q

Which statement about astrocytes is not correct?
A Astrocytes form the glial limiting membrane.
B Astrocytes transport glucose from capillaries to neurons.
C Astrocytes form perivascular end feet.
D Astrocytes stop dividing shortly after birth.

A

d

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28
Q

Myelinated axons are:
A Smaller axons under 0.5 μm in diameter
B Larger axons over 1 μm in diameter

A

b

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29
Q

Leucine is transported by facilitated diffusion at the blood–brain barrier:
A True
B False

A

a

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30
Q

What structure represents the blood–brain barrier?
A Choroid plexus
B Microglia
C Endothelial cells
D Astrocytes

A

c

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31
Q

Nerve fibers classified as “Aα” are larger in diameter and faster in
conduction than those fibers classified as “C” fibers.
A True
B False

A

a

32
Q

A nerve fiber is made of:
A An axon only
B An axon and Schwann cells
C An axon and endoneurium
D An axon and epineurium

A

b

33
Q

Axons in the CNS are myelinated by:
A Astrocytes
B Schwann cells
C Oligodendrocytes

A

c

34
Q

Na+–K+ ATPase is located on the __________ membrane of endothelial
cells:
A Luminal
B Abluminal

A

b

35
Q

Glucose in the CNS is transported by:
A Simple diffusion
B GLUT 1
C Facilitated diffusion
D Na+‐dependent symport carrier

A

b

36
Q

The choroid plexus produces the CSF.
A True
B False

A

a

37
Q

Wallerian degeneration only occurs at the proximal portion of
injured axon:
A True
B False

A

B

38
Q

The blood–brain barrier is absent in the:
A White matter of the spinal cord
B Cerebellum
C Choroid plexus
D Area postrema
E Two of the above

A

E

39
Q

Neuronal reaction following peripheral axonal injury is characterized by:
A Centrally located nucleus
B Shrinkage of perikarya
C Normal distribution of Nissl substance
D Chromatolysis

A

D

40
Q

A correct statement about neurons at the resting state is:
A Na+–K+ ATPase pumps are not active
B The resting membrane potential is about +65 mV
C K+ ions leak out of a neuron via nongated K+ channels
D Voltage‐gated K+ channels are open
E The resting state represents the relative refractory period

A

C

41
Q

A local anesthetic, such as lidocaine, prevents generation of action
potential by inactivating:
A Release of neurotransmitter ACh
B Nongated Na+ channels
C Voltage‐gated Ca2+ channels
D Voltage‐gated Na+ channels

A

D

42
Q

The rising phase of an action potential is triggered by:
A Na+–K+ ATPase pumps
B Opening of voltage‐gated K+ channels
C Inactivation of voltage‐gated Na+ channels
D Activation of voltage‐gated Na+ channels

A

D

43
Q

Graded potentials occur at:
A Presynaptic sites
B Postsynaptic sites

A

B

44
Q

Action potentials follow the all‐or‐none principle.
A True
B False

A

A

45
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a graded potential?
A Adheres to the all‐or‐none principle of the stimulus applied at
synaptic sites
B Opens ligand‐gated channels
C Always depolarizes postsynaptic membrane
D Opens voltage‐gated Na+ channels

A

B

46
Q

The membrane of resting neurons is selectively more permeable to:
A Na+
B K+

A

B

47
Q

Myelinated axons in the CNS have:
A Potential to develop Schwannoma
B Voltage‐gated Na+ and K+ channels at the node of Ranvier
C Faster conduction speed due to large current leakage across the
myelin
D Endoneurium around them

A

b

48
Q

An EPSP is a local hyperpolarization of the membrane.
A True
B False

A

b

49
Q

For an IPSP to occur during synaptic transmission, an inhibitory
neurotransmitter must bind to the:
A Ligand‐gated receptors to trigger influx of Cl−
B Ligand‐gated receptors to trigger influx of Na+
C Voltage‐gated Na+ channels to trigger influx of Na+
D Voltage‐gated K+ channels to trigger influx of K+

A

a

50
Q

What is the result in the postsynaptic neuron when EPSPs increase
but IPSPs stay the same?
A The likelihood of an action potential increases
B The likelihood of an action potential decreases
C The likelihood of an action potential stays the same
D EPSPs and IPSPs do not affect the postsynaptic neuron

A

a

51
Q

During the rising phase of an action potential:
A Na+ moves into the cell
B Na+ moves out of the cell
C There is decreased permeability to K+ ions
D K+ moves into the cell

A

a

52
Q

Amplitude of an action potential is proportional to stimulus intensity
EPSPs:
A True
B False

A

b

53
Q

Hypokalemia induces __________ of the neuronal membrane and
makes neurons __________.
A Hyperpolarization, more excitable
B Hyperpolarization, less excitable
C Depolarization, more excitable
D Depolarization, less excitable

A

B

54
Q

During the absolute refractory period, which gate on the voltagegated
Na+ channel is closed?
A Activation
B Inactivation
C Both activation and inactivation

A

B

55
Q

Which neurotransmitter generates an EPSP that depolarizes the
postsynaptic membrane during synaptic transmission?
A Glycine
B ACh
C GABA
D All of the above

A

b

56
Q

The process of conducting an action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next node is referred to as saltatory conduction.
A True
B False

A

a

57
Q

An action potential is triggered by opening of _________ gate on
the voltage‐gated Na+ channels.
A The activation
B The inactivation
C Both the activation and inactivation

A

c

58
Q

When two action potentials from two separate presynaptic neurons
arrive at the same postsynaptic neurons simultaneously, summation
of postsynaptic graded potentials is called:
A Spacial summation
B Temporal summation

A

a

59
Q

What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular synapse:
A Norepinephrine
B ACh
C Glutamate

A

b

60
Q

AChE present at the postsynaptic membrane breaks up ACh in the
synaptic cleft to choline and acetate.
A True
B False

A

a

61
Q

The ion most directly responsible for neurotransmitter release is
calcium.
A True
B False

A

a

61
Q

Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter?
A Glycine
B ACh
C GABA

A

b

62
Q

Choline is actively transported back into the presynaptic terminal
for synthesis of new ACh.
A True
B False

A

a

62
Q

Which of the following is an ionotropic receptor?
A ACh
B Norepinephrine
C Epinephrine

A

a (only nicotinic, muscarinic is metabotropic)

63
Q

Enzymatic action is one of the means to clear a neurotransmitter at
a synapse.
A True
B False

A

a

64
Q

Which neurotransmitter generates a graded potential that depolarizes
the postsynaptic membrane during synaptic transmission?
A Glycine
B ACh
C GABA
D All of the above

A

b

65
Q

Adrenergic β receptors are coupled to G protein, which directly
stimulates the adenylyl cyclase.
A True
B False

A

a

66
Q

Which statement is true about the neuromuscular synapse?
A Presynaptic membrane has voltage‐gated Na+ channels.
B Axons of the motor end plate have their cell bodies in the dorsal
horn.
C Sarcolemma forms junctional folds.
D Presynaptic membrane has ligand‐gated ion channels.

A

c

67
Q

One of the binding sites of norepinephrine is:
A Muscarinic receptor subtype M1
B Muscarinic receptor subtype M2
C Nicotinic receptors
D β1 adrenergic receptor

A

d

68
Q

Which of the following is affected by myasthenia gravis?
A AChE in synaptic cleft
B AChRs
C Release of ACh
D Release of GABA

A

b

68
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons have ________ receptors
that bind to neurotransmitter _________.
A Nicotinic, norepinephrine
B Adrenergic β1, norepinephrine
C Muscarinic, ACh
D Adrenergic α1, ACh

A

c

68
Q

Which of the followings is affected in a dog with tic paralysis?
A Motor neurons in the ventral horn
B Postsynaptic AChRs
C Release of ACh at the neuromuscular synapse
D Release of glycine from the presynaptic sites

A

c

69
Q

Demyelination of axon is likely to result in:
A Increased conduction velocity of axons
B No apparent change in conduction speed as voltage‐gated Na+
and K+ channels remain available in the demyelinated area
C Significant loss of conduction of action potential
D Increased conduction velocity due to a loss of resistance imposed
by myelin sheath

A

c

70
Q

Glycine released from presynaptic sites generates:
A Action potentials by activating ligand‐gated ion channels
B EPSP by triggering influx Na+
C IPSP by triggering influx of Cl−

A

c

71
Q

When an excitatory synapse and an inhibitory synapse are stimulated
simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron is likely to generate:
A Action potential at the vicinity of an excitatory synapse
B EPSP only
C No obvious overall changes in membrane potential
D Action potential at the axon hillock

A

c

ECVN exam study (9 decks)

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