Large animal diseases Flashcards

1
Q

DDs for progressive cervical SC disease (C1-5 SCS) in the horse

A

1) cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (CVSM) - leading cause of noninfectious ataxia in horses
2) EDM/neuroaxonal dystrophy (NAD)
3) Equine protozoal myelitis
4) discopsondylitis
*neoplasia and IVDD rare in horse

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2
Q

Name a congenital form of vertebral stenosis and which breed of horse is most affected?

A

Congenital occiopitoatlantoaxial malformation of Arabian breed (autosomal recessive)

An important diagnostic feature is the abnormal neck posture. The head and neck are more extended than normal and have a stiff appearance.

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3
Q

Which factors predispose for vertebral stenosis in young athlete horses?

A

This disorder is multifactorial, which has all the features prominent in the racehorse industry: (1) selecting for the genes that foster rapid growth, (2) providing feed that is high in calcium and energy to encourage this rapid growth, and (3) placing these animals as soon as possible into a vigorous training program to make them winners as 2-year-old horses.

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4
Q

Most common location of vertebral stenosis in young horses?

A

middle cervical vertebra from C3 to C6 and is caused by failure of the bone that surrounds the vertebral foramen to resorb sufficiently to enlarge the foramen enough to accommodate the growing spinal cord

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5
Q

Radiographic features that suggest a vertebral stenosis?

A
  1. A slight subluxation between vertebrae with increased flexion or dorsal angulation between adjacent vertebrae that is best seen between the bodies on either side of the intervertebral disc
  2. A prominent caudal epiphysis that projects dorsally into the vertebral foramen
  3. A caudal extension of the vertebral arch over the articulation
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6
Q

How is the minimal sagittal diameter for equine vertebral stenosis determined and what are normal values?

A

The minimal sagittal diameter for the vertebral foramen of a vertebra is made by measuring the height of the vertebral foramen at its most narrow point. The minimal sagittal diameter ratio is determined by dividing this measurement of the minimal sagittal diameter of the foramen by the maximal sagittal diameter of the vertebral body, which is at the cranial aspect of the vertebral body. These measurements must be made perpendicular to the ventral surface of the vertebral foramen. A study in 1994 considered a ratio below 0.52 for C4 and C5 and below 0.56 for C6 and C7 to be abnormal.65 Greater ratio values are considered normal. Unfortunately, the value of these measurements is si

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7
Q

Which measures can help to decrease the incidence of cervical vertebral stenosis of young horses?

A

This disorder may be prevented by slowing the rate of growth of foals by altering their diet and structuring a less vigorous training program while these horses are young, It may be hard to imagine a racehorse trainer recommending a restricted diet and less vigorous training program. Nonetheless, it will reduce the incidence of this disorder. A study was done on large breeding farms in Kentucky in which the foals were radiographed starting at 3 months of age. Radiographic changes were graded, and horses that were considered to be at risk for developing this cervical vertebral disorder were placed on a restricted diet and a restricted exercise program. These management changes resulted in a significant decrease in the incidence of this disorder on these farms.

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8
Q

Primary lesion (pathogenesis) with EDM (equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy)

A

diffuse axonopathy throughout the white matter of the spinal cord that predominates in the superficial tracts of the dorsolateral and the ventral funiculi, but all portions are affected with the least lesions in the dorsal funiculi.
This axonopathy is accompanied by a secondary demyelination and astrogliosis.
In addition, loss of neuronal cell bodies and spheroid development (neuroaxonal dystrophy [NAD]) is extensive in the medullary lateral cuneate nuclei, with variable spheroid development in the medullary medial cuneate and gracilic nuclei, the nucleus of the dorsal38 spinocerebellar tract (nucleus thoracicus) in the spinal cord dorsal gray column, and olivary nuclei, reticular formation, and vestibular nuclei in the brainstem.
In addition, an accumulation of lipopigment occurs in the endothelial cells of capillaries in the spinal cord and the pigment epithelium and outer layers of the retina, similar to older horses with motor neuron disease.

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9
Q

Proposed etiology of EDM?

A

Vitamin E defficiency (dubious)

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10
Q

What kind of disease will vitamin E deficiency cause in young compared to older horses?

A

Young horses: EDM (equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy)
Older horses: EMND (equine motor neuron disease)

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11
Q

Histological difference between EDM (equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy) and eNAD (equine neuroaxonal dystrophy)

A

Similar onset (6-12 MO), numerous breeds affected, simmilar clinical signs (paraparesis and ataxia of pelvic limbs progressing to tetraparesis and ataxia of all limbs), also vitamin E defficiency as etiology

In horses with NAD there si only neuroaxonal dystrophy and it is associated with specific populations of neurons, and no microscopic lesions of axons are present in the white matter of the spinal cord or brainstem. The affected neuronal populations consistently include the medial and lateral cuneate and gracilic nuclei.

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12
Q

Which vertebral bodies have the highest risc of developing discospondylitis in the horse?

A

caudal cervical vertebrae

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13
Q

Which animal is the primary host in the life cycle of S. neurona? What about intermediate and abberant hosts?

A

opossum (which is why there is no disease in european horses, except if they travel)

Intermediate - accoon, striped skunk, and nine-banded armadillo

Aberrant - horse

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14
Q

Life cycle of S. neurona?

A

merozoites encysted in muscle of intermediate host > ingested by the opossum, > invades the intestinal epithelium > Sexual reproduction > oocysts enter the intestinal lumen and sporulate to form sporocysts > sporocyst forms 4 sporozoites, > pass through feces into the external environment, > ngested by intermediate host > sporozoite invades intestinal epithelium and associated arterial endothelial cells the intermediate host > asexual reproduction by schizogony > production of merozoites > released into the bloodstream > migrate to the muscles > encyst > the intermediate host dies and the muscles are eaten by the opossum, the cycle is completed.

The horse becomes infected when it eats feed that has been contaminated by the feces of the opossum that contain infective sporozoites. These sporozoites are presumed to invade the intestinal epithelium. Where asexual reproduction occurs and how the organism reaches the CNS is unknown. Schizogony is seen in the CNS, but whether it also occurs in intestinal or other extraneural vascular endothelium is unknown. Merozoites have occasionally been found in CNS endothelial cells. Cysts have not been reported in the muscles of the horse, but these have not been adequately studied for this possibility. The assumption is that the CNS infection is usually hematogenous, with merozoites circulating free in the bloodstream or in infected lymphocytes.

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15
Q

Which factors contribute to some horses infected w/ S. neurona developing clinical disease?

A

The few horses that develop lesions are believed to have been subject to some form of stress, such as transportation, training, showing, pregnancy, or some other change in their environment that might lead to stress-related immunosuppression.

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16
Q

Signalment, onset and progression of EPM

A

Any age and breed of horse, but most commonly young adults 1-5 YO

Can be acute, subacude, chronic, quickly od slowlu progressive.

Usually assymmetric

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17
Q

Most common sites lesions in horses w/ S. neurona?

A

SC > caudal brainstem > prosencephalon

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18
Q

CSF findings in horses with EPM

A

CSF is often normal despite the presence of inflammation in the leptomeninges. Occasionally, mild elevations are noted in protein and lymphocytes and macrophages.

A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test on CSF for the DNA of this organism will be positive only in the small percentage of horses in which the organism is present in the subarachnoid space. Therefore the PCR test is impractical.

Western blot immunoassay for antibodies in CSF is usually positive for horses with this disease, but false-positive results are common because obtaining a CSF sample from the lumbosacral subarachnoid space without some blood contamination is difficult. This test will be positive for the serum antibodies in CSF if the blood contamination is so small that CSF only contains eight red blood cells (RBCs) per cubic millimeter. This factor makes the interpretation of any antibodies in CSF using this procedure unreliable. Cisternal CSF is less likely to have blood contamination but general anesthesia is required to obtain CSF. More recently, an indirect fluorescent antibody test, which is quantitative for whole merozoites and very resistant to blood contamination, has been developed. CSF antibodies are produced intrathecally. Using the indirect fluorescent antibody test, a ratio of serum to CSF antibody titers can be obtained. The normal ratio is 100 to 1.

Many horses are infected and have serum antibodies, but only a very few have the disease and produce intrathecal antibodies!!!

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19
Q

Therapy of EPM?

A

folate inhibitor drugs PO

The most common of these has been a combination of sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine.

Other considerations include ponazuril, diclazuril, toltrazuril, or nitazoxanide.

Intravenous dimethyl sulfoxide is often used to reduce the vasogenic edema in acutely affected horses.

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20
Q

Outcomes in EPM?

A

Success of treatment depends on the severity and location of the lesions. Published results suggest that approximately 60% of horses with moderate to severe clinical signs will improve after treatment with any of the approved medications, and 10% to 20% will make a complete recovery.

Long-term therapy for 3 to 6 months may be necessary to prevent relapses.

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21
Q

Name 2 DDs for an acute, non-progressive cervical myelopathy in the horse

A

1) FCEM - usually asymmetric
2) herpesvirus-1 myelopathy (rarely progress more than 2-3 days) - usually symmetric

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22
Q

Pathologic mechanism of herpersvirus-1 in horses

A

Vasculitis of CNS (mostly spinal cord, rarely brainstem or prosencephalon, causes ischemic or haemmorhagic infarcts and thrombosis mostly of leptomeninges) and reproductive tract.
Sometimes also rhinopneumonitis.

(herpersvirus-4 more common cause of rinopneumonitis of foals)

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23
Q

Diagnosis of herpesvirus-1 myelitis?

A

PCR of buffy coat or nasal secretions.

CSF usually only citoalbuminergic dissociation.

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24
Q

Typical clinical picture of herpesvirus-1 myelitis in the horse?

A

T3 to L3 spinal cord segments plus urinary incontinence and mild tail and anal hypotonia is very characteristic of a mild to moderate infection with the equine herpesvirus-1 virus.

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25
Q

Cause of scoliosis in horses and camelidae?

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis (meningeal worm) migration thru cervical spinal cord

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26
Q

DDs for SC disease of young goats?

A

1) CAE (Caprine arteritis encephalitis) virus myelitis
2) Parelaphostrongylus tenuis myelitis
3) discospondylitis
4) vertebral malformation
5) copper deficiency (enzootic ataxia)
6) organophosphate intox

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27
Q

DDs for chronic-progressive SC diseases of cows

A

1) discospondylitis/empyema (younger cows)
2) lymphoma (adult/older cows)
3) hepatic encephalomyelopathy (PSS)
4) rabies myelitis

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28
Q

Lymphoma in cattle, 2 forms

A

1) enzootic form: BLV virus associated, usually older than 4 years
2) sporadic form: less common, usually cattle younger than 3 years

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29
Q

2 specific microscopic changes of CNS in animals with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

1) Alzheimer astrocytes: change in the nuclei of the astrocytes that reflects their reaction to the increased levels of circulating ammonia and other metabolites not cleared by the liver

2) fluid accumulation within the myelin lamellae, causing a dilation of the myelin sheaths that is sometimes called polymicrocavitation (alls species except for the horse)

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30
Q

Copper deficiency: relevant species and clinical picture?

A

Young pigs, sheep and goats
(ca. 3-6 MO)

rapidly progressive paraparesis and pelvic limb ataxia that can progress to paraplegia.

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31
Q

Which structures are particularly affected in equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?

A
  • dorsal spinocerebellar tract
  • nuclei gracillis and cuneatus

Histologically, all animals had a diffuse degenerative myeloence
phalopathy, with degeneration of the neuronal processes of the white matter of all
spinal cord funiculi, especially in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. Dystrophic axons were found at most spinal cord levels and were most severe in the nucleus of the dorsal
spinocerebellar tract, especially in the thoracic segments (T10 to T15). Axonal dystrophy
was also noted in the caudal medulla within the nucleus gracilis, medial cuneate nucleus and lateral (accessory) cuneate nucleus (LACN) and was most severe in the latter.

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32
Q

What is the difference between Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM) and Equine Neuroaxonal Dystrophy (eNAD)

A

the current consensus is that the conditions have such striking clinical
and pathologic similarities that eNAD could be considered a localized form of EDM or
EDM a more diffuse form of eNAD.

The disease is classified
as eNAD if the histopathologic lesions were confined to the brainstem, specifically
within the lateral cuneate nucleus, medial cuneate, and gracilis nuclei whereas a diagnosis of EDM was assigned when axonal necrosis and demyelination extended into the dorsal and ventral spinocerebellar tracts and ventromedial funiculi of the cervicothoracic SC.

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33
Q

Typical signalment and presentation of a horse with eNAD/EDM

A

a young (<2 year-old) horse with symmetric
proprioceptive ataxia, abnormal basewide stance at rest and proprioceptive deficits in all limbs but some horses, particularly Warmbloods, are affected later in life and show behavior changes in addition to progressive ataxia.

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34
Q

What less common clinical signs (besides ataxia) can be exibited by horses with eNAD/EDM

A
  • bilateral menace response with no apparent loss of vision
  • hyporeflexia of the cervical, cervicofacial, laryngeal adductor (slap), and cuta
    neoustrunci reflexes is described,
  • changes in behaviour (spookines, bad behaviour under the saddle), and obtunded mentation
  • pigment retinopathy
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35
Q

Role of vitamin E in eNAD/EDM?

A

Unclear.

Although vitamin E deficiency has been reported in some cases of eNAD/EDM, low vitamin E levels are not present consistently in all cases. Serum vitamin E concentrations
were not significantly different between EDM-affected horses and control horses in many studies.
Both a genetic susceptibility and a temporal alpha tocopherol deficiency are required for the phenotype to develop in QHs.

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36
Q

Most common equine SC disease to cause tetra-ataxia

A

1) compression due to cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (CVSM),
2) inflammation due to infectious disease such as EPM, 3) neurodegenerative disease
(eNAD/EDM).

  • Certain clinical signs heighten the degree of suspicion for these diseases; for example, a horse with neck pain is more likely to have CVSM, and a horse with asymmetrical ataxia or concurrent focal muscle atrophy is more likely to have EPM, unpredictable or aberrant
    behavior is more commonly observed in horses with eNAD/EDM than those with
    CVSM or EPM.
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37
Q

Role of phosphorylated neurofilament
heavy chain (pNfH) protein in the diagnosis of eNAD/EDM?

A

Serum pNfH > 1 ng/mL were significantly associated with eNAD/EDM, with only 12% sensitivity but 99% specificity.

CSF pNfH concentrations >3 ng/mL were
observed with either eNAD/EDM or CVCM.

A value of less than 1 ng/
mL (serum) and/or less than 3 ng/mL (CSF) did not exclude a diagnosis of eNAD/
EDM.

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38
Q

Therapy of eNAD/EDM?

A

Currently no effective therapies exist.

In families of horses in which eNAD/EDM has been diagnosed, supplementation of
pregnant broodmares and foals with alpha-tocopherol at 10 IU/kg PO once daily during
the last trimester (mares) and first 2 years of life (foals) is advisable.

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39
Q

Classification of CVSM?

A

Rooney types I-III
I - the vertebral column is fixed in flexed position at the site of malarticulation/malformation, which generally occurs at C2–C3, but has been observed at other sites (less common, present at birth)
II - symmetric overgrowth of both articular processes causing compression during flexion, most often in foals and weanlings and are generally found in the mid-cervical region
III - asymmetrical overgrowth of one articular process leading to compression of the SC either directly by bony proliferation or indirectly by associated soft tissue hypertrophy, most often seen in mature horses but can begin as early as 1 to 3 years of age. This lesion most often affects C5– C6 and C6–C.

Division based on broad categories of horses:
one is affecting young horses (suckling to 2 years) (Type I, which correlates with Rooney’s Type II) mostly Thoroughbreds and one is
affecting older horses of all breeds (Type II, which correlates with Rooney’s Type III).

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40
Q

DDs for GP tetra-ataxia and/or tetraparesis in a (young) horse?

A

1) CVSM,
2) equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM),
3) trauma,
4) equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy
(EDM/eNAD),
5) equine herpesvirus 1 myeloencephalopathy.

Less common:
- rabies,
- viral encephalitides (Eastern, Western, Venezuelan, and West Nile),
- brain abscesses,
- vertebral neoplasia,
- hepatoencephalopathy
- vertebral fracture,
- discospondylitis,
- intervertebral disk protrusion,
- arachnoid diverticulum
- parasite migration,
- spinal hematomas

Congenital anomalies and malformations of the vertebral column which could cause compression of the cervical spinal cord are reported infrequently:
- occipitoatlantoaxial malformation,
- butterfly vertebrae, hemivertebrae, block vertebrae,
- atlantoaxial subluxation/ atlantoaxial instability

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41
Q

Five common radiographic findings in horses with CVSM?

A

1) “flare” of the caudal vertebral epiphysis of the vertebral body,
2) abnormal ossification of the articular processes
3) degenerative joint disease of the articular
processes,
4) malalignment between adjacent vertebrae,
5) extension of the dorsal laminae, and

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42
Q

Two causative agents of EPM?

A

Sarcocystis neurona
Nespora hughesi

*both protozoa from the phylum Apicomplexa,
the opossum is the definitive host, intermediate hosts are the skunk, raccoons, armadilos and cats. Horses are the inccidental (dead-end) host

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43
Q

How do horses get infected with the causative agents of EPM?

A

when they ingest food or water contaminated
with feces from an infected opossum (the definitive host where the sexual replication occurs in the GIT)

they cannot get infected from the intermediate hosts (sporozoite containing sporocysts), nir horizontally (and rarely vertically) between horses

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44
Q

Clinical signs that help differentiate EPM from other common neuro diseases?

A
  • EPM - usually asymmetric with areas of focal muscle atrophy
  • EMND (equine motor neuron disease) - may be confused because also focal severe muscle atrophy and limb weakness with fasciculations
  • CVSM is usually symmetric, pelvic limbs more affected and no focal areas of muscle atrophy
  • EHV-1 myeloencephalopathy (EHM) - usually a history of respiratory disease or abortion outbreak before neuro signs (usually acute, symmetric, pelvic limbs worse, blader distension, perineal/tail hypalgesia, tail/penile paralysis, fecal retention)
  • EPM can mimic basically any neuro disease in the horse
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45
Q

Diagnosis of EPM

A

Immunological:
- positive serum/CSF antibodies are not enough (passive transfer of Ab thru BBB)
- Goldmann–Witmer coefficient (C-value) and the antigen-specific antibody index (AI) are tests of proportionality that assess whether there is a greater amount of pathogen-specific antibody in the CSF than would be present due to normal passive transfer across the BBB.
- IFAT can be used for detection of intrathecal production (UC Davies)

CSF PCR:
may complement the immunological methods, usually negative if therapy started before CSF tap

Postmortem:
organisms rarely visible (10-30% in H&E stains, 50% with IHC), typical patho findings: cuffing of blood vessels by mononuclear cells, necrosis of parenchyma with phagocytosis and gitter cell formation, astrocyte proliferation, and gemistocytes formation. Eosinophils are seen commonly, as are multinucleated cells, which may be giant in size.

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46
Q

Therapy of EPM?

A

1) Folate inhibitors: sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine (SDZ/PYR), PYR, 1 mg/kg, and SDZ, 20 mg/kg, SID PO at least 6 months has been considered the “standard” treatment.

2) Triazines: diclazuril and ponazuril (toltrazuril sulfone)

3) supportive tx: anti-inflammatory (eg. flunixine meglumine, corticosteroids, dimethyl sulfoxide), antioxidants (vitamin E), immunomodulators (levamisole)

*currently no effective vaccines

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47
Q
A
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48
Q

Easy, field diagnostic test for botulism in horses?

A

offer the affected equid 250 mL of concentrate; affected horses will generally take longer than
2 minutes to consume this amount, whereas normal counterparts could consume this
with ease, often in less than 1 minute

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49
Q

DDx for botulism in horses?

A
  • white muscle disease
  • HYPP (hyperkalemic periodic paralysis)
  • hypocalcemia
  • white snakeroot toxicity
  • lead toxicity
  • ionophore toxicity
  • organophosphate toxicity
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50
Q

DDs for equine neonatal neurological disease?

A

1) neonatal encephalopathy (non-infectious causes):
- maladaption
- perinatal asphyxia
- metabolic abnormalities (sepsis, kernicterus, electrolytes, uremic encephalopathy)
2) bacterial meningoencephalitis
3) traumatic injury
4) developmental/congenital abnormalities (rare)

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51
Q

Negative prognostic factors for foals with neonatal encephalopathy (NE)?

A
  • perinatal asphixia as cause of NE
  • seizures
  • SIRS, joint infections, or respiratory disease (aspiration pneumonia, meconium aspiration, and so forth)
  • cerebral necrosis (high CSF protein, intracranial bleeding, increased ICP)

VCNA

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52
Q

Causes of hepatic encephalopathy in large animals?

A

1) Horses: acute hepatic necrosis (Theilers disease - post equine serum - Equine parvovirus-hepatitis)

2) Domestic large animals: pyrrolizidine alkaloid-containing plants, notably Senecio spp. and Crotalaria spp., occurs in any grazing animal

3) aflatoxicosis (horses, pigs)

4) iron overload (horses) - iron in groundwater, transfusion in neonatal foals

5) Tyzzer disease (Clostridium piliforme) - necrotic bacterial hepatitis in young ruminants

6) PSS (rare, described in all domestic species)

7) hepatic lipidosis (rarely causes HE)

*If one sign was put forward as the most common and typical early sign of hepatic encephalopathy in adult horses, it would be repetitive yawn

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53
Q

Clinical signs of hepatic encephalopathy in horsea?

A
  • very often repeated yawning,
  • leaving unchewed food in the mouth,
  • head pressing,
  • playing with water (sham-drinking),
  • inspiratory stridor due to laryngeal paralysis (bilateral laryngeal paralysis)
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54
Q

Classification of equine arboviruses

A

1) Togaviridae family:
Eastern equine encephalitis virus [EEEV], Madariaga virus [MV], Western equine encephalitis virus [WEEV], and Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus [VEEV])
- only in Americas

2) Flaviviridae: West Nile Virus (WNV)
- Worldwide

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55
Q

Seroprevalence of the West Nile Virus (WNV) in Europa (and USA)?

A

<10%

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56
Q

What percentage of horses develops neurologic disease after infection with the WNV?

A

ca. 10% (in people < 1%)

After bitten by infected vectors (Culex and Aedes moscitos), horses clear the virus or develop short-lasting low viremias, may not show systemic signs, and only 10% develop neurologic disease.
Mosquitoes that feed on infected horses remain negative for WNV and do not transmit the virus to other horses.

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57
Q

Which clinical features of encephalomyelitis are consisten findings in WNV infection as compared to other viruses?

A

muscle fasciculations, tremors, and
behavioural changes (rapid transitions between hiperexcitable and quiet states).

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58
Q

Mortality rate in WNV neurologic disease, and what are negative prognostic factors?

A

25-40%

recumbancy

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59
Q

DDx for WNV encephalomyelitis

A
  • Borna disease
  • EHM: seasonal and can cause systemic signs
  • rabies: not seasonal
    most important ddx in europe
  • botulism
  • EPM (USA)
  • alphavirus encephalitis (EEE, WEE, VEE) - only in Americas
  • CVSM
  • EDM/eNAD
  • hepatic encephalopathy
  • parasite migration
  • leukoencephalomnalacia
  • intox
  • polineuritis
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60
Q

Tests to diagnose WNV neuro disease

A

1) ELISA IgG: sensitive but not specific
2) plaque reduction neutralization
test (PRNT) - to confirm
3) MAC ELISA IgM: preffered in horses, can detect IgM 7 days post-infection, IgM do not rise with vaccination
4) RT-PCR from blood, CSF, nervous tissue

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61
Q

Pathohystological difference of distribution of lesions in WNV neuro disease compared to alphaviruses (WEE, EEE, VEE)?

A

In contrast to alphaviruses where lesions are more severe in the cerebral cortex, limbic system, and thalamus, with WNV most lesions are in the brainstem, medulla oblongata, and spinal cord

62
Q

Pathogenesis of rabies?

A

Viral introduction (bite, scratch, saliva) > incubation for weeks/months > replication in sceletal muscle at site of inoculation > synaptic cleft of NMJ > retrograde axonal transport > centripetally travels to SC/brain 12-100 mm/day > simultaneous centrifugal anterograde travel via parasympathetic system to salivary glands and mucosal surfaces innervated by the cranial nerves, cornea, adrenals, hair folicles > neuronal failure with minimal structural change (avoids the immune-system) > neuronal death > abnormal levels of neurotransmitters and disruption of ion channels

63
Q

Clinical signs of rabies in horses?

A

“rabies can look like anything”

clinical signs in horses are
variable, including lethargy, poor performance, behavioral changes, lameness, colic,
urinary incontinence, paralysis, and ataxia. Invariably, once initial signs are evident,
the condition progresses rapidly.

At terminal stages, horses become recumbent but some may have aggressive behavior.

*Most horses die or are euthanized within
1 week of initial clinical signs.
* some horses can have subtle signs for weeks

64
Q

Three clinical presentation of rabies in horses?

A

1) paralytic (spinal cord),
2) dumb (brainstem),
3) furious (cerebral cortex) (less common in horses)

65
Q

Diagnosis of rabies in horses?

A

No antemortem diagnostics

Postmortal histology: gold standard diagnostic method in most countries is the direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

In people, antemortem RT PCR from skin or saliva

66
Q

Which virus causes Borna disease (BD)?

A

bornavirus 1 (BoV-1) spherical RNA virus

BD occurs in equids, sheep, goats, dogs, cats, and occasionally in other species (mainly horses and sheep in central Europe)

67
Q

Entry route for Borna virus?

A

enters the CNS via
retrograde flow from nerve terminals from the olfactory and trigeminal nerves in the
nasal and pharyngeal epithelium.
In infected animals, the virus can be found in nasal and lacrimal secretions making it an important route of dissemination.
Once in the CNS, BoV-1 replicates in neurons and glial cells (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes) in the brainstem to subsequently disseminate to other areas of the central and peripheral nervous systems

68
Q

Clinical signs in horses with BD?

A

“hot-headed disease (Hitzige Kopfkrankheit)”

fever, lethargy, and anorexia.
Subsequently, it progresses to changes in behavior and perception, somnolence, stupor, hyporeflexia, hypoesthesia, hypersensitivity, muscle fasciculations, ataxia, conscious and unconscious proprioceptive deficits, dysmetria,
vestibular signs, circling, extrapyramidal signs, slow masticatory movements, chewing
movements without food, may pause eating with hay in the mouth, tooth grinding,
yawning, compulsive and encephalopathic movements, head pressing, hyperexcitability,
aggression, recumbency, often leading to death.

** Nearly all affected horses show abnormal behavior and half develop disturbances of chewing and swallowing.
Some animals may develop hyperthermia that is refractory to antipyretics. Cranial nerve defficits are common.

69
Q

Risk factors for development of EHM with EHV-1 infection?

A
  • Age >3 y, further increase in risk in mares over
    20 y of age (66%)
  • Infection with D752 genotype
  • Season: Late autumn, winter, spring
  • Breed, sex
  • Geographic region
  • Vaccination against EHV-1 5 wk before event
  • Crowding & mingling
  • Past exposure
  • Secondary fever several days following primary exposure
  • Magnitude and duration of viremia
  • Stress associated with weaning, transport,
    introduction of new horses, secondary
    infection, immune suppression
  • Pregnancy or foal at foot
  • Keep in stable
  • Presence of EHV-1 and/or a shedding horse
    together with susceptible horses
70
Q

Three clinical entities in EHV-1 infection?

A

Abortion - late term
Respiratory
Neurologic - EHM

*can also cause neonatal foal death and chorioretinopathy

71
Q

Most common neuro-presentation of EHM?

A

Commonly, the caudal spinal
cord is affected more severely, resulting in weakness of hind limbs, bladder dysfunction,
and sensory deficits in the perineal area.

Severe cases of EHM can show
paraparesis, paraparalysis, progressing to tetraplegia.

Less frequently, horses with EHM can develop
cortical, brainstem, or vestibular disease characterized by lethargy, recumbency,
head tilt, ataxia, and cranial nerve deficits.

72
Q

Antemortem diagnostics of EHM?

A

(i) ruling out other neurologic conditions,
(ii) demonstrating xanthochromia and an elevated cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein concentration,
(iii) identifying or isolating EHV-1 from the respiratory tract, buffy-coat, or CSF (PCR)
(iv) demonstrating a fourfold increase in antibodies using serum neutralizing, complement fixation, or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays performed on acute and convalescent serum from affected or in-contact horses 7 to 21 days apart (**many horses with EHM do not show this increase)

73
Q

Which percentage of EHV-1 has the neuropathogenic marker ORF 30?

A

76-86%

A recently identified variable region in the EHV-1 genome correlates with neurologic disease.
This sequence variation occurs in the DNA polymerase gene (ORF 30) involved in initial viral replication within cells. PCR assays based on ORF 30 have recently been developed and used to differentiate between EHV-1 isolates from neurologically and nonneurologically affected horses.
Although the basis for EHV-1 testing for
most diagnostic molecular laboratories relies on the genotype discrimination between
N752 and D752, reports on EHV-1 variants that are not detected via qPCR assays targeting
the ORF 30 assays have been reported
It is therefore advised to use a diagnostic
laboratory that offers both testing for a universal gene (glycoprotein B gene)
and a virulence gene (ORF 30).

74
Q

Which drugs are used to manage horses with EHM?

A

1) antivirals (valacyclovir and ganciclovir)
2) NSAIL
3) corticosteroids
4) heparin
5) aspirin
6) lidocain CRI (lowering endothelial
cell infection and lysis)
7) vitamin E
8) DMSO (anti-inflammatory)

75
Q

Which skull bones fracture most often in horses and what kind of movement usually causes this injury?

A

Rearing or falling backwards (most often horses < 1 YO).

Basilar (basisphenoid and basioccipital) and temporal bone fractures are most common with rearing and generally in TBI.

76
Q

Injury of which part of the vertebral column and SC is seen most commonly in horses generally and which in racing horses?

A

Cervical generally.

Lumbar in racing horses.

77
Q

Which SC segments does the phrenic nerve in horses arise from?

A

C4-7

78
Q

Which signalment parameter is a poor prognostic factor for shivers?

A

Early age of onset

79
Q

DDs for shivers and stringhalt/?

A
  • bilateral hindlimb hoof pain,
  • upward fixation of the patella,
  • fibrotic myopathy
  • neuropathies (EPM, vitamin E def., idiopathic polineuropathy, Scandinavian knuckling disease)

Painful hindlimb hoof conditions can produce a gait that strongly resembles stringhalt, particularly when walked on hard surfaces. An abaxial nerve block helps to distinguish
the 2 conditions.

Upward fixation of the patella can be distinguished from shivers and
stringhalt by observing that the limb is hyperextended when the patella becomes up
wardly fixated and then the horse may jerk and hyperflex the stifle to release the patella.
This period of hyperextension before hyperflexion is not observed with shivers or
stringhalt.

Fibrotic myopathy restricts forward movement and causes protraction of the hoof before placement on the ground at the walk. Stringhalt or shivers-forward hyperflexion have a much more pronounced degree of hyperflexion than observed with fibrotic myopathy.

80
Q

Specific movement disorders in horses?

A

1) standing hyperflexion (pain, early onset of shivers, hyperactive reflex arc without the ability to relax the limb consciously) - normal forward and backward gaits
2) shivers (hyperflexion vs. hyperextension vs. forward hyperflexion)
3) stringhalt (pasture-associated vs idiopathic)

81
Q

Typical signalment for shivers?

A

Male, tall warmblood, thoroughbred and draft horses. Usually evident by 7 years of age.

82
Q

Which percentage of horses with shivers shows facial twitching while walking backwards?

A

17%

83
Q

Neuro signs of different forms of shivers and stringhalt when walking forward or backward?

A

1) shivers-hyperextension - walk forward
normally but show exagerated extension of all four limbs when asked to walk backward.
2) shivers-hyperflexion have hyperflexion when walking backward and a normal
limb trajectory when walking forward.
3) shivers-forward hyperflexion have
consistent hyperflexion and abduction walking backward and intermittent hyperflexion
and abduction when walking forward.

1) Horses with pasture-associated stringhalt have hyperflexion consistently when walking backward and forward.
2) Traumatic and idiopathic forms of stringhalt may not show hindlimb hyperflexion when walking backward.

84
Q

Pathological findings in horses with shivers?

A

selective distal axonal degeneration in cerebellar Purkinje cells

85
Q

Difference between shivers and stringhalt?

A

Stringhalt differs from shivers in that it produces consistent abnormal limb movement
during forward gaits.
Stringhalt is characterized by consistent excessive and prolonged flexion of one or both hindlimbs during walking and trotting.
Shiver usually apeers during backward movements (and only sometimes inconsistently with forward movement)

86
Q

Causes and treatment of unipedal stringhalt?

A
  • idiopathic
  • trauma
  • neuropaties related to vitamin E deficiency

Treatment: lateral digital extensor myotenotomy

87
Q

Which plant is known to cause pasture associated stringhalt?

A

Hypochaeris radicata
(commonly referred to as catsear, flatweed, and false dandelion).

horses that are grazing drought-affected, poor-quality pastures.

*A neurotoxin, potentially scyllo-inositol, is believed to be produced by H radicata un
dercertain environmentally stressful conditions

88
Q

Which percentage of horses with pasture associated stringhalt develop laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

20%

89
Q

Pathologic findings in horses with pasture associated stringhalt?

A

Wallerian-type distal axonopathy of the tibial, deep, and superficial peroneal as well as recurrent laryngeal nerves accompanied by myofiber atrophy in the muscles supplied by affected nerves.

90
Q

Treatment and prognosis of pasture associated stringhalt?

A
  • Waiting
  • Phenytoin 15 mg/kg SID-BID (anti seizure mediation)
  • vitamin C, E, thiamine, taurine, Mg, triptophan
  • lateral digital extensor myotenotomy?

Most horses recover over a period of 6 to 18 months with milder cases recovering more quickly. Recovery can take more than 2 years for complete resolution in severe cases, and rarely, horses never recover completely

91
Q

Which neural autoantibodies are increased in horses with “stiff horse syndrome”?

A

Anti GAD (glutamic
acid decarboxylase) antibodies

  • it produces the active form of GABA in the central nervous system, have been identifiedinthe cerebrospinal fluid of confirmedcases
92
Q

Which breeds have a reported cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Arabian, Gotland pony, and Oldenburg horse breeds

This condition affects foals aged less than 1 year and occurs most frequently in 1- to 6-month-old foals with 2 equine cases reported in adults

*** The cerebellar
abiotrophy that occurs in Oldenburg horses is progressive and fatal with atypical
histologic lesions compared with the syndrome that occurs in Arabian foals.

93
Q

Which horse breed can we genetically test for cerebellar abiottrophy?

A

Arabian foals

94
Q

Most common causes of encephalopathy in calves?

A

1) PEM (polioencephalomalacia)/cerebrocortical necrosis
2) bacterial meningitis (usually in calves less than 2–3 weeks of age),
3) hypernatremia (salt poisoning).

95
Q

What causes PEM in calves?

A

thiamine deficiency,
high-sulfur diet,
low-roughage diet, high doses of amprolium, cobalt-deficient diet,
and molasses-urea diet, as well as ingestion of various toxic plants

96
Q

What can cause thiamin deficiency in calves?

A

1) bacterial thiaminase
2) toxic plants (fern)

97
Q

Clinical signs of PEM in calves?

A
  • Changes in behaviour (stargazing, head pressing)
  • depresed mentation up to coma
  • cortical blindnes!
  • dorsomedial strabism (CN IV)!
  • head tremors
  • bruxsism
    coma, seizures, opisthotonus in the end

rapid progression

98
Q

Diagnosis of PEM in calves?

A

1) serum thiamine levels (not reliable, < 50 nmol/L consistent with def., not always low)
2) necropsy/histopath: Bilateral and symmetric yellowish discoloration of the gray matter
will be observed grossly, histologically diffuse laminar necrosis of th cerebral cortex, neuronal necrosis, gliosis, neuronophagia, Wood lamp fluorescence of formalin fixed sections (ceroid lipofuscin)
3) MRI: T2W hyperintensisies of the cerebral cortex

99
Q

Therapy of PEM in calves?

A

1) Thiamin 10-20 mg/kg IV, Im or SC
2) Dexamethasone (0.1–0.2 mg/kg, IV or IM), mannitol 20% (1 g/kg, IV) and dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) have been used to reduce cerebral edema
3) DZP, PHB for seizures

100
Q

Signalment and most common bacterial isolates from meningitis in calves?

A

Escherichia coli are generally the most common pathogens associated with meningitis
in calves; however, other bacteria such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, Klebsiella, and
different Staphylococcus

*usually calves less then 30 days, especially if in dirty environment with overcrowding, poor umbilicus hygiene, poor colostrum plans…

101
Q

Signalment and causes of hyoernatremia in calves.

A

Typically less then 3 weeks of age.

Causes: ingestion of too milk with salt replacements without access to fresh water,
calves that are being treated for diarrhea that receive oral electrolyte solutions with high sodium concentrations, or use of high-sodium water on farms.

102
Q

Which clinical signs besides neuro signs occur commonly in calves with salt intox?

A
  • Increased calf mortality without neuro signs.
  • diarrhea, lethargy, anorexia
  • typical neuro signs are ataxia, opisthotonus and seizures
103
Q

Most common cause of brain abscess in calves?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

other described pathogens:
Fusobacterium necrophorum, Listeria monocytogenes, Bacteroides species, and
Candida

104
Q

Most common causes of forebran disease of the adult ruminants?

A

1) metabolic derangements (acid/base + electrolyte imbalance, dehydration, ketosis)
2) toxic (ammonia, lead, salt, plants, urea …)
3) infectious (rare)
4) trauma

105
Q

Three types of BSE prion using Western blotting

A

classical (C type), L type, and H type. The so-called, atypical L type and H type derive their names from the mass (L Low; H High)
of the unglycosylated isoform of the PrP res protein.

106
Q

Typical clinical picture of a cow with BSE?

A

Incubation 2-8 years, progressive signs from 2-8 months.

The most frequent clinical profile for a cow
with BSE is apprehension or nervousness combined with hyperesthesia and ataxia
observed over a 15-day period. A small proportion of animals may show true “mad
cow” syndrome manifest by aggression and manic behavior

107
Q

Classical clinical sign in scrapie?

A

The classic and most useful
clinical sign is the response to scratching or light pressure over the withers, which will cause sheep to raise their head, point their muzzle dorsally, elevate their upper lip, lick their lips, and make chewing movements

108
Q

Which tissue can be used for antemortem dx of scrapie?

A

lymphoid tissue (third eyelid, rectoanal lymphoid tissue, tonsil, or retropharyngeal lymph node), also brain postmortally

Approved diagnostic tests include enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, western blot, and immunohisto
chemistr

109
Q

Which agent causes coenurosis of ruminants?

A

Coenurus cerebralis is the intermediate stage of the life cycle of the canine tapeworm, Taenia
multiceps

110
Q

Which viruses can cause cerebellar hypoplasia in ruminants?

A

1) BVDV virus (cattle and sheep)
2) Pestivirus (border disease of sheep)
3) Schmallenberg virus (cattle, sheep, malformations of all brain structures and vertebral column + arthrogriphosis)
4) Bluetongue virus (cerebellum + other deformities)

111
Q

Cattle breeds with reported congential familial cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

Hereford, Shorthorns, and
Ayrshire calves

112
Q

Ruminant breeds with reported cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Bovine:
Angus, Hereford, Ayrshire, Charolais, Limousin

Sheep:
Merino, Wiltshire,

113
Q

Which plant can cause cerebellar disease in cattle and goats?

A
  • Solanum species (Americas)
  • Locoweeds (Astragalus, Oxytropis, and Swainsona) worldwide
114
Q

Lysosomal storage disease affecting the cerebellum in cattle?

A

1) alpha-mannosidosis of Angus, Murray Grey, square meter(Angus-derived composite breed), and Galloway breeds;
2) beta-mannosidosis in Salers; and maple syrup urine disease in poll Herefords and poll shorthorns.

115
Q

Most common disease to cause brainstem abnormalities in ruminants?

A

1) Listeriosis
2) Otitis media/interna
3) Pituitary abscess

116
Q

Which clinical entities can be caused by Listeria monocytogenes in ruminants

A

Neurological disease (multifocal brainstem disorder, diffuse meningoencephalitis or myelitis) - most common form
Keratokonjunktivitis/uveitis +/- hypopyon
Mastitis
Abortion (late term)
Septicemia (neonatal death)
Diarrhea

117
Q

Time of year when most cases of listeriosis occur?

A

late winter and early spring
(housing of animals, stocking density, poor quality stored feed, fecal contamination of environment)

118
Q

Species differences in clinical presentation of listeriosis?

A
  • higher prevalence in sheep and cow then goats
  • in sheep and goats usually more acute and severe (higher mortality)
119
Q

Risk factors for developing encephalitic listeriosis?

A

1) Silage (poor preservation quality)
–> but may be observed with any type of diet or pasture
2) Coarse feed (damage to the oral mucosa)

120
Q

Diagnostic yield of bacteriologic exam or PCR for L monocytigenes in CSF?

A

Low - it rarely reaches the ventricular system

121
Q

Which CSF parameter could have a prognostic factor in listeriosis?

A

CK activity

A recent study demonstrated that creatinine phosphokinase levels in CSF had high
sensitivity (100%) and specificity (100%) in predicting poor prognosis in Ossimi sheep
with encephalitic listeriosis.

Classical CSF changes in listeriosis: elevated protein and mononuclear pleocytosis

122
Q

Pathology is the golden standard to confirm listeriosis. Which structures are most commonly involved?

A

The lesions of listeric meningoencephalitis are most common in pons and medulla oblongata, but they can be located anywhere in the brainstem. Neurologic structures most commonly affected include the reticular formation and cranial nerves
V, VII, and XII nuclei.

Characteristic microscopic lesions include multifocal asymmetrical brainstem microabscesses with areas of malacia and intense perivascular cuffing with mononuclear
cells, and meningoencephalitis.
The microabscesses are composed predominantly of neutrophils. Other microscopic changes include multifocal
gliosis, axonal swelling, and degeneration and neuronophagia.
Listeria is seldom identified, so observation of characteristic histopathologic lesions alone is considered diagnostic for encephalitic listeriosis, even if L monocytogenes is not isolated.

123
Q

Antemortem dx of listeriosis?

A

History (late winter, early spring, silage), neuro signs (asymmetric brainstem), CSF findings (elevated protein and mononuclear pleocytosis).

A recent study showed that the combined use of polymerase chain reaction detection of Listeria in milk and ELISA in the serum allowed for a rapid and effective detection of L monocytogenes infection in the early stage, before seroconversion, and in the later stage, even after antibiotic therapy.

Coulture of silage: if it contains more than 1 milion Listeria and enterobacteria/gram.
PCR of silage.

PCR of feces.

124
Q

Therapy and prognosis of listerioris?

A
  • Penicillin 2-4 weeks (watch out for residues in meat or milk)
  • supportive therapy (rehidration, NSAID, transfaunation …)

30
In untreated cases, the fatality rate is almost 100%.
The survival rate in treated an
imals
is considerably higher than in untreated patients. Reported survival rates in small
ruminants and cattle with encephalitic listeriosis after treatment are 26% and 70%, respectively.

*** Other than recumbency, other clinically associated poor prognostic indicators include an excitable mental state and a weak or absent
menace response.

125
Q

Most common cause of CN VII paralysis in food animals?

A

Otitis media

126
Q

Mot common isolates in ruminants with otitis media/interna?

A
  • Mycoplasma bovis (+/- other bacteria) in dairy cows.
  • Histophilus somni
  • Manheimia haemolytica
  • Pasteurella multocida
127
Q

Peak incidence of otitis media/interna associated with M bovis in dairy cows?

A

2-8 weeks of age

Bacterial OMI is rare in adult ruminants (except for the parasite induced forms in subtropical/tropical regions.

128
Q

Risk factors for developing OM in dairy calves and lambs?

A
  • feeding contaminated colostrum or milk
  • coincidental respiratory infection

oral inoculation of young calves with M
bovis-contaminated milk resulted in an ascending infection of the Eustachian (auditory)
tubes and development of OM similar to that found in natural disease. They
concluded that the upper respiratory tract, in particular the pharyngeal tonsils, represent
the major site of colonization by M bovis after oral inoculation. This pattern of
colonization of the Eustachian tube and development of eustachitis preceding OM
is consistent with Mycoplasma hyorhinis infection in pigs.

129
Q

Clinical signs in ruminants with OMI?

A

25% is bilateral

Head tilt and vestibular ataxia (leaning, rolling, falling, worse after blindfolding)

Lesions of the facial nerve produce ear droop (unilateral or bilateral) and palpebral
ptosis. Exposure keratitis and epiphora may develop secondary to the paresis
or paralysis of the eyelid. Ipsilateral lip droop may also be evident.

Concurrent clinical signs of pneumonia are frequently observed in calves with OM

head shaking, ear rubbing or scratching, otorrhea, inflammation, (erythema, scabs, ulcerations), cellulitis of the external ear canal, and aural hematoma with ear mites

Other clinical signs that have been associated recently with M bovis OMI in calves
include spontaneous regurgitation of milk or rumen fluid, loss of pharyngeal tone, dorsal
displacement of the soft palate, and dysphagia, indicative of glossopharyngeal
nerve dysfunction with or without vagal nerve dysfunction.

130
Q

Most common isolate from ruminants with pituitary abscesses?

A

T pyogenes

Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Fusobacterium necrophorum, and C pseudotuberculosis.
Mycoplasma arginini was isolated from a single goat with a pituitary abscess

131
Q

Entry route for pituitary abscess?

A
  • rete mirabile (chronic infection elsewhere in the body)
  • postdehorning sinusitis/osteomyelitis of the sphenoid bone (rare)
  • lymphatics (rare)

*risk factor is wearing nose flaps for weaning cows and placement of nose ring

132
Q

Which nutritional deficit can cause SC damage in kids and lambs during the prenatal or immediate postnatal period?

A

Copper - enzootic ataxia (swayback)

*between birth and 4 MO
* lesions in SC, cerebrum and cerebellum, wallerian deg. and loss of myelin

133
Q

Which nerves can be damaged during a prolonged dystocia in cattle?

A

Sciatic (more common) (L6-S2) +/- obturator nerve (L4-6)

Clinical signs of obturator nerve damage include an inability to adduct the limb (splay legged posture).

Most common clinical signs of sciatic nerve damage include dropping of the hock and knuckling of the fetlock

134
Q

Most common cause of femoral nerve injury in cattle?

A

calves following forced extraction, particularly with backwards presentation or with hips locked - hyperextension of the pelvic limbs during extraction can cause tearing of the femoral nerve

135
Q

Name some genetic conditions of cattle to affect the PNS

A
  • familial neuropathy of gelbvieh calves
  • degenerative myeloencephalopathy of Swiss cattle (weaver syndrome)
  • spinal muscle atrophy of Braunvieh, Brown Swiss and Holstein Frisian
  • degenerative axonopathy of Holstein Friesian and Tyrolean Grey
  • ## progressive ataxia of Charolais
136
Q

Causes of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants (PEM)?

A

PEM = cerebrocortical necrosis, cortical laminar necrosis

1) thiamine def. or destruction by thiaminases (plants, amprolium intox, by procucts of rumen acidosis)
2) dietary sulfur excess
3) lead intox (cortex of cerebellum)
4) salt intox

137
Q

Thiamins role in aerobic respiration?

A

Builds Thiamin monophosphate and Thiamine pyrophosphate - coenzymes to to catalyse conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coenzyme A in the citric acid cycle

138
Q

Lead intox is more common in younger or older cattle?

A

Younger, since they absorb 50% of ingested lead, as apposed to older cattle which absorb 1-3%

139
Q

Clinical entities in organophosphate toxicosis?

A

1) acute (bind and block AchE causing NMJ signs compatible with parasympathetic excess)
2) chronic 10 days to few months post exposure - dying back syndrome

140
Q

Mechanism of action of metaldehyde?

A

decreases levels of brain neurotransmitters, most notably GABA

141
Q

Which botulinum neurotoxin antigenic groups are associated with ruminant disease?

A

most often C and D

142
Q

Clin. signs of botulinum intox in ruminants?

A

1) acute (common) form: loss of tongue and jaw tone, tail tone, inability to urinate/defecate
2) chronic (visceral) form GI problems, laminitis, oedema of the legs and udder, dyspnea

143
Q

Clostridium perfringens type D toxin and which animals are affected?

A

epsilon toxin –> liquefaction necrosis, oedema and hemmorhage of the brain –> sudden death in lambs, kids and calves (few weeks to 10 mo)

–> also large swollen kidneys

144
Q

Causes of head-shaking in horses?

A

1) idiopathic trigeminal-mediated (mostly vertical)
2) ear mite infestation,
3) otitis interna,
4) cranial nerve dysfunction,
5) cervical injury,
5) ocular disease,
6) guttural pouch mycosis,
7) dental periapical osteitis,
8) protozoal myeloencephalitis,
9) sinusitis
10 behavioral or rider issue.

145
Q

Seasonality in idiop. head shaking?

A

Present in ca. 60-75% of horses, mostly spring/summer

146
Q

Signalment of idiop. head shakers?

A

mostly geldings (63-71%), all breeds

147
Q

Grading systems for head shakers

A
148
Q

Therapy of head shaking

A

1) nose net (75% relief in 25% horses)
2) gabapentin
3) carbamazepine + cyproheptadine
4) Sodium cromoglycate eye drops
5) surgery (caudal ablation of the infraorbital nerve via coil compression - 50% success rate in 57 horses but 26% relapsed with a median time of 9 months)
6) EquiPENS™ neuromodulation
7) Electroacupuncture

149
Q

Which percentage of horses with head shaking presented for CT have idipathic trigeminal mediated head-shaking, and in what percentage is there a predisposing pathology found?

A

Although TNMH was the most common diagnosiswith 62 horses (60.2%) affected, in 22 horses (21.4%), a primary disease process was identified and treatment of the condition eliminated signs of head-shaking. Clinically relevant primary diseases included dental fracture, primary sinusitis, temporo-mandibular joint arthritis, nuchal bursitis, musculoskeletal pathologies, basisphenoidfracture, otitis externa and a mass affecting the infra-orbital nerve

150
Q

Which minimal minimal sensory nerve conduction stimulus threshold (SNCT) can be used to differentiate healthy horses from those with trigeminal mediated head shaking?

A

Minimal SNCT ≤ 10 mA showed 100% specificity to distinguish TMHS from controls, but the sensitivity was only 41%.

151
Q

Which diagnostic modality is best used to differentiate horses with idiopathic trigeminal mediated head shaking from those with secondary head shaking?

A

CT of the head

152
Q
A