Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP 1 (3) > Neurology- Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Neurology- Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe neurons

A

these are the signal-transmitting cells of the nervous system. They are permanent, and do not divide in adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are functional parts of neurons?

A

dendrites (receive input), cell bodies, and axon (send output)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cell bodies and dendrities can be seen on what?

A

Nissle staining (stains RER)

NOTE: RER is not present in the axon so cant be seen this way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Wallerian degeneration?

A

injury to an axon causes degeneration distal to the injury and axonal retraction proximally; allows for potential regeneration of axon (if in PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is this and what are its roles?

A

Astrocyte- phsyical support; repair; K+ metabolism; removal of excess neurotransmitters; component of BBB; glycogen fuel reserve buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the main astrocyte marker?

A

GFAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are microglia?

A

phagocytic scavenger cells of the CNS activated in response to tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the role of myelin?

A

it increases the space constant and conduction velocity of signals transmitted down axons, with saltatory conduction of action potentials at the nodes of Ranvier, where there are high conc of Na+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Each Schwann cell myelinates ___ PNS axon

A

only 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Schwann cells may be injured in what disease?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is acoustic neuroma?

A

a type of schwannoma, typically located in the internal acoustic meatus (CN VIII).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

BILATERAL acoustic neuroma is strongly associated with what?

A

neurofibromatosis type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do olgiodendroglia do?

A

myelinate axons of neurons in the CNS. Each oligodendrocyte can myelinate many axons (~30). This is the predominant type of glial cell in white matter

Below: “fried egg” appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Oligodendrocytes can be injured in what diseases?

A

MS, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and leukodystrophies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the main types of sensory receptors?

A
  • free nerve endings
  • Meissner corpuscles
  • Pacinian corpuscles
  • Merkel discs
  • Ruffini corpuscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the types of free nerve endings?

A

C-slow, unmyelinated fibers

A(delta)- fast, myelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do free nerve endings sense?

A

pain and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Meisnner and Pacinian corpuscles and Merkel discs are all described as ‘large, myelinated fibers that adapt quickly. Where are Meissner corpuscles found?

A

glabrous (hairless) skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Meisnner and Pacinian corpuscles and Merkel discs are all described as ‘large, myelinated fibers that adapt quickly. Where are Pacinian corpuscles found?

A

deep skin layers, ligaments, and joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Meisnner and Pacinian corpuscles and Merkel discs are all described as ‘large, myelinated fibers that adapt quickly. Where are Meckel discs found?

A

fingers tips and superficial skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do Meissner corpuscles sense?

A

dynamic fine/light touch, position sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do Pacinian corpuscles sense?

A

vibration and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do Meckel discs sense?

A

pressure, deep static touch (e.g. shapes, edges), position sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are Ruffini corpuscles?

A

dendritic endings with capsules, adapt slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are Ruffini corpuscles found and what do they sense?

A

finger tips and joints and sence pressure, slippage of objects along the skin, and joint angle change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the protective layers around nerves?

A

Endoneurium (invest singulr nerve fibers)

Perineurium (surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers)

Epineurium (dense CT that surrounds the entire nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What neurotransmitter levels change in anxiety?

A

nor elevated

5-HT, GABA decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What neurotransmitter levels change in depression?

A

nor, dopamine, 5-HT decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What neurotransmitter levels change in Huntington disease?

A

dopamine elevated

ACh, GABA decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What neurotransmitter levels change in Parkinson’s?

A

dopamine decreased

ACh elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What neurotransmitter levels change in Alzheimer?

A

ACh decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where is nor made in the brain?

A

locus ceruleus (pons)- activated in states of stress and panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is dopamine made in the brain?

A

ventral tegmentum and substantia nigra pars compacta (midbrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is nor made in the 5-HT?

A

raphe nuclei (pons, medulla, and midbrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is ACh made in the brain?

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is GABA made in the brain?

A

nucleus accumbens- the ‘reward’ center, activated in pleasure, addiction, and fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What forms the BBB?

A
  • tight junctions between nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells
  • BM
  • Astrocyte foot processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some other notable barriers in the body?

A
  • blood-testes
  • maternal-fetal bloof barrier of the placenta
39
Q

Notes about the BBB

A
40
Q

Do any parts of the brain lack a BBB?

A

A few specialized brain regions have fenestrated capillaries and no BBB to alow molecules in blood to affect brain function (e.g. vomiting after chemo; OVLT- osmotic sensing) or neurosecretory products to enter circulation (e.g. ADH)

41
Q

What are the main functions of the hypothalamus?

A

TAN HATS

Thirst and water balance

Adenohypophysis control (regulates anterior pituitary)

Neurohypophysis

Hunger regulation

Autonomic regulation

Temp regulation

Sexual urges

42
Q

What are the inputs from the brain to the hypothalamus that dont have BBB?

A

OVLT (organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis- senses changes in osmolarity)

area postrema (responds to emetics)

43
Q

What part of the hypothalamus makes ADH?

A

supraoptic nucleus

44
Q

What part of the hypothalamus makes oxytocin?

A

paraventricular nucleus

45
Q

What does the lateral area of the hypothalamus do?

A

promotes hunger (destruction= anorexia, failure to thrive)

46
Q

The action of the lateral area of the hypothalamus cna be inhibited by what?

A

leptin

47
Q

What does the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus do?

A

promotes satiety (stimulated by leptin)

48
Q

What does the anterior hypothalamus do?

A

promoting body cooling and parasympathetic action

49
Q

What does the posterior of the hypothalamus do?

A

heating and sympathetic

50
Q

What does the suprachasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus do?

A

regulates circadian rhythm

51
Q

What regulates sleep?

A

Circadian rhythm, which is driven by suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus. Circadian rhythm promotes nocturnal release of ACTH, prolactin, melatonin, and nor

Basically, light promotes the SCN to release nor which acts on the pineal gland to promote melatonin release

52
Q

What are the stages of sleep?

A

REM (rapid eye-movement) and non-REM

53
Q

What causes REM?

A

activity of PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center).

54
Q

How frequent is REM sleep?

A

~every 90 minutes during sleep, with increasing duration as the night continues

55
Q

What things decrease REM sleep?

A

alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbituites, and nor

56
Q

How can sleep enuresis (bedwetting) be tx?

A

desmopressin (ADH analog) (preferred over imipramine b/c of less AEs)

57
Q

What is a good tx option for sleepwalking or night terrors?

A

benzodiazepines

58
Q

What is the predominant EEG waveform seen when awake with eyes open?

A

Beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude

BATS Drink Blood

59
Q

BATS Drink BloodWhat is the predominant EEG waveform seen when awake with eyes shut?

A

Alpha

BATS Drink Blood

60
Q

What are the stages of non-REM sleep?

A

N1 (5%)-light sleep

N2 (45%)-deeper, when bruxism (teeth-grinding) occurs

N3 (25%)-deepest, slow-wave sleep; when sleepwalking, night terrors, and betwetting occur

61
Q

What is the major EEG waveform in N1 sleep? N2? N3?

A

N1: theta

N2: Sleep spindles and K complexes

N3: Delta (lowest frequency; highest amplitude)

BATS Drink Blood

62
Q

How much of the night is spent in REM sleep?

A

25%

63
Q

What things occur in the body during REM sleep?

A

loss of motor tone, increased brain O2 use, varibale pulse and BP

64
Q

What waveforms are seen during REM sleep?

A

Beta

BATS Drink Blood

65
Q

What is the major location for relay of all ASCENDING sensory info except olfaction?

A

the thalamus

66
Q

What are the five major nuclei of the thalamus?

A

VPL

VPM

LGN

MGN

VL

67
Q

What is the input into the VPL of the thalamus?

A

spinothalamic and dorsal columns

medial lemniscus

68
Q

What info does the VPL of the thalamus process?

A

pain, temp, pressure, touch, vibration, and proprioception

69
Q

Where does info into the VPL and VPM of the thalamus go to?

A

primary somatosensory cortex

70
Q

What is the input into the VPM of the thalamus?

A

trigeminal and gustatory pathways

71
Q

What info does the VPM preceive?

A

face sensation, and taste

72
Q

What is the input into the LGN of the thalamus and where does it transmit to?

A

from CN II to the calcarine nucleus

73
Q

What info does the LGN of the thalamus perceive?

A

vision

74
Q

What is the input into the MGN of the thalamus and where does it transmit?

A

input via the superior olive and inferior colliculus of the tectum to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

75
Q

What info does the MGN of the thalamus perceive?

A

hearing

76
Q

What is the input into the VL of the thalamus and where does it transmit?

A

input via the basal ganglia and cerebellum to the motor cortex transmitting motor function

77
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

a collection of neural structures involved in emotion, long-term memory, olfaction, behavior modulation, and ANS function

78
Q

What structures are included in this limbic system?

A

hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, mammillary bodies, and the cingulate gyrus

79
Q

What is the Limbic system responsible for?

A

the 5 F’s:

Feeding, Fleeing, Fighting, Feeling, and Fucking

80
Q

What are the symptoms of osmotic demyelination syndrome (aka central pontine myelinolysis)?

A

acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, and syncope. Can cause ‘locked in syndrome’

81
Q

What causes osmotic demyelination syndrome (aka central pontine myelinolysis)?

A

massive axonal demyelination in pontine white matter secondary to osmotic changes. Commonly iatrogenic, caused by overly rapid correction of hyponatremia

82
Q

While correcting hyponatremia too quickly might lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome (aka central pontine myelinolysis), what might correcting HYPERnatremia too quickly lead to?

A

cerebral edema/herniation

83
Q

Mnemonic for correcting serum Na+ too fast:

A

“from low to high, your pons will die” (osmotic demyelination syndrome (aka central pontine myelinolysis))

‘from high to low, your brain will blow’ (cerebral edema/herniation)

84
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

modulates movement and aids in coordination and balance

85
Q

What is the input into the cerebellum?

A

the contralateral cortex via the middle cerebellar peduncle, and

ipsilateral priproceptive info via the inferior cerebellar peduncle from the spinal cord

86
Q

Where does info from the cerebellum go?

A
  • contralateral cortex to modulate movement via output nerves called Purkinje cells
  • deep nuclei
87
Q

How does info get from the cerebellum to the contralateral cortex?

A

Perkinje cells, to the deep nuclei of the cerebellum to the contralateral cortex via the superior cerebellar peduncle

88
Q

What are the deep nuclei of the cerebellum from lateral to medial?

A

Dentate, Emboliform, Globose, Fastigial

(‘Dont Eat Greasy Foods’)

89
Q

Lateral lesions of the cerebellum can lead to what?

A

voluntary movement of extremities issues; when injured, there is a propensity to fall toward the injured side

90
Q

Medial lesions of the cerebellum affect what?

A

lesions involving midline structures (vermal cortex, fatigial nuclei) and/or flocculonodular love can lead to truncal ataxia (a wide-based cerebellar gait), nystagmus, and head tilting.

Generally, midline lesions reuslt in bilateral motor deficits affecting axial and proximal limb musculature

91
Q

What are the roles of the basal ganglia?

A

voluntary movements and making posterual adjustments

It receives corticol input and provides negative feedback to the cortex to modulate movement

92
Q

What is the excitatory pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

Corticol input stimulates the striatum (putamen (motor) + caudate (cognitive)), stimulating the release of GABA, which disinhibits the thalamus via the GPi/SNr (increasing motion)

Modulator: D1 Dopamine binding (aka direct pathway)

93
Q

What is the inhibitory pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

corticol input stimulates the striatum, which disinhibits the STN (Subthalamic nucleus) via the GPe (globus pallidus externus), and STN stimulates GPi (globus pallidus internus)/SNr to inhibit the thalamus (decreasing motion)

Modulator: D2 Dopamine binding (aka indirect pathway)

STEP 1 (3) (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions