Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What toxin(s) does Clostridium botulinum produce?

A

Botulinum neurotoxin (BoNT/A, BoNT/B etc.)BoNT mosaic toxins (BoNT/CD and BoNT/DC)

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2
Q

List the antigenic types of C. botulinum and which types have been reported to cause disease in large animals.

A

C. botulinum type A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, G;Types A, B, C1 and D.

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3
Q

What type of bacteria are C. tetani and C. botulinum?

A

Gram positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacilli.

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4
Q

List the three types of C. botulinum infection and the antigenic type commonly implicated in each.

A

1) Forage botulism: ingestion of pre-formed toxin i.e. pasture/forage/silage/haylage contaminated with soil (A&B) or animal carcasses (C&D); phosphorus deficient cattle chewing on bones with some muscle attached (D).2) Toxicoinfectious botulism: colonisation of GIT by C. botulinum in neonates, toxins prod in GIT & absorbed (B).3) Wound botulism: C. botulinum colonises wound and multiplies under anaerobic conditions and prod toxins.

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5
Q

Which antigenic type of C. botulinum is most frequently associated with botulism outbreaks in horses in the USA?

A

Type B (>85% cases).

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6
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of BoNT.

A

BoNT accessory proteins facilitate absorption across intestinal epic cells –> blood stream –> presynaptic cholinergic nerve terminal esp somatic neuromuscular endplate –> internalised into cytosol –> inactivates the SNARE complex –> vesicles do not undergo exocytosis –> acetylcholine not released at the NMJ –> flaccid paralysis.

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7
Q

List the two types of Stringhalt reported in horses and how they can be distinguished on clinical examination.

A
  1. Australian Stringhalt - BILATERAL hindlimb disease.2. Classical Stringhalt - UNILATERAL hindlimb disease.
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8
Q

List the plants reported to cause Australian Stringhalt by their scientific and common names.

A
  1. Hypochaeris radicata (false dandelion, flatweed, cat’s ear, castear).2. Taraxacum officinale (dandelion)3. Marva parviflora (mallow).4. Lathyrus odoratus (sweet pea) NB experimental infection.
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9
Q

What is the characteristic gait abnormality observed in cases of Stringhalt?What factors can exacerbate this gait abnormality?

A

Sudden, exaggerated flexion of one or both pelvic limbs during the swing phase of locomotion. Varies from slightly excessive flexion to violent movements during which the fetlock or toe will contact the abdomen, thorax and occasionally the elbow.Backing, sharp turns, going downhill, sudden stops, transition for halt to walk, cold weather, excitement.

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10
Q

Describe clinical signs which may be seen in cases of Australian Stringhalt in addition to bilateral hindlimb hyperflexion.

A
  • Mild to severe muscle atrophy of the hindlimbs.- Laryngeal paralysis (‘roaring’), stridor or change in voice.- Bilateral knuckling over on the forelimbs (generalised weakness; ‘atypical stringhalt’).- Generalised muscle atrophy and marked weight loss despite a good appetite.
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11
Q

Describe the proposed pathophysiology of Classical Stringhalt.

A

Trauma to the proximal dorsal metatarsus, may be months before Stringhalt is observed; additional proposed risk factors: foot conditions, articular lesions of the hock or stifle; likely cumulative result of interference with limb reflexes, mechanical effects of adhesions involving digital extensors of the pelvic limb, painful conditions of the hock or distal limb.

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12
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Australian Stringhalt.

A

Ingestion of toxic weed –> distal neuropathy involving myelinated axons of the peripheral nervous system –> progressive degeneration of axons incl alpha motor neurons to skeletal muscle, 1A and 1B sensory neutrons from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs and gamma efferents to muscle spindles.

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13
Q

Name the three nerves most commonly affected in cases of Australian and Stringhalt and the most common signalment of affected patients.

A
  1. Recurrent laryngeal nerves.2. Peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve.3. Tibital branch of the sciatic nerve.Tall adult horse > young horses, shorter horses and ponies as LONG nerves affected (has been reported in Shetlands).
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14
Q

List the typical findings on electromyography in cases of Stringhalt.

A
  • Increased insertion activity of affected muscle.- Abnormal spontaneous activity e.g. fibrillation potentials, positive sharp waves, in affected muscles.- Slowed nerve condition velocity in peroneal nerves.
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15
Q

List the typical gross and histologic pathology findings in long-standing cases of stringhalt.

A
  • Atrophy of muscles of the pelvic limbs and the larynx.- Peripheral nerves: demyelination, perineurial fibrosis, accumulation of myelin debris (lesions worst distally).- +/- evidence of nerve regeneration: regenerating nerve clusters, onion bulbs, Schwann cell proliferation.
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16
Q

List two medications with reported success in treatment of Stringhalt and their mechanisms of action.

A
  1. Phenytoin (10-15mg/kg PO q12-24h): inhibits voltage-gated Na channels.2. Mephenesin: inhibits polysynaptic reflexes in the spinal cord (limited success).
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17
Q

Describe surgical therapy for treatment of Stringhalt and the prognosis for return to function.

A

Lateral digital extensor myotenectomy: surgical removal of the distal muscle belly and tension of insertion of the lateral digital extensor; 50-85% success rate.

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18
Q

What is the prognosis for recovery from Stringhalt?

A
  • Few reports re Classical Stringhalt - presumed to persist in majority (1 resolved, 2/4 improved in one case study).- Australian Stringhalt: many cases resolve after removal from weeds; some die (recumbency; unable to walk to feed/water); some have persistent CSx; recovery takes on average 6-12mo (3d-3yr).
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19
Q

Identify ticks capable of causing tick paralysis, the countries in which they are located and the domestic animal species affected.

A
  1. Ixodes holocyclus - Australia - cats, dogs, foals, horses, calves, sheep, pigs.2. Dermancentor spp - USA - dogs, humans, cattle, camelids.3. Ixodes rubicundus & Rhipicephalus evertsi - Africa - small ruminants.
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20
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of tick paralysis.

A

Neurotoxin in saliva of female tick –> inoculated into affected animal when tick feeds –> inhibits release of acetylcholine from nerve terminals at the NMJ.

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21
Q

Describe the clinical signs of tick paralysis.

A

Progressive generalised flaccid paralysis –> recumbency and death (respiratory paralysis) over hours to day. Early signs include ataxia, paraparesis, change in voice.

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22
Q

Describe the treatment of tick paralysis.

A
  1. Identify and REMOVE ticks!!! (Px good for Dermancentor if removed before animal is moribund) –> tick search x3, clip, spray with fipronil.2. Administer hyperimmune serum - 0.5ml/kg horses (NB canine product; potential for anaphylaxis).3. Supportive care: NPO (dysphagic!), sternal, oxygenation, +/- IVF, deep bedding, stand and turn frequently.
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23
Q

What is the alternate name for Atypical Myopathy (AM) and in what countries does it occur?

A

Atypical myopathy (Europe); seasonal pasture myopathy (US).Largely UK and Northern Europe; isolated cases reported in USA, Australia, Falkland Islands.N.B. mal seco = clinically and pathologically identical disease in South America (mainly Chile).

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24
Q

What is the causative agent of AM and where does it originate from?

A

Hypoglycin A (toxic metabolite = methylenecyclopropyl acetic acid; MCPA).Seeds of Acer negundo (box elder) and Acer pseudoplantanus (sycamore maple) trees.

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25
Q

List risk factors for development of AM.

A
  • Presence of box elder or sycamore maple trees.- Young adults: peak incidence 2-7yo.{- Dec risk if previous hx of contact/co-grazing with an EGS horse (+ inc risk young age = acquired immunity?)}- Previous occurrence of cases on the premises, increased soil nitrogen content, pasture disturbance (e.g. construction) and an increased number of horses- Grazing at pasture.- Recent movement to a new premises (esp first 2wk).- Change of feed type or quantity during the 14 days prior to disease and the use of an ivermectinanthelmintic at the ultimate and penultimate treatments.- Cooler, drier weather and irregular ground frosts.
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26
Q

List potential gross pathologic findings on post-mortem of a horse affected by EGS.

A
  • Multiple abnormalities related to GI dysfunction e.g.: * Acute cases: stomach/SI fluid distension, reflux oesophagitis. * Subacute: firm, corrugated impactions of the large colon and caecum, the outer surface of which often shows a characteristic black coating. * Subacute and chronic: mucus-coated hard faeces in the small colon and rectum.- Poor body condition: dysphagia, anorexia, cachexia.- Marked, bilateral rhinitis sicca in some chronic cases.
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27
Q

Describe the typical lesions identified on histologic examination of nerves in EGS cases.

A
  • Findings are indicative of neuronal degeneration.- Extensive chromatolysis, with loss of Nissl substance, eccentricity or pyknosis of the nuclei, neuronal swelling and vacuolation, accumulation of intracytoplasmic eosinophilic spheroids and axonal dystrophy.
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28
Q

In which organs is neuronal loss/damage observed in EGS? In addition to decreased numbers of neurons, what else is present in decreased numbers?

A
  • Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, caecum, large colon, small colon and, more variably, the rectum.- Acute: widespread; greatest in ileum.- Chronic: less extensive in jejunum and small colon.- Interstitial cells of Cajal dec in ileum and pelvic flexure.
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29
Q

Describe the location of affected neurons in EGS.

A
  • Lesions are most evident in the prevertebral and paravertebral ganglia of the ANS and ENS; somatic motor neurons also affected.- ANS: ciliary ganglion, cranial cervical ganglion, caudal cervical ganglion, stellate ganglion, thoracic and abdominal sympathetic trunk, coeliaco-mesenteric or coeliac/cranial mesenteric ganglion, the caudal mesenteric ganglion and the parasympathetic terminal cardiac ganglion.- ENS: myenteric and submucous plexuses.- CNS: CN III, V, VI, VII, VIII, X, XII, spinal cord lowermotor neurons and spinal cord intermediolateral horn neurons.
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30
Q

List the clinical signs of EGS.

A
  • All forms: dullness, anorexia, dysphagia, tachycardia, ptosis, patchy sweating, muscle fasiculations.- Acute: colic, large volumes NGT reflux.- Subacute: colic, no/small volume NGT reflux, impactions.- Chronic: weight loss, ‘tucked up’ appearance, progressive myasthenia (base narrow stance, leaning against walls, weight shifting), rhinitis sicca.
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31
Q

The prognosis is very poor for recovery from EGS and treatment consists only of supportive care until some normal GI/muscle function is regained. List the criteria used to select appropriate candidates for treatment.

A

Criteria:1. Willingness to attempt to drink and swallow food.2. Retention of some ability to drink and swallow food.3. Absence of continuous, moderate to severe colic signs.

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32
Q

Describe the clinical signs of botulism in horses.

A

Dysphagia (poor tongue tone, milk/feed in nostrils or trachea, persistent DDSP), lethargy, weakness, mydriasis and sluggish PLRs, increased time spent recumbent and hypometric gait –> recumbency and dyspnoea.

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33
Q

What is the common name for (USA) endemic toxicoinfectious botulism of foals and what antigenic type causes it?

A

Shaker Foal Syndrome.C. botulinum type B.

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34
Q

What are the principles of treatment of a horse or foal with botulism?

A
  • Bind the toxin: trivalent BoNT anti-toxin (A, B, C) - 20,000IU/foal and 50,000IU/adult (one dose as 12d t1/2); 98% died w/out vs 96% foals and >70% adults survived with early anti-toxin tx.- Eliminate the source of infection: removal of contaminated feed; lance, drain, debride, lavage wounds. - Supportive care: deep bedding/turn/sling recumbent horses; keep head above level of heart several hours/day if standing (prevent oedema); nutrition (oral, NGT, PPN); urinary catheter BID/remove faeces if required.- ABs only to tx known infection ONLY (penicillin/metro contradicted as > BoNT release) e.g. asp pneumonia, cystitis or in heavily instrumented foals.- InO2 or ventilation of foals.
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35
Q

In animals that survive, how long does it take the clinical signs of botulism to reverse?

A
  • Recumbent animals: (death usually w/in 3d) recumbency resolves in 1-4 weeks; complete recovery weeks to months,- Non-recumbent animals: dysphagia, limb weakness, sluggish PLRs recover in days to weeks.
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36
Q

What vaccine is available to prevent against Botulism in horses and what is the recommended vaccine schedule?

A
  • BoNT/B toxoid; highly effective vaccine (NB no BoNT/C or multivalent licensed in USA).- Adults: 2 doses 4 weeks apart then annually.- Broodmares: 4-6 weeks pre-foaling.- Foals: 3 doses 4 weeks apart; usually commence at 2-3mo BUT maternal antibody doesn’t interfere with vacc, therefore high risk foals should commence at 2wo.
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37
Q

Which two toxins are produced by Clostridium tetani?

A

Tetanolysin and tetanospasmin (TeNT).

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38
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of tetanus.

A

Deep wound, injection site, post-foaling uterus (RFM), Sx site, umbilicus etc. contaminated with C. tetani –> growth of C. tetani spores in anaerobic environment –> elaboration of exotoxins –> neurologic deficits.

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39
Q

Describe the actions of tetanolysin within the body.

A

Damages tissue, reduced redox potential, increases expansion of infection.

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40
Q

Describe the actions of tetanospasmin within the body.

A

Diffuses from tissue to vascular system –> somatic NMJ and autonomic ganglia –> binds to nerve terminals –> internalised –> transported retrograde in axons –> CNS –> binds irreversibly to presynaptic inhibitory interneurons (‘Renshaw cells’) –> cleaves synaptobrevin (SNARE) –> inhibits release of glycine and GABA –> spastic paralysis.

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41
Q

Describe possible post-mortem findings in a horse with tetanus.

A
  • Gram stain of wound exudates –> gram +ve, spore-forming bacilli (30% cases).- Gross pathology non-specfic e.g. secondary muscle damage, pulmonary congestion, atelectasis etc.- IHC detection of TeNT antigen in spinal cord ventral or intermediate horn cells.
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42
Q

List clinical signs of tetanus in the horse.

A

CSx develop 1-60d post inoculation; commence with head & neck, may remain localised/mild or –> death; include:- Trismus, risus sardonicus, 3rd eyelid prolapse, lockjaw, neck stiffness.- Rigid extension of limbs/back/neck (sawhorse stance).- Stiff tail.- +/- colic (bloat in ruminants).- Tonic-clonic muscle spasms following stimuli.- Dysphagia.- Fluctuant HR/BP.- Recumbency.- Death: rest failure, aspiration, autonomic overactivity (cardiac dysrhythmias).

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43
Q

What are the principles of treatment of a horse or foal with tetanus?

A
  1. Neutralise unbound toxin: tetanus anti-toxin 20IU/kg/day for 5d; horses only: intrathecal admin (lumbosacral) 400-1000IU/kg.2. Eliminate the infection: open, drain, debride, lavage wound; metronidazole > penicillin for 3-5d.3. Provide muscle relaxation: pack ears, dim lights, minimal handling etc.; acepromazine, diazepam, midazolam, dantrolene, Mg (blocks neuromuscular transmission, interferes with catecholamine release, dec catecholamine receptor responsiveness, anticonvulsant).4. Ensure good footing: non-slip floor, +++ padding, sling?5. Maintain hydration and nutritional status.
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44
Q

What is the prognosis for horses with tetanus?

A

68-75% fatality.NB ~50% dairy cattle, >80% small ruminant.

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45
Q

What vaccine(s) is/are available to prevent against Botulism in horses and what is the recommended vaccine schedule?

A

Tetanus toxoid (TT): - Adults: 2 doses 4 weeks apart then annually; repeat if wounded or undergoing Sx >6mo after last booster.- Broodmares: 4-6 weeks pre-foaling.- Foals: 4-6mo, 2nd dose 4wk later, 3rd dose 10-12mo.Tetanus anti-toxin (TAT):- Give to wounded, un-vaccinated horses (+TT) or foals (TAT only)

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46
Q

Which antibiotic should be avoided in horses with botulism and why?

A

Aminoglycosides, as they may potentiate the neuromuscular blockade caused by BoNT.

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47
Q

What is Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND?)

A

An acquired neurodegenerative disorder of the ventral horns of the grey matter of the spinal cord and selected brainstem nuclei of adult horses resulting in skeletal muscle weakness and atrophy.

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48
Q

What is the aetiology of EMND?

A

Vitamin E deficiency (+/- selenium deficiency).

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49
Q

What age of horse is most at risk for EMND?

A

Reported cases: mean 9yo (2-27); highest risk 16yo.NB CSx develop after at least 18 months of being on a Vitamin E deficient diet.

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50
Q

List the risk factors associated with development of EMND.

A
  • Use of pelleted feed.- Frequent supplementation with vitamin/mineral supplements lacking Vitamin E/selenium.- Lack of absorption of Vitamin E despite appropriate diet i.e. GI or hepatic disease.- Unknown if low vitamin E diet is the only nutritional or management factor responsible for influencing development of EMND.
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51
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of EMND.

A

Hypovitaminosis E –> systemic oxidative stress –> cellular damage.Evidence: dominant involvement of oxidatively active type I myofibres in atrophied skeletal muscles, abundant deposits of ceroid lipofuscin in retinal pigmented epithelium and the endothelium of spinal cord capillaries.

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52
Q

What are the clinical signs of EMND?

A

CSx reflect denervation of skeletal muscle: muscle weakness,+/- muscle wasting, trembling of anti-gravity muscles, sweating, ‘horse on ball’ stance, shifting weight, difficulty standing still, hypometric gait but not ataxic, neck low, tail head elevated.40% cases horizontal band of pigment above the optic disc at the tapetal-nontapetal junction.

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53
Q

How do you diagnose EMND ante-mortem?

A
  • Typical CSx, age >2yo, diet low in green forage and high in carbohydrates.- Serum: low vitamin E, mild to mod inc CK and AST.- Muscle biopsy: sacrocaudalis dorsalis tailhead muscle –> neurogenic muscle atrophy characterised by variable numbers of atrophied angular fibres (type I predominate); 90% sensitivity, low specificity.- Nerve biopsy: 5cm section of ventral branch of spinal accessory n as it courses over the sternocephalicus m –> mild to severe Wallerian degeneration of axons and Schwann cell proliferation; PPV 75%, NPV 90%.
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54
Q

List post-mortem examination findings in horses with EMND.

A

Widespread degeneration and loss of somatic motor neurons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord accompanied by degnerative axonal changes in the ventral roots and peripheral nerves.All brainstem CN somatic motor nuclei, except III, IV and VI are involved.Minimal to no lesions in autonomic nervous system.

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55
Q

What is the recommended treatment for EMND?

A

Vitamin E (at least 10IU/kg/da); natural (RRR-alpha-tocopherol) has higher bioavailability than synthetic (all-rac-alpha-tocopherol or dl-alpha-tocopherol).Good quality grass and alfalfa hay (rich in vitamin E).High quality and quantity pasture, hay and concentrates due to higher caloric requirements.

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56
Q

List the three potential outcomes for horses with EMND

A
  • 40% of cases progressive deteriorate and are euthanised.- 40% improve markedly; look normal on PE but may ‘recrudesce’ with intensive training or competition.- 20% stabilise with permanent muscle wasting and emaciaton.
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57
Q

Damage to which locations within the central nervous system (CNS) can result in upper motor neuron (UMN) bladder dysfunction?

A

Thoracolumbar spinal cord, cerebrum, cerebellum or brain stem.

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58
Q

Damage to which locations within the nervous system can result in lower motor neuron (LMN) bladder dysfunction?

A

Sacral spinal cord or pelvic nerve.Detrusor muscle atony.

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59
Q

A cat has a firm, distended bladder on abdominal palpation which is difficult to express manually. Which of the following diseases could cause this clinical finding?A) Cerebral tumour.B) Proximal tail fracture.C) L3 fracture.D) Detrusor atony secondary to dysauntonomia.

A

A and C.UMN bladder signs.

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60
Q

A horse presents with urine scalding of both pelvic limbs. On rectal palpation a full bladder is identified which empties easily of urine when the bladder is manually compressed. The horse had a history of prior spinal cord trauma following a racing accident. At which level of the spinal cord did the trauma most-likely occur?

A

The sacral spinal cord.LMN bladder signs.

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61
Q

What genus and family do the Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE), Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) and Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE) viruses belong to?

A
  • Genus: Alphavirus.- Family: Togaviridae.- Unsegmented, single-stranded, positive-sense RNA viruses.
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62
Q

List the clinical signs of Horner’s Syndrome in the horse.

A

Unilateral sweating, regional hyperthermia, ptosis, miosis, enophthalmus, protrusion of the third eyelid, congested mucous membranes, inspiratory stridor, dermatitis caused by chronic sweating.

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63
Q

List primary conditions which can result in Horner’s Syndrome in the horse.

A
  • Guttural pouch disease.- Perivascular injection (jugular v).- Thoracic inlet masses.- Trauma to the basisphenoid area or cervical trauma.- Otitis media.- Periorbital masses or abscesses.- Parotid duct obstruction and inflammation.- Oesophageal rupture.- Complications associated with carotid a ligation.- Polyneuritis equi (rarely).
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64
Q

Horner’s Syndrome results from interruption of ocular sympathetic pathways. Describe the anatomy of this pathway.

A
  • 1st order: tectum of midbrain –> axons descend to T1-T3 –> enter grey matter of dorsal horn, synapse on…- 2nd order: pre-ganglionic sympathetic motor neurons –> cervicothoracic and middle cervical ganglia –> ascend in cervical sympathetic trunk to cranial cervical ganglion (guttural pouch)–> synapse on…- 3rd order: post-ganglionic sympathetic nerve –> fibres distributed to sweat glands of head, ciliary muscles, periorbital smooth muscles.
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65
Q

Correlate the site of damage with classification of Horner’s Syndrome by ‘order’.

A
  • 1st order: brainstem or spinal cord.- 2nd order: cranial thoracic nerve roots or spinal nerves or cervical sympathetic trunk.- 3rd order: cranial cervical ganglion, the skull, behind the eye.
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66
Q

Describe how you can use ocular pharmaceutics to determine the level of sympathetic interruption in a horse with Horner’s Syndrome.

A
  • Hydroxyamphetamine 1%: results in release of NE from intact post-ganglionic neurons –> mydriasis.- 0.1ml 1:1000 epinephrine: mydriasis in 20mins post-ganglionic lesion vs 40 mins pre-ganglionic lesion.
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67
Q

Describe treatment and prognosis of Horner’s Syndrome in horses.

A
  • Usually irreversible, unless associated with perivascular xylazine inj.- If perivascular inj: infiltrate large volumes of saline into perivascular tissues. - Anti-inflammatory doses of flunixin and dexamethasone.- Drain abscesses.- Treat GP mycosis.
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68
Q

What is the causative agent of parasitic myelopathy (a.k.a. ‘meningeal worm’) of camelids?

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis (nematode).

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69
Q

Describe the life cycle of P. tenuis.

A

Definitive host = white-tailed deer: adults living in subdural space and associated vessels lay eggs –> hatch in pulmonary capillaries –> L1 migrate to alveoli, coughed up and swallowed –> L1 passed in feces –> ingested by intermediate host = snails –> molt x 2 –> snails containing L3 ingested by definitive hosts or aberrant hosts e.g. camelids.

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70
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of P. tenuis infection in camelids.

A

in snails ingested by camelid –> migration to CNS parenchyma –> scattered foci of haemorrhagic necrosis and parenchymal loss –> CSx in ~40-50d.

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71
Q

List the neurologic deficits reported in camelids with parasitic myelopathy.

A
  • Typical CSx: wide-based hindlimb stance, hindlimb ataxia +/- progressing to recumbency; BAR.- Lesions vary: can see FL or lateralised deficits.- Atypical form: brain involvement –> acute-onset brain or vestibular signs including depression, seizures,circling, leaning, head tilt, and slow PLRs.
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72
Q

How do you diagnose parasitic myelopathy in a camelid anti-mortem?

A
  • CSF: eosinophilic pleocytosis with inc protein in most cases.- CBC: usually WNL +/- inc CK and AST.
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73
Q

At what time of year is parasitic myelopathy most frequently observed and in what age group of camelids?

A

Autumn and Winter (Oct to Mar).Adults > young animals.

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74
Q

Describe the characteristic lesions of parasitic myelopathy observed on post-mortem of affected camelids.

A

Lesions of parasite migration: randomly distributed axonal degeneration that progresses to pannecrosis characterised by axon and axon sheath swelling, axon drop out, axonophagia, accumulation of gitter cells.Lesions mainly in white matter.Larvae rarely seen.

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75
Q

Outline the treatment of parasitic myelopathy in camelids.

A
  • Fenbendazole 50mg/kg PO for 5 days.- NSAIDs e.g. flunixin meglumine 1mg/kg q24-48h.- DMSO in severe cases.- Vitamin E and B (non-specific therapy).- IVF if required.- Physical therapy.
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76
Q

What is the prognosis for survival in cases of parasitic myelopathy of camelids?

A
  • Good if able to stand with assistance.- Poorer if recumbent.- Guarded with brain lesions.
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77
Q

What segment of the spinal cord is most frequently affected by trauma in camelids and was is the most common source of the trauma?

A
  • Cervical spinal cord.- Fence-related injuries.
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78
Q

Describe clinical examination findings in a camelid with cervical trauma.

A
  • ‘Lump’ or ‘kink’ in neck (fibrosis, periosteal reaction).- Abnormal head and neck posture.- UMN/LMN deficits in FLs, UMN deficits in HLs.- May not see CSx after acute inflammation resolves due to wide spinal canal.
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79
Q

List treatment options for traumatic lesions of the cervical spinal cord in camelids?

A
  • Supportive care: NSAIDs, confinement.- Sx may be indicated in young, growing animals to stabilise vertebral canal –> aim to produce fusion between neighbouring vertebrae.
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80
Q

List possible aetiologies of otitis media in camelids.

A
  • Ascending infection up the eustachian tubes.- Extension of otitis interna.- Spinous ear ticks (Texas).- Most common bacteria isolated: Arcanobacter pyogenes, Staphylococcus app and Bacillus spp.
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81
Q

What abnormalities may be identified on neurologic examination of a camelid with otitis media?

A

Head tilt, facial nerve deficits (e.g. droopy ear, flaccid facial muscles, ptosis, inability to blink), circling, ataxia, nystagmus.

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82
Q

How do you diagnose otitis media in a camelid?

A
  • CT ideal.- Radiographs may be helpful if bony changes present.- CSF to rule out other causes of vestibular dz e.g. listeriosis; protein inc in 50% cases.
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83
Q

What is the frequency of occurrence and prognosis associated with listeriosis in camelids?

A
  • Not very common.- Guarded px, with most failing to respond even to aggressive therapy.
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84
Q

List the clinical signs of listeriosis in camelids.

A

Circling, ataxia, leaning to one side, nystagmus, recumbency, depression, seizures.

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85
Q

What CSF changes are reported in cases of listeriosis in camelids?

A

Monocytosis, elevated protein and CK concentrations.

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86
Q

Outline the components of aggressive therapy of a camelid with listeriosis.

A

IVFT, anti-inflammatories, thiamine, oxytetracycline (20mg/kg SID for 5d) or Na/K penicillin IV (80mg/kg q6h), nursing care.

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87
Q

In what age group of camelids is meningitis or meningoencephalitis most frequently reported?

A

Neonates; secondary to sepsis.

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88
Q

What organisms have been associated with meningitis in camelids?

A
  • Neonates: Listeria monocytogenes, Escherichia coli, Salmonella newport, Streptococcus bovis.- One reported of cryptococcal meningitis in an 8yo alpaca in Australia.
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89
Q

Describe the typical CSF analysis findings in a cria with bacterial meningitis.

A

Leukocytosis, especially with suppurative inflammation.

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90
Q

Describe clinical signs associated with meningitis in crias.

A
  • Vague and variable!- Weakness, depression, inability to stand or elevate the head, tremors, ataxia, opisthotonus and seizures.- Death in 100% reported cases.
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91
Q

Outline the clinical signs and signalment of crias with vertebral abscessation.

A
  • HL ataxia, paresis or paralysis (thoracolumbar abscess)- Reported in several crias under 6mo.
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92
Q

Why are llamas more prone to heat stress than alpacas?

A

Both are poorly adapted to hot and humid climates, but llama breeders tend to barrel clip only vs alpaca breeders which completely shear.

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93
Q

Describe presenting clinical signs in a camelid with heat stress.

A
  • Elevated body temperature >105F (may be up to 108F).- Respiratory distress.- Tachycardia.- Inability to rise (FLs weaker than HLs).Check for CSx of underlying dz
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94
Q

List the common abnormalities identified on serum biochemistry of an alpaca with heat stress.

A
  • Elevated CK and AST.- Hypoproteinaemia despite haemoconcentration (cell damage).- Severe electrolyte imbalances esp hypokalaemia.- Metabolic acidosis.
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95
Q

Outline therapy for a camelid with heatstress.

A
  • Completely shear the animal.- Hose with cold water; ice packs in inguinal and axillary regions.- Judicious fluid therapy: hypoalb + cell damage –> pulmonary oedema.- NSAIDs: analgesic (muscle pain) and anti-inflammatory.- Vitamin E: anti-oxidant.
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96
Q

What is the aetiologic agent of Ryegrass Staggers in camelids?

A

Lolitrems = tremorogenic toxins produced by endophytes infecting ryegrass.

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97
Q

What are the clinical signs of Ryegrass Staggers in camelids and the prognosis for complete recovery?

A
  • Head tremor +/- ataxia.- Normally recover fully when removed from pasture but prolonged exposure may result in permanent damage.
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98
Q

What agents induce polioencephalomalacia (PEM) in camelids?

A
  • Dietary change.- Excessive carbohydrate ingestion.- Amprolium overdosage (thiamine analogue).- Often unknown.
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99
Q

What are the clinical signs of PEM in camelids?

A
  • Acute-onset blindness (cortical).- Depression.- Circling and head tremors.- Atypical presentation: charge walls, aggression.
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100
Q

How is PEM treated in camelids?

A
  • Thiamine hydrochloride 10-15mg/kg q4h then daily for several days after resolution of signs.- Supportive and nursing care.
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101
Q

Which viral encephalidites reported in other species can also occur in camelids?

A
  • Horses: EEE, WNV, EHV-1 (NB severe brain dz).- Sheep: ‘louping ill’ a.k.a. ovine encephalomyelitis.- Rabies.
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102
Q

Can camelids be vaccinated against viral encephalidites?

A

No registered vaccines, however equine EEE, WNV and rabies results in production of neutralising antibodies.

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103
Q

List differential diagnoses for ruminants with an elevated white blood cell count in their CSF.

A
  • Neutrophils: bacterial meningitis.- Lymphocytes: viral encephalitis, listeriosis.- Macrophages: trauma, polioencephalomyelitis.- Eosinophils: parasite migration.
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104
Q

List clinical signs of cerebral disease in ruminants.

A
  • Excitement, mania.- Seizures.- Compulsive behaviour.- Stupor. - Coma.- Abnormal vocalisation.- Central blindness.- Hyperaesthesia.
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105
Q

What is the most common cause of symmetric cerebral disease in ruminants?

A

Metabolic abnormalities incl dehydration, acid-base abnormalities, electrolyte disturbances.

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106
Q

Outline aetiologic agents of polioencephalomalacia (PEM) in ruminants.

A
  • Thiamine deficiency.- Sulphur toxicity.- Lead toxicity.- Salt toxicity.
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107
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of thiamine deficiency in PEM of ruminants.

A
  • Thiamine is produced by rumen microflora; production meets daily requirements; not stored.- Thiamine essential for cerebral glucose metabolism; it is a co-enzyme of the pentose-phosphate pathway.- Thiamine deficiency can be caused by rumen acidosis/disruption, thiamine inhibition or ingestion of plants containing thiaminases e.g. bracken fern, horsetail.
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108
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of suphur toxicity in PEM of ruminants.

A
  • Sulphur in the rumen is either assimilated into microbial protein or combines with H to form H2S.- H2S is detoxified by the liver.- Excess H2S prod –> overwhelms liver, or eructated and excess H2S inhaled.- H2S inhibits cytochrome C oxidase –> no ATP –> neuronal swelling –> PEM.- Source of S: feed intake limiters e.g. gypsum, by-products of corn, beet and sugar cane extraction e.g. molasses, water sources, S-accum plants incl rape, kale, turnips. Lamb’s quarters, Burning bush.
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109
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of lead toxicity in PEM of ruminants.

A
  • Lead has a profound effect on sulfhydryl-containing enzymes, the thiol content of erythrocytes, antioxidant defenses, and tissues rich in mitochondria –> cerebellar hemorrhage and edema associated w capillary damage.- Industrial pollution from smelting.- Junk piles: lead paint, gasoline and motor oil, insecticides, herbicides, lead batteries, shotgun pellets.
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110
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of salt toxicity in PEM of ruminants.

A
  • May be due to true salt poisoning e.g. ingestion of salt-licks, but usually due to water restriction.- Alteration of cerebral energy metabolism –> dec pentose phosphate pathway activity –> dec ATP prod –> accum of Na –> oedematous swelling. - Brain’s immediate response to hypertonic state is to lose water; rapid correction occurs through accum of electrolytes then idiogenic osmoles and water.- RISK OF TX!! If you rapidly correct the hypertonic state cerebral oedema will occur due to the idiogenic osmoles.
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111
Q

List clinical signs of PEM in ruminants.

A
  • Depression/stupor.- Central blindness.- Convulsions.- Head pressing.- Aimless wandering.- Inco-ordination.- Ataxia.- Muscle tremors.- Opisthotonos.- Dorsomedial strabismus.- Nystagmus.- Bruxism.
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112
Q

Outline test results for diagnosis of PEM in ruminants.

A
  • CSx and Hx.- CBC/MBA/CSF cytology: rarely useful.- CSF may have subjectively inc pressure on collection.- Thiamine defic: blood thiamine (160mmol/L or CSF:serum >1.- Sulphur tox: rumen H2S, sulfur content of feed and water- Lead tox: blood or tissue lead, or if chronic and blood Pb no measure RBC δ‐aminolevulinic acid dehydratase; RBCs may show basophilic stippling.
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113
Q

Describe necropsy findings in ruminants with PEM.

A
  • Gross lesions: brain swelling with gyral flattening and coning of the cerebellum due to herniation into the foramen magnum, slight yellowish discoloration of the affected cortical tissue, autofluorescent bands of necrotic cerebral cortex when viewed with ultraviolet illumination –> macroscopically evident cavitation of cerebrocortical tissue. - Histo: necrosis of cerebrocortical neurons; neurons are shrunken and have homogeneous, eosinophilic cytoplasm, nuclei are pyknotic, faded, or absent, vessel cells undergo hypertrophy and hyperplasia; later stages –> cortical tissue undergoes cavitation as macrophages infiltrate and necrotic tissue is removed.
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114
Q

Outline treatment options for PEM in ruminants.

A
  • Thiamine: 10mg/kg IV q6h.- Diuretics: 20% mannitol.- Dexamethsone: 1-2mg/kg IV.- Chelation therapy for Pb: EDTA IV, oral MgSO4 forms insoluble lead sulphides.- IVFT as needed.
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115
Q

Describe the rabies virus.

A
  • Family: Rhabdoviridae; bullet-shaped viruses.- Genus: Lyssavirus.- Non-segmented, negative-stranded RNA virus.
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116
Q

Describe transmission and incidence of rabies in the US.

A
  • Distinct strains in raccoons (most common), skunk, bat, coyote, fox, canine.- Transmission by exposure to saliva containing rabies virus (bite or non-bite); possible all warm-blooded animals.- US 2012 cases: 5,669 wildlife, 115 cattle, 47 equids, 13 small ruminants, 1 human.
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117
Q

Describe clinical manifestations of rabies in cattle.

A
  • Multiple forms: dumb, paralytic, furious; not mutually exclusive.- Rapidly progressive and uniformly fatal. - Odontopharyngeal paralysis.- Ptyalism.- Hindlimb ataxia.- Perineal analgesia.- Yawning.- Tenesmus.- Hyperaesthesia.- Paraphimosis.- Hypersexuality.
118
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of rabies in ruminants.

A
  • Ruminant bitten by infected animal.- Virus uptake into peripheral nerves.- Retrograde axoplasmic flow to the CNS.- Incubation for 30-90 days.- Virus replicates then invades innervated sites (salivary glands and nasal planum).- Behaviour change enhances perpetuation.- Shedding before clinical signs in possible.- Causes a non-suppurative encephalitis.
119
Q

Describe diagnosis of rabies in infected ruminants.

A
  • Examine whole brain.- Histology: non-suppurative encephalitis; negri bodies are pathognomonic lesion but not seen in all cases.- Fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue; highly specific; gold standard by public health departments. - Notifiable!!
120
Q

What should be done with livestock potentially exposed to a rabid animal?

A
  • Unvaccinated livestock: slaughter or sacrifice immediately:- If within 7 days post‐bite: ok to eat cooked meat.- Federal inspectors will reject if within 8 mo of knownexposure- Unvaccinated livestock, owner unwilling to slaughter: keep under close observation for 6 months.- Currently vaccinated livestock (reg for cattle and sheep): revaccinate immediately and 45 day quarantine.
121
Q

What is the aetiologic agent of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)?

A
  • Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy of cattle.- A prion i.e. infectious protein that replicates without the need for nucleic acid.- Induces conformation change in normal cell membrane protein (PrPc) to form the abnormal prion (PrP-BSE).
122
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of BSE.

A
  • Long incubation period; CSx most in 4-6yo cattle therefore higher incidence in dairy than beef breeds.- Ingested in cattle by-products e.g. bone meal.- Propogates in distal ileum, moves through GIT-associated lymphoid tissue to peripheral nerves –> brain, optic nerve, cervical, thoracic and trigeminal ganglia, facial and sciatic nerves. - Accumulation of PrP-BSE in the CNS –> progressive and irreversible neuro dysfunction (exact mech unknown).
123
Q

List the clinical signs of BSE.

A
  • Early subtle behaviour changes may be missed.- Apart from herdmates.- Apprehensive, fearful.- Unprovoked aggression.- Hyperaesthesia.- Headshaking.- Ptyalism.- Head rubbing.- Muscle fasciculations.- Excessive vocalisations.- Freq/repetitive head tossing, licking nostrils, yawning, flehmen, head butting and restlessness.- Relative bradycardia given level of excitement. - Wt loss and dec mild prod.- Ataxia and tremors.- Recumbency.
124
Q

Outline diagnosis of BSE in cattle.

A
  • No in vivo test, only post-mortem.- Histo: neuronal degeneration and intraneuronal vacuolation in specific brain areas; obex of medulla.- Tests to ID prion in brain or SC tissue: Western blot, paraffin-embedded tissue blot, ELISAs.
125
Q

Outline treatment and prognosis for BSE in cattle.

A
  • No tx.- Always fatal.
126
Q

Describe the aetiology of scrapie.

A
  • Oldest known TSE.- Infects sheep, goats and mouflons.- Prion (PrP-Sc) is distinct from BSE prion.
127
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of scrapie.

A
  • Unlike BSE, can infect a variety of non-neural tissues incl lymphoreticular system, kidney and placenta.- Majority of transmission during birthing season –> oral intake of prior in birthing fluids/placenta. - PrP-Sc trans to CNS along vagus n from the GIT.- Dysfunction of CNS appears to roughly correlate w accum of PrP-Sc in the brain.
128
Q

List the clinical signs of scrapie.

A
  • 1-5yo sheep.- Typically dz course slow; lasts several months,- Wt loss.- Stay apart from the herd, restless, nervous.- Pruritis of inc intensity –> secondary wool loss, dermatitis, skin infections or excortiations on head, withers, flanks, back, rump, base of tail and lower limbs.- Head and fact rubbing and shaking –> ocular lesions or aural haematomas.- Bruxism.- Ptyalism.- Regurgitation.- Head to generalised tremors.- Apathy, exercise intol, hypermetria and ataxia.- May progress to stupor, episodic collapse and convulsions.
129
Q

Outline diagnosis of scrapie in sheep.

A
  • IHC may show PrP-Sc in biopsies of lymphoid tissue of tonsils, nictitating membrane, retropharyngeal LNs and rectoanal junction; limited sensitivity.- PM collect brainstem (partic obex), tonsillar tissue and medial retropharyngeal LNs.- Histo: neuronal vacuolations and PrP-Sc deposits in specific brain nuclei.- IHC, Western blot, ELISA in autolysed tissue.
130
Q

Outline treatment and prognosis for scrapie.

A
  • No treatment.- Invariably fatal.
131
Q

Describe the aetiology of pseudorabies (Aujeszky Dz) in cattle.

A
  • Suid hervesvirus type 1; alphaherpesvirus of pigs.- Causes acute, severe and usually fatal encephalitis in cattle, sheep, goats, cats, dogs, wildlife, rarely horses.
132
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pseudorabies in cattle.

A
  • Incubation period 90-156h; illness lasts 8-72h.- Sudden death.- Paraesthesia w severe pruritis, self-trauma.- Fever.- Bellowing.- Bloat.- Foot stamping.- Ptyalism.- Twitching.- Chewing of the tongue.- Ataxia, circling, nystagmus, strabismus.- Agression may be seen but depression more common.- Tenesmus.- Hyperaesthesia.- Excessive licking of nostrils.- Continuous mastication.- Coma.- Convulsions.- Opisthotonus.
133
Q

List the clinical signs of pseudorabies in cattle.

A
  • Exposure can be intradermal, subcutaneous, intranasal or oral –> virus spreads to CNS by axonoplasmic transport.- Eliminated from domestic swine herds in US but still present in feral pigs.
134
Q

Outline diagnosis of pseudorabies in cattle.

A
  • Virus can be isolated from pharyngeal or nasal swabs or infected neural tissue (sensory ganglia or dorsal horn SC).- ABs to IBR may cross-neutralise the pseudorabies virus, founding serologic tests.- Necropsy: non-suppurative encephalitis, neuronal degeneration, eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies; lesions most pronounced in dorsal nerve rootlets and the dorsal horn of the SC.
135
Q

Outline treatment and prognosis for pseudorabies in cattle.

A
  • No treatment.- Most cases are fatal.
136
Q

Which two bovine herpesviruses have been associated with encephalitic disease in cattle?

A
  • BoHV-1 - CNS dz rare.- BoHV-5 - neurotropic, more common CNS dz than than BoHV-1; more common in Sth America than USA.- Both alpha-herpesviruses.
137
Q

List the clinical signs of encephalitic bovine herpesvirus infection.

A
  • Depression.- Mild nasal and ocular discharge (URT dz before/during).- Conscious proprioceptive deficits.- Pyrexia (esp. BoHV‐1).- Lethargy, inappetence, apathy.- Muscle trembling, circling, ptyalism, jaw chomping, tongue protrusion, head pressing, ataxia.- No blindness noted in natural and experimental cases.- Recumbency and seizures, opisthotonos.- Frequently fatal.
138
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of encephalitic bovine herpesvirus infection.

A
  • Transmission via direct contact or aerosole.- Infection of upper respiratory tract NB respiratory signs uncommon with BoHV‐5.- Spread to CNS via trigeminal and olfactory nerves- Establishment of persistent infection in trigeminal ganglion
139
Q

Outline diagnosis of encephalitic bovine herpesvirus infection in cattle.

A
  • Indistinguishable from other viral encephalitides.- Seroconversion in survivors.- Histopath: Nonsuppurative encephalitis.- VI, IHC, PCR on brain tissues.
140
Q

Outline treatment and prevention of encephalitic bovine herpesvirus infection in cattle.

A
  • Treatment is supportive care only.- Vaccination; no BoHV‐5 vaccines available but cross‐protection gained from BHV‐1 vaccine.- MLV is protective against disease.- Vaccines do not prevent infection and latency.- Eradication in some EU countries:– Test and cull– Use of marker vaccines (gE‐negative vaccines).
141
Q

List the aetiologic agent of nervous coccidiosis and the signalment of affected animals.

A
  • Eimeria spp.- Calves and yearling cattle.- Sheep and goats.- Most common in Winter.
142
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of nervous coccidiosis.

A
  • Unknown.- Abnormal electrolyte status?- Abnormal glucose status?- Neurotoxin elaborated by coccidia and absorbed from abnormal intestines?
143
Q

List the clinical signs of nervous coccidiosis in ruminants.

A
  • Dxa, tenesmus, haematochezia prior to neuro signs.- Depression, inco-ordination, twitching, hyperaesthesia.- Progresses to recumbency, opisthotonus, periodic tremors, horizontal nystagmus, frothing at mouth, bellowing, snapping eyelids.- Blindness rarely seen.- Stimulation may precipitate tonic-clonic seizures.
144
Q

How is coccidiosis diagnosed?

A
  • Faecal flotation shows high burden of coccidial oocysts (5000-4 million epg).- CBC, chem, CSF, measure vit A, Pb to rule out other dz.- Necropsy: no macroscopic lesions in CNS; microscopic brain lesions are mild and non-specific incl oedema, occ shrunken neurons; parasitic invasaion of ileum, caecum and colon seen.
145
Q

Outline the treatment and prognosis for nervous coccidiosis in ruminants.

A
  • Sulphonamides or amprolium.- IVFT, electrolytes as needed.- Diazepam, phenobarbital if needed for convulsions. - Response to tx poor; high mortality (70%).
146
Q

What protozoal organisms is capable of causing neurologic disease in newborn calves following infection of the pregnant cow?

A
  • Neospora (closely resembles neospora caninum).- NB mainly causes abortions at 3-8mo gestation w foetal lesions consisting of non-suppurative encephalitis, non-suppurative myocarditis and myositis.
147
Q

What clinical signs are seen in calves with neosporosis?

A
  • Vary due to variable location of parasite in CNS.- Often unable to stand and suckle w abnormal spinal reflexes.- Flexural contracture of FLs, domed skull, torticolis have been reported.- Signs often progress after birth.
148
Q

Describe necropsy findings in calves with neosporosis.

A
  • Focal areas of brain discolouration.- Focal cavitation with cyst formation.- Reduction of grey matter.- Histo: non-suppurative inflamm of grey and white matter, focal lymphocytic meningitis, neuronal necrosis.- May also see myocarditis, hepatitis and myositis.- Protozoa can be seen in stained tissues.
149
Q

Which tick-bourne parasites can cause of encephalitis in cattle?

A
  • Babesia bovis, bigemina or argentina:– Usually cause intravascular and extravascular haemolysis and liver and kidney failure but occ cause encephalitis.- Erhlichia ruminantium (Africa and W. Indies) –> fatal encephalitis in goats, sheep and cattle.- Theileria spp. - exotic dz; T. mutans found in US is relatively non-pathogenic.- Trypanosoma: dz of African cattle.
150
Q

What are the risk factors for development of urea toxicity in cattle?

A
  • Exposure to either: feedstuff containing urea or ammonia, contaminated water sources or ingestion of fertilizers.- Plus lack of adaptation, high rumen pH, lack of fermentable carbohydrates.- NB study in JVIM 2012 reported 1% BWt soybean meal –> mild elevations in blood ammonia but no CSx; 2% BWt soybean meal –> nervous signs, hyperlgycaemia, hyperinsulinaemia, hyperammonaemia 12-22h post-admin.
151
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of urea toxicity in cattle.

A

• Rumen catabolizes urea to ammonia:- Normally assimilated to bacterial proteins.- Too much ammonia can overwhelm system.• CSx develop rapidly w/in 10 – 30 min after feeding• Alkaline rumen content favour non‐ionized ammonia• Ammonia rapidly absorbed –> effect on intermediary metabolism, systemic lactic acidosis, hyperkalemia, ammonia accumulation in blood –> metabolic alkalosis.

152
Q

List the clinical signs of urea toxicity in cattle.

A
  • Abdominal pain (bruxism), bloat, frothing- Muscle tremors, weakness, ataxia- Hyperesthesia, violent struggling, convulsions
153
Q

Outline treatment of urea toxicity in cattle.

A
  • Ruminal infusion with cold water and 5% vinegar.- IV fluids.- Rumenotomy.
154
Q

Describe the aetiology of vitamin A deficiency in cattle.

A
  • Vitamin A is found in green plants and vit A precursors can be fed in cattle rations as b-carotene or retinoids.- Growing feedlot cattle have high vit req and are fed little green plants; can also occur w prolonged dry lot.- Feeds low in vit A: cereal grains other than corn, beet pulp, cottonseed hulls.- Can also occur w grains stored for a prolonged time in high temp/humidity or prolonged feeding of mineral oil.
155
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of vitamin A deficiency in cattle.

A
  • Vit A is resp for regeneration of rhodopsin in the retina, normal function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts, epi tissues, choroid plexus and repro tissues.- Vit A defic –> thickened dura mater –> diminished CSF absorption from the arachnoid granulations and nerve rootlets PLUS in young animals remodelling of bony foramina –> inc CSF pressure (–> papilledema).- Three forms of blindness:– Nyctalopia (night blindness) from dec regen of retinal pigment rhodopsin; reversible.– Degen in outer retinal layers; reversible if early.– Stenosis of optic foramen and compression of optic n; not reversible.
156
Q

List the clinical signs of vitamin A deficiency in cattle.

A
  • Calves: ill-thrift, anorexia, blindness, diarrhoea, pneumonia, intermittent fevers.- Adults: star-gazing posture, blindness, diarrhoea, anasarca, nystagmus, strabismus, exophthalmus, loss of PLR, intermittent tonic-clonic convulsions; coma, death; in good BCS if other nutrients in diet not lacking.- Characteristic ocular changes: papilledema –> pale optic disk w indistinct borders, may become atrophic (dull, flattened, small), retinal blood veseels become tortuous or appear occluded; retinal detachment may occur.- Repro disturbances: malformed foetuses, abortion, testicular degen, dec sperm counts.- Low vit A and carotene conc in feed and plasma.
157
Q

List diagnostic test findings in cattle with vitamin A deficiency.

A
  • Blindness w absent PLRs (vs blindness w normal PLRs in PEM) due to constrictions of optic n at optic foramen.- Low vit A and beta-carotene conc in feed, plasma (200mmHg) in some cases, inc protein, mononuclear pleocytosis.
158
Q

Outline treatment and prognosis for cattle with vitamin A deficiency.

A
  • Acute encephalopathy and simple papilledema: may respons to short course of Vit A supplementation; must give high dose oral therapy as can’t get enough into inj.- If severe vision loss vision will not be returned.- Supplement diet in all an animals off green feed: leafy, freshly cured hay, green pasture, alfalfa meal or stablised supplements.
159
Q

List viral agents which are capable of inducing hydrocephalus or hydrancephaly in developing calves via in utero infection.

A
  • Akabane virus.- BVDV.- Bluetongue.- Cache valley virus.- Border disease.- Aino.- Schmallenberg virus.
160
Q

List the clinical signs of Horner’s syndrome and the possible causes/pathogenesis

A
  • Ptosis, miosis, protrusion of the 3rd eyelid, unilateral facial sweating, increased facial temperature and hyperaemia of the nasal and conjunctival membranes- Causes: Perivascular injection, guttural pouch disease, trauma/infarction/haematoma/neoplasia (incl to cranial thoracic spinal cord or caudal cervical spinal cord), avulsion of the brachial plexus, damage to the sympathetic nerves in the vagosympathetic trunk (due to above causes), orbital/retrobulbar disease/injury.- Pathogenesis: Loss of sympathetic innervation to the head (axons from UMN in the caudal hypothalamus, midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata descend in the cervical spinal cord to preganglionic neurons in the cranial thoracic spinal cord; from here they leave the cord and join the paravertebral sympathetic trunk, ascend the neck and synapse in the cranial cervical ganglion in the guttural pouch
161
Q

List possible cranial nerves responsible for deviation in eye position

A

CN III, CN IV, CN VI, CN VIII (loss/damage to connection with the nuclei in the brainstem)- Can occur with head trauma or mid-brain lesions (can be normal in foals)

162
Q

List the clinical signs of damage to CN VIII

A
  • Head tilt (poll towards the lesion/affected side)- Disorientation (often)- Proprioceptive deficits, asymmetric (may compensate visually with time) but preservation of strength*- Falling &/or circling- Horizontal nystagmus (initially; often only for 48-72hrs)- Fast phase of nystagmus is away from the lesion if peripheral disease; if central, the nystagmus may be vertical, rotary or horizontal and may change with changing head position.
163
Q

Describe the grades of ataxia (1-5 scale)

A
  1. Normal1. Requires careful examination to identify an abnormality2. Deficits are mild-moderate but obvious to most observers as soon as the horse begins to move3. Deficits are obvious and exaggerated by negotiation of a slope or head elevation4. May cause a horse to fall or nearly fall, often abnormal positioning while standing still5. Recumbentor:0 normal 1 needs provocation to see (eg circle) 2 present all times, visible to experienced observer only 3 obvious to anyone with eyes4 falls spontaneously (ie when walking or standing, not when tightly circled or hopped etc) 5 recumbent
164
Q

List the signs of LMN vs UMN dysfunction

A

LMN: Muscle atrophy, sensory loss, weakness, flaccid paralysis with hyporeflexia or areflexia, muscular hypotony.UMN: Weakness, loss of voluntary motor function, however muscle tone may be increased and spinal reflexes may be normal to hyperactive - you can see spastic movement (due to reduced inhibition of extensor motor neurons)

165
Q

List signs of cerebellar dysfunction

A
  • Intention tremors, particularly of the head- Failure to blink in bright light- Lack of menace- Ataxia/loss of coordination- Dysmetria/hypermetria/jerky or stiff gait- Intention tremors- Truncal sway- Vestibular signs or paradoxic vestibular syndrome (head tilt is away from lesion and nystagmus fast phase is towards the lesion - opposite to true vestibular disease)
166
Q

Localise spinal cord disease based on affected region (thoracic limb, pelvic limb, both, tail tone, perineum etc)

A

Pelvic limb only: Caudal to T2 (T2/3-L3)Thoracic limb primarily: C6-T2 Both: Typically pelvic limbs are one grade worse than thoracic limbs due to superficial location of pelvic limb spinocerebellar tracts in the SC; lesion is in the cervical spinal cord, cranial to C6Reduced sensation and paresis of the tail & perineum +/- urinary and faecal incontinence/retention: (S3-S5) can produce hypalgesia, hypotonia and hyporeflexia of the tail, perineum and anus or total analgesia and paralysis.

167
Q

List causes of increased CSF pressure

A
  • Changes in systemic blood pressure- Space occupying mass (tumour, abscess)- Secondary to trauma/hypoxic injury (haemorrhage, oedema)- Hypercapnoea (increases cerebral blood flow therefore CSF pressure; may exacerbate cerebral oedema)- Inflammation, especially of the arachnoid villi (reduced absorption of CSF)- Venous compression increases blood volume in the cranial cavity and compression of the CSF space thus increasing CSF pressure (iatrogenic or post jugular thrombosis)
168
Q

List causes of xanthochromia

A
  • Haemorrhage (usually previous)- Inflammation- Increased protein- Direct bilirubin leakage- Leakage of indirect bilirubin across a damaged BBB
169
Q

List common changes to CSF cytology and possible causes (broad categories rather than specific diseases)

A
  • Increased large mononuclear cells: diseases of axonal degeneration, some encephalitis viruses (EEEV [also some neutropils], WEEV, WNV [primarily lymphocytes], Kunjin [also some neutrophils])- Increased neutrophils: Encephalomyelitis, bacterial meningitis, parasitism, any disease with extensive inflammation- Increased eosinophils: Severe parasitic disease.- Increased lactate: EEEV, trauma, brain abscess (may be the only abnormality of CSF with a brain abscess)
170
Q

What is the normal configuration of a motor unit action potential (MUAP)?

A
  • Triphasic (can also get monophasic, biphasic and polyphasic - a few polyphasic potentials occur in normal muscle but shouldn’t exceed 5-15% of the MUAP observed)
171
Q

What is the normal effect of probe insertion in the muscle

A
  • Short bursts of high amplitude moderate-high frequency electrical activity (shouldn’t last more than 1-2 seconds)- Prolonged insertional activity can be caused by hyperirritability and instability of the muscle fibre membrane; might be suggestive of early denervation atrophy, myotonic disorders or myositis.
172
Q

What are the main differentials for an absence of insertional activity

A
  • Muscle fibre fibrosis (complete)- Functional inexciteability such as with HYPP or familial periodic paralysis- Faulty electrode
173
Q

Describe the pathogenesis for polyphasic MUAP (myopathic potentials) and list the differentials for this finding

A

Pathogenesis: increased frequency but decreased amplitude and duration resulting from an increased number of action potentials for a given strength of contraction. They are due to diffuse loss of muscle fibres hence more motor units are required to perform the work normally done by fewer motor units.Most common in primary myopathies:- Myotonia-like syndromes- Periodic paralysis- Myositis- Botulism- Myasthenia gravis-like syndromes

174
Q

List the differentials for fibrillation potentials (initial positive deflection) and the use of these for monitoring

A
  • Spontaneous discharge from acetylcholine-hypersensitive denervated muscle fibres- Inflammation and focal muscle degeneration- Muscle atrophy- Denervation (may also have positive sharp waves) before clinical atrophy- Reinervation (decrease in fibrillation potentials followed by recording of MUAP over time)
175
Q

List the differentials for positive sharp waves (primary deflection is downward followed by a lower amplitude longer duration negative deflection)

A
  • Myositis, exertional rhabdomyolysis, spinal shock- Denervated muscle post RER, myotonia, EPM, laryngeal hemiplegia, suprascapular nerve injury, compressive myelopathy
176
Q

List the differentials for fasciculation potentials and myotonic/high frequency potentials

A
  • Disease of anterior horn cells - Irritative-type lesions of spinal root or peripheral nerveMyotonic: associated with hyperexcitability of the muscle cell membrane- LMN diseases, steroid induced myopathy, polymyositis, chronic denervation, HYPP, myotonia congenita and dystrophica.
177
Q

List the findings on needle EMG for radial and suprascapular nerve injuries

A

Radial- Positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials in the triceps brachii and extensor carpi radialis musclesSuprascapular- Positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus (or could be damage to these muscles)If there is post-insertional activity in these muscle groups and the lateral head of the triceps it suggests brachial plexus damage.

178
Q

List the correlation between the waves of BAER and their anatomic generator sites

A

Wave I = cochlear nerve; Wave II = cochlear nucleus; Wave III = olivary nucleus; Wave IV = lateral lemniscus; Wave V = caudal colliculus

179
Q

List the most common pathological causes of an abnormal BAER

A

-THO- Congenital sensorineural deafness (Paint Horses, particularly lots of white marking on the face and blue iris)- Multifocal brain disease- Otitis media/interna- Sepsis/neonatal encephalopathy/NI/prematurity in foals - this is usually permanent

180
Q

Define the following: Epilepsy, epileptic seizure, status epilepticus, convulsions

A

Epilepsy: A disorder of the brain characterised by an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures (recurrent seizures).Epileptic seizure: A transient occurrence of signs and/or symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain. Status epilepticus: A condition resulting either from the failure of the mechanisms responsible for seizure termination or from the initiation of mechanisms which lead to abnormally prolonged seizures after time point 1, and can have long-term consequences after time point 2, whereby time point 1 is considered 5 mins and time point 2 is considered 30 minutes.Convulsions are seizures accompanied by tonic-clonic muscle activity and loss of consciousness.

181
Q

Differentiate partial from generalised seizures

A

Partial seizures involve a discrete area of cerebral cortex and cause localised clinical signs (facial twitch, limb twitching etc).Generalised seizures affect the whole body with loss of consciousness. They can be primary (generalised from the onset) or secondary (progression from partial seizures).

182
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of a seizure

A

Abnormal hypersynchronous electrical activity of neurons caused by imbalance between excitation and inhibition in the brain. If the balance shifts towards excitation a seizure might occur.

183
Q

List the differentials for seizure in a horse under 1 year old

A

Congenital: hydrocephalus, hydranencephaly, idiopathic epilepsy.Metabolic: hypoxia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia.Toxic: Organophosphates, strychnine, metaldehyde, moldy corn, locoweed.Traumatic: brain trauma, lightning.Vascular: NMASInfectious: Septicemia, hyperthermia, bacterial meningitis, cerebral abscesses, rabies, viral encephalitis.Most common in foals under 2 weeks: NMAS, HIE, trauma and bacterial meningitis.

184
Q

List the differentials for seizure in a horse older than 1 year

A

Metabolic: HE, hypocalcemia, ureamia, hyperlipidaemiaToxic: organophosphates, strychnine, metaldehyde, moldy corn, locoweed, bracken fern, lead, arsenic, mercury, rye grassTraumatic: brain trauma.Vascular: Strongylus vulgaris, cerebral thromboembolism, intracarotid injection, neoplasia, haemarthroma, cholesterol granulomaInfectious: cerebral abscess, rabies, arbovirus encephalitis, mycotic cryptococcosis, EPM.Most common in adults: brain trauma, HE and toxicity. Tumours such as melanoma, pituitary adenoma, cholesteatoma and rarely glioma can cause seizures.

185
Q

Describe the roles of NMDA receptors and GABA in the pathogenesis of seizure development

A

NMDA: binding of glutamate to NMDA receptors opens Na and Ca channels causing post-synaptic depolarisations. If exacerbated, intracellular Ca overload causes neuronal necrosis by activation of lytic enzyme systems and nitric oxide synthase with generation of free radicals. GABA: in response to the above depolarisation shift GABA-ergic inhibitory zones are established to prevent spread of epileptic activity. This can be pre or post synaptic. If this system fails, the abnormal depolarisation shift will continue and once a critical mass is reached uncontrolled spread over the cerebral cortex may occur and can result in a seizure.

186
Q

What are the electrolyte derangements noted during the inter-ictal period

A

Increased potassium concentration, decreased intracellular calcium, magnesium and chloride. Alterations in sodium conductance, particularly rapid influx into the neuron, may also be involved.

187
Q

What changes on EEG do you expect to see with seizures

A

Spikes, sharp waves, spike-and-wave discharges and other transient events.

188
Q

List the treatments (short term) for seizure, including the benefits and contraindications for each

A

Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam) - bind to GABA receptors, hyperpolarising neuronal cells therefore decreasing electrical activity of the seizure focus and increasing the seizure threshold. They have a short half life (10-15 min for diazepam), prolonged use can result in respiratory depression/arrest and drug accumulation in foals; phenobarbital - rapidly provides high serum concentrations; reduces cerebral metabolic rate, facilitates inhibitory neurotransmission by GABA receptors, inhibits post-synaptic potentials produced by glutamate and inhibits the voltage gated Ca channels at excitatory nerve terminals. Lower doses should be used in foals, including the loading dose. Sodium pentobarbital - more useful in foals due to anaesthetic effects but may be helpful in adults with status epilepticus (as well as propofol and ketamine); primidone (metabolised to phenobarbital and to a lesser extent phenylethylmalonamide which might potentiate effects of phenobarbital) has been advocated for foals. Phenytoin inactivates voltage-dependent neuronal sodium channels, preventing depolarisation hence reducing release of glutamate. Adverse effects are prolonged depression in foals, AV block and decreased blood pressure in adults. ACP may reduce seizure threshold. Ketamine may exacerbate seizures due to increased cerebral blood flow, O2 consumption and intracranial pressure, but also antagonises NMDA receptors hence may be useful.

189
Q

List the treatments (long term) for seizure, including the benefits and contraindications for each

A

Phenobarbital (drug of choice) - remember it induces cytochrome P450 enzyme complex therefore increased its own metabolism so therapeutic monitoring is required (every 60 days once stable). Adverse effects include excessive sedation, respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension and hypothermia in neonates. Avoid drugs with interactions such as ivermectin. Tetracyclines and chloramphenicol inhibit microsomal emzymes therefore prolonging effects of phenobarbital.Potassium bromide - competes with Cl to hyperpolarise neuronal membranes and enhances GABA-activated Cl conductance. Takes a few weeks to reach steady state so shouldn’t be used alone. Can reduce dose of phenobarbital by 20% and add Potassium bromide. Phenytoin - inactivates voltage-dependent neuronal sodium channels, preventing depolarisation hence reducing release of glutamate. Adverse effects are prolonged depression in foals, AV block and decreased blood pressure in adults.Primidone - metabolised to phenobarbital and to a lesser extent phenylethylmalonamide which might potentiate effects of phenobarbital; has been advocated for foals. Other drugs used in other species: felbamate, gabapentin, clorozepate, toparimate, levetiracetam and zonisamide. These potentially have improved therapeutic indices.

190
Q

List the breeds associated with familial narcolepsy

A

Shetland, Suffolk, American miniatures and Lippizaners.

191
Q

List the described triggers for an episode of narcolepsy and cataplexy

A

Initiation of eating or drinking, petting/stroking the head or neck, hosing with cold water after exercise and leading out of a stable.

192
Q

Differentiate narcolepsy from other causes of collapse

A

Narcolepsy: gradual lowering of the head precipitates a collapse episode. Neurologically and cardiovascularly normal between episodes. Sleep deprivation: may also include gradual lowering of the head and buckling; no cataplexy.Syncope: Not preceded by lowering of the head or drowsiness. Seizure: loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic activity in generalised seizures. Botulism: Additional neurological signs (progressive weakness, dysphagia, weak tongue tone etc).HYPP: remain alert, often anxious and may have prolapse of the third eyelid.

193
Q

List treatments for narcolepsy

A

Drugs that stimulate monoamine systems (dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin) should be effective narcolepsy suppressors; those that stimulate cholinergic activity exacerbate narcolepsy. - Atropine sulphate reduces the severity of cataplectic attacks and can prevent reoccurrence for 12-30 hours. - Imiprimine (tricyclic antidepressant) blocks uptake of serotonin and noradrenaline and decreases REM sleep. Oral Tx produces inconsistent results, although no adverse results. Adverse effects of IV tx exceeding 2mg/kg include muscle fasciculations, tachycardia, hyperresponsiveness to sound and haemolysis.

194
Q

List differentials for a collapsing horse

A
  • Seizure- Sleep deprivation- Narcolepsy- Syncope- Hypersomnia- REM disorders
195
Q

List the common pathologies secondary to flipping over backwards

A
  • Fracture (petrous temporal bone, squamous temporal and parietal bones, basilar bones)- Haemorrhage into retropharyngeal space and guttural pouch (laceration of vessels and/or rupture of rectus capitus ventralis muscle)- Cerebral contusion secondary to acceleration-deceleration forces
196
Q

List the common pathologies secondary to impact on the dorsal surface of the head

A
  • Fracture (frontal or parietal bones)- Cerebral cortical injury- Spinal cord injury/cervical vertebral damage- Damage to CN XII where it exits the hypoglossal foramen- Stretching of the optic nerves and subsequent blindness.
197
Q

Define primary versus secondary traumatic brain injury

A

Primary: immediate mechanical disruption of brain tissue characterised by damage to neuronal cell bodies, dendritic arborisations, axons, glial cells and brain vasculature (often irreversibly). Can be focal, multifocal or diffuse.Secondary: A cascade of molecular, cellular and biochemical events that can occur for days-months after injury, causing delayed tissue damage. Hypoxia, ischaemia, brain swelling, altered intracranial pressure (disruption to cerebral autoregulation results in increased intracranial pressure therefore reduced cerebral perfusion/blood flow), breakdown of the BBB and impaired energy metabolism.

198
Q

Define the Cushing’s Reflex

A

A hypothalamic response to brain ischaemia that results from acute increased intracranial pressure. You get hypertension and secondary baroreceptor-mediated bradycardia. Continued elevation of intracranial pressure and reduction of cerebral blood flow results in increased sympathetic discharge with subsequent myocardial ischaemia and development of cardiac arrhythmias - “brain-heart syndrome”.

199
Q

List the signs of brainstem injury

A
  • Coma, depression (damage to the RAS)- Strabismus, anisocoria, loss of PLR (due to damage to CNIII)- Apneustic or erratic breathing (poor prognosis)- Bilaterally dilated pupils/unresponsive to light (indicates an irreversible brainstem lesion)- Decorticate posture (rigid extension of the neck, back and limbs)To differentiate caudal brainstem from rostral cervical spine assess mentation and function of CNX and CNXII (mentation abnormal and tongue weakness and/or lack of vagal input with brainstem only)
200
Q

List the signs of cerebral injury

A
  • Seizures (usually generalised)- Impaired vision and menace (contralateral to the lesion; PLR should be intact)- Decreased facial sensation contralateral to the lesion (parietal cortex)- Altered behaviour (circling, head pressing, hyperexcitability, aggression)
201
Q

List the signs of cerebellar injury/disease

A
  • Ataxia- Inability to regulate rate, range and force of movement- Jerky/awkward initiation of movement- Intention tremors- Truncal sway- Hypertonia causing a spastic gait- Signs can be bilateral or unilateral depending on focal or diffuse disease.- Vestibular signs if flocculonodular lobe or vastigial nucleus involved (dysequilibrium, nystagmus with fast phase way from the lesion, head and body tilt toward the lesion). - Paradoxic vestibular disease (head tilt away from the lesion and nystagmus with fast phase toward the lesion) if cerebellar peduncle is involved.
202
Q

List the treatment for TBI

A
  • Optimise cerebral blood flow (optimise MAP and ensure intracranial pressure is not increased)- If increased intracranial pressure: hyperventilation (risk is reduction of cerebral blood flow may cause ischaemia), hyperosmolar agents (hypertonic saline, mannitol), barbiturates, head elevation, CSF drainage? - only if obstruction to outflow, decompressive surgery?- Crystalloid fluid therapy (slightly less than maintenance)- Keep blood glucose concentration between 7.5-8mmol/L. - Hypothermia- Anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs, steroids? controversial; DMSO? controversial; vitamin E and C? possibly don’t reach therapeutic concentrations in time for acute disease)- Control seizures to reduce secondary injury- Avoid ketamine due to increases in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. - Barbiturates if intracranial pressure elevation is refractory to other treatments (decreases cerebral metabolism so protects against ischaemia but also cause hypotension)
203
Q

List the mechanisms of action of hypertonic saline and mannitol

A

Hypertonic saline: produces an osmotic gradient b/w the intravascular and interstitial-intracellular compartments leading to shrinkage of brain tissue, therefore decreasing intracranial pressure. It also augments volume resuscitation and increases circulating volume, MAP and cerebral perfusion pressure. In addition in restores neuronal membrane potential maintains BBB integrity and modulates the inflammatory response by reducing adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelium. Contraindicated with dehydration, intracerebral haemorrhage, hypernatraemia, renal failure, HYPP and hypothermia. Need to monitor CVP and Na/K concentrations. Mannitol: induces changes in blood rheology and increases cardiac output, leading to improved cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral oxygenation. The effects of this are cerebral artery vasoconstriction and subsequent reduction in cerebral blood volume and intracranial pressure. Multiple doses may be associated with renal and CNS effects including intravascular dehydration, hypotension and reduction of cerebral blood flow. Concurrent use with furosemide may prolong the effects and diminish the potential for rebound intracranial pressure elevation.

204
Q

List common vertebral fracture sites in adults and foals

A

Foals: C1-C3 and T15-T18; axial dens fracture with atlantoaxial subluxation (usually disruption of the physis of the dens and separation of the odontoid process)Occipital-atlantoaxial region, C5-T1 and caudal thoracic. May be more common in young horses due to late closure of cervical vertebral growth plates (4-5yrs)

205
Q

Are ataxia and loss of proprioception and motor function or loss of deep pain associated with more severe injury and why?

A

Spinal cord damage is typically worse in large myelinated motor and proprioceptive fibres compared with smaller non-myelinated nociceptive fibres hence you see ataxia and loss of both proprioceptive and motor function before you see loss of deep pain.

206
Q

List the 3 phases of spinal cord injury and repair in a temporal manner

A
  1. Vascular and biochemical changes within the spinal cord (first 48 hours)2. Effects of inflammatory cells (peaks approximately 4 hours after injury)3. Axonal regeneration and lesion repair (from about 1 week after injury
207
Q

Why do you sometimes see impaired ventilation, bradycardia and hypotension with spinal cord injury

A

Lesions cranial to C5 can affect the respiratory centre or cranial to T2, the origin of the sympathetic outflow for the thoracolumbar spinal cord.

208
Q

Discuss the use of anti-inflammatories with SCI

A

Corticosteroids: thought to primarily help with free radical scavenging but may also decrease catecholamines and glutamate and decrease apoptosis-related cell death and spread of morphologic damage, preventing loss of axonal conduction and reflex activity. May also preserve vascular membrane integrity and stabilise white matter neural cell membranes. May help reduce fibrin and oedema and reduce Na/K imbalance secondary to oedema and necrosis. No longer used in humans. Evidence of positive effect is lacking…DMSO: increases brain and SC blood flow, decreases brain and SC oedema, increases vasodilating PGE1, decreases platelet aggregation, decreases PGE2 and PGF2, protects cell membranes and traps hydroxyl radicals. Exact mechanisms is unknown. Evidence lacking and use is controversial. Vit E and Se: beneficial for antioxidant effects although may not be of benefit in acute injury due to time taken to reach therapeutic concentrations.

209
Q

List management strategies for recumbent horses

A
  • Massage/therapeutic ultrasound and or hydrotherapy of affected limbs/muscle groups for 10-15min 2+ times daily to encourage blood flow- Flexion and extension of all limbs to maintain range of motion- Turning at least every 3-4 hours to reduce compartment syndromes/pressure necrosis.
210
Q

Define the direction of nystagmus and the control of the fast and slow phase

A

The direction of the fast phase defines the direction of nystagmus, so if the head is turned to the left the fast phase will also be to the left. The fast phase is under control of the brainstem and the slow phase is under vestibular control.

211
Q

Differentiate physiologic nystagmus from the oculocephalic reflex

A

Physiologic nystagmus is the normal movement of the eye (controlled by the motor nuclei of CNIII, CNIV and CNVI) when the head moves; also called vestibular-ocular nystagmus. The oculocephalic reflex is independent of vision and associated with rapid manipulation of the head. If you cannot elicit this reflex disease is either bilateral or involves damage to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and hence extensive brainstem damage.

212
Q

Describe the anatomic association of the facial and vestibular nerves

A

The facial nerve emerges from the lateral medulla ventral to the vestibulocochlear nerve at the level of the trapezoid body. The two nerves are associated closely with the petrous temporal bone and enter the internal auditory meatus together. After this the facial nerve separates and courses through the facial canal of the petrosal bone and exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

213
Q

List the clinical signs of peripheral vestibular system dysfunction

A
  • Head tilt- Horizontal nystagmus (fast phase directed away from the lesion)- Head tilt (poll toward the lesion)- Falling and or circling (lean or circle towards the lesion)- Reluctance to move (if forced may take short uncoordinated steps)- Asymmetric ataxia (with preservation of strength) - Loss of hearing*Note: if bilateral, ataxia is often symmetric and you may not see nystagmus, head tilt or circling and the oculocephalic reflex cannot be induced. Head may sway with wide excursions.
214
Q

Why do you see asymmetric ataxia with peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Asymmetric ataxia (with preservation of strength) occurs due to extensor hypotonia ipsilateral (due to loss of faciliatory neurons of the vestibulospinal tract to ipsilateral extensor muscles), and mild extensor hypertonia and hypereflexia contralateral (due to loss of inhibitory neurons and unopposed extensor tone of the contralateral vestibulospinal tract).

215
Q

List the clinical signs of central vestibular disease and how you would differentiate from peripheral disease

A
  • Head tilt- Nystagmus that can be horizontal, vertical or rotatory (you only see vertical or rotatory with central Dz). Fast phase is away from the lesion - in rotatory the direction is defined by the movement of the limbus from the 12O’clock position during the fast phase. Compensation is slower with central compared to peripheral Dz.- Falling and circling towards the lesion- Proprioceptive deficits (only see this with central Dz) due to damage within the brainstem of the descending UMN tracts of the limbs - if there is damage to the spinocerebellar tracts or caudal cerebellar peduncles you get abnormal unconscious proprioception and hypermetria.- Obtundation (differentiates central from peripheral Dz.)- Involvement of other cranial nerves (differentiates central from peripheral Dz)- Evidence of cerebellar disease*Note: if bilateral, ataxia is often symmetric and you may not see nystagmus, head tilt or circling and the oculocephalic reflex cannot be induced. Head may sway with wide excursions.
216
Q

Define paradoxic vestibular disease or cerebellar-vestibular disease.

A

The eyes are maintained centrally because the vestibulo-ocular pathways are opposed in an equal and opposite manner. If disease is unilateral this upsets the balance resulting in slow deviation of both eyes towards the lesion.

217
Q

List differentials for vestibular signs

A
  • Inflammatory brain disease/inflammation of the CNS- Space occupying lesions (Strep equi equi abscess, fungal granuloma eg Aspergillus or Cryptococcus neoformans, cholesterol granuloma). Less common neoplasms include lymphoma, ependymoma, meningeal melanoma and melanotic hamartoma.- EPM and rabies depending on geography- Polyneuritis equi (although caudal equina signs predominante)- EHV myelitis (primarily spinal ataxia but may be a vestibular component)- Togaviruses (EEEV, WEEV, VEEV - primarily depression and seizures but cranial nerve deficits may include vestibular signs)- WNV (may have a component of vestibular disease among other CN dysfunctions)- Aberrant parasite migration (usually quite varied neurological signs)
218
Q

List the clinical signs for Cerebellar Abiotrophy and provide some differentials for this condition

A
  • Intention tremor- Base wide stance- Lack of menace & failure to blink in bright light- Ataxia - Dysmetria and spasticityDDX: cranial malformation, congenital spinal malformation (incl atlantoaxial malformation), stenotic myelopathy, cerebellar inflammation/infection and trauma. EEG may help to rule out seizure as a cause for the tremors.
219
Q

List the breeds commonly affected by cerebellar abiotrophy and the differences between them.

A

Arabian and Gotland foals (and their crosses: generally signs noted by 1 yr of age, most commonly 1-6mo. Signs are generally progressive for several months but once the animal reaches maturity they become static or may improve slightly.Oldenburgs: generally progressive and fatal with atypical histological findings compared with those of Arabian foals (Arabian foals typically have apoptosis of purkinje cells).

220
Q

List differentials for cerebellar disease and some defining points for each

A
  • Cerebellar abiotrophy: diagnosed based on signalment (Arabian, Gotland or Oldenburg breeds), typically foals.- Gomen Disease: geographically located to New Caledonia, progressive disease in horses at pasture over 3-4 yrs until they die or are euthanised. - Dandy-Walker syndrome: defect in the midline of the cerebellum and cystic dilation of the 4th Ventricle. May be abnormal from birth: reported in Arabs and TBs.- Cerebellar hypoplasia or dysplasia: reported rarely in TBs with variable clinical signs and ranging from foals to adults. - Strep equi equi abscess: history of previous strangles.- Aberrant parasitic migration: often accompanied by other neurological deficits- Chronic methylmercurial poisoning: signs include cerebellar ataxia, lethargy, anorexia, exudative dermatitis, and laminitis.
221
Q

List the clinical signs of Shivers and the commonly affected breeds

A

Chronic progressive movement disorder- Difficulty walking backwards and may have tremors, hyperflexed pelvic limb posture, may progress to involve thoracic limb movement.- Muscle atrophy and reduced muscle strength- Exercise intolerance- Facial twitching and or elevated tail headBreeds: Draft breeds, TBs, WBs and less commonly Connemara, Welsh, QH, SB, saddlebred, Tennessee Walking horse, Missouri Fox Trotters, Paint and Morgans.

222
Q

List the 4 gait patterns of shivering

A
  1. Hyperextension when backing and lifting the limb2. Hyperflexion and abduction during backward walking3. Shivering hyperflexion with abduction during backward walking4. Shivering-forward hyperflexion including intermittent hyperflexion and abduction with forward walking
223
Q

List the breed, age and gender predilection for CVSM

A

Males, young horses (less than 7yrs, often well-fed rapidly growing), TBs, Tennessee Walking horses and WBs.

224
Q

Define dynamic versus static compression with CVSM including effect of flexion versus extension of the neck.

A

Dynamic: compression is intermittent and occurs when the cervical vertebrae are flexed (cranial vertebral lesions) or extended (caudal vertebral lesions).Static: compression is continuous regardless of cervical position.

225
Q

List the common clinical signs of CVSM

A

-Symmetric ataxia- UMN extensor paresis (weak on dynamic tail pull) & dysmetria (usually worse in pelvic than thoracic limbs due to superficial location of pelvic limb spinocerebellar proprioceptive tracts)- Circumduction of pelvic limbs on circling- Flexor paresis (toe dragging)- Forelimb hypometria, particularly up and down a hill/with head elevation- May have concurrent OCD/DOD of the appendicular skeleton.

226
Q

List medical and surgical treatment options for CVSM

A
  • Dietary protein and energy restriction (likely only effective in horses 1-2yrs age) and close monitoring of trace elements such as zinc and copper- Stall rest/exercise restriction (more effective in young horses)- Supplementation with vitamin E and Se (EDM is a differential in young horses)- Anti-inflammatories/corticosteroids (realistically one of the few options in adult horses with acute neuro dz)- Medication of DAPJ if evidence of OA- Intervertebral fusion (fenestrated basket or threaded cylinder) - most effective if only one site and if only mild neurological disease.
227
Q

Describe/List the clinical findings, signalment and pathogenesis of equine neuroaxonal dystrophy and equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy

A
  • Diffuse, symmetric degenerative neurologic disease- UMN and general proprioceptive deficits including symmetric ataxia, weakness, dysmetria (mostly hypometria), horses may pace. All 4 limbs affected, usually worse in pelvic limbs.- May pivot on the inside and circumduct the outside hindlimb when circled- Some LMN signs such as hyporeflexia of the trunk and neck with absent or reduced cervical, cervicofacial, cutaneous trunci and laryngea adductor reflexes.- No gender or sex predilection; affects young horses, usually in the first yr of life but can be as young as 1 month up to several years. - May be inherited as a complex trait that predisposes horses then subject to vit E deficiency- Exposure of susceptible horses to diets deficient in vitamin E is thought to be involved in the pathogenesis due to oxidative damage and lipid peroxidation of cell membranes. - Vit E deficiency is not consistent among all affected horses, but supplementation during the first year of life may reduce incidence and severity of disease- Definitive diagnosis required histo, although low serum vit E in a horse with compatible clinical signs is supportive. - Not, or very slowly progressive, but horses don’t recover (usually stabilise by 3yrs but remain neurologically abnormal/unfit to perform).
228
Q

List the risk factors (incl geographical), common signalment and causative agents for EPM

A

Main risk factors:- Exposure to opposums- Housing indoors on straw or corn stalks, and lack of rodent proof feed storage- Use for racing increased the risk.- Presence of a stressor such as transport, heavy exercise, injury, parturition etc may increase the risk.Other risk factors:- High seroprevalence in the USA, which increases with increasing temperature as well as increasing patient age- Racing and showing animals are at higher risk than breeding or pleasure horsesSignalment:- Average age of affected horses is 4yrs, higher risk animals are thought to be 1-5yrs or greater than 13yrs. - No gender predilection but TB, SB, WB and QH more commonly affected. Causative agents:S. neurona is most common, N. hughesi is less common and seroprevalence is much lower to this parasite.

229
Q

Describe the transmission of EPM

A
  • Contamination of feed/water sources with infected opposum faeces. - No horizontal transmission in horses of S. neurona- Transplacental transfer is very uncommon or absent- Some reports of trans-placental transmission of N. hughesi.
230
Q

List factors contributing to pathogenesis of EPM

A

**- Parasite dose is likely a factor - the immune clearance of the parasite is likely very effective given the high rate of exposure relative to disease incidence.- Physiologic stress may influence susceptibility to clinical disease- Entry into the CNS thought to be either via endothelial cells or leucocytes

231
Q

List clinical signs of EPM, including 3 A’s of EPM

A
  • Acute-chronic insidious onset neurological signs that may be focal or multifocal- Can include brain, brainstem or spinal cord- Signs are variable due to random distribution o lesions within the CNS. - Grey matter involvement leads to focal muscle atrophy and severe muscle weakness- White matter involvement results in ataxia and weakness in limbs caudal to the lesion. - Horses are usually bright and alert with no alterations in physical exam findings. - Neuro exam typically shows asymmetric ataxia, weakness, spasticity (quadrilateral). - If brain or brainstem involvement may see obtundation, head tilt, cranial nerve dysfunction (often facial) and dysphagia. - 3 A’s: ataxia, asymmetry and atrophy.
232
Q

List the diagnostic methods and pathologic findings

A

Diagnosis:- Presumptive diagnosis based on clinical signs and absence of other causes of neurological dysfunction- Immunodiagnostic testing of serum and CSF to show intrathecal antibody production. - Positive serum titre does not confirm disease due to high seroprevalence; likewise detection in CSF alone does not confirm due to passive transfer across the BBB. Pathology:- Haemorrhage and foci of malacia mostly in the spinal cord. - Brainstem more commonly involved than other areas of the brain.- Lesions characterised by focal to diffuse areas of nonsuppurative inflammation and necrosis with pervascular infiltration of mononuclear cells (can affect grey or white matter)

233
Q

List the differential diagnoses for EPM

A
  • CVSM- Viral encephalitis (WNV, EEEV, WEEV, EHV-1)- Meningitis- Trauma (TBI or SCI)- ENAD/EDM- Polyneuritis equiBasically any neurologic disease depending on signs shown.
234
Q

List treatment options for EPM and likelihood of success

A
  • Pyrimethamine and sulphonamides (caution with addition of folic acid - may increased toxicity - used to reduce risk of anaemia)- Ponazuril (benzeneacetonitrile compound) broad spectrum anticoccidial- Anti-inflammatories symptomatically to treat acute neurological disease- Regardless of treatment method, approximately 60-75% improvement rate is generally seen with standard therapies.
235
Q

List clinical signs of EHV-1 Myeloencephalopathy

A

*May be preceded or accompanied by URT disease, fever, inappetence or hindlimb oedema. - Acute onset neuro signs, predominantly of spinal white matter (hence flexor reflexes are normal and perineal reflexes are preserved).- Ataxia and paresis- Hypotonia of tail and anus or tail elevation- Urinary incontinence- Conscious proprioceptive deficits- Limb weakness (can become recumbent)- Severe case may become recumbent, and may die in coma or convulsion. * signs generally stabilise after 1-2 days and don’t progress.

236
Q

List the 5 herpesviruses of horses and 3 of asinines and the disease associated with each (briefly)

A

Alpha-herpes:- EHV-1 (abortion and myelopathy)- EHV-4 (equine rhinopneumonitis; rarely abortion & myeloencephalopathy)- EHV-3 (equine coital exanthema)Gamma-herpes:- EVH-2 (rhinitis)- EHV-5 (EMNPF)Asinine alpha-herpes:- AHV-1- AHV-2- AHV-3

237
Q

Describe infection and immune evasion of EHV-1

A
  • Inhalation or ingestion of virus in respiratory, abortion, salivary, ocular and faecal products. - Attaches to and replicates on nasopharyngeal epithelium where it infiltrates phagocytic cells- Incubation is 2-10 days- Migration of infected phagocytes into circulation results in viraemia (predominantly T lymphocytes of the buffy coat)- Transfers to the vascular endothelium of the CNS- Results in vasculitis and thrombosis of arterioles of the brain and spinal cord, hence development of neuro Dz.- Evades host immune system in part by downregulating major histocompatibility complex class I expression at the cell surface.
238
Q

List epidemiologic factors of EHV-1 myeloencephalopathy

A
  • Virus shed by clinically affected, subclinically affected and carrier animals for 3+ weeks- Survives in the environment for 14 days- Survives on horses hair for 35-42 days- Can occur any time of the year but highest incidence in late winter, spring and early summer- Restrict movement for at least 3 weeks after resolution of clinical signs in the last clinical case- Demonstration of stable or declining titres in affected or exposed horses helps determine when clinical spread has ceased.
239
Q

List the diagnostic methods and their challenges for EHV-1 Myeloencephalopathy

A
  • Virus isolation from nasopharyngeal swabs or buffy coat (PCR)- Virus isolation from CSF (rare)- Presence of antibodies to EHV-1 in CSF (but, need to take into account the albumin and serum IgG concentrations as it can simply reflect leakage of antibodies across a damaged BBB with vasculitis)- Rising tire on paired samples (but, many horses don’t show the prescribed rise because of rapid antibody production within 6-10 days of infection hence they may have peaked by the time of developing clinical signs).- Testing paired serum samples from in-contact horses is a good means as many seroconvert despite not showing clinical signs, or may go on to develop clinical signs. - Many tests don’t differentiate between EHV-4 and EHV-1.
240
Q

List differential diagnoses for EHV-1 Myeloencephalopathy

A
  • EPM- CVSM- Trauma/fracture- Polyneuritis equi- Fibrocartilagenous infarction- Aberrent parasite migration- ENAD/EDM- Viral encephalitis (flaviviruses and alphaviruses- Rabies- Botulism- CNS abscess- Plant & chemical intoxicoses
241
Q

List the ocular changes seen in some foals with EHV-1

A
  • Uveal vasculitis with perivascular mononuclear cuffing in the ciliary body and optic nerve- Retinal degeneration & hypopyon- Chorioretinopathy without anterior segment involvement- Occassionally you see ocular and neural damage in the absence of gross signs of neurologic or visual impairment.
242
Q

What suggests involvement of the immune system in polyneuritis equi?

A

Circulation of antibodies to P2 myelin protein. Inflammatory lesions contain both T and B lymphocytes, suggesting the possibility of an immune-mediated reaction to myelin.

243
Q

What are the two forms of polyneuritis equi?

A

Acute/early signs include hyperaesthesia of the perineal or head regions (or both)The chronic form involves paralysis of the tail, anus, rectum and bladder, often accompanied by urinary or faecal retention.

244
Q

List possible neurologic abnormalities with polyneuritis equi

A
  • Tail, anus, bladder paralysis (may have faecal/urinary retention)- Ataxia (pelvic limbs usually worse and symmetric)- Muscle atrophy (gluteals and head - head often asymmetrically)- Cranial nerve dysfunction (often asymmetric) primarily of CNV, CNVII and CNVIII; note these are peripheral; no alteration in mentation- Head tilt, ear droop, lip droop and ptosis are common signs.*Typically lesions involve extradural nerve roots but can also involve intradural nerve roots
245
Q

What is the primary finding in Acquired Equine Polyneuropathy in Scandinavia?

A

Acute onset bilateral pelvic limb digital extensor dysfunction and knuckling.

246
Q

List the most frequently isolated alphaviruses (encephalitis viruses), their distribution, vector, pathogenesis and clinical signs

A

EEEV, WEEV, VEEV: western hemisphere, mosquitoes, virus multiplies in muscle, enters the lymphatics, localises in lymph nodes. It replicates in macrophages and neutophils and is shed in small numbers at which time many viral particles are cleared. If clearance is incomplete remaining virus infects endothelial cells and concentrates in vascular organs (liver and spleen) where it replicates further, causing viraemia and early clinical signs. Infection of the CNS occurs within 3-5 days. Clinical signs include fever, anorexia, stiffness, obtundation, hyperesthaesia, altered behaviour, compulsive walking, cranial nerve dysfunction; death is preceded by recumbency 1-7days

247
Q

List diagnostic methods for togaviruses

A

Clinical signs, IgM antibody capture enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (not produced by vaccination), paired samples are not always reliable as titres increase within 24 hours of viraemia, PCR, FAT and ELISA for necropsy specimens.

248
Q

List the vaccination protocol for EEEV/WEEV recommended by AAEP

A

Adults: 2 doses 4-6 weeks apart. Annually or biannually depending on climate/mosquito prevalence, and timed to be before mosquito season startsFoals: 3 doses with a 4 week interval (start at 2-3mo if high risk and unvaccinated mare); 4 th dose at 10-12mo or before mosquito season starts

249
Q

List important flaviviruses

A
  • Japanese encephalitis virus (mosquito)- St. Louis encephalitis (mosquito)- West Nile virus (mosquito)- Murray Valley encephalitis (mosquito)- Kunjin virus (mosquito)- Powassan (tick) - Louping Ill virus (tick).
250
Q

List clinical signs of WNV

A

*~90% of horses seroconvert without clinical signs.- Weakness (LMN in SC)- Ataxia (LMN in SC)- Altered mentation (grey matter of mid brain and hind brain)- Fever in early phase- Muscle fasciculations (commonly of the face, neck and muzzle)- Cranial nerve deficits (due to effects on grey matter of mid brain and hind brain)- Recumbency- Anorexia- Bruxism- Hyperexcitability, apprehension or aggression may be seen (if thalamic involvement)- Sleep like states resembling narcolepsy may occur in rare cases.

251
Q

What is the prognosis for recovery with WNV?

A

In horses that improve, 90% recover completely within 1- -6mo. Residual weakness and ataxia are common complications in those that don’t recover completely. Mild-moderate persistent fatigue on exercise is reported in some horses.

252
Q

List the transmission of Borna virus

A

Virus shed in body secretions gains access to a host via exposed nerve endings in nasal and pharyngeal mucosa. GP43 protein facilitates internalisation to cells via endocytosis; virus migrates to olfactory bulbs and has tropism for the limbic system. Virus causes progressive severe immune-mediate nonsuppurative meningoencephalitis

253
Q

List the clinical signs of Borna virus

A

Variable signs; may include:- Slow-motion chewing or chewing motions of the mouth- Head pressing- Somnolence and stupor- Hyperexcitability- Fearfulness or aggressiveness- Hypokinesia- Abnormal posture- Hyporeflexia- Head tilt- neurogenic torticollis- Inability to swallow- Death in 1-4 weeks.

254
Q

List the transmission routes for rabies

A
  • Saliva through bites- Droplet/aerosolisation inhalation - Oral transmission- Transplacentally
255
Q

Where does rabies virus replicate?

A

Spinal and dorsal root ganglia of the peripheral nerve it has travelled up.

256
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies virus

A

14-90 days and up to 1 year.

257
Q

List the three forms of rabies and the clinical signs of each

A
  1. Cerebral/Furious form: aggressive behaviour, photophobia, hydrophobia, hyperaesthesia, self-mutilation, straining, muscle tremors, convulsions and blindness.2. Brainstem/Dumb form: obtundation, anorexia, head tilt, circling, excess salivation, facial and pharyngeal paralysis. 3. Paralytic/Spinal form: progressive ascending paralysis, ataxia, shifting lameness with hyperaesthesia, self mutilation of an extremity, flaccid tail and anus and urinary incontinence. More than one form can occur concurrently. Anti-inflammatories delay virus progression but death occurs within 5-10 days of clinical signs.
258
Q

List diagnostic tests for rabies

A
  • Direct fluorescent antibody test- Lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF is supportive- Histology of the brain- Mouse inoculation test (inoculate intracerebrally with salivary or brain tissue and observe for development of disease)
259
Q

Which muscle groups are primarily affected by wasting with EMND?

A

Quadriceps, triceps and gluteals

260
Q

What ocular changes are seen with EMND?

A

Yellow-brown-black pigment with a reticulated appearance above the optic disc on fundic exam (at the tapetal-non-tapetal junction. Seen in 30% of cases

261
Q

Where are degenerative changes primarily localised to with EMND?

A

Ventral horn cells (LMN) of the grey matter, nucleus ambiguous, and all brainstem cranial nerve somatic motor nuclei except III, IV and VI.

262
Q

Which muscle fibres are affected with denervation atrophy?

A

Type I and Type II. EMND primarily affects type I.

263
Q

What is the prognosis for treatment with EMND?

A

20% continue to deteriorate and are euthanased40% have stabilisation of clinical signs but the muscle mass does not return and they may develop severe gait abnormalities. 40% show dramatic improvement with treatment and may regain normal muscle mass. They may then remain stable for 1-6 yrs+ however many relapse on return to exercise.

264
Q

List the three tetanus exotoxins and which one is most clinically relevant.

A

Tetanolysin, tetanospasmin, nonspasmogenic toxin. Tetanospasmin is most clinically important.

265
Q

Where does tetanospasmin localise? And what is the effect?

A

Ventral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord binding to inhibitory interneurons called Renshaw cells.Tetanospasmin blocks the postsynaptic inhibitory signal of the spinal cord motor neurons by preventing release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA. Hence you get continued stimulation of motor and reflex arcs causing muscle spasms and contractions, convulsions and respiratory arrest leading to death.

266
Q

List the function of tetanolysin and nonspasmogenic toxin

A

Tetanolysin facilitates spread of infection by increasing local tissue necrosis. The role of non-spasmogenic toxin is not well understood but may involve blocking transmission in peripheral neuromuscular junctions.

267
Q

Does tetanospasmin affect the sympathetic NS, parasympathetic NS or both?

A

Both. Adrenergic stimulation can cause tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias and peripheral vasoconstriction. Parasympathetic hyperactivity increases vagal tone that may cause bradyarrhythmias, AV block and sinus arrest.

268
Q

What is the treatment for tetanus?

A

*Binding is almost irreversible- Local & parenteral antibiotics to stop further production of toxin (penicillin is drug of choice, others are tetracyclines, macrolides in foals and metronidazole)- Tetanus antitoxin to neutralise unbound toxin (500o-2.5x10^6 IU/animal) can be intrathecal although questionable advantages?- Muscle relaxants such as phenothiazins, benzodiazepines, alpha2-agonists all may be helpful. Magnesium sulphate. Methocarbamol.- Quiet environment and general nursing (catheterisation, rectal evacuation etc if required)

269
Q

What is the vaccination protocol for tetanus?

A

Adults: 2 vaccines 4-6 weeks apart then annually.Foals: 2 vaccines 4-6 weeks apart starting at 4-6mo age then a third vaccine at 10-12 mo then annual if mare was vaccinated; if unvaccinated mare start at 1-4mo age, boost 4 weeks later then a 3rd dose 4 weeks later.

270
Q

What are the 3 routes of infection with botulism toxin?

A
  1. food borne - ingestion of pre-formed toxin in feed.2. toxicoinfectious - release of toxin from the GIT, typically in foals 2wk-8mo age (Shaker foal syndrome); toxins are then absorbed into the blood stream.3. wound botulism - infection of a wound with C. botulinum that then germinate and release toxin under anaerobic conditions
271
Q

Where do botulism toxins exert their effects?

A

Peripheral nerve terminals, primarily of skeletal and autonomic cholinergic nerves (can’t cross the BBB).

272
Q

Describe the effects of botulism toxin at their site.

A

Act presynaptically at the peripheral cholinergic neuromuscular junction resulting in inhibition of neurotransmitter (acetylcholine) release and hence neuroparalysis. This is reversible.

273
Q

What are the characteristic clinical signs of botulism?

A

Mydriasis and ptosis, sluggish PLR, reduced tongue tone and slow tongue retraction, delayed prehension of feed (grain test - 8ounces of sweet feed should be eaten in under 2 mins, but may take much longer +/- be dropped out of the mouth with botulism), generalised weakness and low head carriage, muscle fasciculations that start at the shoulder and progress to severe generalised trembling. Usually dysphagic and reduced tail tone.

274
Q

Where are the neuronal lesions found in horses with EGS?

A

Most severe in the autonomic ganglia (cranial cervical, stellate and celiacomesenteric) and enteric nerves. Also seen in the brainstem nuclei and the somatic efferent LMN of the spinal cord.

275
Q

What specific findings will you see on biopsy with EGS?

A

Neuronal loss in both the submucosal and myenteric plexuses throughout the GIT and reduction of interstitial cells of Cajal in the myenteric plexus regions of the GIT

276
Q

What does the phenylephrine test show in cases of EGS?

A

Application of 0.5% phenylephrine topically to the cornea should abolish the ptosis thereby confirming the presence of smooth muscle paralysis.

277
Q

What are the common seasons for Lymes disease?

A

Spring, summer and fall; peak incidence in June and July.

278
Q

List the clinical signs of Lymes (Borrelia burgdorferi).

A

Chronic weight loss, sporadic lameness, laminitis, mild fever, swollen joints (may develop chronic arthritis), muscle tenderness, anterior uveitis, encephalitis and abortion.

279
Q

List differential diagnosis for equine borreliosis (lymes)

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilia, chronic disease, vasculitis, immune mediated-arthritis.

280
Q

Which nerves are commonly blocked for diagnosis of headshaking in horses

A

Infraorbital nerve (part of the maxillary branch) & caudal nasal nerve/posterior ethmoidal nerve (branch of the ophthalmic nerve).

281
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of photic headshaking?

A

Optic-trigeminal summation: stimulation of the optic nerve results in referred sensation to parts of the nose innervated by the trigeminal nerve.

282
Q

What are the therapeutic/medical treatments for headshaking?

A

Cyproheptadine: antihistamine and serotonin antagonist with anticholinergic effects. Also blocks calcium channels.Carbamazepine: sodium channel blocker and antiepileptic drug - drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia in people. Steroids, antihistamines NSAIDs have also been used.

283
Q

What are the common sites affected by Halicephalobus gingivalis? And what are the typical lesions?

A

Brain, spinal cord, nasal and oral cavities, pituitary gland and kidneys. Malacia, granulomatous and lymphohistiocytic inflammatory infiltration, meningitis and vasculitis.

284
Q

What stage of strongyles cause strongyle encephalomyelitis and how do they enter the CNS?

A

Fourth and fifth stage larvae. They are present in the intima of the aorta or left ventricle, causing endothelial damage, stimulating the clotting cascade and formation of a thrombus that contains the parasitic larvae. Hence they are transferred to the CNS in the thrombus.

285
Q

List suitable antiparasitics for treatment of verminous encephalomyelitis.

A

Benimidazole compounds (oxfenbendazole, thiabendazole, fenbendazole, mebendazole), diethylcarbamazine and ivermectin for nematodes (ivermectin has delayed killing so may not be ideal); organophosphates have been advocated for warble fly but should be used with caution. 3 day course of fenbendazole might be appropriate.

286
Q

What is the common site for cholesterol granuloma?

A

Choroid plexus of the fourth ventricle. Less commonly in the lateral ventricles, but these may be more likely to result in clinical signs.

287
Q

What specific clinical signs would make cholesterol granuloma a more likely diagnosis?

A

Waxing and waning forebrain signs.

288
Q

What is the most common secondary neoplasm of the CNS? List other common secondary neoplasms.

A

Lymphoma.Melanoma of the SC, meninges, and brain; adenocarcinoma and carcinoma.

289
Q

List the two syndromes associated with equine leukoencephalomalacia and their associated signs.

A
  1. More common neurologic syndrome: incoordination, aimless wandering, intermittent anorexia, lethargy, obtundation, blindness and head pressing; followed by hyperexcitability, belligerance, extreme agitation, profuse sweating, delerium, recumbency with seizure and death. 2. Hepatotoxic syndrome with swelling of the lips and muzzle, somnolence, icterus, petechial haemorrhage, abdominal breathing and cyanosis - resembles hepatic or intestinal encephalopathy.
290
Q

What is the causative agent of equine leukoencephalomalacia?

A

Fumonisin B1 intoxication (metabolite of mycotoxin fusarium moniliforme, usually from corn).

291
Q

What are the prominent signs of nigropallidal encephalomalacia associated with Yellow Star Thistle and Russian Knapweed?

A

Impairment of eating and drinking - lack of coordination of movements of prehension, mastication and deglutition. Can swallow if food/water is positioned at the back of the pharynx - may immerse their muzzle deeply in water to force it to the back of the pharynx. Often the mouth is held partially open with the lips retracted and the tongue protruding.

292
Q

What differences on histology would you expect between acute and chronic hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Acute: astrocyte swelling, acute cytotoxic cerebral oedema and intracranial hypertension.Chronic: evidence of Alzheimer type II changes in addition to the above findings.