Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the divisions of the pituitary gland in the horse.

A
  • Two embryologically distinct portions: adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis.- Adenohypophysis can be divided into 3: – Pars distalis: 5 endocrine cell types; releases GH, LH, FSH, ACTH, PRL, TSH.– Pars tuberalis: rich in melatonin receptors; regulates repro seasonality.– Pars intermedia: melanotropes and dopaminergic neurons; secretes POMC –> CLIP, B-end, a-MSH, ACTH.- Neurohypophysis: – Pars nervosa: nervous tissue originates from hypothalamus; secrete oxytocin and vasopressin.
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2
Q

Describe the physiology and anatomy of the Pituitary Pars Intermedia in horses.

A
  • Incorporates tissue from the adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis.- Single endocrine cell type: melanotropes.- Innervation: nerve terminals of the hypothalamic periventricular dopaminergic neurons.- Dopamine released from nerve terminals interacts with D2 receptors on adj melanotropes –> inhibits cell proliferation, transcription of proopiomelanocortin (POMC) and release of POMC-derived particles.- Melanotropes are positively regulated by thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates hormone release from melanotropes.- POMC is cleaved by prohormone convertase I and II in the melanotropes to alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone (a-MSH), beta-endorphin (b-end), corticotropin-like intermediate lobe peptide (CLIP) and a small amount of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (NB only I in pars distalis, therefore POMC is only converted to ACTH).
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3
Q

Describe the role of POMC-derived peptides in the horse.

A

Role of POMC-derived peptides has not been extensively studied in horses, but in people and small animals:- a-MSH: skin pigmentation, control of energy homeostasis, appetite-satiety balance and fat metabolism through leptin-melanocortin pathway; a-MSH conc positively assoc w obesity in horses; potent anti-inflammatory agent through dec cytokine release and neutrophil activity.- b-end: endogenous opioid; analgesia and behaviour modification; supressess immune responsiveness and has effects on vascular tone.- CLIP: ??- ACTH: circulates to the adrenal cortex and stimulates secretion of cortisol.

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4
Q

List the seasonal variations of POMC-derived peptide concentrations which occur in horses.

A
  • a-MSH and ACTH: considerably higher Aug-Oct in northern hemisphere (Autumn) than Nov-Jul.- Why? Maybe to metabolically prepare them for decreased available nutrition during Winter.
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5
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID) in horses.

A
  • Hypertrophy, hyperplasia and micro- or macroadenoma formation of the PPI up to 5 times normal weight.- Expanding PPID compresses adj pituitary lobes and the hypothalamus and may cause loss of function.- Enlarged PPI secretes more POMC-derived peptides (up to 40-fold increase above normal range).- CSx result from increased circulating POMC peptides and loss of neuroendocrine function of adj tissues. - Loss of dopamine inhibition is critical in pathology of PPID. Dopaminergic neurodegeneration occurs (5 fold dec in pituitary dopaminergic nerve terminals and 50% reduction in dopaminergic periventricular cell bodies) –> dz of hypothalamic origin rather that pituitary origin?- Dopaminergic neurodegeneration may be secondary to oxidative damage.
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6
Q

What is the typical signalment of horses with PPID?

A

15 years of age or older.

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7
Q

List the clinical signs of PPID in horses.

A
  • Hirsuitism/hypertrichosis: most common sign; long, curly haircoat or failure to shed winter coat fully e.g. on legs.- Laminitis: occurs in 30-40% of diagnosed cases.- Muscle atrophy: earliest CSx; may be due to outside factors and protein catabolism induced by high circulating cortisol.- Fat accumulation: crest, tailbase, sheath, superorbital fossa.- PU/PD: mechanisms may incl compression of pars nervosa –> less ADH, osmotic diuresis secondary to hyperglycaemia, cortisol induced (interferes with ADH secretion/action).- Secondary infections: 27-48% horses e.g. parasitism, sinusitis, dermatitis, respiratory infections.- Lethargy- Infertility- Persistent lactation: due to lack of dopaminergic inhibition of PRL release from the pars distalis?- Sweating dysregulation- Metabolic abnormalities: incl hyperglycaemia and hyperinsulinaemia.
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8
Q

What are the three ante-mortem tests recommended for diagnosis of PPID?

A
  1. Endogenous plasma ACTH concentration.2. TRH stimulation test.3. Dexamethasone suppression test.
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9
Q

Discuss the use of endogenous ACTH concentrations in the diagnosis of PPID.

A
  • Single plasma sample; stable prior to separation if kept cool for up to 12 hours.- Sensitivity of 70%, specificity of 80%.- Positive for PPID: Nov-Jul >35pg/ml, Oct-Aug >100pg/ml (Cornell values) BUT significant variation between labs (AU much lower, Liphook lower). - Horses with PPID have higher seasonal peak therefore testing during Autumn is recommended as ‘natural dynamic test’.
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10
Q

Discuss the use of the TRH stimulation test in the diagnosis of PPID.

A
  • Most accurate test in dx of PPID.- Baseline plasma ACTH, inj 1mg TRH, 10min post ACTH.- Positive for PPID: >35pg/ml baseline, >110pg/ml 10min.- NB ACTH concentrations vary widely with laboratory!!!- NB No published data for July-October, therefore only recommended to be performed November-June.- TRH stimulates relates of ACTH from the equine pars intermedia, therefore horse with PPID release +++ ACTH.
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11
Q

Discuss the use of the overnight dexamethasone suppression test in the diagnosis of PPID.

A
  • 5pm: collect blood (plain tube) for baseline cortisol.- Inject 0.4mg/kg dexamethasone IV or IM.- 11am: collect second sample for cortisol measurement.- Normal horse: dex supresses release of ACTH from pars distalis –> serum cortisol concentration cortisol is not suppressed.- Disadv: perceived risk of laminitis; very specific however not very sensitive - only good in end stage dz not early dz.
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12
Q

List the necropsy findings in horses with PPID.

A
  • Grossly enlarged pituitary gland due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pars intermedia; 2-5x normal horse; macroadenoma (>1cm) or microadenomatous hyperplasia.- Histo: melanotropes are pleiomorphic (polyhedral or spindle shaped) with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm. Cells are organised into nodules, rosettes, bundles or follicular structures separated with fine septal tissue. Pigment deposition is common in pars nervosa.- Compression of pars distalis, pars nervosa, optic chiasm or hypothalamus may be seen.- Associate lesions of other organs may be seen: laminitis, intestinal parasitism, pneumonia, sinusitis.
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13
Q

Outline treatment recommendations for PPID.

A
  • Pergolide: dopamine agonist; initial dose of 0.002mg/kg PO q24h, inc by 0.002mg/kg monthly if no improvement; monitor response to therapy on basis of CSx and biochem.- Complications of pergolide: anorexia, colic, diarrhoea.- Cyproheptadine: antiserotoninergic, antihistaminergic, anticholinergic; not recommended on basis of lack of consistent efficacy, but may be added in if fail to respond to 0.006mg/kg pergolide at 0.3-0.5mg/kg.- Improve general health and minimise risk of complications: dental care, FECs and deworming, good nutrition.- Body clip horses with hirsuitism in summer.
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14
Q

Critical Illness-Related Corticosteroid Insufficiency (CIRCI) has recently been reported in horses and foals. What is the definition of this condition?

A
  • An insufficient cortisol response or inadequate cortisol activity for the existing degree of critical illness e.g. sepsis.- Defined by inadequate delta cortisol response to a high-dose ACTH stimulation test.- Cortisol insufficiency is transient and resolves if patient survives the primary illness.
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15
Q

What is the effect of CIRCI on recovery from a critical illness?

A

Due to the vital role the HPA axis plays in the physiologic response to the stress of illness, the occur of CIRCI during critical illness substantially worsens the morbidity and mortality of the primary disease.

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16
Q

In the one study looking at critically ill adult horses, what percentage of horses had inadequate basal cortisol concentrations on admission to hospital and what percentage had inadequate delta cortisol responses to ACTH stimulation?

A
  • 24% had inadequate basal cortisol concentrations on admission to hospital.- 85% had inadequate cortisol responses to ACTH stim.- Marked adrenal haemorrhage was noted in non-survivors on necropsy.
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17
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of CIRCI.

A

A combination of factors are likely involved in the development of HPA axis dysfunction in CIRCI:- Direct damage to HPA axis components from the primary disease e.g. hypotension associated with hypovolemic, endotoxic or septic shock –> dec adrenal perfusion –> ischemic injury to metabolically active adrenocortical cells.- Inhibition of cortisol production by medications used to treat the primary disease e.g. ketoconazole and rifampin.- Suppression of the activity of HPAA components by infectious organisms or the patient’s own immune and inflammatory response e.g. bacterial endotoxin –> dec pituitary CRH receptor gene expression in rats and cattle and TNF-α (inc in sepsis) –> impaired pituitary ACTH release and adrenocortical cortisol synthesis. - Interactions between the adrenal axis and the immune response in horses are not well characterized, but equine adrenocortical tissue has been shown to directly secrete IL-6, IL-10 and TNF-α in an ex vivo model and a positive association between plasma ACTH concentration and IL-6 expression has recently been shown in septic foals.- Peripheral cortisol resistance may develop in some patients e.g. impaired GR binding efficiency –> functional cortisol insufficiency in the face of normal serum cortisol.

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18
Q

What are the presenting clinical signs of CIRCI?

A
  • Typically vague and insidious as predominate CSx relate to primary disorder. Index of suspicion should be high in sick, septic and premature foals. Reported in humans with sepsis, massive trauma, ARDS and major surgery.- Specific manifestations of CIRCI are directly related to inadequate cortisol support for maintenance of blood pressure, nutrient metabolism, and regulation of the immune/ inflammatory response:– Persistent hypotension despite appropriate volume resuscitation and vasopressor support.– Persistent hypoglycemia or hyperlactatemia despite glucose support and adequate perfusion.– Persistent signs of SIRDS e.g. tachycardia, fever or hypothermia, neutrophilia, neutropaenia. - Specific signs of mineralocorticoid deficiency e.g. persistent hyponatremia, hypochloremia or hyperkalemia, occasionally occur with CIRCI.
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19
Q

How is CIRCI diagnosed in horses and foals?

A
  • Documentation of either during period of critical illness:(1) An inappropriately low basal cortisol concentration.(2) an inadequate delta cortisol response to high-dose ACTH stimulation testing.- Basal cortisol single measurement difficult to interpret and not nec reliable.- ACTH stim: an increase from basal cortisol
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20
Q

Discuss treatment of CIRCI in septic foals.

A
  • The goal of CIRCI treatment is physiologic cortisol replacement, as a number of studies in septic patients have demonstrated deleterious effects of high-dose (supraphysiologic) corticosteroid regimens in sepsis.- Hydrocortisone dose of 1-4 mg/kg/day divided q4-6h may be appropriate for foals with CIRCI (not proven).
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21
Q

Does Addison Disease occur in horses?

A

No. Addison Disease has not been reported in horses.

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22
Q

In which scenarios might non-CIRCI related adrenal insufficiency occur in adult horses?

A
  • Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids or anabolic steroids.- Excessive racing/training (poor evidence).- Any horse surviving endotoxaemia, SIRS or sepsis (not reported but possible).
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23
Q

What clinical signs might suggest non-CIRCI related adrenal insufficiency in adult horses and how could this adrenal insufficiency be confirmed?

A
  • Persistent lethargy, weight loss, hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia, hyperkalaemia or hypoglycaemia.- Failure to increase serum cortisol concentration greater than or equal to 1.5-2x baseline 30mins post low-dose ACTH (1ug/kg IV).
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24
Q

Phaechromocytomas (adrenal medullary tumours) are reported rarely in horses as single tumours or part of a mutliple endocrine neoplasia syndrome. What are clinical signs seen in a horse with a phaechromocytoma?

A
  • Excessive sweating, agitation, colic, tachycardia, mydriasis, hyperglycaemia and hypertension.- Phaechromocytomas are predisposed to haemorrhage e.g. acute, fatal haemoperitoneum.- CSx result from increased circulating catecholamines.
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25
Q

How do you diagnose phaechromocytoma in a horse?

A
  • Most are diagnosed at necropsy.- Antemortem: abdominal mass, supporting clinical signs, elevated urinary catecholamine levels.
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26
Q

Has primary hypoaldosteronism been reported in horses?

A

No.

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27
Q

Define anhidrosis.

A

An inability to sweat in response to appropriate stimuli.

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28
Q

In what geographic locations is anhidrosis reported in horses?

A

Areas that experience hot, humid weather for prolonged periods of time. Clinical signs especially likely when nighttime temperatures do not drop below 21C (70F).

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29
Q

What is the typical signalment of horses that develop anhydrosis?

A
  • Just moved to a hot and humid area (but can occur in long-term residents).- Horses in work/stressed more likely to develop cond.- WB and TB at higher risk esp if familial hx of anhydrosis.
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30
Q

What is the proposed pathophysiology of anhydrosis?

A
  • Cause unknown; presumed to be abnormality in stimulation or production of sweat.- Physiologic stim of sweating: activation of alpha2-adrenergic receptors by catecholamines and neural stim.- Sweat glands from anhydrotic horses do not respond normally to direct stim and are atrophied; unsure if atrophy is primary or secondary problem.- Aquaporin-5 expression decreased; unsure if primary or secondary.- Histo of skin –> no evidence of neural disruption; circulating catecholamines higher than non-anhydrotic horses –> problem in sweat glands responding to stimulation rather than failure of thermoregulatory system perceiving need to sweat or stim to sweat.- Hypothesis: chronic stimulation to sweat in a hot, humid enviro –> downreg and/or desens of a2-adrenoreceptors.- Suggested genetic predisposition.- No evidence of thyroid involvement.
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31
Q

List the clinical signs of anhydrosis in horses.

A
  • Exercise intolerance.- Tachypnoea, initially exercise-related then at rest.- Less sweating than expected for level of exercise; may still be able to sweat under mane, axilla, inguinal, saddle.- Dilated peripheral skin vessels.- Hyperthermia with exercise; prolonged cooling period.- Haircoat becomes dry and thin in chronic cases.
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32
Q

How do you diagnose anhydrosis in horses?

A
  • Intradermal sweat test: six serial 10-fold dilutions of 0.1ml terbutalin inj intradermally along neck or pectorals:– Normal horse: sweats within 5m, sweat inc w conc.– Hypohydrotic horse: takes longer to sweat or sweat only at higher concentrations.- Anhydrotic horse: no sweat production.- In hypohydrotic confirm with exercise test: TPR, lunge at trot for 30mins on hot day, TPR q10 mins –> if RR not back to baseline by 30min post-exercise likely hypohydrotic.
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33
Q

What treatments are available for anhydrosis in horses? Is there any evidence for their use?

A
  • Only consistent tx: move horse to cooler climate.- Stop workload; decrease stress level.- Tx concurrent problems e.g. airway diseases.- Cool environment: fans, shade, misting, air conditioners.- Electrolyte supplementation esp KCl.- Reported success in some cases but no evidence of improved blood flow/stimulation of sweat glands: One AC (t-tyrosine, ascorbin acid, niacin, cobalt), vit E, acupuncture, Chinese herbs.- Clenbuterol: may be used in hypohydrotic horses at particularly bad times of year, but no evidence and traditional recommend against using a2-agonists as may precipitate complete anhydrosis.
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34
Q

What can you do to try and prevent anhydrosis in horses that have been previously diagnosed with it before the hot part of the year begins?

A
  • Commence on any supplements that have been helpful in that horse previously.- Make sure the horse is cardiovascularly fit.- Make sure any respiratory problems are under control.- Avoid procedures that may require admin of heavy doses of a2 sedatives.- Work horse during cool times of day and wet to cool off.
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35
Q

Describe the normal pathway of thyroid hormone release in the horse and substances which stimulate and inhibit this release.

A
  • TRH (hypothalamus) –> TSH (pituitary) –> T3 and T4 (thyroid) –> T3 and T4 bound to proteins (inactive) and fT4 and fT3 (active; fT3>fT4).- Circulating THs feedback negatively on TRH/TSH.- Alpha-adrenergics: stimulatory.- Dopamine and somatostatin: inhibitory.- Glucocorticoids, TNF, IL-1beta: inhibit TSH secretion.
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36
Q

List thyroid gland neoplasias reported in horses. How common/uncommon are these neoplasia?

A
  • Thyroid adenoma: not uncommon; often incidental finding at necropsy.- Thyroid carcinomas, adenocarcinomas, C-cell tumours not common.- Most are benign in horses but scattered reports of horses w hypoT/hyperT secondary to thyroid neoplasia.
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37
Q

Is it necessary to treat thyroid gland neoplasia in horses? If so what treatment is indicated?

A
  • Most are benign in horses but scattered reports of horses w hypoT/hyperT secondary to thyroid neoplasia.- Tx when physically enlarge enough to compromise breathing/swallowing or alterations in TH concentrations.- Tx: thyroidectomy followed by thyroid hormone supplementation.
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38
Q

How common is hyperthyroidism in adult horses?

A
  • Extremely rare. Only 3 case reports in the literature and all associated with thyroid gland neoplasia. - Can see transient elevations in THs in horses exposed to excess iodine.
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39
Q

List clinical signs of hyperthyroidism in adult horses.

A
  • Weight loss.- Tachycardia.- Tachypnoea.- Hyperactive behaviour.- Ravenous appetite.- Cachexia.
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40
Q

Outline the diagnosis and treatment of hyperthyroidism in adult horses.

A
  • Dx: measure circulating THs +/- T3 suppression test.- Nuclear scintigraphy to determine if one or both thyroid glands involved.- Unilateral or bilateral thyroidectomy +/- TH supplement.- One report of successful tx w oral propylthiouracil.
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41
Q

How common is hypothyroidism in adult horses? List possible aetiologies.

A
  • Controversial. AI thyroid disease (as in dogs/ppl) only confirmed in one case report via histo following necropsy.- People have claimed benefits in using thyroid supplementation to tx many conditions e.g. obesity, laminitis, anhydrosis, but unsubstantiated.
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42
Q

List clinical signs of hypothyroidism in adult horses.

A
  • Lethargy.- Exercise intolerence.- Poor haircoat.
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43
Q

List management and therapeutic interventions which can alter circulating thyroid hormone concentrations in horses.

A
  • Fasting –> decreased circulating THs.- Phenylbutazone.- Dexamethasone.- Strenuous exercise.- Diets high in energy, protein, zinc and copper.
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44
Q

Does non-thyroidal illness syndrome occur in horses as in other species, and if so what is its significance?

A
  • Preliminary reports suggest this does occur in critically ill adult horses and sick and septic foals.- THs may decrease due to dec peripheral conversion of T4 to T4 by 5’-deiodinase, altered binding to serum carrier proteins and hypothalamic-pituitary dysregulation.- Thyroid concentrations were inversely related to sepsis score in foals and nonsurvivors had lower TH concentrations than surviving foals.- The magnitude of TH suppression has been correlated with the severity of disease and mortality in adult horses.
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45
Q

Does ingestion of continental fescue infected with Neotyphodium coenophialum result in hypothyroidism in adult horses?

A
  • Alkaloids produced by the endophyte act as dopamine agonists –> proposed to cause hypoT as dopamine inhibits TSH release from the pituitary.- No (proven by measuring TSH levels, TRH stim tests). - Likely compensatory mechanisms override any dopaminergic effect on TSH with chronic fescue ingestion.
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46
Q

What changes can be expected in TH levels following a TRH or TSH stimulation test in an adult horse with normal thyroid function?

A
  • Collect baseline values; inject 1mg TRH or 5IU TSH; take samples 2 and 4 hours post inj.- T3 should double at 2h and T4 should double at 4h.- NB significant individual variation!
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47
Q

What medications can be used to treated horses following confirmation of hypothyroidism?

A
  • Iondinated casein: 5-15g/horse/day PO; contains 1% T4.- Levothyroxine: 20ug/kg/day PO; may need up to 50-100ug/kg/day.
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48
Q

Thyroid hormone concentrations are high in neonatal foals and then decline to adult levels over the first month of life. What may be the function of the high TH concentrations?

A
  • Maintaining thermogenesis: inc metabolic rate, inc heat prod from brown fat.- Maturation of body systems especially respiratory, neurologic and musculoskeletal.- Stimulate lung development and surfactant production.
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49
Q

How is thyroid function altered in premature vs full term neonatal foals?

A
  • Significantly lower concentrations of total and free THs.- No difference in baseline TSH concentrations.- Exaggerated TSH response to TRH administration.- Findings indicate immature hypothal-pituitary-thyroid axis.
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50
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism can occur in foals secondary to dietary abnormalities in the mare. What are these abnormalities and what clinical syndrome is observed in the foals?

A
  • Low or high iodine intake or consumption of goitrogenic plants e.g. soybeans, cabbage, rape, kale, turnips.- Foals born with goitre, weak, poor suckling and righting reflexes, hypothermia, developmental musculoskeletal abnormalities e.g. contracted tendons, incomplete ossification of cuboidal bones.- Poor Px; may improve survivability by supplementing with T4 or T3.
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51
Q

Describe the congenital hypothyroidism syndrome reported to occur sporadically in foals in Canada and Western US.

A
  • Prolonged gestation, signs of dysmaturity e.g. silky haircoat, goitre, musculoskeletal abnormalities incl mandibular prognathia, flexural limb deformities of FLs, ruptured digital extensor tendons, incomplete ossification.- T3 and T4 WNL at birth but decreased response to TSH stim; therefore T3/4 supplementation not recommended.- Proposed aetiologies include ingestion of nitrates e.g. sorghum, goitrogenic plants, low selenium, low iodine.
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52
Q

Describe the distribution of calcium in the body.

A
  • 99% in bone (+80% phosphorus) as hydroxyapatite.- 0.9% in cell membrane, mitochondria, endoplasmic retic.- 0.1% in extracellular fluid (interstitial fluid and plasma).- ECF: 55% free/ionised form, 40% bound to proteins (32% albumin, 8% globulin) and 5% complexed to anions such as citrate, bicarbonate, phosphate and lactate.
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53
Q

What effect do pH and serum albumin concentrations have on ionised calcium concentrations in the blood?

A
  • Calcium binds to negatively charged (i.e. anionic) proteins and this affinity is pH dependent.- Acidosis: more H+ –> dec Ca++ binding to anions –> increased plasma Ca++ concentrations.- Alkalosis: more Ca++ binding to anions –> decreased plasma Ca++ concentrations.- Hypoalbuminaemia –> decreased total plasma hypocalcaemia BUT Ca++ WNL (pseudohypocalcaemia).
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54
Q

What are dietary calcium and phosphorus requirements for horses?

A
  • Balanced diet: 0.15-0.6% Ca + 0.15-0.6% Phos.- Must be > 1:1 Ca:P or negative effects on Ca absorption and skeletal development.- Adult horse must absorb 20-25mg/kg/day Ca (lose 20mg/kg therefore must eat 40mg/kg) & 10-12mg/kg/day P.- Ca requirements can be up to double for growing or lactating horses.
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55
Q

Describe the mechanism of calcium absorption in horses and factors which affect its absorption.

A
  • Most Ca absorption occurs in SI.- Horses absorb a greater proportion of dietary Ca than other animals i.e. 50-75% and
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56
Q

Dietary oxalates decrease absorption of calcium from the small intestines. List plants which contain harmful amounts of oxalates.

A
  • Bermudagrass (Cynodon dactylon)- Buffel grass (Cenchrus cilaris)- Dallis grass (Paspalum spp.)- Elephant grass (Panicum spp.)- Foxtail grass (Setaria spp.)- Greasewood (Sarcobatus vermiculatus)- Halogeton (Halogeton glomeratus)- Kikuyu (Pennisetum clandestinum)- Kochi, summer cypress (Kochia scoparia)- Lamb’s-quarters (Chenopodium spp.)- Napier, mission grass (Pennisetum spp.)- Pangola (Digitaria decumbens)- Panic (Pancium spp.)- Para grass (Brachiara spp.)- Pokeberry (Phytolacca americana)- Purple pigeon grass (Setaria incrassate)- Purslane (Portulacca oleraceae) - Red-rooted pigweed (Amaranthus spp.)- Rhubarb (Rheum rhaponticum)- Russian thistle, tumbleweed (Salsola spp.)- Setaria (Setaria sphacelata)- Sorrel (Rumex spp.)- Soursob, shamrock (Oxalis spp.)- Sugar beet (Beta vulgaris)
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57
Q

Describe how calcium is eliminated in the horse.

A
  • Eliminated through faeces, milk, sweat and the foetus.- Kidney: 60% reabsorbed by passive mechanisms in proximal tubules, 35% reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of Henle and distal tubules by active mechanisms, 5% excreted in urine.
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58
Q

Describe the distribution of phosphorus in the body of the horse.

A
  • Organic (intracellular) and inorganic (extracellular) phosphates.- Most of the P in circulation is phosphate esters (phospholipids) bound to proteins and blood cells.- Inorganic PO4 is measured; 50% ionised, 35% complexed with cations (Na+, Ca++, Mg++), 15% protein bound.
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59
Q

What effect does pH have on ionised phosphate concentrations in the blood?

A
  • pH 7.4: divalent (HPO4–): monovalent (H2PO4-) anions 4:1.- Acidosis: 1:1.- Alkalosis: as high as 9:1.
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60
Q

Describe absorption and elimination of phosphorus in the horse.

A
  • 30-55% dietary P absorbed in SI and LI.- High albumin in diet reduces P absorption.- Kidneys: most of the PO4 is reabsorbed in the proximal tubules by a Na+ dependent mech; urinary excretion is low.
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61
Q

Describe aetiology of hyperphosphataemia in the horse.

A
  • Chronic dietary excess –> nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.- Acute renal failure.- Hypoparathyroidism.- Conditions that result in cell membrane fragility and lysis e.g. rhabdomyolysis, haemolysis and tumour necrosis.
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62
Q

Describe clinical signs of hyperphosphataemia in the horse.

A

Chronic excess –> CSx of calcium deficiency:- Lameness.- Abnormal cartilage and bone development.- Fractures.- Osteodystrophia fibrosa (nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism).

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63
Q

Describe aetiology of hypophosphataemia in the horse.

A
  • Inadequate dietary intake.- Decreased intestinal absorption.- Renal waste.- Hyperparathyroidism.- Sepsis.- Intracellular shift (refeeding syndrome, starvation, PPN).- Some malignancies.
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64
Q

Describe clinical signs of hypophosphataemia in the horse.

A
  • Weight loss.- Pica.- Weakness.- Lameness.- Developmental orthopaedic disease.- NB rickets is not a recognised dz of foals!!
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65
Q

List the components of the system that regulates extracellular ionised calcium homeostasis in the body.

A
  1. Hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin (CT) and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol).2. Body systems: kidney, intestine, bone.3. Calcium-sensing receptor (CaR).
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66
Q

What effect does magnesium have on calcium homeostasis?

A

Mg++ has permissive effects on calcium homeostasis by facilitating PTH secretion and action.

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67
Q

What homeostatic responses occur when blood Ca++ decreases or blood PO4 increases?

A

PTH secretion increases –>- Inc renal Ca++ reabsorption- Dec renal PO4 reabsorption- Inc osteoclastic bone resorption- Inc vit D synthesis –> inc intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption of Ca and PO4.

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68
Q

What homeostatic responses occur when blood Ca++ increases?

A
  • PTH secretion decreased –> less renal and intestinal Ca reabsorption/absorption.- Calcitonin secretion inc –> osteoclastic bone resorption inhibited.
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69
Q

Like Ca++, PO4 homeostasis is under the control of PTH, calcitonin and calcitriol. What additional hormone-like peptide plays a major role in PO4 control and what is its action?

A
  • Phosphatonins (FGF-23/klotho axis).- Role unknown in the horse.- Inhibit renal PO4 reabsorption and calcitriol synthesis in other animals.
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70
Q

Discuss secretion and action of PTH in the horse.

A
  • Secreted by chief cells of the parathyroid gland in response to low Ca++ or high P.- Chief cells detect changes in blood Ca++ through the CaR.- Through the PTH receptor, PTH:– Inc renal Ca++ reabsorption (distal nephron).– Dec renal PO4 reabsorption (proximal tubules).– Stimulates renal calcitriol synthesis (proximal tubules).– Stimulates odontoclastic bone reabsorption.
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71
Q

Describe the action of calcitriol on Ca++, PO4 and PTH.

A

Increases intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption of Ca++ and PO4 and inhibits PTH synthesis and secretion.

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72
Q

Describe the role of vitamin D in calcium homeostasis.

A
  • Ergosterol in food –> vit D2 (ergocalciferol) and 7-dehydrocholesterol in skin + sun –> vit D3 (cholecalciferol) –> hydroxylated to 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (calcidiol) in liver –> 1,25(OH2)D3 (calcitriol) in kidneys = active form.- HypoCa, hypoP and PTH induce renal 1 alpha-hydroxylase activity –> inc calcitriol synthesis. - HyperCa, hyperP, FGF-23 and calcitriol inhibit 1 alpha-hydroxylase.- Vit D stimulates intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption of Ca++ and PO4.- Calcitriol increases expression and activity of proteins important for transcellular Ca++ transport.- Calcitriol increases Mg++ renal reabsorption. - Calcitriol increases bone matrix synth and mineralisation and stimulates osteoclastic activity.
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73
Q

Describe the role of calcitonin in calcium homeostasis.

A
  • Secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland in response to hyperCa.- Inhibits osteoclast function and bone resorption.- Decreases renal reabsorption of Ca and PO4.
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74
Q

Describe the role of parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP) in calcium homeostasis.

A
  • Broad range of functions in the healthy animal that having nothing to do with calcium homeostasis.- Some tumours secrete PTHrP -> humerol hyperCa of malignancy = PTHrP interacts w PTH receptors to increase bone reabsorption and inhibit renal Ca++ excretion.
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75
Q

How does activation of the renal CaR affect serum calcium and magnesium concentrations.

A

Inhibits the furosemide-sensitive Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter in the distal nephron –> diuresis and urinary waste of Ca++ and Mg++.

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76
Q

Describe the effect of acute hypocalcaemia on neuromuscular function in the horse.

A
  • Neuromuscular excitability and decreased smooth muscle contractility.- Dec extracellular Ca++ –> inc cell membrane permeability to Na+ –> dec resting membrane potential.- Spontaneous and continuous discharges –> muscle fasciculations, tremors, tetany and seizures. - Tacchycardias and arrhythmias may progress to bradycardia.
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77
Q

How is chronic hypocalcaemia usually manifested in the horse?

A

Abnormal cartilage and bone development (DOD) and lameness.

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78
Q

List conditions which may result in hypocalcaemia in horses.

A

ARF, alkalosis, bicarbonate administraiton, cantharidin toxicosis, CRF, colic, lactation, transport (transit tetany), dystocia, endotoxaemia, endurace exercise, enterocolitis, furosemide administration, heat stroke, hypoMa, liver disease, magnesium toxicosis, malignant hyperthermia, oxalate ingestion, pancreatitis, pleuropneumonia, postoperative myopathy, primary hypoparathyroidism, retain placenta, rhabdomyolysis, sepsis.

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79
Q

Describe the mechanism and clinical presentation of diaphragmatic flutter in horses with hypocalcaemia.

A

HypoCa –> decreased resting membrane potential.Depolarisation of the right atrium stimulates action potentials in the phrenic nerve as it crosses over the heart –> rhythmic movement of flank from diaphragmatic contractions that are synchronous with the heartbeat.

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80
Q

What are the greatest risk factors for development of hypocalcaemic tetany? What clinical signs are observed in this condition?

A
  • Transport for long distances.- Lactating mares from just pre-foaling to weaning esp if producing large vol of milk, on low Ca diet, on lush pastures, performing physical work.- CSx: anxiety, depression, ataxia, muscle fasciculations and tremors, still gait, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, dysphagia, hypersalivation and hyperhydrosis.
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81
Q

Describe the mechanism of hypocalcaemic seizures in horses and foals. What is the associated prognosis?

A
  • Dec CNS extracellular Ca++ –> increased neuronal excitability –> seizures.- Px: clinical signs usually resolve with single or repeated admin of Ca; refractory hypoCa seizures –> poor Px.
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82
Q

Describe the mechanism of ileus and retained fetal membranes in horses with hypocalcaemia.

A

In smooth muscle most of the Ca++ required for contraction comes from the ECS (vs SR in skeletal m), therefore any condition which causes hypoCa –> dec smooth muscle contraction –> ileus/RFM.

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83
Q

What is the difference in aetiology between primary and secondary hypoparathyroidism? Are either reported in horses?

A
  • Primrary: results from decreased secretion of PTH.- Secondary: results from Mg depletion and sepsis.- Very rare reports of primary PTH in the literature, secondary PTH not technically reported but some critically ill horses and foals with hypoCa have impaired PT function.- Neonatal idiopathic hypoCa: foals with normal or low PTH despite hypoCa, refractory to tx, poor Px.
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84
Q

Outline clinical signs and laboratory findings in a horse with primary hypoparathyroidism.

A
  • Should be suspected w refractory hypocalcaemia.- Ataxia, seizures, hyperexcitability, SDF, tachycardia, tachypnoea, muscle fasiculations, bruxism, still gait, recumbency, ileus, colic.- HypoCa, hyperP, hypoMg, low serum PTH.
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85
Q

What are the most common causes of hypocalcaemia in horses presented to hospital? What is the mechanism by which hypoCa occurs in this case?

A
  • Sepsis, endotoxaemia, severe GI disease.- PT dysfunction (insufficient PTH secretion) and intraceullular Ca sequestration –> hypoCa.- Inflam mediators e.g. TNF-a, IL-1 and IL-6 inc CaR activation and decrease PTH secretion by equine PT cells.
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86
Q

Why does hypocalcaemia develop in horses under intense exercise?

A
  • Losses of Ca++ in sweat.- Intracellular movement of Ca++.- Increased Ca++ binding to albumin, lactate, phosphate and bicarbonate during alkalosis. - PT gland dysfunction.- NB mechanism in exertional rhadomyolysis unknown, thought to be influx of Ca++ into damaged muscle fibres and sequestration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
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87
Q

Describe the mechanism of hypocalcaemia and clinical presentation of horses with oxalate toxicity.

A
  • 1% or greater oxalates in diet –> bind to Ca to form calcium oxalate crystals –> reduces most GI Ca absorption.- CSx are those of phosphate excess, calcium deficiency and nutritional hyperparathyroidism.
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88
Q

Describe the mechanism of hypocalcaemia and clinical presentation of horses with cantharidin toxicity.

A
  • Cantharidin –> mucosal irritation (GI and urinary tracts).- HypoCa and hypoMg –> muscle fasciulations, SDF, ataixa, dyspnoea, laryngeal soasm, cardiac arrhythmias.- Mechanism unknown, possibly combination of GI dz, acute renal tubular necrosis and PT gland dysfunction.
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89
Q

What are the two divisions of hypercalcaemia in horses and what differential diagnoses fit into these divisions.

A
  1. Parathyroid gland-dependent hyperCa: develops due to PT gland hyperfunction i.e. primary hyperparathyroidism.2. Parathyroid gland-independent hyperCa: develops despite PT gland suppression e.g. secondary hyperparathyroidism, CRF, HHM, hypervitaminosis D, calcinosis and idiopathic system granulomatous dz.
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90
Q

Describe the aetiology and pathogenesis of primary hyperparathyrodism in the horse.

A
  • Parathyroid adenomas or parathyroid hyperplasia.- Excessive and autonomous synthesis and secretion of PTH by the PT gland that is not responsive to negative feedback of Ca++.- Inc PTH –> inc renal Ca++ reabsorption, dec renal PO4 reabsorption, inc calcitriol synthesis and inc bone resorption (osteodystrophia fibrosa).
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91
Q

Describe the clinical signs and diagnostic findings identified in horses with primary hyperparathyrodism.

A
  • Facial bone enlargement, lameness, poor body condition.- HyperCa, hypoP, hypocalciuria, hyperphophaturia, PTHrP conc low or WNL.- Rads: dec long and facial bone density, fibrous proliferation of the mandible and maxilla, loss of lamina dura surrounding the molars.- Endoscopy: narrowing of the nasal passages.
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92
Q

Is renal secondary hyperparathyroidism recognised in the horse?

A
  • No. Other animals: CRF –> hyperP –> excessive PTH secretion –> hyperCa.- Horses w CRF often have hypoP and PTH conc within or below the normal range, as hyperCa is due to increased renal retention rather than elevated PTH.
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93
Q

Describe the aetiology of nutritional secondary hyperparathyrodism in the horse.

A
  • Diets low in calcium high in phosphorus or with P:Ca greater than or equal to 3:1.- Pastures and plans with a high content of oxalates.- A.k.a. bran dz, millers dz, big head, osteodystrophia fibrosa, osteitis fibrosis and equine osteoporosis.
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94
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of nutritional secondary hyperparathyrodism in the horse.

A
  • Excessive dietary PO4 reduces intestinal Ca absorption and results in hyperphosphataemia.- Dietary oxalates form insoluble calcium oxalate.- HyperP: directly stimulates PTH secretion, inhibits renal calcitriol synth (calcitriol inhibits PT cell hyperplasia), forms Ca2PO4 precipitates –> low Ca –> more PTH secretion.- PTH increases osteoclastic activity, bone resorption and bone loss –> facial bone loss, excessive accumulation of subperiosteal unmineralised CT –> facial enlargement.- Chronic dz as horses preserve normocalcaemia.
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95
Q

Describe the clinical signs of nutritional secondary hyperparathyrodism in the horse.

A
  • Unthriftiness.- Intermittent, shifting lameness and a stiff gait.- Younger animals: physitis and limb deformities.- Typical and asymmetrical swelling of facial bones (may not occur in older horses).- Problems masticating due to bone resorption around teeth.- Severe cases: tooth loss, spontaneous fractures of the long bones.- Upper airway obstruction, dyspnoea, epiphora.- Soft tissue mineralisation reported in 1 foal.
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96
Q

Describe the laboratory findings and diagnostic imaging findings in horses with nutritional secondary hyperparathyrodism.

A
  • Hyperphosphataemia.- Hypo or normocalcaemia.- Increased PTH concentrations (esp if still on high P/low Ca diet when blood drawn).- Urinary excretion of Ca low and PO4 high.- ALP may be increased.- Rads: bone density must dec 30% before ID on rads, dec facial bone density with fibrous proliferation, resorption of alveolar sockets and loss of dental lamina dura.
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97
Q

Outline treatment of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in the horse.

A
  • Eliminate or reduce any grain-based diet.- Avoid high oxalate feeds.- Add alfalfa to diet.- Calcium carbonate (limestone) 100-300g/day (35% Ca).- Diet with Ca:P 3-4:1.- Confinement +/- NSAIDs.- 9-12mo for recovery (bony lesions may not change).
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98
Q

Describe the aetiology of hypervitaminosis D in the horse.

A
  • Ingestion of plants containing calcitriol-like compounds.- Solanum glaucophyllum - South America.- Cestrum diurnum (jessamine) - USA.- Solanum sodomaeum - Hawaii.- Trisetum flavescens (golden oat) - Europe.
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99
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hypervitaminosis D in the horse.

A
  • Increases intestinal absorption and renal reabsorption of Ca and PO4.- Results in PT cell atrophy and dec PTH secretion.
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100
Q

Describe the clinical signs associated with hypervitaminosis D in the horse.

A
  • Weight loss.- Poor appetite.- Lameness and painful stiffness.- Polyuria and polydipsia.- +/- renal failure (due to kidney mineralisation).
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101
Q

How do you diagnose hypervitaminosis D in horses?

A
  • HyperP, hyperCa or normoCa.- Azotemia or hyposthenuria may be present.- Rads: inc bone density, dec size of medullary cavity and inc calcification of soft tissues.- Necropsy: soft tissue mineralisation, osteopetrosis of epiphyses and metaphyses, atrophy of PT gland.
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102
Q

Outline the treatment and prognosis of hypervitaminosis D in horses.

A
  • Reduce dietary calcium intake.- Calcium binding agents e.g. sodium phytate.- Dexamethasone to dec intestinal absorption of Ca, inc urinary excretion of Ca and dec bone resorption.- Severe hyperCa can tx w 0.9% NaCl and loop diuretics –> inc urinary excretion of Ca (not thiazides as –> inc Ca reabsorption).- Poor prognosis.
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103
Q

Describe the aetiology and pathogenesis of Humoral Hypercalcaemia of Malignancy (HHM).

A
  • Tumours secrete PTHrP which interacts with PTH receptors –> inc renal reabsorption of Ca++ and bone reabsorption.- Assoc w SCC, adrenocortical carcinoma, lymphosarcoma, multiple myeloma and ameloblastoma in horses.- Suspected in hyperCa, no evidence of renal disease and normal PTH concentrations.
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104
Q

Define hyperlipaemia and hyperlipidaemia in horses.

A

Hyperlipemia is defined as serum triglycerides greater than 500 mg/dL, grossly discolored plasma or serum (lipemia), and concurrent fatty infiltration of the liver (hepatic lipidosis). Hyperlipidemia is an elevation in serum triglycerides without lipemia.

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105
Q

What are the risk factors for development of hyperlipaemia in equids?

A
  • Breed: ponies, donkeys, miniature horses, horses with Cushings; rare in light horses or Draughts. - Overweight body condition.- Predisposing factors to negative energy balance: intestinal dz, choke, pregnancy, dental disorders, transportation, decrease in available feed or appetite, parasitism, lactation, laminitis, respiratory dx and PPID. - On rare occasions, lipemia will be noted in horses with neoplasia; may be due to inc TNF and its effect on enhanced lipolysis and dec LPL activity.
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106
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hyperlipaemia in equids.

A
  • Dec feed intake, increased energy req and inc stress hormone release → prod of insulin (anti-lipolic), dec insulin sensitivity, un-regulation of hormonesensitive lipase (HSL) and adipose triglyceride lipase.- Lipolysis of triglycerides stored in peripheral fat → release of non-esterified free fatty acids (NEFFAs) and glycerol.- NEFFAs are taken up by the liver → oxidized in the Krebs cycle for energy, stored as triglycerides, or released back into circulation as lipoproteins.- LPL (enzyme needed to hydrolyse triglycerides into FFAs so they can be used as energy substrate or stored as triglycerides in the peripheral tissue (fat deposits) is inc in ponies w hyperlipaemia –> result of exaggerated lipolysis and increased hepatic secretion of triglyceride-rich VLDLs and is not commonly a primary problem with decreased peripheral clearance of triglycerides.- Azotemia –> uraemic inhibition of LPL –> dec clearance of triglycerides. - Enhanced lipolysis can quickly –> lipemia and hepatic lipidosis and without prompt treatment death from metabolic abnormalities, liver failure, or occasionally rupture of the liver and hemorrhagic shock.
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107
Q

Describe the clinical signs and clinical pathologic abnormalities in equids with hyperlipaemia.

A
  • Depression in almost all cases. - Anorexia.- Jaundice.- Signs of HE.- Discolored urine.- Dysphagia.- Ventral oedema in 30% of cases. - Tachycardia in most cases. - Serum triglycerides: >500mg/dL.- Liver enzymes: variable.- BA: generally increased (often 80-120mmol/L).- Ammonia: often high.- PT and PTT: prolonged.- Direct bilirubin: increased. - Blood glucose: variable.
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108
Q

Outline the treatment and prognosis of hyperlipaemia in equids.

A
  • Tx goals: tx underlying dz, reverse negative energy balance, normalise plasma lipid concentrations, tx hepatic lipdosis/failure. - Enteral or parenteral nutrition: carb and protein and either no fat or low fat e.g. glucose, whey, alfalfa slurry.- If IV glucose used, eneteral feeding not possible and marked hyperglycaemia insulin may be indicated.
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109
Q

What is the prognosis for equids with hyperlipaemia?

A
  • Mortality rate from hyperlipaemia and hepatic lipidosis in one case series was approximately 50%.- Px is variable depending on the successful and prompt correction of the predisposing cause(s) and on the ability to supply adequate nutritional support.
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110
Q

What two other names is hepatic lipidosis in post-partum dairy cattle know by?

A

Fat Cow Syndrome and Lipid Mobilisation Syndrome.

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111
Q

What cattle are at risk of developing Fat Cow Syndrome?

A

Postparturient dairy cows which were overconditioned in the during late lactation and the dry period.Obese/well conditioned cows with a large amount of omental and subcutaneous fat.

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112
Q

List the clinical signs of Fat Cow Syndrome.

A

Depression, anorexia, weight loss, weakness –> recumbency.Non-specific signs may include decreased ruminal motility and milk production.Other signs related to concurrent conditions e.g. mastitis, metritis, parturient paresis and displaced abomasum.

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113
Q

How do you diagnose Fat Cow Syndrome in a cow?

A
  • Liver enzymes: often a poor indicator of dz severity; most consistently elevated are OCT, TBili, AST.- CBC: often leukocytosis with a left shift (non-specific).- Increased NEFAs and decreased cholesterol and triglycerides.- BSP excretion > 9mins –> guarded Px.- U/S: may see increased echogenicity of liver, rounded margins.- Liver biopsy: % hepatocytes containing fat vacuoles - mild 75%. Liver will float in distilled water when >34% (NB all high-producing, post-parturient dairy cows will have fatty infiltration).
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114
Q

Describe post-mortem findings in a cow with Fat Cow Syndrome.

A
  • Generalised obesity if sick
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115
Q

How do ruminants differ from monogastric animals in their intake of dietary energy?

A
  • Most of the energy is absorbed is VFAs not glucose.- Glucose is still needed and must be produced by gluconeogenesis, 85% of which occurs in the liver.
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116
Q

List conditions in which negative energy balance occurs in cattle.

A
  • Lactation.- Foetal growth.- Exercise.- Decreased feed consumption.- Environmental chilling.- Disease.
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117
Q

Describe the changes in insulin, glucose and hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) that occur in cattle during periods of negative energy balance or prior to lactation.

A
  • Blood glucose concentration decreases.- Insulin:glucagon ratio drops.- Glucose, insulin, catcholamine, growth hormone changes activate HSL production.- HSLs convert tissue fat to FFAs/NEFAs and glycerol.
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118
Q

What happens to the glycerol and NEFAs produced by breakdown of fat in cattle in negative energy balance?

A
  • Glycerol –> liver –> produce glucose OR combine with FFAs to make triglycerides (TGs).- FFAs –> combine w glycerol to make TGs OR degrated through beta-oxidation –> acetyl CoA –> krebs cycle –> glucose.- If there is not enough oxaloacetate for acetyl CoA to combine with to enter the krebs cycle, acetyl CoA is converted to ketone bodies. - NB ketones reduce feed consumption and perpetuate negative energy balance.
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119
Q

How does hepatic lipidosis develop in cattle with negative energy balance?

A
  • When liver is overwhelmed with NEFAs greater amounts of TGs are deposited within hepatocyte.- TGs eventually leave liver as VLDLs (plasma-soluble complexes of phospholipid, cholesterol and apolipoprotein A).- Hepatic lipidosis occurs when rate of hepatic TG formation excedes oxidation of FAs and formation and release of VLDLs into peripheral circulation.
120
Q

What dietary factors can increase the risk of hepatic lipidosis in cattle?

A
  • Cows on low-protein diet in the dry period.- Depression in DM intake in the final week before calving.- Limiting feeding take of over-conditioned cows immediately after calving.
121
Q

Is hepatic lipidosis a reversible condition in cattle?

A

Yes, if the cause is removed and the energy balance becomes positive (or less negative).

122
Q

Outline treatment of hepatic lipidosis in cattle.

A
  • Mild to mod: as for traditional ketosis.- Severe: eliminate negative energy balance and factors/dz causing it:– Getting them eating is most imp; transfaunation may help.– IV glucose or insulin –> induces an insulin:glucose than will dec HSL mobilisation of FAs and stim prod of VLDLs.– Glucocorticoids IV/IM + glucose precursors orally e.g. propylene glycol, glycerol.– Choline: precursor of lipoproteins may inc rate of VLDL prod (not IV –> neuromuscular blockate); no controlled studies.– Nicotinic acid (niacin) may reduce lipolysis at the tissue level and the amount of fat presented to the liver.
123
Q

What are the key pre- and post-parturient risk factors for development of hepatic lipidosis in dairy cattle?

A
  • Pre-parturiet: obesity (BCS > 3/5), severe feed restriction, feeding excess energy, long calving interval.- Post-partum: concurrent dz, anorexia or fasting, feed restriction, sudden feed changes.
124
Q

Outline methods to prevent hepatic lipidosis in cattle.

A
  • Prevent over-conditioning during the late lactation and dry periods.- Tx peri-parturient dz early and aggressively. - Adequate protein in dry period essential; good quality roughage (hay/silage).- Commence feeding grain 2-4wks pre-partum to allow rumen to adapt to lactation diet; do not overfeed! Dm intake should be approx 2% BWt/day.- Supplement dry cow ration w cobalt = precursor of vit B12 = co-factor in rate limiting step in conversion of propionate to succinyl CoA and thus glucose prod.- Dry cow and lactating ration incl nicotinic acid to aid in dev of ketosis = primary risk factor for hepatic lipidosis.- Monensisn in dry cow and early lactating ration may aid in prevention of ketosis.
125
Q

Outline the signalment of cattle most at risk of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) and Pregnancy Toxaemia.

A
  • Diseases of beef cattle on marginal diets.- Growing, pregnant heifers are at greatest risk as energy requirement of growth are superimposed on other calorie requirements.
126
Q

List risk factors for development of PEM and Pregnancy Toxaemia in beef cattle.

A
  • Winter season e.g. snow cover.- Unpalatable feed.- Poor quality feed.
127
Q

List clinical signs of PEM and Pregnancy Toxaemia in beef cattle.

A
  • Weight loss/poor BCS.- Weakness +/- inability to rise but still alert.- Depression.- Long hair coat.- Body temp normal or hypothermic.- +/- diarrhoea.- Death usually occurs 7-14d after becoming recumbent.
128
Q

Outline diagnostic test findings in beef cattle with PEM or Pregnancy Toxaemia.

A
  • Demonstrating dec caloric intake + ruling out other chronic dz e.g. Johne’s, lymphoma, parasitism.- +/- hypoCa, anaemia, dec serum insulin conc.- Ketonuria is not typical in PEM.- Necropsy: dec muscle mass, atrophy of fat; fatty liver if acute or small liver if more chronic.
129
Q

Describe treatment of PEM and Pregnancy Toxaemia in beef cattle.

A
  • Treatment is often unrewarding.- IVF, improve energy balance, tx concurrent dz.- IV glucose, forcefeed alfalfa gruel, propylene glycol.
130
Q

Outline strategies for prevention of PEM and Pregnancy Toxaemia in beef cattle.

A
  • Nutrient requirements inc greatly for beef cattle in third trimester of pregnancy.- Have adequate body condition (5-7/9) entering third trimester and feed adequate amounts of good to excellent quality forage.- As quality of forage dec, time spent in rumen inc, therefore maximum daily intake of feed dec, therefore feed good quality forage.- Decreasing temperature inc energy needs e.g. 10 C –> 10% higher energy req, 0 C –> 20% higher energy req.
131
Q

Ketosis occurs in ruminants during times of increased mobilisation of fat stores, usually just after parturition. List the three ketone bodies which are elevated in the blood of ruminants during ketosis.

A
  • Acetone (Ac).- Acetoacetic acid (AcAc).- Beta-hydroxybutyric acid (BHB).
132
Q

Define type I ketosis.

A
  • Aka classic ‘primary’ or ‘spontaneous’ ketosis.- Causes reduction in glucose in the blood and liver.- Increased fat mobilisation culminating in elevated ketone body accum from a neg energy balance during early lactation. - Becomes a dz condition when absorption and prod of ketone bodies exceed their use by the ruminant as an energy source –> elevated blood ketones, NEFAs and dec blood glucose.
133
Q

Define type II ketosis.

A
  • Involves high blood insulin conc and transient hyperglycaemia secondary to overconditioning and fatty infiltration of the liver.
134
Q

Describe the aetiology of ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Processes that require glucose peak in late gestation and early lactation; daily glucose req inc 30% in late lactation and 25% w onset of lactation.- Gluconeogensis must occur for cattle to meet glucose demands; substrate = propionic acid (FFA) which is prod in the rumen or by breakdown of body proteins.- Alternate energy sources = ketone bodies or fat-derived NEFAs.- High milk prod in early lactation exceeds ability of cow to ingest sufficient feed to meet this requirement for energy; milk prod peaks at 4wks post-calving, feed intake peaks at 7-8 wk post-calving.- Cow mobilises body fat and protein stores for gluconeogenesis –> normal dairy cows have some degree of ketone body prod during this time, certain factors tip them over into subclinical or clinical ketosis.
135
Q

List risk factors for development of subclinical or clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Any dz that dec feed intake: mastitis, metritis, peritonitis, LDA most common; subclinical hypoCa, mild ruminal overload, laminitis, lameness, pyelonephritis and musculoskeletal calving inj less common.- Poor quality/low energy feed.- Ingestion of pre-formed ketones e.g. in ketogenic silage.- Cobalt deficiency.- Concentrates with low levels of lincomycin have been reported in herd outbreaks of ketosis.
136
Q

List clinical signs of clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Gradual loss of appetite and dec in milk production over several days.- Rapid weight loss.- Type I: typically 3-6wks post-partum.- Type II: typically immediately post-partum.- Normal TPR.- Firm, dry faeces.- Moderate depression.- +/- reluctance to move.- Ruminal atony if inappetent for several days.- +/- pica.- +/- odour of ketones on breath and in milk.- +/- transient nervous signs e.g. staggering, blindness.- +/- primary dz: mastitis, metritis, peritonitis, LDA (NB ketosis inc risk of LDA so may be primary or secondary).
137
Q

List clinical signs of nervous ketosis in cattle.

A
  • Acute onset of bizarre neuro signs lasting 1-2h and recurring at 8-10h intervals.- Circling, proprioceptive deficits, head pressing, apparent blindness, wandering, excessive grooming, pica, ptyalism.- +/- hyperaesthesia, bellowing, moderate tremors, tetany.- +/- aggression towards people of inanimate objects.- +/- ataxia when walking.
138
Q

List clinicopathologic abnormalities in cattle with ketosis.

A
  • Detection of ketone bodies in plasma, milk, urine.- Blood glucose conc 20-40 mg/dL.- Total blood ketones > 30 mg/dL.- Total urine ketones > 84 mg/dL (better indicator than blood ketones).- Total milk ketones > 10 mg/dL.- Blood BHB > 3 mmol/L.- AST, SDH elevated in severe cases. - Plasma insulin elevated initially then depressed w anorexia. - Subclinical ketosis: no Csx but low-normal blood glucose, blood ketones 10-30 mg/dL, milk ketones 2 mg/dL, BHB 1.2-2.9 mmol/L, blood NEFAs > 0.5 mEq/L.
139
Q

What factors mainly influence the control of blood glucose in ruminants?

A
  • Insulin.- Favours cellular uptake of glucose, lipogenesis, glycogen synthesis.- Decreases lipolysis and hepatic gluconeogenesis.- Ruminants are relatively insulin resistant, but during early lactation low insulin conc are accomp by high tissue insulin sensitivity.
140
Q

Describe the effects of glucagon, catecholamines and growth hormone on glucose control in the cow.

A
  • Glucagon: counteracts insulin by inc lipolysis and hepatic gluconeogensis and dec lipogensis.- Catecholamines: favour lipolysis and dec lipogensis.- GH: high in early lactation; inhibit lipogensis, inc gluconeogensis.
141
Q

Adipose tissue acts as an endocrine organ. Do adipose tissue hormones play a role in energy balance in cattle?

A
  • Leptin: influences feed intake and resistance to insulin and inc energy expenditure.- Leptin is elevated in people w obesity.- Role unknown in ruminants.
142
Q

List the three main VFAs produced in the rumen of cattle and their subsequent metabolism.

A
  • Acetate, propionate, butyrate; 70:20:10 ratio.- Acetate: mainly used in fat synth- Butyrate: condensed into acetoacetyl CoA –> oxidised to ketone bodies or –> acetyl CoA –> TCA cycle (no net gain of glucose).- Propionate: enters TCA cycle at levels of succinyl CoA –> 30-50% glucose production in the ruminants.- Acetate and butyrate are ketogenic, propionate is glycogenic.
143
Q

In what organs are ketone bodies produced in the ruminant and what organs use them as an energy source?

A
  • Produced in ruminal epithelium, mammary gland, liver.- Used by TCA cycle in heart, kidney, skeletal muscles, mammary gland.
144
Q

Describe oxidation of acetyl CoA in lactating cattle.

A
  • Efficient oxidation of acetyl CoA depends on supply of oxaloacetate (generate from propionate, lactate and pyruvate).- Lactating cow diverts proprionate and lactate to milk to produce lactose –> dec supplies of oxaloacetate.- Backlog of Acetyl CoA is unable to enter TCA cycle and is diverted into the formation of ketone bodies.
145
Q

Describe metabolism of adipose tissue as an energy source in ruminants.

A
  • Adipose tissue stores energy in the form of TGs.- TGs are mobilised to form NEFAs.- NEFAs enter TCA cycle through acetyl CoA (–> more ketone bodies) or are re-esterified into triglycerides/ triaglyceride (TAG).- Ruminant liver is inefficient in partitioning NEFAs into TGs and secreting them into circ as VLDLs; apoprotein B is req to form VLDL so defic –> accum of TAG/fatty infiltration of the liver + elevated ketone bodies.- Ketone bodies in clinical ketosis are mainly prod from NEFAs in the liver, which shift in response to low carb supplies from pathways of esterification and complete oxidation of acetyl CoA to CO2 to partial oxidation of acetoacetyl CoA to ketone bodies.
146
Q

Describe negative consequences of subclinical ketosis in dairy herds.

A
  • Cattle with BHB > 1.2mmol/L by 3-5 days in milk were 6.6 x more likely to develop DAs, 4.5 x more likely to be removed from the herd, prod 2.2 kg less milk/day during first 30d in milk.- Cows as higher range of BHB > 2.4 mmol/L were 3 x more likely to dev DAs, 50 x more likely to be removed from the herd, prod 180 kg less milk during first 30d in milk.
147
Q

Describe factors of signalment which increase the incidence of clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Incidence increases w parity; peaks at 5th-6th lactation.- Cows dx w clinical ketosis once are more likely to develop it again at subsequent calvings.- High producers.- Cows that are over-conditioned at calving.
148
Q

Describe environmental and dietary factors associated with increased incidence of clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Season (inc incidence during mid-winter).- Climate.- Stabling (inc in stables vs loose housing).- Feeding (inc w greater number of feedstuff and dec feedings per day).- Diets
149
Q

Describe necropsy findings in cattle with ketosis.

A
  • Mortality with primary ketosis is very low; fatty liver is only finding.- In animals with secondary ketosis findings will be related to the primary condition e.g. metritis, peritonitis.
150
Q

Outline treatment of clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Goal of Tx: limit mobilisation of fat by increasing availability of glucose or glucose precursors and promoting uptake of glucose by cells.- Oral propylene glycol is treatment of choice.- If nervous ketosis Tx w IV 50% dextrose.- Use of insulin rarely required unless refractory cases or if hepatic lipidosis has occurred. - Use of corticosteroid is not recommended but was traditionally used to dec tissue uptake of glucose and reduce milk production.- Tx of secondary ketosis requires correction of primary condition while ensuring provision of an adequate diet.- NB in a study w IV boluses of 50% glucose –> rapid dec in blood ketones and NEFAs and impr in CSx BUT return to pre-tx levels w/in 12h therefore in hospital scenario CRI of 2.5% glucose preferred until urine ketones have dec.
151
Q

Oral propylene glycol boluses (8-10oz) can be used to tx clinical and subclinical ketosis. Describe the mechanism of action of propylene glycol in resolving ketosis.

A
  • Increases supply of gluconeogenic precursors (propylene, propionate and propranolol) to the liver.- Decreases the glucose demand by peripheral tissues.- Blood glucose rises and induces insulin release.- Insulin release slows release of TGs from adipose tissue and therefore dec prod of NEFAs and BHB.
152
Q

List deleterious effects of propylene glycol overdose in cattle.

A
  • Deleterious effect on rumen microflora.- Decreased ruminal motility.- Diarrhoea.- Tx by discontinuing propylene glycol and transfaunating cow.
153
Q

List dietary supplements that can be given to cows with ketosis and their mechanism of action.

A
  • Glucose precursors: gylcerol, sodium propionate, ammonium lactate, sodium lactate.- Lipotrophic agents (inc mobilisation of fat in the liver and prod of VLDLs): choline, l-methionine.- Cobalt (precursor of vit B12) or vit B12, which is essential co-factor in metabolism of priopionate as it enters the TCA.- Chromium: may potentiate action of insulin.- Nicotinic acid (niacin) and nicotinamide: dec blood ketones and FFAs and inc blood glucose.- Ionophores: inc ration of propionate formation in the rumen and decrease incidence of clinical ketosis.
154
Q

Outline methods for prevention of clinical ketosis in dairy cattle.

A
  • Feeding during late lactation and the dry period should promote good body condition at calving.- Introduce lactating ration in a stepwise fashion to promote optimum intake at commencement of lactation; commence at 4-5wks pre-calving and inc to ad lib levels at 2-4wks of lactation.- Key aspects of ration: high energy density, optimum levels of protein and fibre, balanced in minerals.- Substitution or dilution of ketogenic silage for cattle in early lactation.- Early detection: test milk or urine for ketone bodies for first 2-8wks post-calving.
155
Q

What proportion of dairy cows experience subclinical hypocalcaemia (

A
  • 50% of dairy cattle.- Reduced ruminal and abomasal contractility.- Reduced feed intake.- Increased blood NEFA concentrations.- Can contribute to dev of several clinical conditions: mastitis, metritis, retained placenta (dec uterine and teat sphincter contractility).- Dec ability of immune cells to respond to external stimuli.
156
Q

Describe clinical signs of periparturient hypocalcaemia (Milk Fever) in cattle.

A
  • Ataxia.- Mild bloat (eructation is reduced).- May become recumbent and be unable to rise.- Lie w neck in S-shaped curve.- Muscle fasiculations.- Heart sounds muffled due to dec contractility.- Tachycardia to compensate for low ventricular ejection volumes.- Loss of ability to thermoregulate –> hypo/hyperthermia.- CSx occur just before calving to 2 days after calving due to rush of Ca into mammary gland to form colostrum.- Also occur with many infectious conditions, especially if endotoxins are elaborated e.g. mastitis, metritis.
157
Q

List the three main electrolyte imbalances which result in Downer Cow Syndrome.

A
  • Hypocalcaemia: plasma Ca
158
Q

Outline treatment of Milk Fever in cattle.

A
  • IV calcium; commonly in form of calcium borogluconate +/- Mg, P, gluc; ideal dose = 2g/100kg BWt.- Administer Ca at rate of 1g/min; too rapid admin –> fatal arrhythmia. - IV Ca typically raises blood Ca for 4h post inj.- Can supplement with SC or IM inj or oral Ca salts to help prevent relapses 12-24h post IV admin.
159
Q

Describe the role of PTH in Milk Fever in diary cows and the influence of diet on the efficacy of PTH.

A
  • Initially thought high Ca diet pre-calving –> positive Ca balance –> PT gland atrophy –> lack of PTH in response to hypoCa of lactation.- This is now disproved as PTH is WNL or high –> efficacy of secreted PTH is poor and fail to inc blood Ca conc.- Metabolic alkalosis alters conformation of PTH receptor rendering tissues less sensitive to PTH.- Metabolic alkalosis occurs in dairy cows fed high K+ diets.- Using a DCAD method to create a diet which induces compensated metabolic acidosis prior to calving –> PTH receptor is best able to response to PTH secreted at onset of calving.- Anions e.g. Cl-, SO4- should be added to diet until –> urine pH 6.2-6.8 Hoslteins, 5.8-6.3 Jerseys. - High P diet –> high blood P –> inhibits activity of renal 25-hydroxyvitamin D 1a-hydroxylase enzyme –> dec renal resorption of Ca and dec intestinal absorption of Ca; diet should be 30-40g P/day. - HypoMg also prevents action of PTH on tissues and inhibits PTH secretion; feed 0.4% Mg pre-partum and during early lactation.- Feed low-Ca diet during late gestation to stimulate activity of osteoclasts and enterocytes in preparation for lactation and then at calving and 24h later give 50-125g oral Ca.
160
Q

Describe the mechanism by which hypocalcaemia occurs in late gestation beef cattle and ewes.

A
  • Esp if carrying twins sudden inc in foetal skeletal demand for Ca is greater challenge than lactation.- Estrogen inc in late gestation –> dec osteoclastic activity.- Inadequate Mg intake also often contributes.- Can be prevented by inc Ca and Mg content of diet during gestation for beef cattle and ewes.
161
Q

Describe the role of magnesium in normal homoestasis in cattle and how plasma magnesium concentrations are maintained.

A
  • Major intracellular cation; serves as co-factor for enzymatic reaction vital to every major metabolic pathways.- Vital for normal nerve conduction, muscle function and bone mineral formation.- Plasma Mg is nearly entirely dependant on continuous dietary Mg absorption.
162
Q

List clinical signs of hypomagnesaemia in cattle.

A
  • Excitability.- Tetany.- Convulsions - chomping jaws, frothy salivation; liew w head arched back and legs paddling.- HR up to 150bpm w very loud heart beat.- RR up to 60pm.- Hyperthermia due to muscle activity.- Sudden death.- Moderate hypoMg (1.1-1.8 mg/dL) –> reduced feed intake, nervousness, reduced milk fat and total milk prod.
163
Q

Outline the role the rumen and dietary influences play in hypomagnesaemia in cattle.

A
  • Calves/lambs: SI site of Mg absoprtion.- Adult ruminants: rumen and reticulum site of Mg absorption, SI site of Mg secretion.- Rumen Mg absorption depends on amount of Mg in solution and Na-linked active transport process.- Low soluble Mg conc in rumen occurs w low dietary Mg content of forages, inadequate dietary Mg supplementation, rumen pH > 6.5, certain organic compounds in forage e.g. UFAs –> insoluble Mg.- Rumen pH typically high in grazing animals due to salivary buffer secretion; high-grain ration –> rumen pH greater Mg absorption.- High dietary K depolarises apical membrane of ruminal epi –> less transport of Mg across epi.- Feeding ionophore impr activity of Na-linked Mg trans.- Lush pastures –> inc GI transit time –> insufficient time of Mg in rumen for absorption.
164
Q

Describe risk factors for development of hypomagnesaemia in ruminants.

A
  • Beef cows, dairy cows and ewes in early lactation grazing lush pastures high in K and N and low in Mg and Na; known as grass/lactation/spring tetany, grass staggers.- Occurs in Spring and Autumn –> cool weather, pasture growing at maximal rates.- Ewes are generally hypoCa and hypoMg in 2nd-4th wk of lactation, suckling more than 1 lamb.
165
Q

Describe clincopathologic findings in cattle with hypomagnesaemic tetany.

A
  • CSx due to CSF Mg
166
Q

Outline treatment of hypomagnesaemia in ruminants.

A
  • Tx ASAP; response often disappointing; directly related to time elapsed b/w onset of CSx and Tx.- 1.5-2.25g Mg/adult cow; come in IV solutions as chloride, borogluconate or hypophosphite salts.- Cows should not be stimulated to rise for at least 30mins post Tx as may precipitate further tetany.- Cows that do recover usually do so within 1h of Tx (time taken for CSF levels to inc); often relapse w/in 12h.- Reduce risk of relapse by drenching w Mg oxide +/- Ca, P, NaCl slurry.- Immediately administer Mg to remainder of herd in grain ration or on hay/pasture.
167
Q

Outline methods of prevention of hypomagnesaemic tetany in cattle.

A
  • Ensure ruminal Mg content high enough that it will flow down conc gradient into ECF if active absorption mechanism is impaired –> 0.35-0.4% Mg in close-up rations.- Blood sample w/in 12h of calving; if serum Mg is not at least 2 mg/dL in 9/10 cows samples inadequate dietary Mg absorption can be presumed.
168
Q

Describe the main features of phosphorus metabolism in cattle.

A
  • ECF P pool maintained by replacing P removed for bone and muscle growth, endogenous faecal loss, urinary loss and milk prod and dietary P abs or resorption from bone.- Salivary secretions remove large vol of P from ECF pool; influenced by time spent ruminating and PTH; imp to buffer rumen; most reabsorbed in SI but also lost in urine.- Phytate-bound P in plants is absorbed in SI following digestion of phytic acid by ruminal microbes; P absorbed in excess of need –> excreted in saliva and urine.- PTH inc renal and salivary P excretion, therefore hypoCa animals often become hypoP.
169
Q

Describe the consequence of chronic hypophosphataemia due to diet marginal in P in late-term pregnant ruminants.

A
  • Chronic hypoP becomes pathologic during late pregnancy as P requirement of foetus accelerate.- Animals become recumbent.- Appear alert and will eat food put in front of them but are unable to rise.- Often have concurrent hypoCa, hypoMg, hypoglycaemia (low P often = low energy diet as grain is high in P).
170
Q

Describe hypophophataemia in cows with Milk Fever.

A
  • P normally dec at onset of lactation due to diversion of P from extracellular pool to milk and colostrum.- If animal also has hypoCa –> PTH secretion –> further hypoP due to loss in urine and saliva.- Plasma P conc usually rise rapidly following Tx for hypoCa with IV Ca and resultant dec in PTH secretion.
171
Q

Define Hypophosphataemic Downer Cows.

A
  • Cows with Milk Fever in which plasma P does not increase in response to administration of Ca; plasma P
172
Q

Outline treatment of Hypophosphataemic Downer Cows.

A
  • Tx can affect recovery in some animals if admin prior to muscle and nerve damage from recumbency.- 50g oral P in form of 200g monosodium phosphate or 6g P IV in form of 23g monosodium phosphate in 1L saline.- NB P in 4-in-one products useless as biologically inactive (phosphite or phosphinic acid).
173
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of chronic phosphorus deficiency due to poor soil P quality in ruminants.

A
  • Occurs in arid or tropical climates.- Infertility NB due to poor energy in pasture not P defic.- Poor growth rates.- Rickets.- Osteomalacia.- Unthrifty appearance.- Reduced feet intake or pica.- Reduced milk production.
174
Q

Describe the lesion which occurs in rickets. How is this different to osteomalacia?

A
  • Occurs in young, growing animals in which the cartilaginous matrix at the growth plate and the osteoid matrix formed during bone remodelling fail to mineralise.- Osteomalacia occurs in adults and is solely failure of osteoid matrix to mineralise.
175
Q

Describe the aetiology of rickets and osteomalacia in cattle.

A
  • Dietary P deficiency.- Can also occur with vitamin D deficiency; common to see mixed lesions of Ca and P deficiency w vit D deficiency, but rickets/osteodystrophy predominate.- NB different from Ca deficiency –> normal osteoid is not formed at all (osteoporosis) or is replaced by fibrous material (osteodystrophy).
176
Q

Describe the syndrome of Post-parturient Haemoglobinuria in cattle.

A
  • Intravascular haemolysis, anaemia and haemoglobinuria during the first 6 weeks of lactation.- Many, but not all, cattle are hypophosphataemic.- Inc risk in cattle that were Tx for ketosis.
177
Q

Describe the proposed pathogensis of Post-parturient Haemoglobinuria in cattle.

A
  • Severe hypoP –> depressed ability of RBCs to prod ATP –> insufficient ATP to power Na pumps –> inc intracellular Na –> rigid RBCs that rupture as they pass through capillary beds.- HypoP alone rarely sufficiency to cause inc RBC fragility.- Often cows also on diet low in Se, Cu and energy, so likely combination of factors, not just hypoP.
178
Q

Define Hypokalaemia Syndrome in cattle.

A

Presence of flaccid paralysis, recumbency, abnormal neck position and serum K conc

179
Q

Describe signalment of cattle that develop Hypokalaemic Syndrome.

A
  • HypoK commonly occurs w anorexia and GI stasis.- Hypokaelaemic Syndrome is rarely reported (42 cases in the literature).- Reported most commonly in lactating dairy cows
180
Q

List risk factors for development of Hypokalaemic Syndrome in cattle.

A
  • Recent administration of isofluprednone.- Multiple doses of dextrose and insulin.- 2 calves: IVFT 2+ days w/out serum biochem.- Other initiating dz e.g. acetonaemia or infectious dz.
181
Q

Describe clinical signs of Hypokalaemic Syndrome in cattle.

A
  • Early stages: absence of faeces, paretic gait, hyphosis, inability to stand for a long time, tachycardia.- May see abnormal neck posture.- Typical presentation: recumbency, S-shaped neck, abnormal faeces and ruminal motility, abnormal appetite (will eat if brought to them), tachychardia +/- arrhythmia.- Flaccid paralysis: recumbency, little or no tail tone, unable to raise head, as soon as released moves back to S-shaped neck.- Arrhythmias: VT, accelerated escape ventricular rhythm, atrial fibrillation, flattened T waves.
182
Q

Describe the aetiology of Hypokalaemic Syndrome in cattle.

A
  • Imbalance of internal (EC-IC) or external (intake vs loss) K balance or both.- Exact determinate unknown, except for in cases of isofluprednone administration.- Isofluprednone —> inc renal loss due to mineralocorticoid activity.- Severe dz –> K depletion through anorexia, catecholamine release, urine loss (failure to adapt from high K diet to sudden lack of intake).
183
Q

Outline methods to diagnose Hypokalaemic Syndrome in cattle.

A
  • Pathognomonic CSx of twisted, S-shaped neck associated with flaccid paralysis.- Serum K
184
Q

Describe treatment of Hypokalaemic Syndrome in cattle.

A
  • Oral KCl supplementation (only oral + IV if dehydrated, otherwise IVF –> inc K diuresis): total 60-100g/100Kg/d.- Nursing care essential to prevent complications of recumbency e.g. mastitis, myopathy.- Serum K normalises in 3d; some degree of paresis may continue for a further 1-2d.- Supplement K for 1-2d afte return to normal appetite and clinical state, slowly dec to avoid K depletion caused by delayed renal adaptation to lower K diet.
185
Q

List the common signalment of does and ewes which develop Pregnancy Toxaemia (aka Ketosis, Twin Lamb Dz).

A
  • Last 2-4 weeks of gestation.- Ewes carrying 2+ foetuses.- Does carrying 3+ foetuses.
186
Q

List risk factors for development of Pregnancy Toxaemia in small ruminants.

A
  • Overconditioned prior to late gestation (thin ewes and does also at risk).- Cold weather.- Poor-quality feed.- Lack of exercise.- Stress of movement.
187
Q

List clinical signs of Pregnancy Toxaemia in small ruminants.

A
  • Animals separate themselves from the herd.- Poor appetite.- Many appear blind.- Become depressed and recumbent.- Neuro signs may precede terminal depression incl tremors, star gazing, inco-ord, circling, teeth grinding.- Severe hepatic lipidosis may result.
188
Q

Outline diagnostic test abnormalities in small ruminants with Pregnancy Toxaemia.

A
  • Ketonuria is detectable before ketonaemia.- BHB > 1mmol/L, FAs > 500uEq/L.- Acidosis is often present.- +/- hypoglycaemia.- +/- hypoCa and hypoK.- +/- azotemia in terminal cases.- +/- marked neutrophilia.
189
Q

Describe treatment of Pregnancy Toxaemia in small ruminants.

A
  • Principles of tx: administer exogenous energy sources and remove factors inc energy demand (i.e. foetuses).- Most important step: induce preg (dex in sheep; dex or Pg F2a in does) or caesarian (+ ABs/flunixin).- IV glucose +/- oral propylene glycol.- Correct acidosis and hypoCa if present.- Recombinant bovine somatotropin has shown some benefit.
190
Q

Describe strategies to prevent pregnancy toxaemia in small ruminants.

A
  • Very important to address marked inc in energy requirement during third trimester of preg.- Good to excellent quality forage for sheep.- Monitor plasma BHB to dx underfeeding in ewes: 0.8 mmol/L or higher indicates need for inc energy consumption by preg ewes.- Does demonstrate dec blood pH, bicarb conc and base excess values well in advance of CSx of preg tox.
191
Q

List unusual features of insulin and glucose metabolism in camelids.

A
  • Generally low insulin production; low in neonates compared to other species, drops further in adults.- High insulin resistance.- Potentially unrepressed hepatic gluconeogenesis.
192
Q

List processes of energy metabolism stimulated by insulin.

A
  • Uptake of circulating glucose by insulin-sensitive muscle or adipose tissue.- Uptake of amino acids.- Uptake of NEFAs from circulating triglycerides.- Lipogenesis.
193
Q

List processes of energy metabolism suppressed by insulin.

A
  • Mobilisation of glycogen.- Mobilisation of adipose triglyceride.- Gluconeogenesis.
194
Q

How are energy needs met in healthy camelids?

A
  • Short-chain fatty acid products of fermentation.- Glucose is provided by gluconeogenesis to support obligate requirements.- Amount of insulin req is small as roughage diet and fermentative digestive system do not result in glucose fluctuations, however given insulin resistance blood glucose conc is higher than in other species.
195
Q

How are energy needs met in camelids that have been fasted?

A

NEFAs are liberated from adipose stores.

196
Q

List insulin antagonists.

A
  • Glucagon.- Catecholamines (inc fat fractions as well as blood gluc).- Corticosteroids.- Thyroid hormone.- Growth hormone.
197
Q

List bloodwork abnormalities and morphologic changes which may occur following suppression/anatagonism of insulin in camelids.

A
  • Hyperglycaemia.- Hyperketonaemia.- High circulating NEFAs.- Hypertricglyceridaemia.- +/- hypoalbuminaemia (insulin stim liver alb prod).- Fatty infiltration of the liver, kidneys and other tissues.
198
Q

List causes of hyperglycaemia in camelids.

A
  • Rapid GI absorption of glucose: unlikely in adults, may occur in crias.- Exuberant, unmitigated gluconeogenesis or mobilisation of glycogen stores: corticosteroids or catchemolamines i.e. ‘stress’ of any dz.- Impaired hepatic or peripheral use of glucose.- Iatrogenic IV glucose administration.
199
Q

Why is hyperglycaemia more common and persistent in camelids than in other species?

A
  • Insulin resistance, lack of insulin response –> slow removal/uptake by peripheral tissues.- Slow urinary excretion: high urine threshold of 200mg/dL.
200
Q

What represents the greatest risk for a health complication in hyperglycaemic camelids? Why?

A
  • Dehydration due to lack of water intake or another reason related to primary dz.- Hyperglycaemia –> inc osmotic draw of fluid from ICF to ECF –> water lost through osmotic diuresis –> hypernatraemia –> further fluid loss from ICF –> further cellular dysfunction.- Concurrent metabolic acidosis and azotemia are additional signs of circulatory compromise.
201
Q

Outline treatment of acute hyperglycaemia in camelids.

A
  • Provision of water (oral or parenteral if not drinking).- If Na >5mmol/L above the top of the range may need to restrict access to free water and correct Na over 24h.- Cessation of stressful stimuli.- Insulin rarely required.
202
Q

Describe hyperosmolar syndrome.

A
  • Occurs in hyperglycaemic camelids when degree of dehydration due to glucorrhesis progresses to a point where CNS function is impaired (Na = 170mEq/L). - CNS glucose and Na concentrations become elevated.- CSx: fine head tremors, wide-based stance, +/- recumbency, obtundation, seizures, coma.
203
Q

In what age group of camelids does hyperosmolar syndrome mainly occur? What are risk factors for hyperosmolar syndrome in these animals?

A
  • Neonatal crias.- Sepsis, prematurity, corticosteroid treatment, bottle-feeding, glucose administration.
204
Q

Outline treatment of hyperosmolar disorder in camelids.

A
  • Restore circulating volume: oral fluids, water or diluted milk replacer (dec Na conc), IVF (admin slowly).- Insulin: regular insulin 0.2U/kg q1-4h IV.- Neuro signs related to rehydration: mannitol.- Seizures: diazepam.
205
Q

Has hyperadrenocorticism been reported in camelids?

A
  • Natural persistent hyperadrenocorticism has not.- Pituitary tumours have been reported.
206
Q

Does hypoglycaemia occur in camelids?

A
  • Rare compared to other species, even in fasting animals.- Reported in 2% adults, 13% crias in one hospital.- Should always be confirmed by blood gluc measurement before tx due to its rarity.- Persistent hypoglycaemia indicates severe hepatic dysfunction.
207
Q

Describe serum chemistry abnormalities in camelids with negative energy balance that induces fat store mobilisation

A
  • Circulating NEFAs inc to 0.6-1 mEq/L.- NEFAs –> liver –> inc BHB production –> blood BHB 1-2 mg/dL.- Little to no change in circulating triglyceride conc.
208
Q

What is the ramification of short-term negative energy balance for camelids?

A
  • Adapted to periods of fasting lasting for several weeks, therefore bloodwork abnormalities will be mild and there is little to no health ramifications.- Animals w higher energy requirements e.g. lactation, may be negatively impacted by fasting, but not always.
209
Q

What are the effects of increased circulating BHB in camelids?

A

Suppression of appetite.

210
Q

What are the effects of increased circulating NEFAs in camelids?

A
  • NEFAs are pro-inflammatory.- NEFAs are potentially cytotoxic.- Inhibit glycogen storage.- May inhibit glucose uptake.- May increase insulin resistance.
211
Q

Identify the signalment of camelids prone to hepatic lipidosis.

A

All ages and signalments from crias up.

212
Q

List blood work abnormalities in camelids with hepatic lipidosis.

A
  • NEFAs > 1 mEq/L.- BHB > 5 mg/dL.- Hyperglycaemia (pre/lactating may have hypoglycaemia).- +/- hyperlipaemia (inc cholesterol and triglyceride).
213
Q

Outline factors which may contribute to the development of hepatic lipidosis in camelids.

A
  • Preg/lactating: may be carb insufficiency like preg tox in ewes/cows.- Stressors that inhibit insulin or promote catecholamines: transport, extreme temp, illness etc.- Protein deficiency –> AA deficiencies –> prevent export of hepatic fat and formation of protein hormones or enzymes e.g. insulin.- Hepatic injury or dysfunction e.g. Cu or plant tox.
214
Q

Describe the occurrence of hyperlipaemia in camelids and compare it to cattle.

A
  • Can occur with any age or gender.- Hyperlipaemia occurs close to death w lipidosis.- The more severe the hyperlipaemia, the higher NEFAs and BHB will be.- Cattle w ketosis have much higher BHB but hyperlipaemia occurs much less frequently –> camelids are either more capable than cattle of exporting liver triglyceride or have greater problems with its end use.- Mild hyperlipaemia may be benign, but gets worse if untreated.- Occurs w neg energy balance, inflammatory disorders (inhibition of lipoprotein lipase by Pg), lipogranulomas of the foot.
215
Q

Outline treatment of disorders of fat metabolism in camelids.

A
  • Try and restore appetite.- High palatable feeds: blackberry leaves, grass, alfalfa leaves; milk or milk replacer for crias.- Avoid grain in excess as may exacerbate acidosis.- IVFT, correction of acidosis and elec abnormalities; conservative IVF after correction of shock as hypoalbuminaemia is common in these patients.- More aggressive tx if NEFA > 1mEq/L, BHB >5 mg/dL and triglycerides > 500mg/dL –> force feeding, PPN + insulin, appetite stimulants (transfaunation, companion, B vit, diaz).
216
Q

What are the main products of the pars intermedia?

A

POMC which can then be cleaved into alpha MSH (main peptide), ACTH, beta lipotropin, beta endorphin and corticotropin-like intermediate peptide (CLIP),

217
Q

List the products of the cortex and medulla of the adrenal glands.

A

Medulla: related to the sympathetic nervous system; chromaffin cells secrete catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine)Cortex: divided into 3 zones - Zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids (aldosterone); zona fasciculata secretes glucocorticoids (cortisol); zona reticularis secretes sex steroids (mainly androgens)

218
Q

What are the systemic effects of cortisol?

A
  • Increases gluconeogenesis- Mobilisation of amino acids for gluconeogenesis- Decreased glucose utilisation- Increased glucose concentrations- Inhibits insulin actions on glucose uptake and lipogenesis- Increases fat and amino acid mobilisation during stress- Endogenous glucocorticoids are antiinflammatory and immunosuppressors.
219
Q

Why do some premature foals have lower basal cortisol and higher ACTH levels?

A

P450-17 is expressed 5 days before birth in normal foals so if premature this enzyme might limit cortisol production. High ACTH is due to a lack of negative feedback.

220
Q

Define relative adrenal insufficiency (RAI) and critical illness related corticosteroid insufficiency (CIRCI)

A

RAI: inadequate production of cortisol in relation an increased demand during periods of severe illness and stress (high ACTH:cortisol ratio).CIRCI: promoted instead of RAI as it considers clinical findings; an exaggerate proinflammatory response from cortisol deficiency and tissue refractoriness to corticosteroids.

221
Q

List serum biochemical abnormalities that might be seen with adrenal insufficiency.

A

May be normal or; hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia.

222
Q

Differentiate primary versus secondary hypoadrenocorticism.

A

Primary: adrenocortical dysfunction leads to high plasma ACTH (rule out PPID) due to lack of negative feedback.Secondary: increased use of exogenous glucocorticoids leads to low ACTH levels.

223
Q

ACTH stimulation test involves what?

A

Baseline heparinised or plain blood for cortisol; administer 1iu/kg natural ACTH IM between 8-10am; take post ACTH blood samples 2 and 4 hours after ACTH administration. A functional adrenal gland results in 2-3fold increase in cortisol compared with baseline.

224
Q

Treatment of hypoadrenocorticism involves:

A

Treatment with corticosteroids, ideally hydrocortisone or prednisolone at low doses.

225
Q

What are the clinical signs of CIRCI in foals and recommended treatment protocol?

A

vasopressor-unresponsive hypotension, hypoglycaemia or persistent SIRS. (Ideally to ACTH stim test).Tx: a short tapering therapy of hydrocortisone (1.3mg/kg/day IV divided every 4 hours).

226
Q

Where do pheochromocytomas arise?

A

Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

227
Q

Which catecholamines are produced by pheochromocytomas?

A

Adrenaline and noradrenaline.

228
Q

What are the clinical signs of pheochromocytomas?

A

Intense adrenergic stimulation, may include: abdominal pain from haematomas or haemoperitoneum, GIT distension secondary to ileus, anxiety, tachycardia, tachypnoea, profuse sweating, muscle tremors, hyperthermia, dry and pale MM, increase CRT, ataxia and mydriasis.

229
Q

What is the incidence of concurrent endocrine abnormalities or multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) in horses with pheochromocytoma?

A

73% had concurrent endocrine abnormalities and 21% of those had changes consistent with MEN.

230
Q

What are the two cell types in the thyroid gland and what does each secrete?

A

Follicular cells secrete thyroxine (T4 - prohormone) and triiodothyronine (T3 - active hormone). These increase metabolic rate.Neuroendocrine cells give rise to parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin (important for calcium metabolism).

231
Q

Which hormones stimulate and which hormones inhibit thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

TRH stimulates thyrotropes of the pars distalis to secrete TSH.Dopamine and somatostatin released by the hypothalamus inhibit TSH secretion.

232
Q

Are thyroid hormone levels higher in newborn foals or adults?

A

Approximately 10 fold higher in foals

233
Q

What is the effect of lactation on thyroid hormone concentrations?

A

Serum T3 and T4 concentrations are higher in lactating mares cf non lactating.

234
Q

What are the effects of feeding on thyroid hormone secretion?

A
  • Soluble carbohydrates increase secretion of TH- Energy deprivation inhibits deiodination of T4 to T3 to decrease T3 but increases rT3 concentrations (may be to reduce metabolic rate and conserve energy)- Starvation decreases leptin concentrations which has a flow on effect to decrease TRH and therefore TSH; hence feed restriction decreases while caloric intake increases leptin concentrations and the same in thyroid hormones.
235
Q

Define non-thyroidal illness syndrome (NTIS) and the relative levels of T3 and T4.

A

NTIS is a reduction in T3 due to suppression of the HPTA from illnesses, systemic inflammation, stress and starvation. T4 can be normal, decreased or increased during NTIS.

236
Q

Explain the TSH stimulation test, the TRH stimulation test and the T3 suppression test.

A

TSH stim: Baseline blood; inject 2.5-5iu of TSH IV and compare pre- and 3-4h post TSH concentrations of TH. T4 should peak at 2.4 times baseline and T3 peaks at 5 times baseline. An insufficient response is consistent with hypothyroidism (bute decreases TH concentrations but doesn’t affect this test; dex blunts the TH response to the TSH stim test).TRH stim: baseline blood; inject 1mg TRH IV and compare pre and 2-4h post TRH concentrations of TH. Both T3 and T4 should increase 2-3fold. An inadequate response occurs with primary (thyroid) or secondary (pituitary) hypothyroidism. T3 suppression test: Baseline blood; inject 2.5mg T3 diluted in 5mL saline IM at 8am and 6pm on days 1, 2 and 3, and at 8am on day 4. Serum T3 concentrations are measured 5min before each T3 dose. Additional samples collected at 6pm on days 4-10. Failure of T3 to suppress after T3 administration indicates autonomous secretion of THs, consistent with hyperthyroidism. In euthyroid horses T4 concentrations decrease by day 4 and remain low until day 10.

237
Q

Differentiate primary from secondary hypothyroidism

A

Primary (thyroid): low TH, high TSH concentrations and a low response to TSH stimulation suggests thyroid gland dysfunction. Secondary (pituitary): low TH with low or normal TSH concentration indicate hypothalamic or pituitary gland dysfunction.

238
Q

What effect do nitrates have on thyroid function in-utero?

A

Proposed as a possible mechanism for development of congenital hypothyroidism and dysmaturity (CHD) in foals; nitrates cross the palcenta and impair foetal thyroid gland function. TH concentrations in foals with CHD are low or within normal and their response to TSH is poor. Prognosis is poor. Gestation is often prolonged and they are often weak to stand, silky short coat with domed head, tendon laxity, incomplete ossification of cuboidal bones, flexural and angular limb deformities and rupture of the common digital extensor tendons.

239
Q

What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Hemithyroidectomy if unilateral tumour- Glucocorticoids may alleviate signs- Eliminate exposure to iodine containing products.- Potassium iodide 1g/day may improve signs.Propylthiouracil (PTU) 8mg/kg POq24h may be successful and can be decreased to EOD.
240
Q

List the common thyroid tumours.

A
  • Adenoma (most common), benign and not associated with thyroid function. - Adenocarcinoma, malignant and can cause euthyroid, hypo or hyperthyroidism.- Medullary carcinoma (C-cell or parafollicular cell tumour), usually unilateral. - Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN), consider this when you see tumour of the thyroid gland.
241
Q

List the mechanisms of calcium reabsorption in the cortical thick ascending loop of henle and the distal convoluted tubules of the kidney.

A

CTAL: PTH mediated- Increases calcium reabsorption (enhances the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter which creates the voltage gradient that enables paracellular reabsorption of Ca). - Reduces phosphate reasbsoprtion- Promotes calcitriol synthesis. DCT: - Increased calcium reabsorption in in his region is transcellular mediated by epithelial calcium channels, calbindin, basolateral proteins and the vitamin D receptor.

242
Q

What is the role of calcitonin?

A

It is secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcaemia and it decreases calcium and phosphate levels by increasing urinary calcium and phosphate excretion and suppressing osteoclastic bone resorption.

243
Q

What drives humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy?

A

Secretion of parathyroid hormone related peptide.

244
Q

What effect does blood pH have on Ca binding to albumin?

A

During acidosis Ca binding is reduced so ionised concentration is higher and during alkalosis Ca binding to albumin is increased so ionised concentration is lower; but in both states total calcium is unchanged.

245
Q

What do you see with chronic excess and chronic deficiency of phosphorus?

A

Excess: clinical signs of calcium deficiency including osteodystrophia fibrosa or nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.Deficiency: weight loss, weakness, depraved appetite, lameness and DOD.

246
Q

Explain re-feeding syndrome

A

Occurs when re-feeding starved horses and begins with introduction of carbohydrates, specifically glucose which causes insulin release. Insulin prevents release of free fatty acids and causes an intracellular influx of glucose and selected electrolytes (potassium, magnesium and phosphorus), decreasing serum concentrations of these substances. Depletion of ATP results in RBC dysfunction and inability to release oxygen to tissues. Resultant heart, respiratory and kidney failure contribute to death - neurological signs may or may not occur concurrently.

247
Q

List the clinical signs of hypocalcaemia

A

Anxiety, depression, synchronous diaphragmatic flutter, hyperexcitability, ataxia, stiff gait, tetany, muscle fasciculations and tremors, tachypnoea with flared nostrils, upper airway stridor, dyspnoea, dysphagia, hypersalivation, hyperhidrosis, ileus, seizures, hypotension, recumbency, collapse and death. tachycardias and cardiac arrhythmias may be present although bradycardia can occur in severe cases due to reduced myocardial contractility.

248
Q

Explain synchronous diaphragmatic flutter

A

Occurs as a result of ionised hypocalcaemia or hypomagnesaemia. Depolarisation of the right atrium stimulates action potentials in the hyperexcitable phrenic nerve as it crosses over the surface of the heart, causing a rhythmic movement on the flank due to synchronous contraction of the diaphragm with the heartbeat.

249
Q

What electrolytes are affected with hypoparathyroidism?

A

Hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia and decreased serum PTH concentrations. Hypomagnesaemia is often present and may be the cause in secondary hypopaathyroidism.

250
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of exercise-induced hypocalcaemia

A

Sweat losses, calcium shift to the intracellular compartment and increased binding of calcium to albumin due to alkalosis (alkalosis is secondary to hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis) and chloride loss in sweat). Inadequate response of PTH to hypocalcaemia have also been found in endurance horses which might contribute.

251
Q

What is the cause of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased parathyroid hormone secretion secondary to reduced intestinal calcium absorption. It is usually associated with a diet low in calcium, high in phosphorus or high in oxalate. Other names are bran disease, miller’s disease, big head, osteodystrophia fibrosa, fibrous osteodystrophia etc. Ca : P ratio less than 1:3 predispose. Hyperphosphataemia stimulates PTH secretion but inhibits renal calcitriol synthesis, as this usually downregulates parathyroid function the inhibition of calcitriol contributes to parathyroid cell hyperplasia and PTH secretion. This in turn increases osteoclastic activity, bone resorption and bone loss. Ionised calcium may remain within normal limits as this is a slow progressive disease and homeostatic mechanisms for calcium are highly effective.

252
Q

What does hypervitaminosis D cause?

A

Mineralisation of soft tissues, including cardiovascular tissues. Also increases bone density and reduces the medullary cavity lumen.

253
Q

What are the endocrine functional units of the pancreas, their four cell types and the hormones secreted by each?

A

Islets of langerhans are the functional units. Each islet has alpha, beta, delta and gamma cells. - Alpha cells secrete glucagon- Beta cells secrete insulin (as well as urocortin-3 and C-peptide)- Delta cells secrete somatostatin- Gamma cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

254
Q

Which hormones influence insulin release?

A

Stimulates: glucose is the most profound; also glucagon, some amino acids and incretin hormonesInhibits: somatostatin.

255
Q

What influence does the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system have on pancreatic endocrine function?

A

Sympathetic system inhibits insulin and stimulates glucagon secretionParasympathetic system stimulates insulin secretion during food intake

256
Q

List the effects of insulin in its three major tissue sites

A

Liver: insulin decreases glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis and stimulates glycogenesis, glycolysis and fatty acid synthesis.Adipose tissue: insulin decreases lipolysis and stimulates fatty acid uptake, synthesis and esterification.Skeletal muscle: insulin decreases proteolysis and amino acid output and increase glucose and amino acid uptake, protein synthesis and glycogen synthesis.

257
Q

Which feed groups stimulate incretins?

A

Carbohydrates, fatty acids and amino acids

258
Q

What differentiates insulin resistance from Type II diabetes?

A

In almost all instances horses remain euglycaemic which is in contrast to Type II diabetes in which the patient is hyperinsulinaemic and hyperglycaemic with glucosuria - this can occur in rare equine cases.

259
Q

Is hyperinsulinaemia due to increased secretion, decreased clearance or both?

A

Both, but more evidence to support increased secretion and beta cell hyperplasia.

260
Q

What are the common clinical findings with acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Colic- Reflux- Gastric dilation- Peritonitis- Abdominal fat necrosisMay be helpful to measure serum and peritoneal fluid lipase and amylase activities.
261
Q

How has somatostatin been implicated in equine IR?

A

Somatostatin inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion and when a somatostatin analogue (octreotide) was administered suppression of insulin was less profound in horses with IR, supporting a lack of beta-cell inhibition as a mechanism for hyperinsulinaemia.

262
Q

What is the mechanism for increased triglyceride levels in horses with insulin resistance?

A

Decreased insulin-mediated inhibition of hormone-sensitive lipase in adipose tissue, and decreased inhibition of hepatic synthesis and secretion of very low density lipoproteins.

263
Q

List complications of obesity.

A
  • EMS/IR- Impaired lymphatic drainage leading to oedema- Development of pedunculated lipomas at an earlier age- Abnormal reproductive cycling in mares
264
Q

Is measurement of basal insulin and oral sugar test of equivalent sensitivity in all breeds?

A

No, it has lower sensitivity in light breed horses - a positive result is still very likely to indicate IR but a negative result doesn’t rule out IR.

265
Q

Explain the IV glucose tolerance test, combined glucose and insulin test and oral sugar test protocols.

A

Starve for 6-8hrs before testing (some evidence suggests allowing access to soaked hay)IVGTT: Collect baseline sample; administer 150-300mg/kg dextrose as a 50% solution IV; collect blood at 30 minute intervals for 180 minutes, and measure glucose. Should return to normal by 150 min. If glucose is elevated at 180 min, IR is likely. CGIT: Collect baseline for glucose and insulin; administer 150mg/kg dextrose as a 50% solution IV followed immediately by 0.1iu/kg regular insulin. Blood collection at 0, 1, 5, 15, 25, 35, 45, 60, 75, 90, 105, 120, 135 and 150 min for glucose and also measure insulin at the 45 min sample. IR is diagnosed if blood glucose is above baseline at 45min or if insulin is >100uIU/mL at 45 min. Watch for hypoglycaemia; have rescue glucose available. *Note: the glucose curve is shifted to the right in donkeys; their nadir is 120 min cf 75 for horses and can take 240 min to return to normal.OST: Take baseline sample; administer karo syrup at 45mL/100kg and collect samples at 60 and 90 min. Insulin >60uIU/mL at 60 or 90 min after administration have IR. Current recommendation is 2 samples 15 min apart taken between 60 & 90 min; ie 60 & 75, 75&90 etc. Blood glucose >125mg/dl at 60-90 min is associated with IR.

266
Q

Which glucose transporter is most involved in uptake of glucose into skeletal muscle?

A

GLUT 4 receptor.

267
Q

How does insulin resistance develop?

A

Insulin sensitive tissues (liver, skeletal muscle and adipose tissue) fail to respond normally to insulin levels Insulin receptors, downstream signalling pathways and glucose transporters (eg GLUT4) are potential sites for dysregulation. As the tissues fail to respond to the insulin, more insulin is released from beta cells to compensate for reduced tissue insulin sensitivity, hence you get hyperinsulinaemia.

268
Q

What is uncompensated insulin resistance?

A

When the pancreas fails to sustain the higher rate of insulin secretion necessary to compensate for reduced tissue insulin sensitivity, and hyperglycaemia develops as a consequence. If there is also glucosuria then this is technically Type II diabetes mellitus.

269
Q

What are the broad mechanisms by which IR may predispose to laminitis?

A
  1. Altered blood flow or endothelial cell dysfunction within blood vessels of the food. 2. Impaired nutrient deliver to hoof tissues.3. A proinflammatory or prooxidative state induced by chronic obesity and IR.
270
Q

What is the ideal NSC level in feed for horses with IR?

A

Less than 10% as fed.

271
Q

What is the benefit of molasses-free beet pulp?

A

When rinsed and then soaked it induces a low glycaemic response but provides calories through hindgut fermentation and VFA production.

272
Q

What is your target feed amount for weight loss and how can this be modified in patients that don’t lose weight initially?

A

Start with hay at 1.5-2% body weight if hay (ideally soaked). If weight loss is not achieved, lower this over several weeks to 1.5% of target BW rather than actual BW. Do not restrict to less than 1% body weight/day.

273
Q

What is the highest risk time for grazing?

A

Night time, potentially any time of the day during rapid growth in spring or senescence in fall. Typically early mornings are safer, unless there has been a hard frost (grass will accumulate sugar in this case).

274
Q

Why is it important to control diet in conjunction with levothyroxine treatment?

A

Appetite/feed intake may increase in horses treated with levo so dietary modification/restriction is an equally important component of weight loss during treatment.

275
Q

What is the MOA of metformin?

A

It is a functional AMPK agonist that promotes glucose uptake in horses with clinical evidence of IR. AMPK kinase results in broad changes in carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism that in general decreases energy consuption and increases energy production. In skeletal muscle it has been shown to be partly responsible for the insulin sensitising and non-insulin dependent effects on glucose transport following exercise.

276
Q

Why do the clinical signs of PPID vary among individuals?

A

Only a subset of the POMC-derived peptides may be secreted in any one individual and the degree of compression of adjacent neuroendocrine tissues may occur. Hypertrichosis is the most consistent sign, present in up to 80% of case. Weight loss and repartitioning is another common finding in up to 88% of cases.

277
Q

What is a proposed mechanism for increased docility and lethargy in horses with PPID?

A

Horses with PPID have increased plasma and CSF concentrations of beta endorphin which may lead to these signs. This may also explain the reduced responsiveness to painful stimuli and corneal stimulation that is observed in affected animals, and associated with the increased occurrence of ulcerative keratitis.

278
Q

What are the proposed mechanism for development of narcolepsy with PPID?

A

? Removal of dopaminergic control may alter the sleep-wake cycle (occurs in humans).? Narcolepsy can result from decreased orexin activity in the hypothalamus (orexin is a hypocretin/peptide neurotransmitter expressed in the hypothalamus that is important for the sleep-wake cycle). Horses with PPID have decreased CSF concentrations of orexin.

279
Q

What are the proposed mechanisms for immune impairment in horses with PPID?

A

? Increased concentration of immunosuppressive hormones (alpha-MSH, cortisol, insulin, beta-endorphin).? Neutrophils from PPID affected horses display reduced oxidative burst capacity and functional adhesion which may increase the animals risk for opportunistic infections.

280
Q

What is the typical signalment of horses with PPID?

A

Ponies and morgans may be predisposed but can occur in any breed. No sex predilectionTypically a disease of aged horses (19-21 at diagnosis) but has been diagnosed in horses as young as 7yrs.

281
Q

What is the pathogenesis of PPID?

A

Loss of inhibitory control of the pars intermedia cell function is associated with triggering unregulated cell proliferation and the development of adenomas. This occurs due to loss of dopaminergic input to the pars intermedia as a consequence of neurodegeneration of the periventricular neurons (loss of dopaminergic cell bodies in the periventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus and the nerve terminals in the pars intermedia).

282
Q

What is the normal process of dopaminergic inhibition on the pars intermedia in horses without PPID?

A

The periventricular neurons that link the hypothalamus with the pars intermedia via the infundibular stalk release dopamine which interaacts with dopaminergic D2 receptors which act to inhibit POMC mRNA expression and POMC derived intermediate lobe hormone release.

283
Q

Why is the TRH stimulation test effective?

A

TRH is a direct releasing factor for equine melanotrophes, hence it increased the secretion of alpha-MSH and ACTH in both normal horses and those with PPID. However the ACTH concentration will be higher and more prolonged in horses with PPID than normal horses.

284
Q

What are the possible side effects of TRH that the owner should be warned about?

A

Star-gazingYawningLip movementsTremblingSalivationCoughing

285
Q

What are the treatment options for PPID?

A
  • Pergolide 0.2-5mg/horse/day (dopamine D2 receptor agonist)- Bromocriptine 0.03-0.09mg/kg BID (dopamine D2 receptor agonist)- Cabergoline 2-3mg PO SID-BID for a 500kg (dopamine D2 receptor agonist)- Cyprohepatadine 0.25mg/kg PO SID (serotonin antagonist). Can be in conjunction with pergolide; can also be increased to twice daily in refractory cases.
286
Q

How quickly do you expect ACTH to return to previous values after discontinuing pergolide?

A

Approximately 10 days

287
Q

What are the predisposing risk factors for development of anhidrosis?

A
  • Familial history of anhidrosis- TB and WB breeds- Horses born in non-tropical/colder climates that then move to the tropics.
288
Q

What are the important features of equine sweat glands?

A

They are an apogrine gland associated with the hair follicle and consist of a secretory portion and a serpentine duct that opens into the follicular canal. They have a rich capillary network that is different from other species.

289
Q

Describe the regulatory mechanisms for sweating in horses.

A

Neural regulation: mainly sympathetic beta-adrenergic innervation.Endocrine: beta-adrenergic receptor stimulation by circulating catecholamines.Vascular: via an indirect neural influence controlling blood flow.

290
Q

What are the proposed mechanisms of anhidrosis?

A
  • Deficiency of beta2 adrenoreceptor agnoists (deficient beta2 adrenergic stimulation)- Poor sweat gland response to beta2 adrenergic stimulation (receptor refractoriness or downregulation).- Inflammation (minimal evidence)Likely results from a combination of insufficient neural and endocrine stimulation. Horses with skin denervation can sweat although their response to thermal stimulation is impaired.
291
Q

What are the clinical signs of anhidrosis?

A
  • Depression- Anorexia- Poor performance- Tachypnoea- Hyperthermia- Absent or reduced sweating- Dry coat/flaky skin- Alopecia
292
Q

What are the diagnostic options for anhidrosis?

A

Clinical signs are important.- Adrenaline intradermal test (delayed or absent sweat response) but as this is not specific for B2 receptors the alpha adrenergic effects may mask the response. - B2 receptor agonists (terbutaline and salbutamol) are better. Inject several dilutions of saline and salbutamol or terbutaline (terbutaline is a 1mg/mL in tenfold dilutions with 0.9%NaCl (1000, 100, 10, 1, 0.1, -.01, 0.001 and 0mg/L) with a volume of 0.1mL injected at each site 5cm apart. Horses with anhidrosis have minimal or no response to any dilution, normal horses sweat from most dilutions.

293
Q

What is another differential for persistent hyperthermia and tachypnoea in certain foal breeds?

A

Draft breeds have idiopathic hyperthermia - resolves within 3-7 days with supportive management.

294
Q

What are the treatment options for anhidrosis?

A

Symptomatic.- Some success with levothyroxine (thyroid hormones may enhance B2 adrenoreceptor sensitivity) but be aware of complications associated with this drug (weight loss etc)- B2 recepor agonists are controversial as B2 receptor dowregulation is likely due to excessive adrenergic stimulation, however some clinicians report benefit from use of clenbuterol.

295
Q

What is the prognosis for horses with anhidrosis?

A

Guarded and dictated by severity of the condition