Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect reported in large animals? What is the most common location of this defect?

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD).Perimembranous VSDs are more common than muscular.

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2
Q

Define a ventricular septal defect (VSD).

A

Opening in the inter ventricular septum that creates a communication between the left and right ventricles.

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3
Q

In what breeds of cattle are VSDs heritable?

A

Herefords and Limousins.

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4
Q

In what breeds of horses are VSDs most common?

A

Welsh Mountain Pony (Type A), Arabian, Standardbred, Quarter Horse.

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5
Q

What is the embryologic defect that results in formation of a VSD?

A
  • Failure of fusion of the endocardial cushion and muscular ventricular septum, or- Failure of fusion of the truncal and conal septa.
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6
Q

What is the most common direction in which blood is shunted in large animals with VSDs?

A

Left to right.Because pressure in LV exceeds pressure in RV.

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7
Q

List the factors which influence the size of the shunt.

A
  • Size of the defect.- Pressures in the RV, LV and pulmonary a.
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8
Q

Describe the murmur(s) heard in patients with VSD.

A

Loud, harsh, pancystolic murmur with PMI over tricuspid v on RHS and softer, holosystolic murmur with PMI over pulmonic v on LHS.+/- palpable thrill.+/- split S2.

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9
Q

If the murmur is loudest on the LHS in an animal with VSD what should be suspected?

A

A subpulmonic VSD or a complex anomaly.

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10
Q

What CSx may be seen in large animals with VSD, in addition to a cardiac murmur?

A

Poor growth, lethargy, dyspnoea, exercise intolerance, CHF (by 5yo).Small defects may be asymptomatic.

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11
Q

List three differential diagnoses for VSD.

A
  • Tetralogy of Fallot.- Mitral or tricuspid valvular anomalies.- Neonate flow murmur.
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12
Q

Describe echocardiographic findings in patients with VSD.

A
  • Typical perimembranous VSD: long-axis LVOT view, located underneath the right and/or non-coronary leaflet of the aortic v and central to septal leaflet of the tricuspid v.- Subpulmonic VSD (calves>foals): short axis view in septum between the LVOT and RVOT.- Large/mod VSDs –> LA and LV enlargement, RV enlargement and pulmonary a dilation +/- aortic valve prolapse and aortic regurgitation.
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13
Q

Horses can race with VSDs = ______.

A
  • = 4.5m/s peak velocity.
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14
Q

Haemodynamically significant VSDs (i.e. resulting in CHF and death) have > _____ diameter, peak shunt velocity _______.

A
  • > 3.5cm diameter.- 0.3 VSD:Ao root.-
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15
Q

What changes occur within the heart in patients with very large VSDs?

A

Pressure in LV and RV are almost equalised –> RV, pulmonary circ, LA and LV must compensate for volume overload –> dilation of cardiac chambers and pulmonary hypertension.

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16
Q

What happens to pulmonary resistance in patients with concurrent VSD and pulmonary disease of LHF and what effect does this have on the RV?

A

Increased pulmonary resistance –> chronic volume AND pressure overload on RV –> reversed direction of shunt (i.e. R-L) = Eisenmenger Complex (more common in cattle).

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17
Q

VSDs can create turbulent blood flow within the heart. What cardiac disease does this predispose to?

A

Endocarditis secondary to endocardial damage.

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18
Q

Identify which type of valvular regurgitation in most like to occur in patients with VSD and why.

A

Aortic regurgitation, due to the location of the VSD resulting in loss of structural support for the aortic valve cusps.

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19
Q

Define an atrial septal defect (ASD) and list the most common ASD described in large animals.

A

A connection between the left and right atrial at the septal level.Most common is patent foramen ovale (PFO).

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20
Q

In which species is PFO seen commonly and what other congenital cardiac defect is it often seen with?

A

Calves and PDA.

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21
Q

What is the embryologic origin of a PFO?

A

Failure of the septum primum to adhere to the crista dividens after birth.

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22
Q

Describe the murmur presents in patients with PFO?

A

Holocystolic, crescendo-decrescendo at the left heart base.

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23
Q

In which direction in the shunt most commonly in PFO?

A

Left to right.

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24
Q

PFO are frequently asymptomatic in large animals. In the case of a large defect, however, congenital remodelling may occur. What changes may be seen on echo in this case?

A

RA, RV and LA enlargement.

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25
Q

Define a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

A

Persistent potency of the vessel that connects the pulmonary arterial system to the aorta.

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26
Q

When should a PDA normally close after birth in calves and foals and why does it close?

A
  • Very shortly after birth in calves, and within 4 days in foals.- Closes in response to decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance, increased systemic vascular resistance, increased blood vol and increased LV pressure when breathing begins.
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27
Q

Describe the murmur in an animal with a PDA.

A

Continuous, high-pitched, ‘machinery murmur’ on the left and right; PMI 3rd/4th ICS at the level of the point of the shoulder.Murmur may be absent with large PDAs.

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28
Q

What clinical signs may be seen in animals with PDAs in addition to a cardiac murmur?

A
  • Bounding pulses (due to run-off of blood from systolic to pulmonary circulation).- Cyanosis (if shunt reversed).- Stunted growth.
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29
Q

Describe diagnostic imaging findings in an animal with a PDA.

A
  • Rads: may see enlarged cardiac silhouette and pulmonary congestion.- Echo: may see PDA, enlarged LA and LV, enlarged LA:Ao root ratio.- Angiography provides definitive diagnosis.
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30
Q

Describe changes which occur in the heart secondary to the presence of a PDA.

A

PDA –> L-R shunt –> LV overload –> LV dilation and hypertrophy +/- CHF.Pulmonary hypertension and congestion can occur –> RV hypertrophy.

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31
Q

When does a right to left shunt occur in PDA patients?

A

When pulmonary resistance exceeds systemic vascular resistance.

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32
Q

What is the prognosis for large animals with PDA?

A

May remain asymptomatic if small; poor prognosis if large.

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33
Q

Is PDA a heritable condition in large animals?

A

No evidence at this time that it is a heritable defect.

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34
Q

List the four components of a Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF).

A
  • Overriding (biventricular origin) aorta.- VSD.- Pulmonic stenosis.- RV hypertrophy.
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35
Q

What congenital anomaly is present, in addition to the 4 present in cases of ToF, to make the condition a Pentalogy of Falot?

A
  • ASD, plus…- Overriding (biventricular origin) aorta.- VSD.- Pulmonic stenosis.- RV hypertrophy.
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36
Q

What is the embryologic origin of a ToF?

A

Abnormal development of the conal septum.

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37
Q

Describe the typical murmur in animals with ToF.

A

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur or pulmonic stenosis, or harsh, plateau-shaped murmur of VSD.

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38
Q

What clinical signs may be seen in animals with ToF in addition to a cardiac murmur?

A
  • Small size or slow growth.- Marked exercise intolerance –> dyspnoea and collapse.- Cyanosis of the MMs, skin and nose.
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39
Q

List differential diagnoses for oxygen-responsive cyanosis in young large animals.

A
  • NARDs.- CNS Dz.- Heart failure with pulmonary oedema.
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40
Q

List differential diagnoses for non-oxygen responsive cyanosis in young large animals (i.e. R-L shunt)

A
  • ToF or PoF.- Reverse PDA.- Reverse VSD.- Tricuspid or RV atresia.- LV hyperplasia.- Truncus arteriosus.- Pseudotruncus arteriosus.
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41
Q

Describe diagnostic findings suggestive of ToF.

A
  • Echo: visualisation of defects and colour Doppler flow abnormalities.- CBC: PCV, RBCC and Hg conc increased in some cases.- Blood gas: arterial hypoxaemia (degree depends on amount of shunting).
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42
Q

In which large animal species is ToF most common and is it an hereditary condition in large animal species?

A
  • Calves > foals.- No evidence of a hereditary link at this time.
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43
Q

What is the most common primary heart tumour of large animals?

A

Lymphosarcoma.

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44
Q

What breeds of horses display the highest incidence of atrial fibrillation?

A

Standardbreds, Warmbloods, draught horses.

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45
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of atrial fibrillation in horses.

A
  • CO at rest in normal in most horses with AF, however, maximal CO during exercise is limited because the atrial contribution to filling is most important at higher HRs.- In AF, the loss of coordinated fronts of electrical activity in the atria results in loss of both coordinated mechanical activity and atrial contraction. –> CO dec by up to 20%. - In addition, the irregular ventricular rhythm results in variable cardiac fill, further reducing cardiac performance.- Variable HR: ventricular rate response depends on the refractory period of the AV node and freq and strength of atrial stimuli. - In the otherwise healthy horse with AF vagal tone will be high and symp tone low at rest therefore ventricular rate will be close to normal or slightly increased.- If sympathetic activity is increased or if vagal activity is blocked then the ventricular rate response will increase as the AV nodes refractory period shortens.- AF can induce atrial electrical, structural and functional remodelling that may be responsible for the self perpetuating, progressive and recurrent nature of AF (changes are more likely to be reversible if tx promptly).
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46
Q

Define the three classifications of atrial fibrillation in horses.

A
  1. Paroxysmal AF: - Often assoc with a single episode of poor performance.- Arrhythmia usually disappears spont within 24-48hrs. - May be associated with transient K depletion (especially in horses tx with furosemide or bicarb).- Most often unrelated to other clinical or echocardiographic abnormalities of heart disease. 2. Persistent AF: arrhythmia terminates after tx. 3. Permanent AF: - Arrhythmia is sustained and resistant to therapy. - Many horses do not have significant cardiac dz on PE and echo exam, however ultrastructural and functional myocardial pathology may be present predisposing to AF.
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47
Q

What are the clinical signs in horses with atrial fibrillation?

A
  • The arrhythmia is often detected as an incidental finding in horses with no overt CSx.- Exercise intolerance is the most common CSx seen; more common in high-performance horses (racehorses, polo ponies, endurance horses, Grand Prix SJ) than show hunters, dressage, pleasure, endurance horses.- EIPH, respiratory distress, CHS, ataxia, collapse and myopathy have all been reported with AF.- Horses with AF usually have normal resting HRs, although the HR usually decreases after conversion.
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48
Q

What are the diagnostic test findings in horses with atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Auscultation: normal HR or tachycardia, irregularly irregular heart rhythm, variable intensity heart sounds and an absent fourth heart sound.- Arterial pulses vary in intensity and pulse deficits may be present, esp when the ventricular rate is high.- ECG: ➢ Characterised by an absence of P waves, instead fibrillation (f) waves are seen in the baseline. ➢ f waves may be coarse (large) or fine (small) and the number of atrial pulses/min usually >500.➢ QRS-T complexes: normal morphology and duration.➢ The ventricular rate response is variable, although periodicity may be observed infrequently.- If resting tachycardia is present you should look for intercurrent cardiac lesions or a disorder that increases symp tone e.g. pain, anaemia, fever, infection.- Echo: usually normal, unless concurrent valvular or ventricular myocardial dz is noted. Not abnormal for LV shortening fraction to be slightly reduced then return to normal post-conversion.
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49
Q

Describe quinidine sulphate therapy for cardioversion in horses with atrial fibrillation.

A
  • Blocks vagal activity; typically admin via NGT because of its irritating effects on the MMs. - IV quinidine gluconate can be successful if AF is of recent onset or NGT delivery is not feasible but failure does not necessarily predict the response to oral tx.- E.g. regimen: 22mg/kg via NGT q2h for 2-4 tx then q6h until horse converts or horse dev signs of toxicosis. - If conversion has not occurred in 24hrs then digoxin 0.0055-0.0011mg/kg PO BID may be added for a further 24 48hrs (drugs interact → doubled serum conc of digoxin). If >24hrs the lowest end of the dose range should be used and serum digoxin conc should be measured.- When tx of >12-24hr is required adequate hydration and electrolyte balance (esp K and Mg) must be ensured by oral or IV fluid admin because most horses on tx will become depressed and inappetent, will show reduced water intake and may develop mild dxa.- Careful clinical and continuous ECG monitoring should be performed during tx. Prolongation of QRS duration by >25% of the pre-tx value is an indication of toxicity → stop therapy. Supraventricular tachycardias, ventricular arrhythmias (multiform VT, VPCs) can also occur → stop therapy and tx (IVF to improve perfusion, IV sodium bicarb to reverse Na channel blocking effect of quinidine, adrenaline if critical hypotension develops, lignocaine or MgSO4 for ventricular arrhythmias).- CSx of toxicosis: ataxia, colic and nasal oedema → resp stridor. Depression, dxa and paraphimosis occur in many horses tx with quinidine but resolve after discontinuation of the drug.
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50
Q

Describe transvenous electrovardioversion for treatment of atrial fibrillation in horses.

A
  • 1° tx or for horses that respond adversely or inadequately to quinidine tx.- Must be performed under GA with the horse well padded because shock results in a sudden jolt of the body.- Involves transcutaneous placement of two specialised electrode catheters transvenously (one catheter tip in the left PA and the other in the RA cavity) and application of an electric shock.- Complications appear to be low → one report of transient complete AV block; GA/electric shock risks.
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51
Q

What is the prognosis for horses with atrial fibrillation?

A
  • Excellent Px for conversion (>95%) if HR
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52
Q

Describe the signalment and aetiology of bacterial endocarditis in horses.

A
  • Most cases in horses
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53
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bacterial endocarditis in horses.

A
  • Predisposing factors are often not recognised in horses.- Bacteraemia is fairly common in horses but bacterial endocarditis is rare. - Interplay of a number of factors is probably required for dev of lesions, incl status of the endothelial surface of the valve, haemodynamics, host immune system, adherent properties of the bacteria, events that initiate bacteraemia. - In humans infective endocarditis is usually preceded by nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis = a platelet-fibrin complex forms on a damaged valve and is a good medium for bacterial growth; unknown if this occurs in horses.- Lesions consist of platelets, fibrin, bacteria, inflam cells.- Clinical signs result from three aspects of the disease: damage to the cardiac valves and the resulting pathophysiologic responses; septic embolisation of fragments to other organs with resulting dysfunctional infection of the valves and other sites (metastatic abscess formation).- Mitral valve > aortic > tricuspid > pulmonic.
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54
Q

List the clinical signs of bacterial endocarditis in horses.

A
  • Most common signs: fever and heart murmur.- Other presenting signs: lameness, thrombophlebitis, diarrhoea, cough, oedema, seizures, depression, colic, poor growth, laminitis and umbilical infection.- Auscultation: L apical systolic = MV lesion, R apical systolic = TV, L/R diastolic = AV, murmurs caused by PV regurg are rare because the pressure gradient and velocity of regurgitant flow are low.- If infective endocarditis affected the chordae tendinae or myocardium a murmur will not be heard.- If L CHF: exercise intolerance, lethargy, inc RR and effort, nostril flare, cough and inappetence +/- abnormal lung sounds; froth at the nostrils/mouth = grave Px indicator.- Septic jugular thrombophlebitis is a risk factor for tricuspid valve endocarditis → R CHF, incl venous (esp jugular) distension, jugular pulses and abdominomegaly secondary to hepatic congestion and ascites.- MV/AV can → systemic thromboemboli in organs incl kidneys, myocardium and CNS.- TV/PV can → thromboemboli in the lungs, metastatic pneumonia can be severe.
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55
Q

Describe clinicopathologic findings in horses with bacterial endocarditis.

A
  • CBC: hyperfibrinogenaemia, leucocytosis, neutrophilia, hyperglobulinaemia and anaemia of chronic disease.- MBA: cTnI may be inc; may be evidence of end organ damage incl azotaemia and proteinuria.- Blood culture: may or may not be positive due to variable shedding of the organism, previous antimicrobial admin and fastidiousness of organisms in growth media. Should be collected over 3-24h from at least 3 aseptically prep sites.- Definitive dx = confirmation of microorganisms in a valvular lesion by culture or histo evaluation (=PM).
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56
Q

Describe electrocardiogram and echocardiogram findings in horses with bacterial endocarditis.

A
  • ECG: usually reveals tachycardia regardless of whether the horse is in heart failure or not; arrhythmias are not uncommon and are usually ventricular in origin.- Echo: – Imaging modality of choice, enables assessment of valve structure, cardiac dimensions and function. – The degree of regurg or stenosis can be evaluated with Doppler ultrasound.– Acute lesions: hypoechoic, irregular and shaggy.– Chronic lesions: appear more regular and echogenic.– Valve thickening or ruptured chordae tendinae of the affected valve may be seen.– It is possible to make false –ve or false +ve dx on ultrasound, however in a study there was high correlation between echo findings and PM findings.
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57
Q

How is bacterial endocarditis treated in horses?

A
  • Goals: eradicating the organism and addressing complications of the infection.- Organisms within vegetative lesions are protected from the immune system and have slow metabolism therefore ABs should be admin IV, bactericidal and prolonged. - Ideally C&S but likely organisms are gram +ve/-ve sp pen gent whilst awaiting results. - Humans: IV for 4-6 weeks then oral for 3mo; too expensive in horses –> IV 1-2 weeks then swap to antibiotics with similar spectrum incl TMPS/rif, PPG, enro.- Antithrombotics may slow continued adhesion of platelets to the infective lesion on the valve and dec the risk of thromboembolic events – aspirin 10-25mg/kg PO SID.- Other medical management as indicated: CHF → diuretics (furosemide 1-2mg/kg PO BID), vasodilators (hydralazine 1mg/kg PO BID; more research req to determine if ACE inhibitors are effective) and inotropes (digoxin). If arrhythmias are haemodynamically sig anti-arrhythmias should be used (lignocaine, MgSO4).
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58
Q

What is the prognosis for horses with bacterial endocarditis?

A
  • Very poor; 10% survival in one case series.- Px very grave for L-sided lesions, particularly aortic valve lesions; better for R sided lesions (can even return to work).- Multiple reasons for tx failure: high cost (long tx and usually first 1-2weeks in hosp) + poor Px → euth, bacteriologic cure is difficult to achieve even if the best tx is attempted because the infective organisms are well sequestered from the horse’s immune system and ABs by the lesions matrix of fibrin and platelets → may result in relapse of CSx within 2mo of stopping tx; even if cure is achieved the affected valve with remodel and scar, possibly resulting in even worse valvular regurg over time and inc risk of heart failure.
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59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of monensin?

A

Monensin is produced by the fungus Streptomyces cinnamonensis. It is selective in transporting Na and K ions between the intracellular and extracellular spaces

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60
Q

Describe the proposed toxic mechanism of monensin in horses.

A
  1. Hypothesis one for toxic action: – Monensin interacts with the mechanisms regulating K entry into cell organelles, esp the mitochondria.– Low conc → net accum of K within the cell, high conc → net loss of K from the cell. – The effect of monensin might therefore be inhibition of ATP hydrolysis in mitochondria (requires K) → decreased cell energy production → loss of cell function and death.2. Hypothesis two for toxic action:– Inc intracellular calcium is responsible for cell death.– Increased intracellular Ca conc → Ca sequestered by mitochondria to maintain Ca homeostasis → inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation and less energy produced to pump Ca out of cell → critical level of Ca in cell → release of degenerative enzymes, swelling of mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum → cell necrosis and death.
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61
Q

Describe pathologic changes in the internal organs of horses with monensin toxicity.

A
  • Myocardial lesions are charac by pale myofibres, loss of fibre striation, multifocal vacuolar degeneration and scattered areas of necrosis –> replaced by fibrous tissue.- Result is a structurally weakened heart that can succumb to stress and cause acute death.- Other lesions may be present incl pericardial, pleural and peritoneal effusions; haemopericardium and epicardial haemorrhage.- Chronically affected horses may have hepatic congestion with centrilobular necrosis and hydropic degeneration of the renal tubules.
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62
Q

What are the clinical signs of monensin toxicity in horses.

A
  • Peracute toxicity: progressive, severe haemoconc, hypovolaemic shock and death within a few hours.- Acute toxicity: partial to complete feed aversion, abdominal pain, occasional water dxa, intermittent profuse sweating, stiffness, progressive muscle weakness (esp HL), progressive ataxia, tachycardia, hypotension, dyspnoea and polyuria; death may occur 1-4 days after onset of CSx.- Horses surviving sublethal doses: reduced athletic performance, unthriftiness, cardiac failure (arrhythmias especially atrial fibrillation and tachycardia, jugular pulse, pericardial and pleural effusions); intravascular haemolysis may occur to a limited degree.
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63
Q

How is monensin toxicity diagnosed in horses?

A
  • Suspected when horses show CSx of feed refusal, colic, muscle weakness and heart failure and when possible exposure to contaminated feed has occurred.- Test feeds, serum, liver, GI contents, faeces for monensin.- CBC/MBA: non pathognomonic; may include: early evidence of severe haemoconc and dehydration in peracute phase; serum K and Ca may be decreased moderately in the first 12-16hrs but then return to normal limits; azotaemia in acutely affected animals; elevated CK, AST, cTnI.
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64
Q

Outline the treatment of monensin toxicity in horses.

A
  • There is not a specific antidote for monensin toxicity.- Decontamination: activated charcoal to dec absorption, mineral oil to hasten bowel evacuation.- IVFT to combat haemoconc and hypovol shock, measure electrolytes and acid-base and correct deficiencies. - Se and Vit E have been shown to be somewhat protective against the effects of monensin tox in swine. - Never administer digitalis glycosides or calcium! Can → myocardial cell death. - Critically evaluate cardiac function of any horse that was previously affected before return to work.
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65
Q

List the causes of acquired valvular disease in cattle.

A
  • Degenerative changes.- Infection (bacterial or viral endocarditis or myocarditis).- Inflammation.- Trauma.- Myocardial dz (cardiomyopathy).- Neoplasia (esp lymphoma).- Idiopathic.
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66
Q

Chronic bacterial infection can predispose to bacterial endocarditis. List three common chronic bacterial infections that have been linked with endocarditis in cattle.

A
  • Foot abscesses.- Rumenitis.- Reticular abscesses.
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67
Q

What is the most common bacterial isolate from bacterial endocarditis lesions in cattle?

A

Trueperella pyogenes.

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68
Q

Which valve is most commonly affected in cattle with bacterial endocarditis?

A

Tricuspid valve.

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69
Q

List the clinical signs of valvular disease in cattle.

A
  • Murmur: varies with valve affected; often quiet to no murmur in cattle with bacterial endocarditis.- Cardiac enlargement –> greater area for auscultation +/- arrhythmias e.g. a fib.- CHF: tachycardia, coughing, respiratory distress, jugular v distension, abnormal jugular pulsation, subcutaneous oedema, mammary v distension, crackles/moist lung sounds; wt loss, anorexia, fever, mastitis.
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70
Q

Describe echocardiographic findings in cattle with acquired valvular disease.

A

Regurgitant jet, increased chamber dimensions, valvular lesions.Valvular insufficiency: mild jet 2/3 receiving chamber.

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71
Q

List potential CBC, MBA and urinalysis findings in cattle with bacterial endocarditis.

A
  • CBC: anaemia, neutrophilia, hyperfibrinogenaemia.- MBA: hyperglobulinaemia, inc liver enzymes.- Urinalysis: pyuria or haematuria.
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72
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of congestive heart failure (CHF) in cases of acquired valvular disease in cattle.

A

Valvular incompetence –> volume overload of recipient chamber –> increased EDV –> compensatory dilation and increased ED pressure +/- hypertrophy –> decreased contractile ability –> CHF.

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73
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bacterial endocarditis in cattle.

A

Localised infection –> bacterial endocarditis –> disseminated sepsis –> cull.

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74
Q

List the components of bacterial valvular vegetative lesions in cattle.

A

Blood cells, fibrin, necrotic tissue, bacteria.

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75
Q

Outline the treatment and prognosis for bacterial endocarditis lesions in cattle.

A
  • Antibiotics (gram +ve), aspirin/LMWH to prevent platelet adhesion, furosemide if CHF, digoxin to improve contractility. - Px is guarded to poor (they present with advanced dz).
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76
Q

Define High Mountain Disease (a.k.a. Brisket Dz) of cattle.

A

Hypoxic vasoconstriction from high altitude dwelling.

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77
Q

What factors can exacerbate the signs of HMD and what does this combination of factors lead to?

A
  • Pneumonia, lungworms, prolonged exposure to cold temperatures, ingestion of locoweed.- HMD + factors above –> cor pulmonale (effect of lung dysfunction on the heart).
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78
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HMD in cattle.

A

High altitude (>6000ft) +/- respiratory dz +/- locoweed –> pulmonary a constriction in response to hypoxia –> pulmonary hypertension –> pressure overload on RV –> RV hypertrophy, dilation or failure.

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79
Q

List the latin name and toxic principal of Locoweed.

A
  • Plant: different oxytropis and astragalus species.- Toxin: swainsonine; causes myocardial damage.
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80
Q

List the clinical signs of Brisket Disease in cattle.

A
  • Subcutaneous brisket oedema, oedema of ventral thorax, limbs, submandibular space.- Lethargy, weakness, pulling eyes, diarrhoea, collapse, death, jugular v distension or pulsations, dyspnoea, tachypnoea.- Auscultation: tachycardia, +/- gallop rhythm, +/- split S2, +/- murmur related to tricuspid or pulmonic regurg.
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81
Q

List four differential diagnoses for Brisket Disease in cattle.

A
  • Bacterial endocarditis of the tricuspid valve.- Cardiomyopathy.- Lymphoma.- Traumatic reticuloperitonitis-pericarditis.
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82
Q

Describe the epidemiology of HMD in cattle.

A
  • Occurs in 0.5-5% native high-altitude cattle; higher % if lowland cattle moved to high altitudes.- Mainly occurs in calves and yearlings.- Complex inheritance with breeds/pedigrees resistant or susceptible.
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83
Q

Outline the treatment and prognosis for HMD in cattle.

A
  • Remove from high altitude, treat primary dz process, InO2 +/- digoxin, furosemide. - Px poor once CHF has developed; can potentially reverse for pulmonale.
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84
Q

Outline methods to prevent HMD in cattle.

A

Select cattle for breeding at high altitudes that are resistant to HMD, remove susceptible cattle to low altitudes, avoid locoweed, vaccinate against respiratory viruses, deworm to prevent lungworm.

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85
Q

Define myocarditis.

A

Inflammation of the myocardium.Occurs secondary to bacteraemia, septicaemia, pericarditis, endocarditis.

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86
Q

List the infectious organisms capable of causing myocarditis in cattle.

A
  • Bacterial: Clostridium chauvoei, Mycobacteria.- Fungal: FMD.- Parasitic: Toxoplasmosis, Cysticercosis, Sarcocystis.
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87
Q

Define cardiomyopathy.

A

Subacute or chronic disease of the ventricular myocardium without valvular disease, congenital abnormalities or pulmonary disease.

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88
Q

In what breed of cattle is hereditary Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM) reported?

A

Holstein-Friesian.

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89
Q

In what breed of cattle is a hereditary (non-DCM) cardiomyopathy reported?

A

Curly-coated Poll Hereford.

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90
Q

Which neoplasia may cause a cardiomyopathy through myocardial invasion in cattle?

A

Lymphoma or fibrosarcoma.

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91
Q

List toxins associated with the development of cardiomyopathies in large animals.

A

Monensin, lasolacid, salinomycin, cassia occidentalis (coffee senna), gossypol (cotton), phalaris, vitamin E/selenium deficiency, copper deficiency (primary or secondary to high sulphates), excessive molybdenum.

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92
Q

List the clinical signs associated with myocarditis in cattle,

A
  • CSx depend on extent of disease, location of inflammation and systemic illness.- +/- fever, cardiac arrhythmias (supraventricular or ventricular), gallop rhythm, murmur, signs of CHF.
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93
Q

List the clinical signs of DCM in cattle.

A
  • Heart-related: peripheral oedema, jugular dilation/pulse, tachycardia, arrhythmias, murmurs, tachypnoea, pleural/pericardial effusion.- Extra-cardiac: poor exercise tolerance, decreased milk production, increased liver enzymes, DA, diarrhoea, anorexia.
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94
Q

List differential diagnoses for cardiomyopathies in cattle.

A

Bacterial endocarditis, congenital heart defects, for pulmonale, nutritional myodegeneration, cardiac neoplasia, thoracic abscess, pericarditis, pleuritis, diaphragmatic hernia.

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95
Q

Outline diagnostic tests which should be performed in cattle with suspected myocarditis or cardiomyopathies.

A
  • CBC/MBA: +/- neutrophilia, dec albumin, inc BUN, inc creatinine, inc GGT, inc SDH, inc TBili, inc CTnI.- Echo/ECG: variable - WNL or changes consistent with DCM, CHF, arrhythmias. - Urinalysis: haemoglobinuria is suggestive of monensin, gossypol, nutritional myodegeneration.- Test serum for BLV, alpha-tocopherol, glutathione peroxidase and Cu; test whole blood for Se.
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96
Q

Describe the treatment and prognosis for cattle with myocarditis or cardiomyopathies.

A
  • Myocarditis: tx underlying dz if recognised, control complications (arrhythmias, CHF, shock), Vit E if ionophore toxicity, corticosteroids may be beneficial.- Px for myocarditis good if no CSx CHF, guarded if CHF.- DCM: +ve inotrope (digoxin), diuretics (furosemide), vasodilators (ACE-I), rest.
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97
Q

Define pericarditis.

A

Inflammation of the pericardium, resulting in accumulation of fluid or exudate between the visceral and parietal pericardium.

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98
Q

List the causes of pericarditis in cattle.

A
  • Traumatic reticuloperitonitis-pericarditis (TRP).- Neoplasia.- Idiopathic.
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99
Q

Describe typical cardiac auscultation findings in a cow with pericarditis.

A

Tachycardia, muffled heart sounds, absent lung sounds in the ventral thorax; ‘washing machine murmur’: splashing sounds attributed to gas and fluid accumulation in the pericardium secondary to anaerobic infection.

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100
Q

Describe the clinical signs seen in cattle with pericarditis.

A
  • Non-specific: fever, inappetence, depression, weight loss.- More specific: peripheral oedema, jugular distension and pulses, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, elbow adducted, expiratory grunt, reluctance to move.
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101
Q

How do you diagnose a case of pericarditis in large animals?

A
  • CBC/MBA: variable findings dependant on underlying disease and chronicity.- Elevated CTnI or myocardial CK/LDH.- Rads: in TRP metallic FB and fluid and gas accumulation may be identified.- Echo: confirms Dx –> fluid, fibrin, gas in pericardial sac.- Fluid analysis following pericardiocentesis: TRP –> mixed bacteria, yellow, could odour, TP >3.5g/dL, WBC >2500/ul; idiopathic: hemorrhagic, sterile.
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102
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pericarditis.

A

Fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac –> increased pericardial pressure –> increased end diastolic pressure -> impaired ventricular filling, increased atrial pressure, decreased venous return, decreased diastolic perfusion to myocardium –> decreased contractibility, SV, CO –> CHF.

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103
Q

Describe the treatment for TRP in cattle.

A

Px is poor; salvage procedures only: drain pericardium, perform rib resection at 5th intercostal space.

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104
Q

Describe the treatment of Idiopathic Haemorrhagic Pericarditis in cattle.

A

Drain pericardial sac.Corticosteroids may result in resolution in some cases.

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105
Q

How common are cardiac neoplasias in large animals?

A

Uncommon. More common to see secondary involvement from adjacent structures i.e. lungs, pleura, LNs, diaphragm.

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106
Q

What is the most common cardiac neoplasia of cattle and where in the heart is it most commonly observed?

A

Lymphoma.Right atrium.

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107
Q

List the clinical signs observed in cattle with cardiac neoplasia.

A

Non-specific and related to chronic disease; progress to cardiac signs related to involvement of pericardium or myocardium.

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108
Q

How is cardiac neoplasia diagnosed in cattle?

A
  • CBC/Chem: non-sepcific changes.- Test for BLV: only 1-5% BLV positive cattle develop lymphosarcoma.- Echo.- Definitive diagnosis via histopathology following necropsy.
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109
Q

What is the prognosis for cattle with cardiac neoplasia?

A

Hopeless.

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110
Q

Which heart sound(s) (in addition to S1 and S2) can be heard in normal, healthy camelids?

A

S4.S3 is heard in camelids with diastolic dysfunction and HF.

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111
Q

Describe the physiologic murmur that is commonly heard in crias (and occasionally adults).

A

Soft (grade 1-2/6) systolic ejection murmur at the left heart base.

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112
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect described in camelids?

A

Ventricular septal defect.NB muscular defects commonly observed!!!

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113
Q

What non-pathologic arrhythmia is common in camelids?

A

Sinus arrhythmia.Some evidence that some healthy alpacas demonstrate second-degree AV block at rest.

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114
Q

What is the prevalence of arrhythmias in camelids?

A

Low e.g. 1.2% in a retrospective study examining 663 ECGs from llamas.

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115
Q

What arrhythmias may occur in camelids with gastrointestinal, neurologic, ocular or respiratory disease and why?

A

First- and second-degree AV block.Due to vagal influences.

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116
Q

What is the normal heart rate in healthy adult camelids?

A

80 beats per minute (range: 50-110 or 60-100 bpm).

117
Q

List the 12 congenital cardiac defects that has been described in camelids.

A

VSD, ASD, PFO, PDA, TpF, persistent right aortic arch, double-outlet right ventricle, transposition of the great arteries, persistent trunks arteriosus, mitral and tricuspid valve dysplasia, tricuspid valve atresia, endocardial cushion defects.

118
Q

Describe the aetiology of nutritional muscular dystrophy and the typical myocardial lesions associated with this condition.

A

Deficiency in vitamin E or selenium.Not common in camelids but has been reported in llamas.White streaks of hyaline degeneration, necrosis and infiltration by mononuclear cells.

119
Q

What is the most common myocardial parasite of camels, which is also capable of causing disease in camelids?

A

Sarcosporidia. Can induce severe focal interstitial myocarditis.

120
Q

How common are primary or secondary cardiac neoplasia in camelids?

A

Uncommon. No reports in the literature of primary cardiac neoplasia, one of secondary pulmonary carcinoma metastasis.

121
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of oleander toxicity in camelids?

A

Cardiac glycosides contained in all parts of nerium oleander, incl oleandrine, neriin, adynerin –> inhibit Na+/K+/ATPase pump –> alter cytosolic Na+ concentration –> increased cytosolic Ca++ concentration –> arrhythmias (bradycardia, heart block, VPCs, vent tac, vent fib) and sudden death.

122
Q

How does the distribution of infective endocarditis lesions differ in camelids compared to other large animal and small animal species?

A

Mural endocardial lesions (either ventricle) more common in camelids than other species; most common lesions in aortic or mitral valve in small animals, mitral = aortic valve > tricuspid > pulmonic in horses and and tricuspid valve in cattle.

123
Q

Two reports of cries with dilated hearts and poor systolic function exist in the literature. What disease is this comparable to in small animals?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy.The underlying cause was not discovered by thought to be myocarditis causing significant myocardial damage.

124
Q

List the conditions reported to precede pericardial effusion in camelids?

A

VSD, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary atresia and pleuropneumonia.

125
Q

Does cardiac tamponade typically result in left or right sided congestive heart failure?

A

Right side CHF

126
Q

What are the two locations for AV block?

A

AV nodeBundle of His (continues into the bundle branches)

127
Q

why is high vagal tone a risk factor for development of atrial fibrillation?

A

In addition to depressing heart rate, AV conduction, exciteability and contractility it also shortens the action potential and refractory period, making the myocytes more susceptible to other stimuli or re-entry.

128
Q

What are the dominant receptors in the heart and systemic vasculature?

A

Heart: B1 adrenergicSystemic vasculature: Alpha adrenoreceptors

129
Q

Which catecholamines and receptors augment vasoconstriction and vasodilation in general?

A

Vasoconstriction: post-synaptic alpha adrenergic receptors by adrenaline, nor adrenaline or drugs such as phenylephrineVasodilation: stimulation of B2 adrenergic receptors causes vasodilation in circulatory beds, as does locally produced nitric oxide, and dopaminergic receptors if present.

130
Q

Which main drugs/hormones enhance cardiac contractility? And what decreases it?

A

Dobutamine and digoxin (and other digitalis glycosides); catecholamines, Ca and phosphodiesterase inhibitors.Decreased by anaesthetics and any drug that blocks or reduces Ca entry into cells.

131
Q

What is the pre-ejection period, what is it an index of and what shortens it?

A

Delay between the onset of the QRS and the opening of the semilunar valves. This is an index of contractility/myocardial function.It is shortened by ionotropes or sympathetic activation.

132
Q

In what condition may pronounced splitting of the 2nd heart sound be heard, particularly if the pulmonic component is louder than the aortic?

A

Pulmonary hypertension.

133
Q

How do you calculate ejection fraction?

A

Ratio of stroke volume : end-diastolic volume

134
Q

List medications that decrease afterload primarily through arterial vasodilation.

A

AcepromezineACE-inhibitorsHydralazine

135
Q

what might splitting of the first heart sound indicate?

A

May indicate abnormal ventricular electrical activity or VPCs

136
Q

When do you hear a systolic ejection murmur?

A

Starts after S1 and finishes before S2.

137
Q

In what circumstances might you palpate a thready or hypokinetic arterial pulse, or a pulse deficit?

A

Thready/hypokinetic pulse: reduced stroke volume and peripheral vasoconstrictionPulse deficit: LV pressure is not exceeding aortic pressure

138
Q

The recommended cuff width : tail ratio is 0.4-0.6 for the middle coccygeal artery. If the cuff width is too wide or too narrow the measurement is likely to be inaccurate. Does a wide or narrow cuff over or underestimate blood pressure values?

A

Wide cuff underestimatesNarrow cuff overestimates.

139
Q

What is the correction factor for blood pressure for height above the heart base?

A

0.77mmHg/cm above the heart base

140
Q

List normal MAP, SAP, DAP and pulse pressure for horses

A

MAP: 110 +/- 15mmHgSAP: 135 +/- 15mmHgDAP: 90 +/- 15mmHgPulse pressure 45 +/- 6mmHg

141
Q

What are the differentials for the following:Pale MMDark red/Injected MM or greyish-blueProlonged CRT

A

Pale MM: anaemia, poor peripheral perfusion and vasoconstrictionDark red/injected MM: septicaemia or endotoxaemia and peripheral vasodilationGreyish-blue may indicate vasoconstriction (blue colour directly relates to absolute concentration of deoxygenated haemoglobin)Prolonged CRT: poor CO, hypovolaemia, hypotension or peripheral vasoconstriction (CRT may be shortened with vasodilation)

142
Q

If you see isolated venous distention cranial to the thoracic inlet what conditions might you be suspicious of?

A

Cranial mediastinal or pulmonary mass putting pressure on/obstructing the cranial vena cava. If jugular vein only, then CHF (right sided), pericardial disease or hypervolaemia might be suspected.

143
Q

In a normal horse undergoing an exercise test, what heart rates would you expect to see at a trot, canter, gallop and during hard galloping/HR max? And what is the expected initial recovery period?

A

Trot: 70-140bpmCanter: 120-160bpmGallop: 150-180bpmHard gallop: >180bpmHR Max: 210-240bpmRecovery: <100bpm within 2-5min

144
Q

How does spontaneous pacemaker activity work with respect to cellular depolarisation in cardiac myocytes?

A

There is a background inward sodium current and a time-related decrease in the membrane permeability to K ion efflux alongside a transient inward Ca current. When the membrane potential is reached, ion flow across the long-lasting (slow) Ca channels predominates and leads to cell depolarisation.

145
Q

What are the autonomic effects on automaticity?

A

Vagal activity opens K channels and hyperpolarised the membrane, depressing automaticity (harder for the cell to depolarise hence slower rate); sympathetic stimulation the depolarising “funny current” becomes activated, enhancing pacemaker activity.

146
Q

The left and right vagus have preferential innervation to the two nodes, and the parasympathetic activity is more extensive to certain regions - which ones is which?

A

Left vagus preferentially innervates the AV nodeRight vagus preferentially innervates the SA nodeParasympathetic activity more extensive to supraventricular than ventricular myocardium.

147
Q

What does the P-R interval tell you? And what are changes in this interval often related to?

A

Time taken for conduction across the AV node and His-purkinje system. Changes often relate to changes in blood pressure and baroreceptor activation.

148
Q

In horses with hypovolaemia or shock myocardial ischaemia, myocardial hypoxia or hyperkalaemia can develop. What are the changes that you might see on the ECG to give you an indication of each of these abnormalities?

A

Myocardial ischaemia may show on ECG as S-T segment deviation. Myocardial hypoxia and hyperkalaemia may be evident as enlargement of the T wave.

149
Q

What are the requirements of an U/S probe for echo?

A

1.5-3.5mHz phased array sector transducerPenetration 25-30cmFrame rate of 20-40/sec or 40-90/sec for speckle tracking. ECG leads.

150
Q

In addition to LA diameter, what further measurement should be taken for evaluation of chamber size and when in the cardiac cycle are these measurements best taken?

A

LA diameter and area should be measured. Measurements taken at the end of systole, one frame before mitral opening.

151
Q

A horse has severe mitral regurgitation and a normal fractional shortening. What are you suspicious of and what would you have expected instead?

A

Myocardial failureWith severe MR you expect to see increased FS% due to increased pre-load and decreased afterload.

152
Q

Why is stroke volume and cardiac output of limited value in monitoring heart disease in horses?

A

CO is maintained in the failing heart until compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.

153
Q

Tricuspid regurgitant flow above what velocity is suggestive of increased pulmonary artery pressure with PHT?

A

> 3.2-3.4m/s

154
Q

A restrictive VSD has what characteristics?

A

Flow >4.5m/s, (abnormally high velocity of driving blood through a restrictive orifice)Shunt diameter <2.8cm or less than 1/3 of the aortic root

155
Q

When estimating right atrial pressure, what value would be used for normal and horses in CHF?

A

Right atrial pressure estimated to be 10mmHg in normal horsesEstimated to be at least 20mmHg in horses with CHF. Ideally measure with a catheter!

156
Q

What are the expected pressures in the pulmonary artery, aorta, central venous pressure?

A

PA pressure: systolic 35-45mmHg, mean 25-30mmHg, diastolic 20-25mmHg.Aortic pressure: systole 110-130mmHg, diastolic 75mmHgCVP: 5-10mmHg

157
Q

What factors influence pulmonary artery pressure and how might these be influenced in different disease states?

A

PA pressure dependent on CO, pulmonary arteriolar resistance, pulmonary capillary resistance, compliance and pressure in the left atrium. Influenced by: pulmonary disease/changes (structural, vascular and parenchymal), alveolar hypoxia and acidosis (these can cause reactive vasoconstriction, increasing PA pressure), left ventricular function (LV failure leads to PHT and potentially biventricular failure)

158
Q

How might you differentiate cardiac versus pulmonary causes of PHT?

A

Measurement of pulmonary wedge pressure - a near normal wedge pressure is measured in the setting of elevated PA diastolic pressure if PHT is not caused by left heart failure/dysfunction. Hence you would be suspicious of increased vascular resistance across the small arteries due to pulmonary vasoconstriction or pulmonary vascular lesion. One exception is a pressure gradient that develops between the PA diastolic pressure and pulmonary wedge pressure in normal horses with resting tachycardia.

159
Q

How do you calculate vascular resistance?

A

(Mean arterial pressure-mean atrial pressure)/COFor systemic vascular resistance use mean aortic and mean right atrial; for pulmonary vascular resistance use mean PA and mean pulmonary wedge.(pressure measured in mmHg, CO in mL/min)

160
Q

What is the half life of cardiac troponin I and what significance does this have for diagnostic value and repeat measurements?

A

Half life is <1 hour.A transient injury is easy to miss due to the short half lifeA failure to decline over subsequent measurements indicates ongoing myocardial injury

161
Q

What are the stimuli for release of natriuretic peptides?

A
  • Myocardial stretch due to volume overload- Increases in intracardiac pressure- Exercise- Myocardial stretch due to dysfunction.
162
Q

List causes/mechanisms of biventricular heart failure

A
  1. Isolated LV failure leading to increased pulmonary venous pressure, pulmonary vascular remodelling and PHT and therefore increased pressure load on the RV2. RV failure with marked ventricular dilation leads to leftward bulging of the IVS and impaired LV filling3. Chronic pericarditis leads to impaired ventricular filling4. Arrhythmias such as AF which are bilateral in the setting of structural heart disease can promote biventricular failure.
163
Q

What are the common causes of PHT?

A

Severe mitral diseasePulmonary overcirculation (eg left to right shunt)Chronic left sided heart failureAsthmaReversion to foetal circulation in foals

164
Q

What is a likely mechanism contributing to PHT in horses with asthma?

A

Low alveolar O2 tension is considered a potent trigger for reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction leading to increased vascular resistance. This likely plays a role in PHT with asthma.

165
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

RV enlargement secondary to PHT due to pulmonary parenchymal or vascular disease in the absence of left ventricular failure or congenital abnormalities.

166
Q

What is the treatment for cor pulmonale?

A

O2 therapy to reduce hypoxic vasoconstrictionNO as a potent selective vasodilator (relevant in foals perhaps?)Diuretics may be harmful due to decreased preload

167
Q

What are the common neurohormonal and renal responses to congestive heart failure?

A

Increased sympathetic toneActivation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone systemRelease of antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)Release of atrial naturietic peptide

168
Q

How does sustained AV dissociation cause CHF?

A

AV dissociation caused by junctional or ventricular tachycardia can lead to induced cardiomyopathy, reduced myocardial function, decreased CO and CHF.

169
Q

List causes of per-acute CHF?

A

Chordal rupturePapillary muscle ischaemia or infectionEndocarditisVascular rupture (eg aortocardiac fistula)

170
Q

List the clinical findings in biventricular, left and right sided CHF.

A

Biventricular: Tachycardia, loud ventricular filling, sub-cut oedema, tachypnoea (secondary to pulmonary congestion and effusion), ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, jugular distention, abnormal jugular pulsation, lethargy and weight loss. Murmurs often include mitral, aortic and tricuspid.Right sided: tachycardia, prominent 3rd heart sound, generalised ventral, preputial, pectoral and limb oedema, elevated venous pressures noted as jugular pulses, tricuspid murmur and tympanic pulmonic component to the 2nd heart sound. Left sided: pulmonary venous congestion, intersitial or more rarely alveolar oedema therefore signs of tachypnoea and respiratory distress predominate. Heart sounds may be obscured by pulmonary sounds. Resting tachycardia and loud 3rd heart sound are typical. Some cough.

171
Q

List common treatments for CHF

A
  • Antiarrhythmic Tx: lignocaine, MgSO4, quinidine, pracainamide, propafenone, sotalol or amiodarone.- Diuretic Tx: (only if not secondary to cardiac tamponade) furosemide is the loop diuretic of choice and repeated boluses may be required, with increasing doses potentially necessary if renal function is compromised- Minimise stress: move to quiet environment, sedate with ACP - anxiolytic and also vasodilatory (reduces afterload and hence reduces regurgitant fraction) and anti-arrhythmic effects. Titrate to effect and monitor BP to avoid hypotension- Ionotropes: dobutamine can be used in the acute setting but it is proarrhythmic and vasoconstrictive. Digoxin therapy is indicated in cases not associated with pericardial disease or ventricular ectopy - may be useful with AF as an underlying dysrrhythmia. It also has baroreceptor sensitising eeffects and increases vagal tone, thereby reducing HR and controlling ventricular response rate to AF. Therapeutic monitoring is required for chronic use. - ACE inhibitors: inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II thereby reducing Na and H2O reabsorption, reducing volume overload, blunting the mechanisms leading to diuretic resistance and causing vasodilation and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. They may also be cardioprotective by decreasing myocardial remodelling and fibrosis. Ramipril and quinapril suppress ACE activity and reduce indirect BP in healthy horses at rest and during exercise. Benazepril has superior ACE-I compared with other drugs and a good safety profile although is expensive.
172
Q

Explain the foetal circulation in relation to the two foetal shunts and both cardiac and cerebral perfusion

A

Desaturated blood from the foetal tissues is collected in the cardinal venous system and enters the sinus venosus and right atrium. It is mostly earmarked for the right ventricle and pulmonary artery but due to PHT it goes through the ductus arteriosus to the descending aorta, umbilical arteries, and placenta where it is oxygenated. Well saturated blood from the placenta (via the umbilical vein) is delivered to the caudal vena cava then right atrium where it preferentially crosses the foramen ovale to the left atrium, left ventricle and ascending aorta from where it is delivered to the foetal tissues. The heart and brain received well oxygenated blood from the ascending aorta while the remainder of the body receives mixed blood from ascending and descending aorta.

173
Q

What factors result in closure of the foetal shunts and at what age?

A

Foramen ovale: at birth the lungs expand causing decreased pulmonary resistance and increased left atrial pressure and hence the foramen ovale closes by 24-48hrsDuctus arteriosus: Inhibition by local prostaglandins cause functional closure of the ductus arteriosus by 72hrs.

174
Q

At what ratio of pulmonary to systemic flow does a shunt typically result in clinical relevance such as LA/LV overload?

A

When the pulmonary to systemic flow exceeds 1.8 : 1.

175
Q

What is the effect on shunt flow of a down-stream right sided obstruction? And list some examples

A

Reversion to a right to left shuntEg: Tricuspid atresia with an ASD may result in right to left shuntingPulmonic atresia with either an ASD or VSD may result in right to left shuntingChronic left to right shunting that then results in increased pulmonary vascular resistance and PHT may result in shunt reversion to a right to left.

176
Q

With right to left shunting, which side of the heart will be enlarged and why, and what degree of hypoxia is expected?

A

The right ventricle will be hypertrophied to generate systemic blood pressure. The degree of hypoxia depends on the shunt fraction/volume and the degree of pulmonary blood flow.

177
Q

With a VSD, in addition to PHT what is another possible cause of widened split of S2?

A

Disparate ventricular ejection times

178
Q

With respect to murmours, how might you differentiate a subpulmonic VSD from a paramembranous VSD?

A

Paramembranous VSD: Harsh holosystolic-pansystolic murmur loudest over tricuspid valve and a less intense ejection murmur over the left heart base due to increased flow across the right ventricular outflow.Subpulmonic VSD: Harsh holosystolic-pansystolic murmur over tricuspid valve, but the left heart base murmour is louder, associated with high velocity flow entering the main PA.

179
Q

Differentiate the cause of PA dilation during systole versus during systole and diastole.

A

During systole alone, likely reflects pulmonary overcirculation (eg ASD causing right sided volume overload and pulmonary overcirculationDuring systole and diastole, likely reflects pulmonary hypertension.

180
Q

What are the typical components of an endocardial cushion defect?

A

Large ASD involving the primum and the AV septaCommon AV valve leafletInlet VSDThe ventricles may be partitioned normally, unequally with one rudimentary ventricular chamber or not at all, creating a single ventricle. In the most severe cases there is a common AV canal, a single common AV valve and a single ventricle from which both great vessels exit.

181
Q

Which treatment/drug class given to the dam may predispose foals to development of PDA?

A

Prostaglandin inhibitors

182
Q

List the 4 abnormalities associated with tetralogy of fallot and the 5th abnormality that may occur with pentalogy of fallot.

A
  1. Large paramembraneous outlet VSD2. Cranial dextro-positioning of the aorta with overriding of the septal defect3. RV outflow obstruction4. RV hypertrophy.(5) PDA or ASD would classify as pentalogy of fallot
183
Q

What are the defects associated with pulmonary atresia and what is the common mistake with diagnosis?

A
  1. Right ventricular outlet doesn’t connect to the pulmonary artery2. Right ventricle is hypertrophied3. A large malalignment VSD is present4. The foetal truncus arteriosus has been partitioned so unequally that the aorta is markedly dilated and the pulmonary trunk atretic or severely hypoplastic. The main mistake with diagnosis is that the dilated aorta can be mistaken for a persistent truncus arteriosus. Pulmonary blood flow is derived from a PDA or the aorta (derived from systemic collaterals, usually bronchial arteries)
184
Q

List clinical signs of pulmonary atresia

A

CyanosisCardiac murmurStunting in a foal or weanling.

185
Q

What is truncus arteriosus communis and what are the clinical features?

A

Failure of the foetal truncus arteriosus to partition into aorta and PA. A large malalignment VSD enables communication of both ventricles with the truncus arteriosus. If the PA origins are not stenotic and there isn’t increased pulmonary vascular resistance the clinical features are of a left to right shunt with the exception of the right to left mixing of blood across the VSD; and hypoxia may be mild. However, if there is high pulmonary vascular resistance or obstruction to flow of the PA you get arterial desaturation clinical signs of cyanosis, cardiac murmur and stunting of growth.

186
Q

Atresia of the tricuspid valve has been associated with cyanotic heart disease in foals - what is the mechanism behind this?

A

Stenosis of the tricuspid valve leads to right to left shunting across either an ASD or a foramen ovale. The result of this is that all venous return to the heart is mixed in the left atrium with minimal pulmonary flow (unless concurrent PDA or formation of collaterals via the bronchial arteries), hence marked cyanosis and hypoxaemia. To survive, these horses generally have to have a concurrent VSD that enables left to right shunting.

187
Q

What is the common effect of MR on global left ventricular function in mild or more acute cases versus severe or chronic cases?

A

With mild MR the LV function is usually normal to increased.With severe MR or MR that is associated with cardiomyopathy, LV function is usually normal to decreased.

188
Q

With respect to MR, what would be indications for an exercising ECG?

A

Mod-severe MRAF becoming establishedProgression of MR more rapidly than expected, in the absence of CHF.

189
Q

What lesion typically results in aortic regurgitation?

A

Degeneration of the valve with nodular fibrotic bands.

190
Q

How would you describe a clinically relevant aortic murmour?

A

Holodiastolic with PMI over the aortic valve and strong radiation to the right and towards the apex. Character may be vibratory, musical, cooing, buzzing or “dive bomber” in quality. A precordial thrill may be palpable over the valve area.

191
Q

What is the typical murmour of an aortocardiac fistula?

A

Holodiastolic or continuous murmour that is louder over the right side of the thorax. A continuous machinery type murmour is most common.

192
Q

In reference to AR, what does the presence of bounding or hyperkinetic pulses suggest?

A

Increased pulse pressure (>60mmHg) and moderate-severe AR with significant, but compensated LV volume overload (if the myocardium is failing the pulses become weak, pulse pressure decreases and tachycardia develops).

193
Q

In reference to AR, what does premature (pre-systolic) mitral valve closure indicate?

A

Occurs with severe aortic regurgitation and is associated with elevated ventricular end-diastolic pressure (usually an ominous finding suggesting the myocardium is beginning to fail)

194
Q

In general what is the prognosis for horses with AR?

A

As it is slowly degenerative the prognosis is generally good with mild AR, particularly if unchanged at subsequent examinations. If it is moderate-severe or first recognised in a horse <10yrs old the risk of reduced performance life and longevity are higher. Flail aortic valve, endocarditis, moderate to severe LV volume overload or myocardial failure indicate a poor prognosis for life and performance.

195
Q

Under what circumstances would an exercising ECG be indicated as part of investigation of AR?

A

If AR is moderate-severe and/or volume overload is detected in the LV (due to increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias with ventricular dilation)If AF developsIf progression is rapid

196
Q

In which valve out of mitral or tricuspid is ruptured chordae tendinae tolerated better?

A

Generally tolerated better with the tricuspid valve.

197
Q

The intensity of the tricuspid murmour often correlates with regurgitant volume but what factors does loudness depend on?

A

Pulmonary artery and right ventricular systolic pressure dictates the loudness of the murmour with TR.

198
Q

What characteristics of the regurgitant jet are more likely to be associated with cardiomegally in association with TR?

A

Jets that are wide at the origin, occupy a large area in the RA or project centrally or laterally into the RA are more likely to be associated with cardiomegally.

199
Q

What is the typical murmour associated with pulmonic valve regurgitation and what are the two most likely causes of this regurgitation?

A

Holodiastolic, decrescendo murmour with PMI at the pulmonic valve area, radiating towards the right cardiac apex. 2 most common causes of PR are left sided heart failure with progression to biventricular failure from PHT; or PHT secondary to severe respiratory disease.

200
Q

What are the most common sites for endocarditis?

A

Aortic and mitral valves.

201
Q

What are the commonly reported sequelae of endocarditis?

A
  • Valvular injury & regurgitation- Chordal rupture- Valvular stenosis (rare)- Secondary cardiomegaly- Myocarditis by extension of the infection or through coronary embolisation (if the latter, myocardial infarction is also a risk from emboli)- Arrhythmias secondary to cardiomegally, myocarditis or infarction- Myocardial depression secondary to bacteraemia.
202
Q

What are the common bacterial isolate from endocarditis lesions?

A
  • Strep species- Actinobacillus equuli- Pasteuralla
203
Q

Which viruses have been associated with pericarditis in equids?

A
  • Equine influenza- Equine viral arteritis- Equine herpes virus
204
Q

What are the main aetiologic differentials for pericarditis?

A
  • Bacterial (Actinobacillus most commonly reported)- Viral (EI, EVA, EHV)- Neoplastic (mesothelioma & lymphoma most common)- Idiopathic and/or immune mediated- Part of mare reproductive loss syndrome (eastern tent caterpillars)
205
Q

True or false, a history of upper or lower respiratory tract infection is common in cases of pericarditis?

A

True

206
Q

What effects does pericardial effusion have on blood pressure and what is pulsus paradoxus?

A

Arterial blood pressure is often decreased with pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponadePulsus paradoxus is the pronounced inspiratory fall in blood pressure that is seen with cardiac tamponade.

207
Q

What might you see on ECG with pericardial effusion?

A

Reduced amplitude of the QRS

208
Q

When you see pericardial effusion on echo along with diastolic right ventricular collapse or systolic right atrial collapse what does this signify?

A

Cardiac tamponade.

209
Q

What echocardiographic findings might you see with restrictive pericarditis?

A
  • Thickened pericardium- Atrial dilation- Systemic venous dilation- Exuberant movement of the ventricular septum- Exaggerated inspiratory filling of the heart
210
Q

What is the typical site for pericardio-centesis or drainage?

A

left side, 5th ICS above the lateral thoracic vein.

211
Q

In addition to drainage what is required to improve the prognosis with fibrinous pericarditis?

A

Repeated drainage and lavage.

212
Q

List differentials for myocardial injury/inflammation

A
  • Drug induced - Toxins (cardiac glycosides, cantharidin, monensin, snake venom etc)- Ischaemia and/or hypoxia- Chronic/relentless tachycardia (junctional or ventricular)- Endotoxins (Clostridial species or Salmonella, as well as post-colon torsion)- Infection- Heavy metals- Trauma- Metabolic disease- Nutritional deficiencies (vitamin E deficiency)- Neoplasia (lymphoma, melanoma, lipoma, haemangioma, mesothelioma, carcinoma- Amyloidosis
213
Q

What are the general cardiac manifestations of myocarditis?

A
  1. Decreased myocardial contractility and ejection fraction2. Diastolic dysfunction wiht impaired filling3. Mitral or tricuspid insufficiency due to dilation or papillary muscle dysfunction4. Arrhythmias such as persistent VPCs, AF, APCs and atrial tachycardia (later 3 are less common)
214
Q

What are the clinical signs of myocarditis?

A
  • Fever- Persistent tachycardia +/- additional arrhythmias- Murmour- Pulmonary or ventral oedema- Respiratory distress- Sudden death
215
Q

What clinicopathologic indices may be elevated to suggest myocardial injury?

A

CK, specifically myocardial fraction of CK, lactate dehydrogenase, cardiac troponin I or T (normal values don’t exclude it due to short half life)

216
Q

What are the recommended treatments for myocarditis?

A
  • Rest (minimum 1 month; ensure troponins and ECG returned to normal)- Supplement with vitamin E and Se- Antiarrhythmic therapy if indicated (potentially lignocaine, sotalol or MgSO4)- ACE-I to reduce myocardial remodelling (efficacy unknown)- Corticosteroids (if non-infectious cause suspected)- General supportive care (IVFT, correction of electrolyte derangements, anti-inflammatories, antibiotics if bacterial cause suspected)
217
Q

What clinicopathologic and echocardiographic findings might you expect with monensin poisoning (or potentially other ionophores)

A
  • Decreased Ca, K, Mg and P; increased cTnI and cTnT, urea, creatinine, unconjugated bilirubin, AST, CK and LDH (CK and LDH may be due to cardiac, skeletal and RBC damage).- Decreased fractional shortening %, segmental wall motion artefacts/abnormalities, myocardial dyskenesis
218
Q

What is dilated cardiomyopathy and what is the primary suspected cause?

A

A disease of global reduction in LV systolic function that cannot be explained by valvular, vascular, coronary or congenital heart disease. Cause is often unknown but myocarditis is often suspected. Vitamin E and Se deficiency has been associated with a form of dilated cardiomyopathy mostly in fast growing foals from deficient mares (white muscle disease)

219
Q

What are the main features of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Biatrial and biventricular dilation with decreased FS%,

220
Q

What is the treatment for dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Digoxin and diuretics (furosemide) may help to stabilise the associated CHF and cause transient improvement, vitamin E and Se supplementation if deficiency is suspected (white muscle disease); however most horses deteriorate within 3-12 months. Foals with white muscle disease often die within 24-48 hours of the onset of clinical signs.

221
Q

What are the typical post mortem examination findings in foals with vitamin E/Se deficiency/white muscle disease? How can it be prevented in foals?

A

Pale streaking of the myocardium and intramuscular oedema, myodegeneration, myocardial necrosis and fibrosis or calcification. Supplementation of the mares with Vit E/Se during gestation and importantly during lactation may help prevent the disease, as well as supplementing the foal.

222
Q

List the typical findings and suspected aetiopathogenesis for aorto-iliac thrombosis.

A

Typical findings- Multifocal in-growths of fibrous tissue- Laminated thrombi- Fibrous plaquesSuspected aetiology:- Strongylus vulgaris migration- Systemic infection- Embolisation from a distant site- Vasculitis

223
Q

List commonly reported clinical signs of aorto-iliac thrombosis.

A

Clinical signs are typically exercise associated and often unilateral.- Hindlimb lameness- Ataxia- Weakness or collapse - Weak metatarsal arterial pulse- Delayed saphenous refill- Usually no change in limb temperature (unless complete arterial occlusion in which case the limb is cold and painful to touch, and may be oedematous)

224
Q

List diagnostic methods for aorto-iliac thrombosis

A
  • Rectal palpation may identify fremitus, weak or absent pulse or aneurysmal dilation of the affected vessel- U/S may show hyperechoic areas and an acoustic shadow suggestive of mature scar tissue and calcification
225
Q

List treatment options and prognosis for aorto-iliac thrombosis

A
  • Catheter based thrombectomy or anticoagulation can be attempted in early cases and those occuring in the external iliac artery - if the thrombus is in the internal iliac artery femoral catheterisation is not successful for thrombectomy- Medical treatment with pentoxyphylline (improves abnormal erythrocyte deformability, reduces blood viscosity and reduces platelet adherence and plasma hypercoaguability) or asprin for anti-platelet adhesionPrognosis reported in one study was 65% regained athletic activity with 53% returning to previous level.
226
Q

An association between occurrence of proximal aortic S. vulgaris lesions and focal ischaemic lesions in the myocardium has been described. What is the hypothesised reason for this?

A

Thought to be subsequent to microembolism from parasitic lesions.

227
Q

What is the typical site of rupture/aneurysm for an aorto-cardiac fistula?

A

Typically the right sinus of valsalva into the right atrium, right ventrical, intreventricular septum or pericardial space

228
Q

What are the potential causes implicated in rupture to form an aortocardiac fistula?

A

Dystrophic changes in the media of the aortaDegenerative changes with aortic insufficiencyHypertension associated with breeding\Congenital or acquired defects in the media of the aorta near the right coronary sinus (aneurysm of the right sinus of valsalva)

229
Q

Which breed has been associated with aorto-pulmonary fistula, at which site, with what concurrent gross findings and associated with what hypothesised cause?

A

FriesiansClose to the arterial ligament and concurrent with a circumferential cuff of perivascular haemorrhage. Possibly a defect in elastin or collagen of the aortic media.

230
Q

What are the presenting clinical signs of aorto-pulmonary rupture and aorto-cardiac fistula?

A

Can be immediately fatal Poor performancePain (often perceived as colic)Cardiac murmourArrhythmia (in particular if dissecting through the IVS)

231
Q

How are aorto-pulmonary and aorto-cardiac fistula/ruptures diagnosed?

A

Aorto-pulmonary: challenging views, particulary in Friesians where it tends to be quite cranial. Tilted image planes form the left 3rd or 4th ICS may be useful. Otherwise cardiac catheterisation (right side) to measure increased right sided and PA pressure with increased PaO2 in the distal PA indicating left to right shuntingAorto-cardiac fistula: usually these can be seen with standard imaging planes.

232
Q

What are the types of AV block?

A

First degree AV block: conduction is slowed but still proceeds, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval.Second degree AV block: Some P waves are not conducted to the ventricle (complete block at the AV node) resulting in a P wave without a subsequent QRS. With Mobitz type I the P-R interval progressively lengthens until the QRS-T segment is dropped. This is a normal finding in horses. Mobitz type II the P-R interval is constant before and after the dropped QRS-T.Third degree AV block: complete block of the AV node, resulting in a ventricular escape rhythm to develop below the AV node. There are often multiple P waves before the escape QRS and the escape QRS is typically wide and bizarre and not associated with a P wave as it is originating from an idionodal or idioventricular pacemaker. If they all look the same as each other then they are escape complexes, but if there is multiple configurations then another ventricular ectopy should be suspected.Multiple 2nd degree AV blocks consecutively is termed high grade and is considered pathological (technically 2 or more, although at this level if it still resolves with stimulation/exercise it is unlikely to be significant)

233
Q

List procedures and physiological statuses that can depress sinus node function

A
  • Anaesthetic drugs- Hypoxia- Traction on abdominal viscera- Ocular manipulations- Hypothermia- Increased ICP- Hypertension
234
Q

What is the mechanism associated with the SA node, behind ectopic rhythms in anaesthetised horses

A

Depression of the SA node during anaesthesia with concurrent stimulation of latent pacemakers in the coronary sinus or AV junction can lead to ectopic rhythms.

235
Q

Bradycardia is usually benign, however can lead to hypotension, particularly under anaesthesia. List treatment options to increase sinus rate.

A
  • Catecholamines such as dobutamine, adrenaline, dopamine (dobutamine first choice due to reduced side effects)- Anticholinergics (buscopan, atropine glycopyrrolate)
236
Q

List possible aetiologies for APCs

A
  • Autonomic imbalance (high sympathetic or vagal tone)- Hypokalaemia- Catecholamines and anaesthetics- Infection- Fever- Anaemia- Hypoxia- Colic- Heart valve lesions- Myocardial lesions- Pericardial lesions
237
Q

Why are APCs relevant clinically and at what rate are they considered relevant?

A
  • APCs may precipitate sustained atrial arrhythmias such as atrial tachycardia, atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter- In normal horses APCs may be seen at a rate of 1-5/hr
238
Q

What do you expect to see on the ECG with an APC?

A

With interpolated APCs there will be continuation of the regular sinus rhythm after the APCNon-interpolated APCs there will be a pause after the APC if the sinus node is reset or if the APC is not conductedThe QRS is preceded by an abnormal premature P wave (P’ wave) that is often buried within the preceding T wave. If the impulse arrives at the AV node too early, before complete repolarisation, the PR interval is longer than normal (physiologic first degree AV block); if the P’ wave is not conducted, there will be a pause in the ventricular rhythm

239
Q

When are APCs likely to be clinical relevant?

A
  1. Frequent at rest2. Associated with runs of atrial tachycardia3. Related to poor performance (exclude other causes)4. Precipitate paroxysmal atrial flutter or AF5. Develop in conjunction with structural heart disease
240
Q

When are you likely to see a wandering pacemaker and what can you do to check if this is benign?

A

During sinus arrhythmia such as sinus bradycardia you often get variation in the P-P interval with a wandering pacemaker, which is evident as an altered P-wave morphology. Exercise or stimulation should abolish this if it is a benign rhythm

241
Q

What is the reason for increased incidence of APCs in the post-exercise period?

A

Likely due to autonomic imbalance.

242
Q

If you note increased frequency of APCs in a horse that has a history of intermittent poor performance for which you are suspicious of paroxysma AF, what diagnostic and treatment options could you do?

A

Diagnostic: 24h Holter ECG, exercising ECG, echoTx: Sotalol, ensure K+ and Mg++ are within normal limits.

243
Q

What are the typical ECG features and the general precipitating factor to atrial tachycardia?

A

Can be sustained or paroxysmalThe atrial rate is rapid and regular however the AV node may block some of the P’ waves so the ventricular response rate may be variable/irregular. Atrial rates of 120-25bpm are typical, often with 2:1 conduction - may be indistinguishable from atrial flutter.

244
Q

When is sustained atrial tachycardia commonly seen?

A

During treatment of AF with quinidine, and it usually occurs before conversion to sinus rhythm. If it occurs in isolation an underlying structural or myocardial disease should be suspected.

245
Q

What treatment is available for atrial tachycardia?

A

If the ventricular response rate is rapid (>120bpm) consider treatment with digoxin to block AV node conduction, or diltiazem. If the ventricular response rate is not rapid, treatment is as for AF - TVEC, sotalol, quinidine

246
Q

What is the frequency of flutter waves with atrial flutter?

A

170-275/min

247
Q

AF is typically well tolerated at rest and during low intensity exercise however exercise intolerance occurs with strenuous exercise - why?

A

At rest atrial contraction only contributes 15-20% to ventricular filling, so given the large cardiac reserve in horses the loss of this component doesn’t significantly affect cardiac function. During exercise, this increases to 45%, hence the influence on cardiac function becomes clinically significant and performance limiting.

248
Q

What is the difference between paroxysmal, persistent, Permanent/sustained and lone AF?

A

Paroxysmal resolves spontaneously within 24-48hrsPersistent only resolves with treatmentPermanent/Sustained is resistant to treatmentLone AF is AF in the absence of identifyable underlying structural heart disease.

249
Q

Why does the duration of AF affect the prognosis for successful cardioversion?

A

AF can induce electrical, structural and functional remodelling making successful cardioversion less likely/reversion to AF more likely.

250
Q

Horses with AF frequently have reduced FS%. Does this typically return to normal if they are converted back to sinus rhythm?

A

Yes as the reduction was likely due to reduced pre-load rather than pathology.

251
Q

Development of broadened QRS and R-on-T phenomenon is associated with a poor prognosis - why?

A

It is considered a risk factor for development of ventricular arrhythmias which can lead to collapse and sudden cardiac death.

252
Q

Atrial fibrillation is identified in a horse with CHF. Which condition do you prioritise with treatment and what should treatment entail?

A

Aim treatment at controlling CHF.Furosemide to reduce oedema, preload and afterload, digoxin to reduce heart rate and ACE-I to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption, fibrosis/remodelling and circulating volume should be considered.

253
Q

What type of drug is quinidine?

A

Type Ia Na channel blocker.

254
Q

What is the conversion rate with TVEC and what percentage revert to AF after treatment?

A

98% conversion rate reported; approximately 25% revert. Another study reported 36% first time recurrence; 43% overall recurrence rate.

255
Q

Which features of AF, if present, are likely to make it more difficult to convert to normal sinus rhythm?

A

Longer duration AFShorter fibrillation cycle lengthsSignificant structural cardiac disease

256
Q

What is the recommended treatment protocol for quinidine? What can be done if this is not successful within 24hrs?

A

Loading dose of 22mg/kg q2h for 2-4 doses then q6h until cardioversion or toxic signs. If not successful within 24hours digoin at 0.0055-0.011mg/kg orally q12h can be added for 24-48hrs. However this effectively doubles the active availability of quinidine so toxicity is likely - monitor serum digoxin levels and have bicarb on hand!

257
Q

What is the mechanism for use of NaHCO3 with quinidine toxicity? And what other treatments should be implemented?

A

Treatment is at 1mEq/kg and it works by reversing the Na channel blocking effects of quinidine. If needed you can also give a phenylephrine drip to restore blood pressure. IV MgSO4 (up to 25g) is the treatment of choice quinidine induced ventricular arrhythmias.Lignocaine can be used at 0.5-1.5mg/kg slowly if needed for arrhythmias. Digoxin may be indicated in some cases of quinidine toxicity to slow the ventricular response rate however it is contraindicated in horses with ventricular arrhythmias induced by quinidine.

258
Q

Why should flecainide not be used?

A

It causes dangerous arrhythmias and sudden death.

259
Q

Where are the catheters placed for TVEC and at what point in the cardiac cycle is the shock delivered?

A

Left PA and right atrium. Shock delivered on the R-wave.

260
Q

Shocking during which phase of the cardiac cycle could induce fatal ventricular arrhythmia and why?

A

Shock delivered on the T wave could induce fatal arrhythmia as this is the vulnerable period.

261
Q

What is a potential complication of positioning the probe too close to the AV node?

A

Complete AV block

262
Q

How long does it typically take for LV function to return to normal after TVEC?

A

3 days

263
Q

Arrhythmias that originate in the AV conducting tissues, ventricular specialised conducting tissues or ventricular myocardium are classified as junctional (AV node and bundle of His) or ventricular in origin. What is characteristically seen on ECG with these?

A

A QRS without a preceding P wave is seen with these.If they are junctional they are more likely to look like a normal, narrow morphology QRS as they likely follow the same pathway. If they are ventricular in origin the morphology could be very different and is typically wider with an abnormal orientation due to slow conduction down an altered pathway.

264
Q

What is AV dissociation and when does it occur?

A

When you have a normal atrial rhythm superimposed on an ectopic ventricular or supraventricular rhythm. It occurs with sustained junctional arrhythmias.

265
Q

What are capture and fusion beats?

A

Capture beats are a normal P-QRS-T configuration occurring due to a normally conducted atrial beat resulting in ventricular activation. Fusion beats are when both the conducted atrial impulse and the ectopic focus cause simultaneous ventricular activation - this results in a QRS morphology that is a summation of the normal and ectopic beat.

266
Q

What treatment options are indicated in cases of AV dissociation?

A
  • Lignocaine- Procainemide- Sotalol- QuinidineIf the foci is clearly supraventricular, IV digoxin or diltiazem could be useful to either silence the rhythm or slow the response rate
267
Q

In a horse with junctional or ventricular arrhythmia secondary to bradycardia or AV block is anti-arrhythmic medication indicated and if so which one?

A

No. Subsidiary pacemakers in the AV junctional and ventricular specialised tissues are rescue mechanisms. In cases of AV block and sinus bradycardia these escape complexes are life saving. The treatment should be aimed around resolving the cause of sinus bradycardia or AV block.

268
Q

What is an accelerated idioventricular rhythm and what clinical conditions is this associated with most often?

A

Accelerated idioventricular rhythms are when the subsidiary pacemakers discharge at a rate higher than that of the SA node, causing an accelerated idioventricular rhythm. GIT disease, anaesthesia and catecholamines are most often associated with occurrence of these rhythms.

269
Q

With idioventricular rhythms the independent atrial and ventricular pacemakers can occasionally discharge at similar rates giving the impression of a P wave that marches in and out of the QRS complex. What is this called and when is it most likely to happen?

A

Isorhytmic AV dissociation. Seen most commonly with inhalational anaesthesia.

270
Q

True or false: ventricular arrhythmias are less common than atrial arrhythmias but are more likely to be associated with underlying structural cardiac disease, lesions of the myocardium or a multi-systemic disorder.

A

True

271
Q

True or false: altered K, Mg, and Ca concentrations can affect myocardial electrophysiology, and electrolyte and acid base disorders can induce ventricular ectopy

A

True

272
Q

List causes of ventricular arrhythmia

A
  • Toxaemia- Sepsis- GIT disease (proximal enteritis, large bowel disease)- Metabolic disease- Hypoxia / ischaemia- Toxins- Systemic inflammation/SIRS- Primary heart disease- Occurrence in seemingly healthy horses
273
Q

VPCs are typically manifest as a premature, widened QRS complex that is followed by a compensatory pause - why is there a pause?

A

Pause is due to the next sinus impulse being blocked by the refractory AV conduction system

274
Q

What is the coupling interval and is it always the same?

A

Coupling interval is the relationship between a ventricular premature contraction and the preceding sinus beat and it can be fixed or variable. If it is very short, R-on-T phenomenon occurs.

275
Q

Define bigeminy, couplets, triplets and runs with respect to VPCs

A

Bigeminy: alternating between a sinus beat and a VPCCouplets: two VPCs in a rowTriplets: three VPCs in a rowRuns: 4 or more VPCs in a row (also classified as ventricular tachycardia.

276
Q

True or false: many cases of frequent VPCs resolve spontaneously after a period of rest.

A

True

277
Q

Ventricular tachycardia is runs of VPCs at a rate often exceeding 100bpm that may be regular or irregular. Multiform VT is more likely to be regular or irregular?

A

Irregular

278
Q

In what circumstances do you see jugular pulses with VT?

A

AV dissociation.

279
Q

What is Torsades de pointes?

A

A specific form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia characterised by progressive changes in QRS direction leading to a steady undulation in the QRS axis.

280
Q

What features of VT are considered “malignant” or associated with a poor prognosis?

A
  • Haemodynamic instability- Sustained VT- Rapid ventricular rate- Short coupling interval- Multiform or polymorphic QRS morphology
281
Q

What treatment is indicated for VT?

A
  • Lignocaine (don’t give too fast, CNS excitement)- MgSO4 (effective even in horses without aberrations in Mg concentration)- Quinidine (myocardial depressent and vagolytic plus GIT side effects)- Procainemide (limited studies but well tolerated, similar to quinidine but less GIT effects and less vagolytic)- Amiodarone (only studied in small numbers, perhaps a second line choice)
282
Q

What is the protocol for recovery in horses with VT that respond to antiarrhythmic treatment?

A
  • Period of rest- Repeat Holter ECG and exercising ECG- Repeat EchoIf the above examinations are within normal limits a slow return to exercise can occur. The exercising ECG should be repeated again once in full work but before return to competition/racing and then annually. Prognosis is favourable if no underlying structural disease/damage.
283
Q

What are the features of an intraventricular conduction block and what distinguishes this from a VPC?

A

Widening of the QRS complex and axis deviation. Distinguished from VPCs because they have a preceding P wave.

284
Q

What conditions are intraventricular conduction blocks typically associated with and what is the underlying cause?

A

Commonly occur after APCs, post overdose with quinidine, from severe hyperkalaemia, secondary to supraventricular tachycardias with rapid ventricular response. QRS broadening can be due to ectopic foci or aberrant intraventricular conduction.

285
Q

What are the features on ECG of accelerated AV conduction and pre-excitation?

A

Accelerated AV conduction is seen as a shortened P-R interval due to an anomalous conduction pathway around the AV node.Pre-excitation is seen as slurring of the initial QRS (a delta wave) and overall widening of the QRS complex.

286
Q

What are the effects of hyperkalaemia on the heart?

A
  • Depression of AV, atrial and ventricular conduction, and shortened ventricular repolarisation.
287
Q

What conditions can be associated with hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Uroperitoneum- Renal failure and oliguria- Shock with severe metabolic acidosis- K replacement IV- Hyperkalaemia periodic paralysis
288
Q

What ECG changes might you see with hyperkalaemia and at what K level?

A

Broadening and flattening of the P wave is most consistently seen as well as prolonged P-R and bradycardia followed eventually by atrial standstill - widening of the QRS may be seen at near lethal K concentrations. Inversion or enlargement of T waves may also be seenAlterations usually start to be seen >6mEq/L

289
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia and why?

A
  • IVFT low in K - depending on cause Hartmann’s or 0.45% NaCl (not in foals, use Hartmann’s)- Glucose to stimulate intracellular K movement- Insulin (along with glucose facilitates intracellular shifts of K)- B2 agonists (clenbuterol, salbutamol to augment intracellular K movement)- Calcium (stabilises resting cardiac membrane potential)- NaHCO3 (for treatment of metabolic acidosis not usually indicated in foals, and ensure respiratory function is adequate to blow off the excess CO2 that will be produced)NaHCO3 is given at 1-2mEq/kg depending on base excess. (mEq NaHOC3 = 0.3 x [-0.5] x BE x kgBW)