Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Define Parkinson’s Disease

A

A chronic progressive neurodegenerative disorder of the dopaminergic neurones of the substantia nigra characterised by cardinal symptoms of bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity and postural instability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the risk factors of Parkinson’s Disease

A

Increasing age
Family history of young-onset Parkinson’s
Genetics
MPTP exposure

Chronic exposure to metals causes Parkinsonism syndrome
Male sex
Head trauma
Toxin exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the aetiology of Parkinson’s disease

A

Sporadic/Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease:
Most common
Unknown aetiology
Genetic predisposition with subsequent environment factors/exposures
May be related to environmental toxins and oxidative stress

Secondary Parkinson’s Disease:
Neuroleptic therapy (e.g. for schizophrenia)
Vascular insults (e.g. in the basal ganglia)
MPTP toxin from illicit drug contamination
Post-encephalitis e.g. influenza
Repeated head injury (i.e. boxing)

Familial Forms: genes implicated are LEEK2, PARK 2 (Parkin), PARK 7, PINK 1, SNCA (α-synuclein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Parkinson’s Disease

A

One of most common neurodegenerative disorders
Prevalence is 1% worldwide
Mean age of onset is 65 years old
More common in men

Young onset Parkinson’s Disease = in 21-40 year olds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Insidious, often asymmetrical onset

Resting tremor mainly in hands
Stiffness and slowness of movements 
Difficulty initiating movements 
Freezing of gait
Postural instability - Frequent falls, imbalance
Smaller hand writing (Micrographia) 
Mental slowness/slowness of thought (Bradyphrenia)
Fatigue
Constipation
Dementia in mid to late-stage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Pill rolling tremor at rest (4-6Hz): decreased on action, usually asymmetrical
Rigidity: ‘lead pipe rigidity’ of muscle tone: enhanced by distraction. Cogwheel rigidity
Gait: shuffling, stooped, small-stepped, reduced arm swing, difficulty initiating walk
Postural Instability: Falls easily with little pressure from the back or the front
Psychiatric: Depression & Cognitive issues and Dementia
Expressionless hypomimic face
Soft monotonous voice (Hypophonia)
Tendency to drool
Mild-impairment of up-gaze
Impaired olfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the appropriate investigations in Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Mainly a clinical diagnosis

Dopaminergic agent trial if questioning diagnosis (LEVODOPA TRIAL) - will notice improvement in symptoms

MRI brain if atypical features present - exclude other causes eg hydrocephalus
Dopamine transporter imaging to distinguish from Vascular Parkinson’s
Olfactory and Genetic testing to confirm diagnosis
Bloods: Serum caeruloplasmin: rule out Wilson’s disease as a cause of Parkinson’s disease (would be low if this was the case)
24hr urine copper test - elevated if Wilson’s disease if the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the management of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Medical: symptomatic therapy by dopamine replacement i.e. levodopa, dopamine receptor agonist, COMT inhibitors, anti-cholinergic, MAO-B inhibitors.
Domperidone is used to treat nausea & vomiting

Surgical: Deep Brain Stimulation (only moderate-severe)

Other: physio, SALT, OT to improve QOL, encourage physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the possible complications of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
Levodopa-induced dyskinesias - need to lower medication doses or increase dosing intervals
Motor fluctuations
Autonomic Dysfunction (postural hypotension, constipation, urinary retention) 
Death (usually due to pneumonia or PE)
Dementia
Psychosis
Depression
Anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the prognosis of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

There are no curative or disease-modifying treatments
Progressive but variable in rate, with many patients having a normal life span
Optimal treatment can delay impact of disability by 5-10 years

Factors to predict more rapid rate of progression are:
Older age at symptom onset
Rigidity/hypokinesia as presenting symptoms (versus rest tremor)
Associated comorbidities
Decreased response to dopaminergic medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Huntington’s Disease

A

An slowly progressive, autosomal dominant, neurodegenerative disorder characterised by chorea, cognitive decline, loss of coordination and personality change. It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder and typically appears in mid-adult life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of Huntington’s Disease

A

Huntingtin gene codes for a protein called huntingtin
Huntington’s disease is caused by an expanded CAG repeat at the N-terminus of the gene that codes for the huntingtin protein.

Huntington’s shows anticipation - earlier age of onset with each successive generation

Risk factors:
Expansion of the CAG repeat length at the N-terminal end of the huntingtin gene
Family history
Other genetic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Huntington’s

A

Prevalence is 4-8 per 100,000.
Duration of disease - 20 years from time of diagnosis to death.
Affects men and women equally
Onset usually 35-45 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Huntington’s?

A

INSIDIOUS onset in middle-age of progressive fidgeting and clumsiness
Involuntary, jerky, dyskinetic movements often accompanied by grunting and dysarthria (twitching/restlessness)
Lability (rapid, often exaggerated changes in mood: irritability/temper outbursts)
Dysphoria (a state of unease or generalised dissatisfaction with life)
Mental inflexibility (may make unusual purchases, snap decisions, gambling)
Anxiety
Dementia
Loss of coordination - dropping things, stumbling, motor vehicle accidents

IN LATER STAGES: rigid, akinetic & bed-bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Huntington’s?

A

Chorea: random movement of fingers & toes, odd facial expressions, occasional peculiar postures of hand, trunk or limbs are typical of early disease
Dysarthria
Deficit in fine motor coordination - slow irregular tempo when asked to tap finger
Slow voluntary saccades and supranuclear gaze restriction (slowed rapid eye movements)
Motor impersistence - cannot protrude tongue fully or close eyes tightly for 10 seconds
Parkinsonism and Dystonia (uncontrollable muscle contraction)
MMSE shows cognitive and emotional deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Huntington’s?

A

The diagnosis is usually CLINICAL so requires no tests

CAG repeat testing - more than 40 repeats on one of the alleles is a positive result, 36 to 39 repeats means they may or may not develop symptoms

MRI or CT scan - evident caudate or striatal atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define cluster headache

A

A neurological disorder characterised by recurrent, severe headaches on one side of the head typically around the eye, tending to recur over a period of several weeks.
Unilateral headache attacks lasting 15 minutes to 3 hours, associated with parasympathetic hyperactivity and sympathetic hypoactivity.
Pain is often localised to the unilateral orbital, supra-orbital, and/or temporal areas and can occur from once every other day to 8 times per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of cluster headaches

A

Aetiology is unknown

Associated factors: 
Head trauma
Heavy cigarette smoking 
Heavy alcohol intake
Sleep apnoea - treatment of apnoea improves headache control
Risk factors:
Male sex
Family history
Head Trauma
Cigarette smoking
Heavy drinking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cluster headaches

A

Affects predominantly men
1 in 500 people
Age of onset between 20 and 40 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of cluster headaches?

A

Repeated attacks of unilateral pain around the eye which peaks within minutes and lasts 15 minutes to 3 hours
Autonomic symptoms: ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, partial Horner’s syndrome, nasal congestion, eye lid swelling, facial swelling, flushing
Nausea and vomiting
Photophobia and phonophobia
Migranous aura
Agitation - unable to stay still during an attack, pacing, banging head on wall
Suicidal thoughts
Headaches lasting 6-12 weeks at the same time each year every 1-2 years
Often occur at night 1-2 hours after falling asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two types of cluster headache?

A
  1. Episodic: occurring in periods lasting 7 days-1 year, separated by pain-free periods lasting a month or longer. Cluster periods usually last between 2 weeks-3 months.
  2. Chronic: occurring for 1 year without remissions or with short-lived remissions of less than a month. Chronic cluster headaches can arise de novo or arise from episodic cluster headaches.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of cluster headache?

A

Evidence of autonomic symptoms ie eye lid or facial swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are appropriate investigations for cluster headaches?

A

CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS - investigations are to rule out other causes.

Brain CT or MRI - normal if primary cluster headache. Allows elimination of secondary causes.

ESR - normal in cluster headache. Used to eliminate giant cell arteritis in patients over 50 y/o.

Pituitary function tests (TFTs, LH, FSH, cortisol, prolactin etc in bloods) - normal in primary cluster headache. Allows exclusion of pituitary adenoma as secondary cause.

ECG - exclude conduction abnormality before starting CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define migraine

A

Migraine is a chronic, genetically determined, episodic, neurological disorder that usually presents in early-to-mid life. It is characterised by nausea, photophobia, and disability, along with headache and often has a preceding aura.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of migraine?

A

Brain hyperexcitability to various stimuli
Neuronal depolarisation is believed to be the precipitating event in migraine aura

Risk factors:
Family history of migraines
High caffeine intake
Exposure to change in barometric pressure (altitude and weather changes)
Female
Obesity
Habitual snoring
Stress
Overuse of headache medication
Lack of sleep
OCP
Allergies or asthma
Hypertension
Hypothyroidism
Diet (alcohol, cheese, chocolate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of migraines

A

High prevalence - 14% of individuals
More likely in females (3:1 F:M)
Prevalence rises in early adult years then decreases in late 40s-50s
More common in white patients
Highest amongst low income patients
Highest in Americas and Europe, lowest in Asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of migraine?

A

Prolonged headache - 4-72 hours, may be throbbing
Nausea/vomiting
Decreased ability to function
Sensitivity to light
Headache made worse by activity - distinguish between migraine and tension headache (tension not worsened by exertion)
Sensitivity to noise
Aura: Visual disturbances (Flashing lights, Spots, Blurring, Zigzag lines, Blind Spots), Other sensory symptoms (tingling or numbness in limbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of migraine?

A

Nil signs of note

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for migraine?

A

Mainly a clinical diagnosis from the history

Investigations to rule out other causes:
ESR - if raised, suggests temporal arteritis
Lumbar puncture - if abnormal could be SAH, meningitis or low or high cerebrospinal fluid pressure
CSF culture - if CNS infection
CT head/MRI brain - may show space-occupying lesion, ischaemic lesions, SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the management of migraine?

A

Acute with persistent symptoms: paracetamol, codeine, anti-emetics, triptans (5-HT agonists) eg sumatriptan, high flow oxygen, IV corticosteroid (NSAIDs)

Prophylaxis (if > 2 months): β-blockers, Amitriptyline, Topiramate, Sodium Valproate (tricyclic antidepressants, anticonvulsants)
Menstrual migraines can be controlled with the oral contraceptive pill

Advice: 
Encourage Regular meals and Sleep
Caffeine Restriction
Measures to Reduce Stress
Symptom Diary
Avoid triggers
Rest in quiet, dark room during episodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the possible complications of migraines?

A

Disruption of daily activities
Can progress into analgesia-overuse headaches in people who use analgesia regularly
Status migrainosus - migraine occurring for more than 72 hours
Migranous infarction - occurs when an aura lasts more than 1 hour
Migraine-triggered seizures
Depression
Chronic migraine - 15 or more days per month for more than three months with no medication overuse
Persistent aura without infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the prognosis of migraine?

A

Patients do well with treatment
The frequency of migraines decreases with age
Usually chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define transient ischaemic attack

A

Sudden onset of neurological signs and symptoms caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia (temporary occlusion of part of cerebral circulation) without acute infarction which resolves completely within 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Summarise the aetiology of TIA

A

Most common cause = carotid artery stenosis

Cardioembolic events:
Carotid atherosclerosis
Emboli can arise from the heart: AF, atrial myxoma, mitral valve disease

Small vessel occlusion: microatheromas, fibrinoid necrosis
Others: occlusion due to hypercoagubility, dissection, vasculitis, vasospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the risk factors for TIA?

A
HYPERTENSION
AF
Coronary Artery Disease
Diabetes
Increasing age
Male
Obesity
Hypercholesterolaemia
Family history
Valvular disease
Smoking
Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of TIA

A

2000 people per year in England have first TIA
Prevalence increases with age
More common in men
Less common in white patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of TIA?

A

Clinical features depend on the part of the brain affected:

Carotid Territory:
Unilateral
Affect the MOTOR AREA
Weakness of arm, leg or one side of the face
Dysarthria
Broca’s dysphasia
Amaurosis fugax (painless fleeting loss of vision caused by retinal ischaemia)

Vertebrobasilar Territory: 
Homonymous hemianopia (if ophthalmic cortex is involved)
Bilateral visual impairment
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory symptoms
Diplopia
Vertigo
Vomiting
Dysarthria
Dysphagia 
Ataxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of TIA?

A

Neurological examination may be NORMAL because the TIA may have resolved
Check pulse for irregularly irregular rhythm (AF)
Carotid bruit (carotid atherosclerosis)
Elevated BP (rises acutely after a cerebral ischaemic effect by increasing cerebral blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for TIA?

A

Bloods:
Glucose - hypoglycaemia can cause similar symptoms
FBC

ECG - check for AF
MRI brain - may show infarct
Carotid doppler ultrasound if expecting carotid stenosis
MR/CT angiography to further investigate carotid stenoses
Echo - check for valvular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the management of TIAs?

A

Patient presenting with suspected TIA = 300mg aspirin immediately and assess urgently within 24 hours

Patients with confirmed TIA should receive:
Clopidogrel: 300 mg loading dose and 75 mg thereafter
High-Intensity Statin Therapy: e.g. atorvastatin 20-80 mg

Secondary Prevention: 
ANTI-PLATELETS EG ASPIRIN
ANTIHYPERTENSIVES (hypertension is biggest RF)
Lipid-modifying treatments 
Management of AF 
Life style modification 

Carotid endarterectomy (artery opened and clot removed) IF:
>70% stenosis
Symptomatic TIA or good recovery stroke in past 6 months involving anterior cirulation

Assessment of future stroke risk in TIA patients: ABCD2 score
Age >60
Blood pressure - systolic >140mmHg
Clinical - unilateral weakness (2), speech deficit (1)
Duration of symptoms - >60mins (2), 10-59mins (1)
Diabetes

0-3 = 1% 2 day stroke risk
4-5 = 4.1% risk
6-7 = 8.1%
41
Q

What are the possible complications of TIA?

A

Recurrent TIA
Stroke
MI

42
Q

What is the prognosis of TIA?

A

> 10% seen in A&E will have stroke within 3 months

43
Q

Define Bell’s palsy

A

An acute unilateral, idiopathic facial nerve palsy, likely of viral aetiology. It is a peripheral/LMN lesion.

44
Q

Summarise the aetiology of Bell’s Palsy

A

It is idiopathic
Likely a viral aetiology - most likely HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS
May be EBV or Varicella Zoster
60% are preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection

45
Q

What are the risk factors for Bell’s palsy?

A
Intranasal influenza vaccination 
Pregnancy (3 times more common) 
Upper Respiratory Tract Infection 
Family history 
Diabetes 
Hypertension
46
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy

A

Most common aetiology of unilateral facial palsy
Most prevalent between 15-45y/o
Equal distribution between both sexes

47
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A
Preceding ear pain (1-2 days before)
Rapid onset symptoms
Unilateral facial muscle weakness/paralysis
Drooping eyelid and mouth
Dry mouth and eyes
Difficulty closing eye
Loss of taste sensation
Phonophobia
Speech impairment
Drooling saliva
48
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Bell’s palsy?

A

LMN weakness of facial muscles:
Affects IPSILATERAL muscles of facial expression
Does NOT spare the muscles of upper part of the face (unlike UMN facial nerve palsy)

Bell’s Phenomenon - Eyeball rolls up but the eye remains open when trying to close their eyes

Clinical testing of sensation is NORMAL
Examine the ears to check for other causes of facial nerve palsy (e.g. otitis media, herpes zoster infection)

BELL’S PALSY IS DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION

49
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy?

A

Mainly a CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS - acute unilateral facial weakness with normal physical exam
Viral serology
Nerve conduction studies if palsy consists to rule out axonal degeneration
EMG: may show absence of voluntary motor unit potentials
Serology for Borrelia Burgdorferi: indicated in patients with travel to Lyme Disease endemic area

50
Q

What is the management of Bell’s palsy?

A

ALL PATIENTS:
Protection of cornea with protective glasses/patches or artificial tears
High-dose corticosteroids within 72 hrs i.e. short dose oral prednisolone

Adjuncts:
Concurrent Antiviral Therapy
Encourage closure of eyelids by hand or tape at night
Surgical decompression - lateral tarsorrhaphy (suturing the lateral parts of the eyelids together) – performed if imminent or established corneal damage

51
Q

What are the possible complications of Bell’s palsy?

A
Corneal ulcers 
Dry Eyes 
Eye Infection 
Aberrant reinnervation (synkinesis) 
Gustatory Hyper lacrimation (PNS fibres may aberrantly reinnervate the lacrimal glands causing tearing whilst salivating)
52
Q

Summarise the prognosis of Bell’s palsy

A

Extent of facial palsy within 72 hours is predictive of recovery outcome
94% with incomplete paralysis will recover, 61% with complete paralysis will recover
Pregnancy-associated Bell’s palsy has worse outcomes
Recovery within 2-12 weeks

53
Q

Define Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

An acute segmental demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system
ACUTE INFLAMMATORY DEMYELINATING POLYNEUROPATHY

54
Q

Summarise the aetiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Cause unknown
Immune mediated attack where antibodies formed after a recent infection react with self-antigens on myelin sheath or Schwann cells

Often develops post:
Bacterial infection - campylobacter jejuni, mycoplasma pneumoniae
Viral infection - CMV, EBV
Preceded by gastroenteritis or flu like symptoms within 6 weeks of symptoms

Rarely triggered following influenza vaccination

55
Q

What are the risk factors of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Previous viral illness
Bacterial infection
Hepatitis E
Mosquito-borne viral infection

56
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Slightly more common in males
Mean age of presentation is 40
Affects all age groups

57
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Progressive symptoms
Initially ascending symmetrical paresthesia - loss of vibration and touch sensation

Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness/paralysis (more in upper limb and more proximal)

Cranial nerve involvement - dysphagia, dysarthria, facial weakness, diplopia, difficulty speaking

Respiratory muscles may be affected in SEVERE cases -dyspnoea on exertion & SOB

Autonomic nerve involvement - palpitations, constipation, urinary incontinence

58
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Hypotonia
Flaccid paralysis
Areflexia/hyporeflexia (ascending upwards from feet to head - notice loss of ankle reflex first)
Impairment of sensation in multiple modalities (ascending from feet to head)
Facial nerve weakness - slurred speech
Abnormality of external ocular movements due to extra-ocular muscle weakness

Type II Respiratory Failure due to paralysis of respiratory muscles:
CO2 retention flap
Bounding pulse

Autonomic Function:
Orthostatic hypotension
BP fluctuations
Arrhythmia

59
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Lumbar puncture - high CSF protein/albumin with normal WBC and glucose (ALBUMINOCYTOLOGIC DISSOCIATION)

Nerve conduction tests - reduced conduction velocity

Pulmonary function tests (spirometry) - reduced FVC suggests ventilator weakness

Bloods: LFTs (may be elevated), Anti-ganglioside antibodies in Miller-Fisher variant

ECG: Arrhythmias may develop

60
Q

Define trigeminal neuralgia

A

A neuropathic facial pain syndrome in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve.

61
Q

Summarise the aetiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Associated with trigeminal nerve root compression at the root entry zone by a vascular loop - often by SUPERIOR CEREBELLAR ARTERY

Systemic causes:
MS
Expanding cranial tumour

62
Q

What are the risk factors of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Increased Age
Multiple sclerosis
Female
Hypertension

63
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A

More common in feamles
Peak 50-60 years old
4-13 per 100,000
Prevalence increases with age

64
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Paroxysms of sudden, sharp, shooting, UNILATERAL facial pain lasting less than 2 minutes
Pain lasts from seconds to 2 minutes
Pain is in trigeminal distribution
Pain bought on by brushing teeth, chewing, shaving, breeze, touching area etc
Recurrent & Periods of remission can vary
Some experience preceding symptoms (e.g. numbness, tingling

65
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

MAY have sensory/motor changes - suggestive of pathological cause
NO VISION LOSS
NO ASSOCIATED NEUROLOGICAL DEFICIT

66
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

CLINICAL DIGANOSIS so usually no investigations

If there is doubt over the underlying cause, specialists may request an:
Intra-oral X-ray: if dental cause of pain is suspected
MRI brain scan: if history or examination suggests other pathology
Trigeminal Reflex Testing: abnormal reflexes suggestive of symptomatic trigeminal neuralgia

67
Q

Define myasthenia gravis

A

A chronic autoimmune condition affecting the post-synaptic membrane of neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles due to autoantibodies usually against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. This causes muscle weakness and fatiguability.

68
Q

Summarise the aetiology of myasthenia gravis

A

Impairment on NMJ transmission
Autoantibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on postsynaptic membrane at NMJ preventing muscle contraction - 80-90% of patients

Minority of patients have muscle specific receptor tyrosine kinase anitbodies - 3-7%

May present as paraneoplastic syndrome - associated with thymoma and bronchogenic carcinoma

Associated with thymic follicular hyperplasia

Associated with other AI conditions (e.g. pernicious anaemia)

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome: paraneoplastic subtype of myasthenia gravis caused by autoantibodies against pre-synaptic calcium channels, leading to impairment of acetylcholine release

69
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis

A

There is a bimodal distribution
Young women aged 20-30
Older men aged 60-70

Affects women more than men
MG with muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies has 80-90% of patients as women. It is more common in black women and usually affects at mid-30s

70
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A

Diplopia
Ptosis
Muscle weakness which worsens with repetitive movement or exercis - FATIGUABILITY
Muscle weakness gets better on resting
Usually wakes up fine
Dysphagia
Dysarthria
Facial paresis
Shortness of breath
Disturbed, characteristic hyper nasal speech (dysarthria)
Difficulty smiling, chewing or swallowing (nasal regurgitation of fluids)

71
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of myasthenia gravis?

A

May be generalised (affecting many muscle groups), bulbar or ocular
Bilateral ptosis
Complex ophthalmoplegia
Check for ocular fatigue by asking the patient to sustain and upward gaze for 1 minute and watch the progressive ptosis that develops
Reading aloud can provoke dysarthria or nasal speech
Limbs: test power of muscle before & after repeated use (muscle fatiguability)

72
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for myasthenia gravis?

A

Serum acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies - positive in 80-90% of patients
Muscle specific receptor tyrosine kinase antibodies
TFTs (associated with hyperthyroidism)
Anti-voltage gated Ca channel antibody (in Lambert-Eaton syndrome)
Serial pulmonary function tests: indicated if patient has SOB & suspected MG crisis
Repetitive nerve stimulation: reduced muscle action potential
Single Fibre EMG

CT Thorax/CXR: visualise thymoma (thymic enlargement) in mediastinum/lung malignancy

NERVE CONDUCTION STUDY = GOLD STANDARD DIAGNOSTIC TEST

73
Q

Define Horner’s syndrome

A

A syndrome caused by interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to one side of the face, resulting in the triad of ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis.

74
Q

Summarise the aetiology of Horner’s syndrome

A

Caused by disruption of the sympathetic nervous system supply to the face

Damage to 1st order neurone:
Tumour
Syringomyelia
Stroke

Damage to 2nd order neurone:
Apical lung tumour (pancoast tumour)

Damage to 3rd order neurone:
Internal carotid artery dissection

Other:
Neck trauma
MS
Lymphadenopathy

75
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Horner’s syndrome

A

Rare

It is a sign associated with many conditions

76
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Horner’s syndrome?

A
Unable to open one eye fully
Loss of sweating on affected side 
Facial flushing 
Orbital pain/headache 
Other symptoms based on CAUSE
77
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Unilateral ptosis
Unilateral anhidrosis
Unilateral myosis
Enopthalmos

Symptoms are on ipsilateral side as lesion

Can have decreased visual acuity and/or abnormal eye movement which warrants further investigation

78
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Horner’s syndrome?

A

Cocaine eye drop:
Usually causes build up of NA by preventing reuptake which would cause dilation
If no dilation - suggests Horner’s

Apraclonidine eye drop:
Weaker form of cocaine which normally does not cause dilation
If dilation of eye occurs - suggests Horner’s

CT/MRI - find underlying cause eg cerebrovascular accident
CXR: apical lung tumour
CT angiography: dissection

79
Q

What is the management of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Depends on the underlying cause of Horner’s

Surgical intervention is needed for syringomyelia, tumours, or carotid artery dissection

80
Q

Define hydrocephalus

A

Hydrocephalus is enlargement of the ventricular system of the brain due to excessive build up of CSF. It can be communicating or non-communicating

81
Q

Summarise the aetiology of hydrocephalus

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles can be caused by:

Impaired outflow of the CSF from the ventricular system: OBSTRUCTIVE
Lesions of the 3rd and 4th ventricle or cerebral aqueduct
Posterior fossa lesions (e.g. tumour) compressing the 4th ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

Impaired CSF reabsorption into the subarachnoid villi: NON-OBSTRUCTIVE
Tumours
Meningitis

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus: idiopathic chronic ventricular enlargement. The long white matter tracts are damaged leading to gait and cognitive decline.

82
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hydrocephalus

A

There is a bimodal age distribution
Young: due to congenital malformations and brain tumours
Elderly: due to strokes and tumours

83
Q

Summarise the presenting symptoms of hydrocephalus

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus:
Diplopia
Acute decrease in consciousness

Normal pressure hydrocephalus:
Urinary incontinence
Falls
Abnormal walking
Struggle to lift foot to initiate walking
Memory loss
Personality change
Slow thought processing
84
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of hydrocephalus?

A

Obstructive Hydrocephalus:
Low GCS
Papilledema
6th Nerve Palsy (6th nerve has the longest intracranial path of all the CN & so is most susceptible to palsy due to raised ICP)

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
Cognitive impairment
Gait apraxia (wide based, shuffling)
Hyperreflexia

Neonates: Increased head circumference and Sunset sign (↓ conjugate deviation of the eyes)

85
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for hydrocephalus?

A

CT Head: 1st line for detecting hydrocephalus, may show cause (e.g. tumour).

CSF: obtained from ventricular drain or lumbar puncture
May indicate pathology (e.g. tuberculosis)
Check MC&S, protein and glucose.

Lumbar Puncture:
CONTRAINDICIATED IF RAISED ICP as can cause tonsillar herniation & death.
Therapeutic in normal pressure hydrocephalus.

86
Q

Define subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space (space between pia mater and arachnoid mater) and it is an emergency

87
Q

Summarise the aetiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
Traumatic injury
Saccular anuerysm rupture - main non-traumatic cause 80%
Arteriovenous malformation
Peri mesencephalic SAH
Bleeding diathesis
Vertebral artery dissection
Use of anticoagulants
Risk factors:
Alcohol
Smoking
Family history
Hypertension
Autosomal dominant kidney disease
Connective tissue disease eg Marfan's (predispose to aneurysm formation)
88
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
Incidence increases with age
Average age of onset 50-55 years old
More common in women
More common in black patients
Accounts for 5% of all strokes
89
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
Sudden onset, thunderclap, worst headache ever
Photophobia
Vomiting
Neck stiffness
Visual changes
Confusion
Seizures
Reduced level of consciousness
90
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Reduced consciousness
Meningism: Neck stiffness, Kernig’s sign, Pyrexia
Signs of raised ICP - papilledema, IV or III nerve palsies, hypertension, bradycardia
Focal neurological signs (e.g. cranial nerve palsies: CN III palsy indicates presence of posterior communicating artery aneurysm compressing CN III)

91
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Non-contrast CT head - show bleeding (hyperdensity) within subarachnoid space, sensitivity decreases with time

If CT normal but high suspicion - Lumbar puncture:
Shows yellow xanthochromia. Must be performed more than 12 hours after onset. Take 3 tubes.

FBC - leukocytosis
Serum sodium - may be low

Cerebral angiography can identify causal pathology
CRP/ESR
Clotting Profile (elevated INR, prolonged PTT)
Cardiac Enzymes (troponin).

ECG: Patients with SAH will have an abnormal ECG on admission i.e. arrythmias, prolonged AT, ST segment or T wave abnormalities.

92
Q

Define Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

An acute neurological, reversible emergency caused by thiamine (vit B1) deficiency, leading to a triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia which must be treated immediately to prevent chronic irreversible neurological changes.

93
Q

Summarise the aetiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Due to low thiamine causing CNS lesions
Decreased thiamine intake - malnutrition, anorexia
Decreased absorption - stomach cancer, IBD
Chronic alcohol consumption

Chronic alcohol consumption is the main cause:
Liver cirrhosis prevents storage of thiamine
Decreased absorption
Prevents conversion to active form
Inadequate nutritional thiamine intake

Other causes:
Chronic subdural haematoma
AIDS 
Hyperemesis Gravidarum 
Thyrotoxicosis
94
Q

What are the risk factors of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
Alcohol Dependence
AIDS
Chemotherapy
Malnutrition
History of GI Surgery
95
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Worldwide prevalence between 0.8-2.8%
Prevalence higher in males
Prevalence higher in patients with alcohol dependence, AIDS and bone marrow transplantation
Higher prevalence in 50-60 year olds

96
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ophthalmoplegia - weakness of eye muscles
Ataxia - unsteady gait and loss of muscle coordination
Confusion
Loss of consciousness
Vision changes: diplopia, eye movement abnormalities, ptosis
Loss of memory and Inability to form new memories
Hallucinations
Impaired concentration

97
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

TRIAD OF ATAXIA, OPHTHALMOPLEGIA AND CONFUSION
Mental slowing, impaired concentration & apathy
Ocular Motor Findings: gaze palsies, CNVI Palsy, Impaired Vestibulo-Ocular Reflex
Papilledema, Retinal Haemorrhages
Tachycardia AND/OR Hypotension
Hypothermia or Hyperthermia
Coma - decreased GCS

98
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Diagnosis is mainly based on history and examination
Serum thiamine - LOW

FBC (high MCV is a common feature amongst alcoholics)
U&Es (exclude metabolic imbalances as a cause of confusion)
LFTs (elevated if due to chronic alcohol use)
Glucose
Blood alcohol level
ABG (hypercapnia and hypoxia can cause confusion)

Other: CT head, MRI Brain (show degeneration of mammillary bodies), Lumbar Puncture (exclude other pathology)