Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Define polycythaemia

A

Polycythaemia = increased haemoglobin concentration above the normal for age and sex matched individual

Polycythaemia Vera = A bone marrow neoplasm associated with excessive production of red blood cells. It is characterised by erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis and splenomegaly.

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2
Q

What is the difference between relative and absolute polycythaemia?

A

Relative polycythaemia = normal red blood cell mass but decreased blood volume

Absolute polycythaemia = increased red cell mass

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3
Q

Summarise the aetiology of polycythaemia

A

Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: (Primary Polycythaemia)
Clonal proliferation of myeloid cells
Varied morphologic maturity and haematopoietic efficiency
Mutations in JAK2 tyrosine kinase

Secondary Polycythaemia:

Raised red blood cell production in response to APPROPRIATE increase in erythropoietin: 
Chronic hypoxia (e.g. chronic lung disease, living at high altitude) - upregulation of erythropoiesis 

Raised red blood cell production in response to INAPPROPRIATE increase in erythropoeitin:
Renal (carcinoma, cysts, hydronephrosis)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Fibroids
Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
Erythropoietin abuse by athletes

Relative Polycythaemia:
Dehydration (e.g. diuretics, burns, enteropathy)
Gaisbock’s syndrome - young male smokers with increased vasomotor tone and hypertension, which results in a decrease in plasma volume and an apparent increase in red cell count

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4
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of polycythaemia

A

Peak Age 45-60 years

UK Annual Incidence of Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: 1.5 in 100,000
Polycythaemia Vera more common in men
Very rare in children
Incidence increases with age

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5
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of polycythaemia?

A

Hyperviscosity symptoms - headaches, blurred vision
Fatigue
Plethoric/red face
Aquagenic pruritis - itching particularly after warm bath
Dizziness
Increased sweating

Dyspnoea
Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears)
Night Sweats
Tenderness & Redness of fingers, palms, heels or toes
Pain from Peptic Ulcer Disease
Angina
Gout

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6
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of polycythaemia?

A

Plethoric face
Excoriation marks from itching
Splenomegaly

Conjunctival suffusion - red conjunctiva
Retinal venous engorgement
Hypertension

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7
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for polycythaemia?

A

FBC - high Hb, high haematocrit, low MCV

Isotope Dilution Techniques:
Find plasma volume and red cell mass
Can then distinguish between relative and absolute polycythaemia

Polycythaemia Rubra Vera:
High Hb
High haematocrit
Low MCV
High WCC 
High platelets 
Low serum erythropoeitin
JAK2 mutation
Bone marrow trephine and biopsy - erythroid hyperplasia and raised megakaryocytes 

Secondary Polycythaemia:
High serum erythropoeiti
Exclude Chronic Lung Disease/Hypoxia
Check for EPO-secreting Tumours (CT Abdo, Brain MRI

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8
Q

Define macrocytic anaemia

A

A low haemoglobin below which is normal for an sex and age-matched individual in the presence of erythrocytes with a high MV (>100fL).
There are two types: megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic

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9
Q

Summarise the aetiology of macrocytic anaemia

A

Megaloblastic:
Bone marrow produces unusually large, structurally abnormal immature RBCs

Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • Decreased dietary intake (vegans)
  • Defective absorption:
    1. Gastric atrophy - less HCl, less pepsin, less absorption
    2. Gastric bypass - food passes through too quickly to be absorbed
    3. Pernicious anaemia - antibodies against intrinsic factor or parietal cells
    4. Terminal ileal disease

Folate deficiency

  • Decreased dietary intake (little leafy greens or citrus fruit) - alcoholics, elderly, anorexia
  • Increased need (pregnancy, lactation, malignancy, chronic inflammation, haemolytic anaemia)
  • Impaired absorption
  • Jejunal Disease ie coeliac
  • Drugs eg phenytoin

Drugs: Methotrexate, Hydroxyurea, Azathioprine, Zidovudine

NON-MEGALOBLASTIC: 
Alcohol Excess
Liver Disease
Myelodysplasia 
Multiple Myeloma 
Hypothyroidism 
Haemolysis 
Drug
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10
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of macrocytic anaemia

A

Elderly

Females

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11
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Lethargy
Exertional dyspnoea
Shortness of breath

Symptoms of CAUSE:
Weight loss
Diarrhoea
Steatorrhea in coeliac disease

Regular falls and tingling of extremeties in vitamin B12 deficiency

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12
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Pallor
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea

Signs of pernicious anaemia: 
Jaundice
Glossitis
Angular stomatitis
Weight loss 
Signs of B12 deficiency: 
Peripheral neuropathy
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
Ataxia
Optic atrophy
Dementia
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13
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for macrocytic anaemia?

A

Bloods:
FBC: increased MCV, low Hb, pancytopenia in megaloblastic
LFTs: increased bilirubin (due to ineffective erythropoiesis or haemolysis)
Serum Vitamin B12 - low if due to B12 deficiency
Red Cell Folate - low if due to folate deficiency
Anti-parietal cell AND anti-intrinsic factor antibodies - if pernicious anaemia causing B12 deficiency

Serum protein electrophoresis – looking for dense band in Myeloma
ESR, TFT (hypothyroidism can cause non-megaloblastic)

Peripheral blood film:
Large erythrocytes
Megaloblastic: Megaloblasts, Hyper segmented Neutrophil Nuclei (>5 lobes)

Schilling Test: Method of testing for pernicious anaemia B12 will only be absorbed when given with intrinsic factor

Bone Marrow Biopsy (megaloblast, myelodysplastic changes)

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14
Q

What is the management of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency:
Must be treated first!!
IM hydroxocobalamin for life

Folate Deficiency:
Oral folic acid

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15
Q

What are the possible complications of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Pernicious Anaemia: increased risk of Gastric Cancer

Pregnancy: folate deficiency increases risk of neural tube defects

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16
Q

Summarise the prognosis of macrocytic anaemia

A

Majority are treatable if there are no complications

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17
Q

Define microcytic anaemia

A

Haemoglobin lower than expected for an age and sex matched individual with a low MCV <80fL.

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18
Q

Summarise the aetiology of microcytic anaemia

A

Defects in haem synthesis:
Iron deficiency anaemia
- Chronic blood loss (heavy menstrual period, bleeding gastric ulcer, blood loss from colon cancer)
- Lack of absorption - gastrectomy, IBD, coeliac
- Increased demand - pregnancy
- Malnutrition

Lead poisoning

Sideroblastic Anaemia

Defects in globin synthesis:
Thalassemia

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19
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of microcytic anaemia

A

It is the most common form of anaemia worldwide

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20
Q

What are presenting symptoms of microcytic anaemia?

A
Tiredness
Lethargy
Fatigue
Shortness of breath
Pallor
Lead Poisoning:
Anorexia
Nausea/Vomiting
Abdominal Pain
Constipation
Peripheral Nerve Lesions
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21
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of microcytic anaemia?

A

Pallor
Brittle nails and hair

Iron deficiency:
Koilonychia
Glossitis

Thalassemia:
Hepatosplenomegaly
Mild jaundice
Peripheral nerve lesions (wrist or foot drop) 
Glossitis – atrophy of lung papillae 
Angular Stomatitis
Lead poisoning: 
Blue gum line
Convulsions
Altered consciousness
Encephalopathy
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22
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of microcytic anaemia?

A

Peripheral blood smear
Iron deficiency anaemia: Microcytic, Hypochromic (central pallor <1/3 cell size), Anisocytosis (variable cell size), Poikilocytosis (variable cell shape)

Sideroblastic anaemia: Dimorphic blood film, Hypochromic microcytic cells

Lead poisoning: Basophilic stippling (coarse dots represent condensed RNA in cytoplasm)

Iron studies:
Iron deficiency - iron and ferritin low, transferrin and TIBC high
Sternoblastic - iron and ferritin high, transferrin and TIBC normal/low

Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Checking for Hb variants and thalassemia

If > 40 years and post-menopausal and no obvious cause of blood loss:
Upper GI endoscopy
Colonoscopy
Investigations for haematuria

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23
Q

Summarise the management of microcytic anaemia

A

Iron deficiency:
Oral iron supplements

Sideroblastic:
Treat the cause
If inherited: pyridoxine
If no response: blood transfusion and iron chelation

Lead poisoning:
Chelating agents
Dimercaprol
D-penicillinamine

Thalassemia:
Blood transfusions

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24
Q

What are the possible complications of microcytic anaemia?

A

High Output Cardiac Failure

Complications related to the CAUSE

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25
Q

What is the prognosis of microcytic anaemia?

A

Depends on the cause

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26
Q

Define aplastic anaemia

A

A type of anaemia which results in panyctopenia with hypocellular bone marrow without any abnormal cells, usually due to autoimmune destruction of haematopoeitic stem cells.

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27
Q

Summarise the aetiology of aplastic anaemia

A

Most often IDIOPATHIC (> 40%):
May be due to destruction or suppression of stem cells via autoimmune mechanisms

Acquired:
Drugs (e.g. chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, methotrexate)
Chemicals (e.g. benzene, DDT, insecticides)
Radiation
Viral infection (e.g. parvovirus B19, EBV, HIV)
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Inherited:
Fanconi’s anaemia - pancytopenia, short stature, microcephaly, developmental delay, cafe-au-lait spots, predisposition to malignancy, absent or hypoplastic thumbs
Dyskeratosis congenita (rare, progression bone marrow failure syndrome)
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28
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of aplastic anaemia

A

Equal between males and females (perhaps slightly more common for males)
Biphasic distribution - 10-25 years and >60 years old peak
Fanconi anaemia is one of the most common congenital causes

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29
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of aplastic anaemia?

A
Can be slow or rapid onset:
Fatigue
Pallor
Dyspnoea
Recurrent infections
Mucosal bleeding
Easy bruising
Bleeding gums
Epistaxis
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30
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of aplastic anaemia?

A

Anaemia signs: pallor

Thrombocytopenia signs: bruises, petechiae

NO HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY OR LYMPHADENOPATHY

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31
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of aplastic anaemia?

A

FBC - low Hb - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
Serum erythropoeitin - elevated
Reticulocyte count - decreased
Bone marrow biopsy - hypocellular (low haematopoeitic stem cells), no abnormal cells, dry tap

Fanconi’s Anaemia: Check for the presence of increased chromosomal breakage in lymphocytes cultures in the presence of DNA cross-linking agents.

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32
Q

Define disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

An acquired syndrome characterised by widespread activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in the formation of intravascular thrombi. This can lead to organ ischaemia, necrosis and failure, but also uses up clotting factors and platelets which can lead to spontaneous bleeding.

Acute overt form where there is bleeding and depletion of platelets and clotting factors

Chronic non-overt form where thromboembolism is accompanied by generalised activation of the coagulation system

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33
Q

Summarise the aetiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Sepsis
Malignancy
Obsteteric complications - Missed miscarriage, severe pre-eclampsia, amniotic emboli, Placental abruption
Trauma
Intravascular haemolysis
Immunological reactions - blood transfusion reactions, organ transplant rejection
Severe organ destruction or failure (severe pancreatitis, acute hepatic failure)
Vascular disorders (Kasabach-Merritt syndrome or giant haemangiomas, large aortic aneurysms)
Severe toxic reactions

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34
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Seen in severely ill patients

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35
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Patients severely unwell with symptoms of underlying disease
Oligouria - suggests circulatory collapse
Dsypnoea
Cough
Confusion/delirium
Evidence of Bleeding - epistaxis, gingivial bleeding

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36
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Signs of underlying disease
Fever
Evidence of shock - hypotension, tachycardia

Acute DIC:
Petechiae, purpura, ecchymoses
Bleeding: Epistaxis, Mucosal bleeding, Overt haemorrhage, haematuria
Signs of end organ damage – local infarction or gangrene
Oliguria due to renal failure
Respiratory distress
Delirium and coma

Chronic DIC:
Signs of deep vein and arterial thrombosis or embolism
Superficial venous thrombosis

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37
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A
Serum platelets - low
Serum fibrinogen - low
D-dimer - high
Fibrin degradation products - elevated
Prolonged PT
Prolonged PTT
Hb - decreased

Peripheral Blood Film:
Schistocytes (red blood cell fragments)

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38
Q

Define myelofibrosis

A

A progressive myeloproliferative disorder in which the bone marrow gets replaced by fibrosis and extramedullary haematopoiesis occurs, resulting in splenomegaly. It is also associated with pancytopenia.

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39
Q

Summarise the aetiology of myelofibrosis

A

Primary myelofibrosis: due to mutation in haematopoietic stem cells - often JAK2 mutation
Primary stem cell defect is UNKNOWN - results in increased numbers of abnormal megakaryocytes which release growth factors resulting in fibrosis

Seconary myelofibrosis: caused by essential thrombocthaemia or polycythaemia vera - 30% of patients have a history of one of these

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40
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myelofibrosis

A
Occurs in adults
More common in White patients
More common in males
Median age at diagnosis is 65 years old
RARE
Peak onset = 50-70
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41
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of myelofibrosis?

A

Can be asymptomatic and diagnosed after routine blood count

Bone pain
History of frequent infections
Fatigue
Easy bruising
Fever
Itching
Weight loss
Anorexia
Night sweats
UNCOMMON: 
LUQ pain 
Indigestion (due to massive splenomegaly) 
Bleeding 
Gout

Symptoms of pulmonary hypertension due to extramedullary haematopoeisis in lungs:
Shortness of breath
Fatigue
Presyncope

42
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of myelofibrosis?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly

Petechiae

43
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of myelofibrosis?

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytopenia
LFTs - abnormal

Peripheral blood film - tear drop RBCs, increased number of abnormal megakaryocytes, pancytopenia, immature nucleated RBCs, red and white cell precursors in film

Bone marrow aspiration - dry tap

Bone marrow biopsy - trephine biopsy shows fibrotic hypercellular marrow

44
Q

Define myelodysplasia

A

Characterised by ineffected and dysplastic haematopoeisis, leading to abnormal cell maturation and cytopenias, with <20% bone marrow being made up of blasts.

45
Q

Summarise the aetiology of myelodysplasia and the risk factors

A

Primary myelodysplasia is most common and is idiopathic
Secondary myelodysplasia can be due to chemotherapy or radiotherapy, DNA alkylating agent use
May have chromosomal abnormalities

Risk factors:
Age > 70 years 
Alkylating Agents 
Topoisomerase Inhibitors 
Prior Haematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation 
DNA Repair Deficiency Syndrome
46
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myelodysplasia

A

Median age 65-70 years old
Secondary can occur in younger patients
More common in males

47
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of myelodysplasia?

A

Can be asymptomatic and diagnosed on routine bloods

Symptoms of pancytopenia:
Anaemia:
Fatigue
Dizziness
Decreased exercise tolerance

Leukopenia:
Increased recurrent infections

Thrombocytopenia:
Easy bruising
Epistaxis

Occupational exposure to toxic chemicals
Prior chemotherapy or radiotherapy

48
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of myelodysplasia?

A

Anaemia: Pallor, cardiac flow murmur
Thrombocytopenia: Petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis
Leukopenia: infections

Gum hypertrophy

49
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of myelodysplasia?

A

FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia

Bone marrow aspirate - increased blast cells in bone marrow (<20%), dysplastic cells

Bone marrow biopsy - hypercellularity

Peripheral blood smear: ringed sideroblasts, large oval shaped RBCs, abnormal WBCs and platelets

50
Q

Define von Willebrand disease

A

A bleeding disorder caused by a quantitative deficiency or functional defiency of von Willebrand factor, resulting in mucocutaneous bleeding, increased bleeding after trauma, easy bruising and menorrhagia.

Type I - decreased quantity of vWF
Type II - decreased function of vWF, but normal levels
Type III - severe quantitative deficiency/NO vWF

51
Q

Summarise the aetiology of von Willebrand disease

A

Mutation in vWF gene

Type I - decreased amounts of vWF, AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT, most common

Type II - normal quantities but abnormal function, AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

Type III - no vWF - AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE

Rarely can get acquired von Willebrand’s disease:
Lymphoproliferative disorders - multiple myeloma
Aortic stenosis
Myeloproliferative disorders
Hypothyroidism

vWF is an adhesive bridge between platelets and the exposed subendothelial collagen
vWF also binds to factor VIII stabilising it and thus preventing its degradation

52
Q

What are the risk factors of von Willebrand disease?

A
Family history of Von Willebrand Disease
Consanguineous relationships
Lymphoproliferative disorders
Aortic Stenosis
Myeloproliferative disorders
Hypothyroidism
53
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of von Willebrand disease

A

It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder
Males and females affected equally
Most common form is type 1 - 75% of cases
Women more often diagnosed due to more severe symptoms - menorrhagia
Type 2 and type 3 have more severe symptoms

54
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of von Willebrand disease?

A

Mucocutaneous bleeding - gingival bleeding
Menorrhagia
Easy bleeding from trauma
Easy and excessive bruising
Epistaxis - prolonged or requires medical intervention
Excessive/prolonged bleeding from minor wounds or gums after dental procedures
GI Bleeding
CNS bleeding
Haematuria

55
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of von Willebrand disease?

A

Petechiae
Ecchymoses
Hemarthrosis

56
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for von Willebrand disease?

A

Platelets - normal
PT - normal
PTT - increased due to decreased factor VIII activity
Bleeding time - increased
vWF function assay ristocetin assay - usually would cause platelet aggregation
Factor VIII activity decreased
vWF antigen – DIAGNOSTIC if <0.3 international units/mL

57
Q

Define haemophilia

A

A bleeding disorder characterised by a lack of or lack of effectiveness of clotting factors which is usually inherited via an X-linked recessive pattern, but can be aqcuired.

Haemophilia A is most common - deficiency of factor VIII
Haemophilia B - deficiency of factor IX
Haemophilia C - deficiency of factor XI

58
Q

Summarise the aetiology of haemophilia

A

Due to deficiency in one or more clotting factors

Inherited haemophilia due to X-linked recessive inheritance
Haemophilia A is mutation in F8 gene on X chromosome - causes factor VIII deficiency
Haemophilia B is mutation in F9 gene on X chromosome - causes factor IX deficiency

Acquired haemophilia:
Renal failure
DIC
Autoimmune attack of clotting factor
Vitamin K deficiency
Risk factors of acquired haemophilia:
Age > 60
IBD 
Diabetes 
Hepatitis
Pregnancy 
Postpartum 
Malignancy
59
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemophilia

A

Mostly seen in males
Men have disease, women are carriers
Haemophilia A is more common

60
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of haemophilia?

A
Prolonged bleeding following injury
Easy bruising
Severe nosebleeds
Oozing following dental procedures
Haematuria
Blood in stool
HAEMARTHROSIS - Painful swelling of joints without trauma/occuring spontaneously
Painful bleeding into muscles
Bleeding usually deep eg into muscles and joints

Female carriers usually asymptomatic - may have excessive bleeding after trauma

61
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of haemophilia?

A
Haemarthrosis:
Painful joint
Swelling
Decreased range of movement
Warmth

Muscle haematomas/painful bleeding into muscles:
Pain, swelling, decreased range of motion, erythema, increased local warmth

Ecchymosis
Excessive bruising
Extensive Cutaneous Purpura
Nerve palsies (due to nerve compression by haematomas)

Signs of Iron Deficiency anaemia: 
Pallor
Fatigue
Weakness
SOB
62
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for haemophilia?

A

FBC- normal platelets, may be anaemic due to bleeding
Bleeding time - normal
PT - normal
PTT - prolonged
Genetic testing
Mixing study - aPTT normal
Coagulation factor assays - decreased factor 8, 9 or 11

63
Q

Define immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Immune destruction of platelets due to IgG autoantibodies resulting in bruising and bleeding tendency.
Primary ITP - isolated thrombocytopenia with no underlying cause
Secondary ITP - due to underlying systemic cause, often virus eg HIV, HCV, CMV or SLE

64
Q

Summarise the aetiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Mostly idiopathic
Autoantibodies against platelet GlpIIb/IIIa receptor causing autoimmune destruction of platelets

Secondary has underlying cause:
Viruses - HCV, HIV, CMV, malaria - often causes ACUTE ITP following viral infection in children
Autoimmune conditions - SLE, thyroid disease
Malignancy
Drugs (e.g. quinine)

65
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Acute ITP - children post-infection
Childhood ITP equal between sexes and has spontaenous resolution within 2 months

Chronic - females of child bearing age

66
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
Asymptomatic
Easy bruising
Purpura
Petechiae on lower limbs
Submucosal bleeding 
Epistaxis
Menorrhagia
67
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Visible petechiae
Bruises
Haemorrhagic bullae

No hepatosplenomegaly
No lymphadenopathy
No systemic symptoms

68
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION

FBC - isolated thrombocytopenia
PT, PTT, fibrinogen - NORMAL
Autoantibodies - antiplatelet antibodies present
Peripheral blood smear - isolated thrombocytopenia
HIV and Hepatitis serology - look for secondary cause

Bone Marrow Biopsy/aspiration – to exclude other pathology: normal or increased megakaryocytes

69
Q

Define thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

A disorder causing extensive microscopic clots to form in the small blood vessels throughout the body.
A condition characterised by a pentad of symptoms:
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Neurological deficits
Fever
Renal failure

70
Q

Summarise the aetiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

Deficiency in ADAMTS13 likely due to autoimmune antibody destruction
ADAMRS13 usually cleaves vWF
Abnormally large vWF multimers form which causes large clots to develop

Risk factors:
Female
SLE
African
Sepsis
Pregnancy
Liver disease
Pancreatitis
71
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of thrombotic thrombocytopena prupura?

A

RARE
More common in women
More common in black patients
Average age 39 years old

72
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A

Neurological - headache, seizure, coma, confusion
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia - dark urine, fatigue, weakness
Fever
Easy bruising
Mucocutaneous bleeding - menorrhagia, epistaxis
GI symptoms - diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, abdo pain
Renal failure - oligouria/anuria, haematuria

73
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A
Pallor (due to anaemia)
Jaundice (due to haemolysis)
Bruising (severe thrombocytopenia)
Generalised oedema
Hypertension
Retinopathy 

Gastrointestinal: Abdominal tenderness

CNS: Weakness, reduced vision, fits, reduced consciousness

74
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for thrombotic thrombocytopenia prupura?

A

FBC - thrombocytopenia, normocytic anaemia, increased reticulocytes
Creatinine and urea - elevated due to renal failure
Increased potassium, decreased sodium
LDH increased
Unconjugated bilirubin - elevated

Peripheral blood smear - schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, increased reticulocytes, spherocytes

Urinalysis - haematuria, proteinuria

ADAMTS13 activity assay - decreased

75
Q

Define antiphospholipid syndrome

A

An autoimmune disease caused by the presence of antiphospholipid autoantibodies, resulting in thrombocytopenia, arterial and venous thrombosis and pregnancy-related morbidity.

76
Q

Summarise the aetiology of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Aetiology unknown
Antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-beta2-glycoprotein-1, anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant cause the formation of thromboses

Risk factors:
History of SLE or autoimmune rheumatological disorders
Other autoimmune diseases
Autoimmune haematological disorders

77
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Can be primary or secondary
Secondary often associated with SLE
More common in young women

78
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
Symptoms of DVT - painful, swollen leg
Headache, seizures
Symptoms of MI, stroke, limb ischaemia
History of miscarriages
History of pregnancy loss or pregnancy related morbidity
History of vascular thrombosis
79
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

New onset murmur - development of Libman-Sacks endocarditis
Livedo reticularis - mottled blue/purple rash
Features of thrombocytopenia - petechial rash, mucosal bleeding
Arthralgia/arthritis
Signs of SLE: Malar Flush, Discoid Lesions, Photosensitivity
Oedema

80
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

FBC - decreased platelets

Clotting Screen - increased APTT

U&Es - increased creatine and urea due to antiphospholipid nephropathy

ELISA Testing for:
Anticardiolipin and Anti-β2-glycoprotein 1 antibodies

Lupus Anti-coagulant Assays:
Clotting assays showing effects of APL on the phospholipid dependent factors in coagulation cascade

81
Q

Define sick cell disease

A

A chronic condition caused by inheritance of HbS, leading to sickling of haemoglobin which results in anaemia, painful crises and red blood cell haemolysis.

82
Q

Summarise the aetiology of sickle cell disease

A

It is an autosomal recessive disorder
Mutation of the 6th amino acid from glutamic acid to valine on the beta globin chain
Causes sickling of RBCs when deoxygenated

Sickled cells are prone to premature destruction and occlusion of small blood vessels, causing painful crises and end organ damage

Sickling precipitated by:
Acidosis
Dehydration
Hypoxia
Infection
83
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of sickle cell disease

A

Common in Africa and south Asia where plasmodium falciparum malaria is common
Symptoms present a few months after birth when HbA overtakes HbF as the predominant haemoglobin

84
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of sickle cell disease?

A

Symptoms due to anaemia:
Fatigue
SOB

Symptoms due to vaso-occlusion:
Hands and feet - dactylitis - swollen painful fingers and toes
Painful crises MAINLY affect the ribs, spine, pelvis & long bones in ADULTS
Pulmonary vessels - acute chest syndrome - chest pain, SOB, cough
Penis - priapism - painful prolonged erection
Renal papillae - haematuria
Auto splenectomy: increased risk of infections with encapsulated organisms (e.g. pneumococcus, meningococcus)
Abdominal Pain (may get bilirubin gallstones)
Myalgia and Arthralgia
CNS - Fits and strokes (hemiplegia)
Retina - Visual loss (proliferative retinopathy)

85
Q

What are the sings on physical examination?

A

Signs of haemolytic anaemia:
Pallor
Scleral icterus
Jaundice

Enlarged cheeks
Hepatomegaly due to extramedullary haematopoeisis

Bone: joint or muscle tenderness or swelling (due to avascular necrosis)
Retina: Cotton wool spots (retinal ischaemia)

Signs secondary to sequestration crisis:
Tachycardia
Splenomegaly (later reduces in size due to splenic atrophy)
Priapism

86
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for sickle cell disease?

A

FBC - anaemia, increased reticulocytes
LFTs - increased LDH and unconjugated bilirubin
Decreased haptoglobin

Protein electrophoresis - HbS dark band as opposed to normal HbA

Peripheral blood smear - Howell-Jolly bodies and target cells (suggest hyposplenism), sickled cells, reticulocytes, anisocytosis (variation in size)

Sickle Solubility Tests: Dithionate added to blood causes increased turbidity in sickle cell disease

Hip X-Ray: Femoral head is a common site of avascular necrosis

MRI or CT Head: If there are neurological complications

87
Q

Summarise the management of sickle cell disease?

A
Advice:
Avoid triggers - excessive exercise, excessive hot or cold, high altitude, dehydration
Good hygiene and nutrition
Genetic counselling
Prenatal screening

Painful occlusive crisis:
Oxygen and IV fluids - remove triggers
IV opioids analgesia
Antibiotics

Prophylaxis due to autosplenectomy:
Penicillin V, regular vaccinations (against capsulated bacteria)

Folic Acid: If severe haemolysis or in pregnancy

HYDROXYUREA: Increases HbF, reduces the frequency and duration of sickle cell crisis

Red Cell Transfusion - For SEVERE anaemia and repeated crises
Need to give with iron chelation to prevent iron overload

Surgical:
Bone marrow transplantation
Joint replacement in cases with avascular necrosis

88
Q

What are the possible complications of sickle cell disease?

A
Increased susceptibility to infection with encapsulated-bacteria
Acute chest syndrome
Priapism
Painful occlusive crises
Anaemia
Bilirubin gallstones
Splenic sequestration
Pulmonary hypertension
Aplastic crises: infection with Parvovirus B19 - temporary cessation of erythropoiesis 
Haemolytic crises 
Cholecystitis 
Renal papillary necrosis 
Leg ulcers 
Cardiomyopathy
89
Q

Summarise the prognosis of sickle cell disease

A

Most patients who manage it well will survive until around the age of 50 years
Mortality is usually the result of pulmonary or neurological complications in ADULTS and infection in CHILDREN
Most common cause of death is upper respiratory tract infection

90
Q

Define haemolytic anaemia

A

Anaemia due to the premature destruction of erythrocytes, leading to decreased RBC lifespan less than 120 days.

91
Q

Summarise the aetiology of haemolytic anaemia

A

Hereditary:
Membrane Defects: Hereditary Spherocytosis, Elliptocytosis
Metabolic Defects: G6PD deficiency, Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Haemoglobinopathies: Sickle cell disease, Thalassemia

Acquired:
Autoimmune: Antibodies attach to erythrocytes - intravascular/extravascular haemolysis
Iso-immune: transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease of the Newborn
Drugs: Penicillin, Quinine (formation of a drug-antibody-erythrocyte complex)
Trauma: Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (caused by RBC fragmentation in abnormal microcirculation) - haemolytic Uraemic syndrome, DIC, malignant hypertension
Infection: Malaria, Sepsis
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

Risk factors:
Autoimmune disorders
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
Prosthetic Heart Valve
Family history of haemoglobinopathy or RBC Membrane Defects 
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
92
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemolytic anaemia

A

COMMON
Genetic causes are prevalent in African, Mediterranean & Middle Eastern populations
Hereditary spherocytosis: most common inherited haemolytic anaemia in Northern Europe

93
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of haemolytic anaemia?

A
Fatigue
Pallor
Shortness of breath
Dizziness
Jaundice
Haematuria
Dark urine
94
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Jaundice
Pallor
Hepatosplenomegaly

95
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for haemolytic anaemia?

A

FBC:
Decreased Hb
Increased reticulocytes, increased MCV, increased unconjugated BR
Decreased haptoglobin (a protein that binds to free Hb released by RBCs)

U&Es: Increased creatinine and urea in Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura or Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

Peripheral Blood Films: Leucoerythroblastic, macrocytosis, nucleated erythrocytes or reticulocytes, polychromasia, specific abnormal cells such as: Spherocytes, Elliptocytes, Sickle Cell, Schistocytes, Malaria Parasites

Urine:
Increased urobilinogen
Haemoglobinuria, Hemosiderinuria

Direct Coombs’ Tests: Tests for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, identifies erythrocytes coated with antibodies

Osmotic fragility test or Spectrin mutation analysis: Identifies membrane abnormalities
Ham’s Test: Lysis of erythrocytes in acidified serum in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
Hb Electrophoresis or Enzyme Assays: To exclude other causes
Bone Marrow Biopsy (rarely performed): Erythroid Hyperplasia

96
Q

Define haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

A triad of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia and acute kidney failure. Most commonly diarrhoea-associated and caused by enterohaemorrhagic e.coli, causing a prodrome of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain.

Associated with TPP which also has fever and neurological symptoms more than the abdominal and kidney features.

97
Q

Summarise the aetiology of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A
Diarrhoea associated:
Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
Shigella
Camplyobacter
Salmonella

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome:
Genetic mutations
Medication - COCP, Ciclosporin, Mitomycin, 5-Flurouracil
Autoimmune

Other causes: malignant hypertension, malignancy, pregnancy, SLE, scleroderma

98
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Uncommon
Diarrhoea-positive HUS caused by shiga-toxin producing e. coli most common in CHILDREN
TTP mainly affects adult females

99
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Symptoms of e. coli infection:
Bloody diarrhoea
Abdominal pain

Symptoms of MAHA:
Pallor
Fatigue
Jaundice
Weakness
Lethargy

Symptoms of thrombocytopenia:
Easy bruising
Purpura

Symptoms of acute kidney failure:
Oligo/anuria
Haematuria

TTP:
Fever
CNS changes - visual disturbance, altered mental status

100
Q

What are the signs on physical examination of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
Fever
Hepatosplenomegaly
Pallor
Jaundice
Purpura
Abdominal tenderness
Periorbital oedema
Peripheral oedema

CNS (especially in TTP): Weakness, reduced vision, fits, reduced consciousness

101
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

FBC - thrombocytopenia, normocytic anaemia, increased neutrophils
LDH - raised
ESR/CRP - raised
Unconjugated bilirubin - elevated
U+Es - increased urea, creatinine and K+, decrease Na+
PT and PTT - normal

Peripheral blood smear - schistocytes, helmet cells

Urinalysis - haematuria, proteinuria, increased urea and creatinine

Stool culture