Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the clinical tetrad of narcolepsy

A

Patients with narcolepsy present with a clinical tetrad of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis.

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2
Q

Define Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

GBH aka Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.

demyelinating disease of the PNS

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3
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

An inflammatory process where antibodies after a recent infection reacts with self-antigen on myelin or neurons.

There are rare axonal variants with no demyelination.

Often no aetiological trigger is identified (idiopathic in about 40%), in other cases: .

  • Post-infection (1– 3 weeks): BACTERIAL: (e.g. Campylobacter jejuni, mycoplasma pneumoniae) or VIRAL: HIV, herpes viruses (e.g. zoster, CMV, EBV). .
  • Malignancy (lymphoma, Hodgkin’s disease).
  • Post-vaccination (including flu vaccine!)

Note that the bacteria and viruses don’t directly damage the myelin sheath. They have antigens that look similar to the lipids in the myelin sheath. Aka molecular mimicry. So the myelin becomes an autoantigen (=normal component of the cell triggers an immune response).

The myelin autoantigens are bound by dendritic cell, which then activates helper T cell, which releases cytokines to activate B cells which produce Abs against the myelin, and macrophages, which bind to the Abs and strip the myelin off.

The demyelination is segmental (happens in patches along the axon).

At first you get remyelination, as Schwann cells try to make more myelin, but eventually the myelin depletes as the schwann cells can’t keep up

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4
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

Annual UK incidence is 1– 2 in 100 000. Affects all age groups.

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5
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

Based on nerves affected

Progressive symptoms of 1 month duration of:

  • Ascending paraesthesia (affects nerves that convey vibration and touch sensation)
  • Ascending symmetrical limb weakness (lower > upper).

Cranial nerve involvement (e.g. dysphagia, dysarthria and facial weakness). Double vision

In severe cases, the respiratory muscles may be affected.

Autonomic: constipation, urinary incontinence

Miller– Fisher variant (rare) : Opthalmoplegia, ataxia and arreflexia.

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6
Q

Recognise the signs of Guillain-Barré syndrome on physical examination

A

General motor: hypotonia, flaccid paralysis, arreflexia (typically ascending upward from feet to head)

General sensory: impairment of sensation in multiple modalities (typically ascending upward from feet to head)

Cranial nerve palsies (less frequently): Facial nerve weakness (lower motor neuron pattern), abnormality of external ocular movements, signs of bulbar palsy. If pupil constriction is affected, consider botulism

Type II respiratory failure: Identify early. Co2 flat, bounding pulse, drowsiness.Can be insidious and needs regular assessment

Autonomic function: Assess for postural BP change and arrhythmia, urinary difficulties and constipations

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7
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barré syndrome and interpret the results

Briefly, treatment?

A
  1. Lumbar puncture: increased CSF protein/albumin (albuminocytologic dissociation) but white cell count and glucose normal (but normal CSF shouldn’t delay treatment if there is high clinical suspicion)
  2. Nerve conduction study: reduced conduction velocity or conduction block, but can be normal in early phase of disease
  3. Blood: anti-ganglioside Abs +ve in the Miller-Fisher variant and 25% of GBS cases; consider C. jejuni serology
  4. Spirometry: reduced FVC indicated ventilatory weakness
  5. ECG: arrhythmia may develop (sign of autonomic dysfunction)

Treatment for control of symptoms and to calm the immune system:

  • IVIg
  • Plasmapheresis

People typically recover over a few months

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8
Q

Outline the order that reflexes are lost in in GBH

A

Firstly ankle reflex, then patella and arm reflexes

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9
Q

Define motor neurone disease

What are the subtypes?

A

A progressive neurodegenerative disorder of cortical, brainstem and spinal motor neurons (lower and upper motor neuron).

Various subtypes:

  1. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) or Lou Gehrig’s disease: combined degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones producing a mix of UMN and LMN neurones.
  2. Progressive muscular atrophy variant: Only LMN signs, e.g. flail arm or flail foot syndrome. Better prognosis.
  3. Progressive bulbar* palsy variant: 1 Dysarthria and dysphagia with wasted fasciculating tongue (LMN) and brisk jaw jerk (UMN).
  4. Primary lateral sclerosis variant: UMN pattern of weakness, brisk reflexes, extensor plantar responses, without LMN signs.
    * the bulbar region is made up of the brain stem minus the midbrain and plus the cerebellum
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10
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of motor neurone disease

A

Unknown.

Free radical damage and glutamate excitotoxicity have been implicated because mutations in superoxide dismutase (SOD1 gene) affect 20% with familial motor neuron disease and 1– 4% of sporadic cases.

SOD1 codes for a metalloenzyme for the conversion of free radicals.

Pathology: Progressive motor neuron degeneration and death with gliosis replacing lost neurons. Neurons may exhibit intracellular inclusions (neurofilaments or ubiquinated inclusions) containing the TAR-DNA binding protein 43 (TDP-43).

Association: Associated with frontotemporal lobar dementia (FTLD) from proganulin mutations.

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11
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of motor neurone disease

A

Rare mean age 55. 5-10% could have family history with autosomal dominant inheritance

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12
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease

A

Weakness of limbs (focal or asymmetrical)

Speech disturbance (slurring or reduced volume)

Swallowing disturbance (choking on food/nasal regurg)

Behavioural changes (disinhibition, emotional lability)

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13
Q

Recognise the signs of motor neurone disease on physical examination

A

Combination of UMN and LMN signs, offten affecting several regions ASYMMETRICALLY

LMN: muscle wasting, fasciculations (particularly on tongue), depressed/absent reflex

UPM: spastic weakness, brisk reflexes, extensor plantars

Sensory examination: SHOULD BE NORMAL

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14
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for motor neurone disease and interpret the results

A

investigations aimed to confirm the diagnosis by providing evidence of combined UMN and LMN loss and excluding other causes.
Diagnosis is made with clinical reference, with a
nerve conduction study
, and electromyography

Blood: mildly raised CK, ESR. Consider testing for anti-GM1 ganglioside Abs (present in multifocal motor neuropathy,a progressive disorder that does not affect the brain, and isn’t MND)

Nerve conduction studies: Most often normal

Electromyography (EMG): Features of acute and chronic denervation with giant motor unit action potentials in more than 1 limb and/or paraspinals. EMG is an obligatory investigation in motor neurone disease to demonstrate the widespread denervation and fasciculation required for secure diagnosis

MRI: to exclude cord or root compression, and brainstem lesion in progressive bulbar palsy variant. May show high signal in motor tracts on T2 imaging

Spirometry: to assess respiratory muscle weakness (FVC)

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15
Q

Define:

i. bulbar palsy
ii. psuedobulbar palsy
iii. multifocal motor neuropathy

A

1 Bulbar palsy: Any lesion affecting cranial nerves (IX– XII) at nuclear, nerve or muscle level, presenting with nasal speech, nasal regurgitation of food, especially fluids (palatal weakness), reduced gag reflex, absent jaw jerk, wasted fasciculating tongue.

  1. Pseudobulbar palsy: Any UMN (corticobulbar) lesion to the lower brainstem, presenting with monotonous or explosive speech, dysphagia, increased gag reflex, brisk jaw reflex, shrunken immobile tongue, emotional lability, UMN limb spasticity and weakness.
  2. Multifocal motor neuropathy: Characterized by asymmetrical LMN signs. Important to distinguish from MND as treatable. Motor nerve conduction studies show evidence of conduction block, representing focal demyelination. Associated with GM1 autoantibodies. Treatable with intravenous immunoglobulin, steroids or immunosuppression.
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16
Q

Define encephalitis

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma.

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17
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of encephalitis

  • What about in immunocompromised?
  • Non infective causes?
A

In the majority of cases encephalitis is the result of a viral infection.

Virus : Most common in the UK is HSV. Other viruses are herpes zoster, mumps, adenovirus, coxsackie, echovirus, enteroviruses, measles, EBV, HIV, rabies (Asia), Nipah (Malaysia) and arboviruses transmitted by mosquitoes, e.g. Japanese B encephalitis (Asia), St. Louis and West Nile encephalitis (USA).

Non-viral: (rare) e.g. syphilis, Staphylococcus aureus.

Immunocompromised : CMV, toxoplasmosis, Listeria.

Autoimmune or paraneoplastic: May be associated with antibodies e.g. anti-NMDA or antiVGKC.

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18
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of encephalitis

A

Annual UK incidence is 7.4 in 100 000.

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19
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of encephalitis

A

Subacute (hours to days): Headache, fever, n&v, neck stiffness, photophobia, (i.e. symptoms of meningism meningoencephalitis) with behavioural changes, drowsiness and confusion

Often seizures

Focal neurological symptoms (dysphasia and hemiplegia) may be present

Obtain detailed travel Hx

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20
Q

Recognise the signs of encephalitis on physical examination

A

Reduced level of consciousness with deteriorating GCS, seizures, pyrexia

Signs of meningism: neck stiffness, photophobia, kernig’s test +ve (as it is in SAH).

Signs of increased ICP: papilloedema, HTN, bradycardia

Focal neurological signs, minimental examination may reveal cognitive or psuchiatric disturbances

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21
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for encephalitis and interpret the results

MRI findings if HSV?
U&Es findings?

A

Bloods:
FBC (raised lypmh), U&E (SIADH may occur), glucose (compare with CSF glucose- low CSF glucose compared to plasma are seen in bacterial meningitis, malignant involvement of meninges and sarcoidosis, but normal in viral infections of the CNS), viral serology, ABG

MRI/CT brain: excludes mass lesion, HSV produces OEDEMA OF THE TEMPORAL LOBE on MRI

LP: Increase lymphocytes, monocytes, protein but glucose usually notmal. CSF culture is difficult, viral PCR now first line

EEG: May show epileptiform activity, e.g. spiking activity in temporal libes

Brain biopsy: very rarely performed

LP: blood (rule out SAH)

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22
Q

..

A

..

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23
Q

..

A

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24
Q

….

A

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25
Q

A

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26
Q

Define meningitis

A

Inflammation of the leptomeningeal (pia mater and arachnoid) coverings of the brain, most commonly caused by infection.

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27
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of meningitis

A

BACTERIAL:

Babies <3 months:
Group B streptococcus, E Coli, L monocytogenes

Children and babies >3 months:
N meningitidis, S pneumoniae, H influenzae (now rare due to vaccine).

Adults:
N meningitidis, S pneumoniae, TB

Elderly:
S pneumoniae, L monocytogenes

*Staph Aureus with Hx of neurosurgical procedures of trauma to the head

Other, less common but important bacterial causes:

  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Hx of exposure to TB, e.g. infants in endemic areas)
  • Lyme meningitis (spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi, Hx travel to endemic region)
  • Rock mountain spotted fever (Rickeettsia reicketsii, carried by dog tick, endemic to central & south america)
  • Neurosyphilis (rare in sexually active individuals esp immunocompromised ones)

ASEPTIC:
VIRAL:
Enteroviruses (Coxsackie or Echovirus) are most commmon cause of viral meningitis, mumps, HSV, VZV, HIV.

FUNGAL:
Cryptococcus (associated with HIV infection).

PARASITES:
Naegleria fowleri: “brain eating amoeba)

OTHERS: Aseptic meningitis, Mollaret’s meningitis

RISK FACTORS: 
Close communities (e.g. dormitories), basal skull fractures, mastoiditis, sinusitis, inner ear infections, alcoholism, immunodeficiency, splenectomy, sickle cell anaemia, CSF shunts, intracranial surgery.
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28
Q

Most common cause of aseptic meningitis?

A

Aseptic meningitis : Characterized by clinical and laboratory evidence for meningeal inflammation and negative routine bacterial cultures

Most common cause entrovirus

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29
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of meningitis

A

TRIAD: Fever, headache, , neck rigidity,

Other common: photophobia, irritability, drowsiness, vomiting, high-pitched crying or fits. clouding of consciousness.

Time course:
Acute bacterial meningitis & HSV meningoencephalitis- Hrs to few days

Viral meningitis, cryptococcal meningitis : days to weeks

TB, sypholis: over months

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30
Q

Recognise the signs of meningitis on physical examination

A

Signs of meningism: Photophobia, neck stiffness (Kernig’s sign: with hips flexed, pain/resistance on passive knee extension; Brudzinski ‘s sign: flexion of hips on neck flexion).

Signs of infection:
Fever, tachycardia and hypotension, skin rash (petechiae with meningococcal septicaemia), altered mental state.

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31
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for meningitis and interpret the results

-What do 2 of the main causative organisms look like under microscopy

A

Blood: 2 sets of blood cultures (do not delay Abx)

Imaging: CT scan to exclude mass lesion/raised ICP before doing an LP (or it may lead to cerebral herniation during subsequent CSF removal)/

CT head must be done before LP in patients with: immunodeficiency, history of CNS disease, reduced consciousness, fit, focal neuro deficit or papilloedema

LP: Note opening CSF pressure. Send CSF for microscopy with, culture, sensitivity and Gram staining ( Streptococcus pneumoniae : Gram-positive diplococcic, Neisseria Meningitidis : gram-negative diplococcic), biochemistry and cytology.

Bacterial infection on LP: cloudy CSF, WBCs in 1000s with neutrophil pleocytosis (>80%), protein, reduced glucose (CSF: serum glucose ration of <0/5)

Viral infection on LP: WBCs in 100s with lymphocytic pleocytosis (>50%), protein but NORMAL glucose

Note that in fungal and TB meningitis, WBCs in 100s but there is mononuclear pleocytosis (>50%)

TB: Fibrinous CSF, increased lymphocytes. raised protein and reduced glucose

Staining of petechiae scrapings may detect meningococcus in ~70%. Additional studies e.g. viral PCR, staining/culture for mycobacteria and fungi, HIV test depending on the clinical presentation/CSF findings.

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32
Q

Generate a management plan for meningitis

A

ABx:
Immediate IV/IM antibiotics if meningitis suspected (before lumbar puncture or CT).

Third-generation cephalosporin are given because they can cross the BBB! (cefotaxime 2 g qds or ceftriaxone 2 g bd). The reason is that Benzylpenicillin may be given as initial blind therapy and for sensitive meningococci and pneumococi.

Amoxicillin þ gentamicin for Listeria .

For penicillin and cephalosporin resistant pneumococci: add vancomycin and if necessary rifampicin.

If there is history of anaphylaxis to penicillin or cephalosporins or if the organism is resistant to these, use chloramphenicol.

Give rifampicin for 2 days to patients treated with benzylpenicillin or chloramphenicol (to eliminate nasopharyngeal carriage).

DEXAMETHASONE:
IV (10 mg QDS for 4 days) given shortly before or with first dose of antibiotics. Continue in pneumococcal or H. influenzae meningitis: reduced complications: death ( S. pneumoniae ) and hearing loss ( H. influenza ). Avoid dexamethasone if HIV is suspected.

RESUSCITATION: best managed in ITU

PREVENTION: (only applicable to meningococcal meningitis): Notify public health services and consult a consultant in communicable disease control for advice regarding chemoprophylaxis (e.g. rifampicin for 2 days) and vaccination for close contacts. Vaccination against meningococcal serogroups A and C. (Note that there is no vaccine for serogroup B, the most common serological group

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33
Q

Identify the possible complications of meningitis and its management

A

Sensorineural deafness is most common

Subdural effusions occur secondary to Haemophilus influenzae meningitis and may progress to a subdural empyema.

.Septicaemia, shock, DIC, renal failure, fits, peripheral gangrene, cerebral oedema, cranial nerve lesions, cerebral venous thrombosis, hydrocephalus, Waterhouse– Friderichsen syndrome (bilateral adrenal haemorrhage).

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34
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with meningitis

A

Mortality rate from bacterial meningitis is high (10– 40% with meningococcal sepsis). In developing countries mortality rate often higher. Viral meningitis self-limiting.

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35
Q

What is aseptic meningitis

A

This is when the meningitis is caused by either viruses, mycobacteria (e.g. TB), fungi or parasites

Because routine bacterial cultures of the CSF will be -ve in these cases.

Note that bacterial meningitis is NOT aseptic

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36
Q

How can you distinguish pure encephalitis from meningitis

A

Abnormal brain function in pure encephalitis but not meningitis

Meningeal irritation symptoms (such as neck rigidity) in meningitis but not pure encephalitis

Seizures in both.

Note that meningeal irritation symptoms may occur in meningoencephalitis

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37
Q

Petechiae would point towards which kind of meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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38
Q

Red maculopapular rash on wrists and ankles would point towards which kind of meningitis

A

Rock mountain spotted fever

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39
Q

The following features point towards which kind of meningitis:

Bull’s eye rash (erythema chronicum migrans)

Bilateral facial nerve palsy

Cardiac arrhythmias

A

Lyme disease meningitis

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40
Q

Flaccid paralysis of the extremeties is charactersitc of what kind of meningitis

A

West nile virus

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41
Q

Parotitis is suggestive of which kind of meningitis

A

Mumps

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42
Q

What kind of things would prompt suspicion of TB meningitis

A

If they also had pulmonary infiltrates, lymphadenopathy and a +ve tuberculin skin test

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43
Q

What would lead you to add IV acyclovir onto empiric Abx in a meningitis patient

A

If individual has features of encephalitis: abnornal brain function, fussiness or lethargy in infants, temporal lobe enhancement on CT

Crucial to NOT DELAY acyclovir if HSV enceph is a possibility

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44
Q

TB meningitis often involves which part of the brain

A

The brainstem

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45
Q

Discuss the levels of protein compared to normal (15-20 mg/dL) in the CSF in:

Bacterial, viral, fungal and TB meningitis

A

Bacterial 100-500
Viral 15-200
Fungal 15-200
TB 100-500

Bacteria and TB cause higher levels of protein in the CSF because they cause more inflammation, which increases the permeability of the BBB more than the other causes of meningitis, allowing more protein in

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46
Q

Discuss the level of glucose in the CSF, and the glucose CSF:serum ration in bacterial vs viral vs fungi meningitis and why

A

In bacterial/fungi the glucose will be reduced, but in viral it will be normal

This is because bacterial/fungal inflammation causes less gluocse to enter through the BBB as it blocks the glucose transporters

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47
Q

What is the diagnostic method for TB meningitis

A

TB PCR preferred because it is more sensitive and faster

Looking for AFB on microscope takes weeks and is low yield

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48
Q

What is the cryptococal meningitis diagnostic method

A

India ink stain showing broad budding yeast and a thick fungal capsule that does not take up the stain

The cryptococcal capsular antigen test is more sensitive and more commonly used

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49
Q

What coccidoidal meningitis diagnostic method

A

Small spherules on microscopic examination

but serum serology is now mainstay

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50
Q

Presecnce of what in the CSF suggests herpes simplex encaphalitis

A

Presence of RBCs

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51
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A

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52
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53
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54
Q

….

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55
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….

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56
Q

A

….

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57
Q

Define Bell’s palsy

Course of the facial nerve

Functions of the facial nerve

A

Weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face, caused by damage to the seventh cranial nerve, which is the facial nerve

The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, emerges from the brainstem, and then enters the temporal bone where it travels through a narrow, Z-shaped canal, called the facial canal.

The facial nerve exits the skull through a tiny hole called the stylomastoid foramen.

  • Innervates facial muscles
  • Innervates the sublingual and submandibular glands, which secrete saliva, the lacrimal gland which produces tears, and mucous membranes of the nose, mouth, and nasopharynx.
  • it innervates the stapedius muscle which dampens the vibration of the stapes, a small bone that help transmit vibrations from the eardrum; this protects you from loud noises.
  • carries sensory information about taste from the anterior ⅔ of the tongue.
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58
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Bell’s palsy

A

The underlying cause of cranial nerve damage is idiopathic which means it’s unknown, so when there’s facial nerve a paralysis from a known cause like a stroke, a tumor, or trauma, it’s not considered a Bell’s palsy.

Bell’s palsy occurs when the facial nerve gets damaged, and although the precise cause is unknown, it’s often associated with viral infections like:

  • herpes simplex virus,
  • Epstein-Barr virus, and varicella-zoster virus
  • the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi which causes lyme disease.

RISK FACTORS:
Age (peak incidence > 50), diabetes mellitus, pregnancy (third trimester), early postpartum

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59
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy

A

.

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60
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy

A

Unilateral facial weakness (evolves rapidly over 48hr)

Absence of nasolabial fold

Drooping of eyelid

Drooping of mouth

Dryness of affected eye/mouth

Hypersensitivity to loud noises (hyperacusis)

Loss of taste sensation on anterior 2/3 of tongue (ageusia)

(relate all of these to the function of the facial nerve)

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61
Q

Recognise the signs of Bell’s palsy on physical examination

mnemonic

A

Unilateral facial weakness (evolves rapidly over 48hr)

Absence of nasolabial fold

Drooping of eyelid

Drooping of mouth

Dryness of affected eye/mouth

Hypersensitivity to loud noises (hyperacusis)

Loss of taste sensation on anterior 2/3 of tongue (ageusia)

(relate all of these to the function of the facial nerve)

Mnemonic: 
Blink reflex abnormal 
Ear sensitivity 
Lacrimation: deficient, excess 
Loss of taste, 
Sudden onset 
Palsy: CN VII nerve muscles (all symptoms unilateral)
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62
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy and interpret the results

A

Lab: serological testing if viral infection suspected

Motor nerve conduction studies can be performed if there is no recovery after a few weeks to assess for the presence of axonal degeneration

Others:
House-brackmann facial nerve dysfunction classification

Palpebral-oculogyric reflex (Bell phenomenon): attempted eyelid closure –>upward eye deviation

Reduced pinprick sensation in posterior auricular area

Reduced taste

The diagnosis of a Bell’s palsy is based on identifying that the problem is with the facial nerve and not finding an alternative explanation like a stroke or brain tumor.

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63
Q

Generate a management plan for Bell’s palsy

A

Treatment isn’t needed in all cases of Bell’s palsy, but in some severe cases, corticosteroids can help reduce the nerve inflammation and speed up the recovery.

In most cases, symptoms usually subside on their own

Other: artifical tears, eye patching (reduce corneal damage risk), physical therapy (facial exercise, NM retraining)

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64
Q

Identify the possible complications of Bell’s palsy and its management

A

Permanent facial weakness or paralysis

You might get severe ectropian requiring partial lidsuturing

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65
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Bell’s palsy

A

Most people recover within 6 months after the onset, but some people develop permanent facial weakness or paralysis.

Most patients with partial paralysis recover completely and rapidly, although in those with complete paralysis recovery may not occur until after 3 months. Recovery may be incomplete and in some patients with axonal degeneration abnormal reconnections may occur e.g. production of tears on eating. Surgery should not be considered until time for recovery (> 3 months) has been allowed.

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66
Q

How would you differentiate stroke from bell’s palsy with regard to facial weakness.

Explain this

A

The lower motor neurons innervating the bottom half of the face receive innervation from upper motor neurons originating on the contralateral side

The lower motor neurons innervating the top half of the face receive innervation from upper motor neurons originating on both the ipsilateral and the contralateral side (i.e. they have dual innervation)

Thus, in a stroke (affecting the upper motor neurons), the top half of the face will be spared, because the stroke will only affect one side of the brain, but the lower motor neurons for the top half of the face receive dual innervation, so they will still receive innervation from the upper motor neuron not affected by the stroke

HOWEVER,

In Bell’s palsy, there is a disease of the LOWER motor neuron so although both the ipsilateral and contralateral supply to the lower motor neuron is fine, the damage to the lower motor neuron itself means that the muscles in the top half of the face will be paralysed

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67
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

4 types (one doesn’t qualify as MS)

A

Autoimmune condition where inflammatory plaques of demyelination in the cns disseminated in space and time;

ie occuring at multiple sites, with ≥30d in between attacks

Demyelination heals poorly, eventually causing axonal loss; >80% of patients develop progressive disability.

  1. Relapsing, remitting (commonest. Complete recovery in between attacks)
  2. Clinically isolated syndrome (single clinical attack of demyelination. Not actually MS, but 10-15% develop it after)
  3. Primary progressive MS (steadily accumulation of disability with no relapsing-remitting pattern)
  4. Secondary progressive:
    Symptoms worsen more steadily over time, with or without the occurrence of relapses and remissions. Most people who are diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis will transition to SPMS at some point (due to poor axonal healing)
  5. Marburg variant (severe filminant variant of MS leading to advanced disability or death within a period of weeks)
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68
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of multiple sclerosis

A

The exact cause of the disease remains unknown; it is most likely a combination of genetic and environmental factors.

Immune-mediated damage to CNS myelin results in impaired conduction along axons. There is also associated grey matter atrophy.

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction! T cells attacking myelin. This then causes antibody reaction to myelin and cell mediated attack of oligodendrocytes.

Leaves behind plaques.

Risk factors:
-Role for EBV exposure and prenatal vitamin D levels have been proposed based on epidemiological studies.

  • Strong concordance in monozygotic versus dizygotic twins (25% vs 3%).
  • HLA-DR 2
  • Geographical variation (temperate > tropical) with individuals carrying the risk of their pre-pubertal ( < 13 years) country of origin.
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69
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Mean age of onset is 30yrs. ♀:♂ ≥3:1.

Rare in tropical countries

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70
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A

Depends on site of inflammation

  1. Optic neuritis (commonest)- unilatral deterioration in visual acuity and colour perception + PAIN on eye movement
  2. Sensory system: Pins and needles, numbness, burning.
  3. Motor: Limb weakness, spasms, stiffness, heaviness.
  4. Autonomic: Urinary urgency, hesitancy, incontinence, impotence.
  5. Psychological: Depression, psychosis.

Uhthoff’s phenomenon: Transient increase or recurrence of symptoms due to conduction block precipitated by a rise in body temperature. (body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, fever, or saunas and hot tubs!)

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71
Q

Recognise the signs of multiple sclerosis on physical examination

What would fundoscopy show in active vs chronic disease

Which structure is likely to be affected in each case:

  • Central scotoma
  • Field defects
A

CLASSICALLY: CHARCOT’S NEUROLOGIC TRIAD:

1) Dysarthria (difficult/unclear speech and swallowing)
2) Nystagmus (involuntary rapid eye movements) + plaques in the eyes
3) Intention tremor (plaques along motor pathways)

  • Optic neuritis 1 : Impaired visual acuity (most common), loss of coloured vision. On fundoscopy, in active disease, there is a swollen optic nerve head, in chronic disease, there may be optic atrophy.
  • Visual field testing: Central scotoma (optic nerve affected) or field defects (optic radiations affected).
  • RAPD: Both pupils contract when light is shone on the unaffected side, both pupils dilate when light is swung to the diseased (eye).
  • Internuclear opthalmoplegia: when trying to look horizontally, there is a failure of adduction of the contralteral eye, indicating a lesion of the contralateral MLF. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NAz_g3FDPjw
  • Sensory: Paraesthesia (vibration and joint position sense loss more common than pain and temperature).
  • Motor: UMN signs (e.g. spastic weakness, brisk reflexes).
  • Cerebellar: Limb ataxia (intention tremor, past-pointing and dysmetria on finger-nose test and heel-shin test), dysdiadochokinesis, ataxic wide-based gait, scanning speech.
  • Lhermitte’s phenomenon: Electric shock-like sensation in arms and legs precipitated by neck flexion.
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72
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for multiple sclerosis and interpret the results

A

Diagnosis based on two or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, separated in time and space (McDonald criteria).

FIRST INVESTIGATION: MRI-brain, cervical and thoracic spine (with gadolinium contrast): Plaque detection is highlighted as high-signal lesions -“white matter plaques”.
This can monitor disease progression and help diagnosis

Lumbar puncture: Microscopy to exclude other infective or inflammatory causes. CSF electrophoresis shows unmatched oligoclonal bands. Their presence suggests inflammation of the central nervous system due to infection or another disease. If similar bands aren’t present in your blood, you may have multiple sclerosis (MS).

Evoked potentials: Visual, auditory or somatosensory evoked potentials (VEP, BEP, SEP) may show delayed conduction velocity. VEPs are delayed in ~90% of patients with MS.

Visual evoked potentials are used to investigate patients with no clinically obvious or acute optic neuritis who are suspected to have multiple sclerosis (MS), or when there is diagnostic uncertainty about the cause of visual loss. It gives an objective measure of visual pathway function.

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73
Q

What is todd’s paralysis. How to deal with it

A

Post-ictal neurologic dysfunction (i.e. dysfunction in the altered stage of consciousness following a seizure)

Affects same area of brain from which seizure originated ranging from motor, sensory or special sense dysfunction including speech, hearing and vision.

Todd’s paralysis usually affects the same areas in which the seizure originated. It can also affect speech, gaze, and vision.

It can later go through secondary generalisation (i.e. spread to rest of body).

Self-limited condition but can require work up for other causes of paralysis e.g. stroke

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74
Q

What is conversion disorder

A

Conversion disorder describes a condition of neurologic dysfunction with no identifiable organic cause.

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75
Q

What is malingering. How can you tell if a patient is malingering paralysis

A

Malingering is the deliberate feigning of symptoms to achieve secondary gain, such as a patient faking abdominal pain to receive a prescription for narcotic pain medications.

Patients who act paralyzed often display give-away weakness. This includes maintenance of strength for a brief period followed by voluntary muscle relaxation.

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76
Q

Status epilepticus. How long must the seizure have been going on for

A

Convulsive (i.e. includes marker motor symptoms e.g. tonic clonic movements) >5mins.

If non-convulsive, lasting >10 mins

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77
Q

What type of symptoms would you get from embolic stroke in:

anterior cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

posterior cerebral artery

A

Anterior cerebral artery injury affects the sensory and motor cortices of the lower extremity, and results in contralateral paralysis and sensory loss of that limb only. It would not affect the face or upper extremity. Behavioural changes

Middle cerebral artery

  • affects the sensory and motor cortices of the face> upper extremity> leg
  • Broca area, and Wernicke area so problems with speech fluency/language comprehension problem
  • loss of contralateral half of visual field

PCA strokes like diplopia, visual field defects, dysphagia, vertigo, alteration in consciousness, memory impairment, or difficulty reading

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78
Q

T/F in expressive aphasia, the patient’s comprehension will be completely fine

A

F… Comprehension is mildly to moderately impaired in expressive aphasia.

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79
Q

What is:
Global aphasia
Anomic aphasia
Conductive aphasia

A

Global aphasia is a severe impairment of both expressive and receptive skills. It is caused by a large left hemisphere lesion. People are often alert and are able to express themselves through facial expressions, intonation, and gestures.

Anomic aphasia is a mild form of aphasia. The most prominent difficulty is in word-finding, with the person using generic fillers in utterances, such as nonspecific nouns and pronouns, or circumlocution, where the person describes the intended word. Comprehension and repetition of words, and sentences is typically good.

Conductive aphasia is characterized by prominent impairment with repetition. Damage typically involves the arcuate fasciculus and the left parietal region. The patient is able to express him- or herself fairly well, with some word-finding issues, and comprehension can be functional.

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80
Q

Anterior spinal cord syndrome would lead to what picture

A

Knowledge of this syndrome relies on the neuroanatomic knowledge of the cross-sectional spinal cord tract pathways:

  1. pain/temperature via spinothalamic tract,
  2. motor via corticospinal tracts, and
  3. tactile/vibration sensation via dorsal column medial lemniscus (DCML) tracts.

ACS leads to ischemia of the former two anteriorly located tracts, with preservation of the DCML tract, as supplied by the posterior spinal artery.

Presents with bilateral motor and temperature/pain sensory deficits, with intact pinpoint and vibratory sensation due to the preserved dorsal DCML pathways.

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81
Q

Differentiate the neurologic defecits caused by b12 and folate deficieny

A

Whereas B12 deficiency will have loss of proprioception, folate deficiency will not have any neurologic dysfunction.

This is because Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to an accumulation of methylmalonic acid which causes dysfunction of the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tract. This relatively rare symptom is known as subacute combined degeneration. These patients will have ataxia and loss of proprioception.

Note that b12 deficiency will also lead to macrocytic and megaloblasic anaemia

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82
Q

Define Parkinson’s disease

A

Neurodegenerative disease of the dopaminergic neurones of the substantia nigra (which project to the striatum), characterized by bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor and postural instability (a late symptom).

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83
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Parkinson’s disease

What do neurons affected by parkinsons show before they die

What % of neurones need to be affected before symptoms arise

A

Pathophysiology:
-Degeneration of midbrain dopaminergic neurones projecting from the substantia nigra to the striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen).

Surviving neurones often contain eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions called Lewy bodies (Lewy bodies are eosinophilic, made of alpha synuclein proteins).

Patients only symptomatic after > 70% neuronal loss. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic deficiency causes abnormalities of plasticity in the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex.

1) Sporadic and idiopathic (most common) : Unknown. Environmental toxins and oxidative stress have been proposed (e.g. pesticides, wood pulp).

2) Familial forms :
- Genes mutations that cause Parkinson’s Disease are in LRRK2, PARK2 (Parkin), PARK7, PINK1 and SNCA ( a -synuclein) genes.

PINK1, PARKIN, ALPHA SYNUCLEIN genes

3) IN RARE CASES: A toxic impurity cound in recreational drugs (especially MPPP). The impurity is called MPTP

Risk factors:
Pesticide exposure
Gene variants LRRK2

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84
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease

A

.Very common: 1– 2% of > 60-year-olds. Annual incidence is 20 in 100000. Mean age of onset is ~ 57 years.

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85
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

Is the tremor unilateral or bilateral?

How do you distinguish this tremor from benign essential tremor?

A

HISTORY:

Insidious onset.

Tremor AT REST, usually noticed in hands (most present with unilateral UL tremor, this later spreads to involve other limbs). (an intention or action tremor is seen in Benign Essential Tremor, so ensure you distinguish this from Parkinson’s)

Stiffness and slowness of movements

Difficulty initiating movements

Frequent falls

Smaller handwriting (micrographia)

Insomnia, mental slowness (bradyphenia)

NARROW gait

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86
Q

Recognise the signs of Parkinson’s disease on physical examination

A

Pill rolling tremor at rest

Lead pipe rigidity of muscle tone with superimposed tremor (cogwheel rigidity), which can be enhanced by distraction (asking them to raise and lower other arm)

Gait: stooped, simian, shuffling, small-stepped fait with reduced arm swing. Freezing (difficulty initiating walking)

Postural instability: falls easilty with little pressure from back (propulsion) or front (retropulsion)

Others:

  • Frontalis overactivation (furrowing of brow)
  • Hypomimia (expressionless face)
  • Soft monotonous voice (hypophonia)
  • Impaired olfaction
  • Mild impairment of up-gaze and tendency to drool
  • Involuntary movements in one part of the face associated with voluntary movement in another part of the face (synkinesis)

Psych: depression common. Cognitive problems and dementia in late disease

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87
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Parkinson’s disease and interpret the results

How would y ou distinguish from essential tremor

A

Clinical diagnosis:

  • Levadopa trial and clinical assessment after levodopa
  • Blood: Serum ceruloplasmin excludes WILSON’S disease in young onset
  • CT/MRI brain to exclude other causes of gait decline e.g. hydrocephalus, vascular disease
  • Dopamine transporter scintigraphy (DAT scan): reduction in striatum and putamen. May be necessary for distinguishing from essential tremor.
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88
Q

How many substantia nigra in the brain

A

2- one on each side of the midbrain

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89
Q

Where do dopaminergic neurons in the nigrostriatal pathway

A

This is the one affected in parkinson’s.

They go from the substantia nigra, which is in the basal ganglia, up to the striatum (=caudate + putamen) in the motor cortex

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90
Q

Which part of the substantia nigra is affected in parkisons

A

pars compacta

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91
Q

In parkinson’s there is a resting tremor, what does this mean

A

There is a tremor present at rest which DIMINISHES with movement

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92
Q

T/F Parkinson’s disease causes weakness

A

NO!!!!!

This helps differentiate it from other diseases

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93
Q

How might you distinguish parkinsons from cerebellar diseases

A

Because cerebellar disease have action (=intention) tremor, which is the opposite of the resting tremor seen in parkinson’s

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94
Q

How might you distinguish parkinson’s from essential tremor

A

In essential tremor there is no bradykinesia, or postural instability

Note that in Parkinson’s there is NO WEAKNESS.

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95
Q

Outline causes of parkinsonism

A

Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

Side effects of medication:

  • Antipsychotics (haloperidol, blocking dopamine receptors)
  • Metaclopramide (dopamine antagonist)

Rarely: trauma/boxing, encephalopathy post flu, manganese/copper toxicity, HIV, parkinson’s plus syndromes

Parkinson’s plus syndromes:
Lewy body dementia
Wilson disease
Pick disease (a type of fronto-temporal dementia

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96
Q

What are your red flag signs for parkinson’s plus and why

A

VIVID

V- vertical gaze palsy and early postural instability (this is usually a late feature if it’s PD)–> progressive supranuclear palsy

I- Impotence/incontinence –> multiple system atrophy

V- Visual hallucinations and early dementia–> lewy body dementia

I-Autonomous interfering activity by affected limb–> corticobasal degeneration

D-diabetic/hypertensive patient with pyramidal signs (leg) and falls, ataxia –> vascular parkinsonism

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97
Q

Non-motor features of parkinsonism

A
Loss of smell 
Depression and dementia 
Visual hallucinations 
Dribbling of saliva 
Constipation
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98
Q

Define hydrocephalus

A

Enlargement of the ventricular system in the brain caused by impaired drainage of cerebro-spinal fluid

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99
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of hydrocephalus

A

Divisible into obstructive and npn-obstructive (communicating and non-communicating)

Communicating= impaired outflow of the CSF from the ventricular system:

  1. Lesions of 3rd, 4th ventricle or aqueduct
  2. Posterior fossa lesions compressing 4th ventricle (e.g tumour blood)
  3. Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

Non communicating= impaired CSF resorption in the subarachnoid villi:

  1. Tumours
  2. Meningitis (typically TB)
  3. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (see below)
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100
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hydrocephalus

A

Bimodal age distribution. Congenital malformations and tumours in the young, tumours and strokes in the elderly.

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101
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of hydrocephalus

What about normal pressure hydrocephalus specifically?

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus : Headaches. Vomiting. Seizures. Acute drop in conscious level. Balance problems. Diplopia.

NPH : Chronic cognitive decline, falls, urinary incontinence.

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102
Q

Recognise the signs of hydrocephalus on physical examination

In neonates?

NPH?

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus : Impaired GCS, papilloedema, VI nerve palsy (“false localizing” sign of increased ICP). In neonates, the head circumference may enlarge, and “sunset sign” (downward conjugate deviation of eyes). In children, enlarged head, developmental delay, intellectual disability, muscle spasticity

NPH : Cognitive impairment. Gait apraxia (shuffling). Hyper-reflexia.

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103
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for hydrocephalus and interpret the results

A

CT head : First-line investigation to detect hydrocephalus. May also detect the cause (e.g. tumour in the brainstem).

CSF : Obtained from ventricular drains or lumbar puncture may indicate an underlying pathology (e.g. tuberculosis). Check for MC&S, protein, glucose (CSF and plasma).

The best way to diagnose aqueduct stenosis is with an MRI because it can visualise the entire length of the aqueduct

Lumbar puncture : This is contra-indicated in obstructive hydrocephalus as it can cause tonsilar herniation and death. May be necessary in NPH as a therapeutic trial.

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104
Q

What is hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A

Term used to describe apparent enlargement of ventricles but this is a compensatory change due to brain atrophy

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105
Q

What is normal pressure hydrocephalus.

What are the signs

A

A type of non communicating hydrocephalus.

Idiopathic chronic ventricular enlargement. The long white matter tracts (corona radiata, anterior commisure) are damaged causing gait and cognitive decline.

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106
Q

Hydrocephalus treatment?

A

Manage emergencies with ABC, and manage seizures

Surgical insertion of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Helps to reduce ICP. Implantation of a ventricular catheter into one or both lateral ventricles and connecting it to a subcutaneous drain which leads to the peritoneal cavity. Carries risk of shunt infection, block or malfunction (especially as some are electronic).

Lumbar-peritoneal shunting : Alternative procedure that may be suitable for communicating hydrocephalus. Advanced neurosurgery : Endoscopic ventriculostomy and aqueductoplasty are other options used to bypass blockages or maintain patency for CSF flow.

Also physiotherapy to help develop motor skills

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107
Q

Define epilepsy

Classification of epilepsy

At a basic level, what is more likely to be the cause of each type.

Which is more likely to be preceded by an aura

A

Chronic neurological condition with recurrent seizures

> 2 seizures REQUIRED for diagnosis

Partial (=focal):

  • One hemisphere affected.
  • More likely to be due to a structural abnormality
  • Preceded by aura
    e. g. Frontal lobe focal motor seizure, temporal lobe seizures, frontal lobe complex partial seizures

Partial seizures are usually “simple” (i.e. awareness not impaired, no post-ictal symptoms, auras present), but can also be “complex” (i.e. awareness impaired, post-ictal confusion common, may have auras). Can also undergo secondary generalisation.

Generalised:

  • Both hemispheres
  • LOC occurs
  • More likely idiopathic/congenital
    e. g. Tonic, clonic, tonic-clonic, atonic, myoclonic, absence,
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108
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of epilepsy

A

Classify into provoked (acute symptomatic) seizures (INVITED MD), and unprovoked seizures (which can occur due to a genetic problem, or a metabolic/structural abnormality)

  • Family Hx
  • Febrile convulsions
  • Autism/ADHA
  • Cerebral palsy/stroke

CAUSES:
Idiopathic- 2/3

Infection: meningitis/encephalitis/abscess (including scarring from previously having these infections)

Neoplasm: Tumour

Vascular: stroke, haemorrhage, malignant hypertension or eclampsia

Inflammation: SLE, PAN, rarely MS

Toxic/metabolic: sodium imbalance, hyper- or hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypoxia, prophyria, liver failure)

E-

Drugs, including withdrawal from alcohol and benzos)

Metabolic above

Degenerative: Alzheimer’s disease

PATHO:
Epislepsy results from an imbalance in the inhibitory and excitatory currents (e.g. Na þ or K þ ion channels) or neurotransmission (i.e. glutamate or GABA neurotransmitters) in the brain. Precipitants include any trigger which promotes excitation of the cerebral cortex (e.g. flashing lights, drugs, sleep deprivation, metabolic), but often cryptogenic.

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109
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of epilepsy

A

Common. Prevalence in 1% of general population. Peak age of onset is in early childhood or in the elderly.

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110
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of epilepsy

general seizure history questions, see below for in depth history for each type

A

History:

  • Rapidity of onset
  • Duration
  • Aura (in focal epilepsy)
  • Tongue biting/loss of continence
  • Alteration of consciousness
  • Trigger? Lack of sleep, stress
  • Did anybody witness
  • Jerking?
  • Posticteral state of reduced consciousness?
  • Drug Hx
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111
Q

Recognise the signs of epilepsy on physical examination

A

Depends on aetiology, usually normal between seizures. Look for focal abnormalities indicative of brain lesions.

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112
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for epilepsy and interpret the results

A

Blood: FBC, U&E, LFTs, glucose, Ca 2+ , Mg 2+, prolactin (transient increase shortly after a “true” seizure).

ECG

CT/MRI: For structural, space-occupying and vascular lesions.

EEG (supportive): Helps confirm or refute the diagnosis; assists in classifying the epileptic syndrome. Usually performed inter-ictally and often normal and does not rule out epilepsy. Ictal EEGs combined with video telemetry are more useful but requires adequate facilities.

Other investigations: Particularly for secondary seizures according to suspected aetiology e.g. lumbar puncture, HIV serology. , ABG, toxicology screen,

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113
Q

Generate a management plan for epilepsy

(see management of status epilepticus below)

What are the contraindications for each of the following AEDs:

  • Carbamazepine
  • Valproate

Which drug is to be used in seizures for pregnant women

A

Conservative:

  • Check time (call ambulance if >5 minutes)
  • Protect head and loosen tight clothing.
  • DON’T hold them down, put anything in their mouth, move them unless in danger
  • Put them in recovery position and minimise their embarrassment (hide incontinence) after

Pharmacological:
-Basic: carbamazepine/lamotrigine for partial seizures, valproate for generalised

Partial seizures (+/- secondary generalisation):

  • Carbamazepine, lamotrigine (1st line)
  • Valproate (2nd line)

CLV–>VLC

Tonic-clonic:

  • Valproate, lamotrigine (1st line)
  • Carbamazepine, topiramate (2nd line)

Myoclonic, tonic, atonic:
Same as tonic-clonic but avoiding carbamazepine

Absences:

  • Valproate, ethosuximide (1st line)
  • Lamotrigine (2nd line)

Contraindications:
Carbamazepine: Not to be prescribed if on oral contraceptive pill

Valproate: Highly teratogenic, avoid in women of child bearing age

Lamotrigine: 1st line for pregnant women

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114
Q

Identify the possible complications of epilepsy (incl. status epilepticus) and its management

A

Complications of epilepsy:
-Long seizures can lead to hypoxic brain injury

Complications of epilepsy management:

Antiepileptic drugs, particualry ethosuximide, lamotrigine, carbamezapine, phenytoin, phenobarbital and valproate are notorious for causing skin reactions.

Anticonvulsant Hypersensitivity Syndrome occurs in some patients taking anticonvulsant medication. It is characterised by fever, rash, hepatitis and other multiorgan abnormalities. They should not receive should not receive anticonvulsants in the phenytoin category, carbamazepine, phenobarbitone and lamotrigine.

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115
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with epilepsy

A

.

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116
Q

What is the most common site of a partial (=focal) seizure.

What is the most common cause of these seizures.

Presentation of temporal lobe seizure?

A

TEMPORAL LOBE FOCAL SEIZURE

Most common cause=hippocampal sclerosis

Auras:

  • De ja vu, ja me vu
  • Olfactory/gustatory hallucination
  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Feelings of panic and anger
  • Memory loss
  • Dysphasia
  • Automatisms (lip smacking, chewing, fidgeting etc.)
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117
Q

Presentation of frontal lobe focal motor seizure?

A

This is a type of simple partial seizure

Frontal lobe focal motor seizure:
-Motor convulsions, may demonstrate Jacksonian march (spasm spreading from mouth or digit) followed by post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd’s paralysis)

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118
Q

Presentation of a frontal complex partial seizure

A

Loss of consciousness with associated automatisms and rapid recovery.

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119
Q

Presentation of tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure.

Is there post ictal?

A

This a generalised seizure.

Vague symptoms before an attack (e.g. irritability), followed by tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm), followed by a clonic phase (repetitive synchronous jerks), and associated faecal or urinary incontinence, tongue biting. After a seizure, there is often impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness.

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120
Q

Presentation of absence seizure (petit mal) seizure

Is there post ictal?

A

Usual onset in childhood. Characterized by loss of consciousness but maintained posture (patient stops talking and stares into space for seconds), blinking or rolling up of eyes with other repetitive motor actions (e.g. chewing).

No postictal phase.

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121
Q

Presentation of non-convulsive status epilepticus

A

Acute confusional state. Often fluctuating. Difficult to distinguish from dementia.

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122
Q

Management of status epilepticus. What is status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus >30 mins and failure to regain conscioussness (but treatment often initiated in 5-10 mins) :

  • Secure airway and recovery position
  • o2
  • IV access
  • IV benzodiazepine: lorazepam (or buccal midazolam/rectal diazepam) given over 2 minutes
  • Repeat after 15 minutes if necessary
  • If recur/fail to respond, IV anticonvulsant needed: e.g. phenytoin (15mg/kg) under ECG monitoring. Alternatively, give phenobarbitone, levetiracetam or sodium valproate.
  • If these fail, consider general anaesthesia, requiring intubation and mechanical ventilcaiton
  • Treat cause (correct hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia)
  • Check plasma levels of all anticonvulsants
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123
Q

MOA and side effects of each of the following anticonvulsants:

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin 
Lamotrigine
Ethosuzimide
Valproate
Topiramate
Levetiracetam 

What about interactions

A

Carbamazepine (Na+ channel blocker, extends inactivation)- Hyponatraemia. CI: oral contraceptive pill.

Phenytoin (Na+ blocker) : bone mineralisation, gingial hyperplasia

Lamotrigine (Na+ channel blocker, selective for excitatory NT like glutatmate)- stevens-johnson syndrome

Ethosuximide (Ca2+ channel blocker, thalamic)- sedation

Valproate (many: blocks Na, enhance GABA, block Ca) - foetal malormation

Topiramate (blocks Na, enhances GABA, blocks NMDA) - cognitive impairment/weight loss kidney stones

Levetiracetam (unknown): depression/behavioural/psych issues

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitol all p450 inducers

Valproate is a p450 inhibitor

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124
Q

What is the usual cause of a subarachnoid haemorrhage

What are the signs and symptoms

A

This may occur spontaneously, usually from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm, or may result from head injury.

igns and symptoms of SAH include a severe headache with a rapid onset (“thunderclap headache”), vomiting, confusion or a lowered level of consciousness, and sometimes seizures.

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125
Q

What does CT and LP show for SAH

A

You need to do CT-scan first.

If this has been ruled negative and there are no clinical signs of increased intracranial pressure, a lumbar puncture is the next step in the work-up.

In a CT scan with findings due to SAH, you would see blood pooling in the cisterns.

On LP the fluid looks yellow due to xanthochromia (presence of oxidized RBCs)

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126
Q

`Define subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

An arterial bleed into the space between the arachnoid and pia mater of the meninges

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127
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subarachnoid haemorrhage

Specifically what are the associations too

A

85%: burst saccular aneurys in circle of willis

5%: perimesencephalic haemorrhage (parenchymal hammorhage tracking to surface of prain)

5%: AV malformations, bleeding diatheses, vertbral/carotid artery dissection with intracranial extension/mycotic aneurysm/drug abuse (cocaine and amphetamine)

ASSOCIATIONS:
- HTN, smoking, excess EtOH, SACCULAR ANEURYSMS ASSOCIATED WITH PCKD, marfans, pseudoxanthoma elasticum and Ehlers Danlos syndrome

Head trauma

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128
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Peak in 5th decade

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129
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Sudden onset, thunderclap headache (back of head).

Nausea, vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia

Reduced consciousness

Subarachnoid hemorrhage
(SAH) patients will commonly report having another sudden, severe
headache
one to three weeks prior. These are known as “sentinel
headaches
“ and are thought to be caused by a minor hemorrhage.

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130
Q

Recognise the signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage on physical examination

A

Meningism (blood irritates the meninges):

  • Neck stiffness,
  • Photophobia
  • Kernig’s sign

Pyrexia

Assess GCS

Signs of high ICP:

  • Hypertension with bradycardia
  • Papilloedema,
  • Cranial nerve palsy (IV or III)

Fundoscopy: Rarely subhyaloid haemorrhage between retina and vitreous membrane

Focal neurological signs:
-Usually develop on 2nd day, caused by ischaemia from vasospasm and reduced brain perfusion. Aneurysms may cause pressure on cranial nerves causing opthalmoplegia (classically III or VI nerve palsy)

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131
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage and interpret the results

A

Bloods: FBC, U&E, ESR/CRP, clotting (bleeding diathesis?)

Non contrast CT scan: hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skul caused by blood in the SAH space). Identifies any intraparencymal or intraventricular haemorrhagegs as well

LP: increased opening pressure, increased red cells, few white cells, xanthochromia (confirmed by spectrophotometry of CSF supernatant after centrifugation)

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132
Q

Symptoms resulting from an aneurysm in the right carotid artery?

How would you distinguish that from a pituitary adenoma

A

An aneurysm of the right carotid artery would cause cavernous sinus syndrome and could produce the symptoms related to compression of CN III, IV, VI, V1 and V2. However, the hormonal changes cannot be attributed to an aneurysm of this blood vessel.

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133
Q

Symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension, and who is it most common in

A

Pseudotumor cerebri is a condition characterized by headaches behind the eye. It is most common in obese women, but typically presents with dizziness, nausea and vomiting. The vision loss associated is usually brief, unlike the long-lasting vision loss experienced by the patient.

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134
Q

Define Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Condition by confusion, ataxia and opthalmoplegia

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135
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

What does it usually do?

A

Happens because of the neurological effects of b1 (thiamine) deficiency

1) It is a coenzyme for important enzymes in glucose metabolism
2) In the brain it helps metabolise lipids and carbohydrates and maintain normal AA and neurotransmitter levels
3) In some neurons helps propogate neural impulses down the axon

Specifically, thiamine deficiency impairs glucose metabolism and this leads to a decrease in cellular energy.

The brain is particularly vulnerable to impaired glucose metabolism since it utilizes so much energy.

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136
Q

Differentiate wernicke’s encephalopahty with korsakoff psychosis

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is nystagmus, ophthalmoplaegia and ataxia, together with apathy, disorientation and disturbed memory. Treat urgently with thiamine or may progress to Korsakoff ‘s psychosis.

Korsakoff’s psychosis is characterized by profound impairment of retrograde and anterograde memory with confabulation, as a result of damage to the mammillary bodies and the hippocampus. Irreversible.

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137
Q

How does excess alcohol intake lead to wenicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

1) First, alcohol interferes with the conversion of thiamine to its active form, thiamine pyrophosphate by blocking the phosphorylation of thiamine.
2) Second, thiamine is normally absorbed through the first portion of the small intestine called the duodenum.

However, ethanol prevents this absorption process, and it is believed that alcohol does this by reducing the gene expression for thiamine transporter-1 within the intestinal brush border.

3) Third, chronic alcohol abuse can lead to fatty liver or cirrhosis which interferes with the storage of thiamine within the liver.

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138
Q

Signs and symptoms of wernicke’s-korsakoff syndrome

A

Early on in thiamine deficiency, the cerebellum gets affected and that can affect movement and balance.

In addition, the brainstem can be affected, and that’s the region that gives rise to the cranial nerves that provide motor and sensory innervation to the face and eyes.

If the medulla region of the brainstem is affected, it can impair the heart rate and breathing.

Later findings in thiamine deficiency are hemorrhage and necrosis of the mammillary bodies.

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, meaning weakness or paralysis of the eye muscles, ataxia or unsteady gait, and changes in mental state like confusion, apathy, and difficulty concentrating.

And untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to coma and death if not treated quickly.

Korsakoff syndrome, on the other hand, mainly targets the limbic system, causing severe memory impairment.

One of the characteristic findings of Korsakoff syndrome is confabulation in which the person creates stories to fill in the gaps in their memory which they believe to be true. Not too different from what young children sometimes do in retelling a story.

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139
Q

How do you treat wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

The therapy is an infusion of thiamine over a few days to get rid of the deficiency.

This is then followed by glucose

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140
Q

Why don’t you give glucose before thiamine in the treatment of wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

It’s important to normalize the thiamine levels first, because without thiamine pyrophosphate, most of the glucose will become lactic acid and that can lead to metabolic acidosis.

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141
Q

Drug used to treat partial seizures that has now caused morbiliform rash?

A

Lamotrigine

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142
Q

Why might you want to look at ESR in someone with TIA or stroke

A

Vasculitides can rarely cause TIA’s hence ESR estimation is useful

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143
Q

What investigations would be performed in someone who has had TIAs

A

This patient needs urgent investigation – usually involving carotid doppler ultrasound and CT/MR of the brain (to look for ischaemia, infarct, bleed, tumour)

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144
Q

T/F CT/MR angiography is not used in the initial investigation of a stroke

A

F…

CT/MR angiography can also be used to non-invasively image the carotid vessels. These techniques are usually used to further evaluate carotid stenoses identified with ultrasound.

Conventional angiography is invasive and with risk of stroke is now used less often!

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145
Q

Why is echocardiogram useful for stroke

A

Echocardiogram may also be helpful to assess cardiac function and also can identify mural thrombus/valvular disease/left atrial tumour which can all rarely cause TIA’s.

Echo cardiography may also be useful to assess left ventricular function as a marker of end organ damage secondary to hypertension.

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146
Q

What are the indications for carotid endarectomy

A

Carotid endarterectomy is generally used for patients fit enough to tolerate surgery, who have had a symptomatic TIA/ Stroke with good recovery in the previous 6 months, involving the anterior circulation.

Surgery is beneficial in patients with >70% stenosis and surgery itself is not without a small risk of stroke.

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147
Q

T/F absence of a carotid bruit excludes carotid stenosis

A

Absence of carotid bruit does not exclude a stenosis – indeed a critical stenosis may have almost no flow and bruit will be absent.

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148
Q

Which conditions can mimic a TIA

A

Hypoglycaemia, migraine, AF, glioma

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149
Q

Why are steroids given in the case of brain tumours

A

Steroids are indicated to reduce cerebral oedema around lesions.

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150
Q

What is the most sensitive way of assessing NM respiratory compromise

A

Spirometry

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151
Q

What type of respiratory failure is a patient with GBS likely to develop

A

In the context of GBS, the patient is likely to develop type 2 respiratory failure, with pCO2 rising early and pO2 falling later. Thus O2 saturations are not very sensitive. Imaging (CXR and CT chest) may show elevated diaphragms, basal atelectasis and be useful where secondary respiratory compromise through aspiration or PE is suspected.

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152
Q

How will you differentiate temporal arteritis from trigeminal neuralgia

A

Both can result in pain in in the temporal region, and be worsened by eating, talking, brushing hair.

Loss of vision is exclusive to temporal arteritis

In temporal artertitis the pain is constant and severe.

Trigeminal neuralgia causes intermittent, sharp pain, often in a mandibular/maxillary distribution. Pain can be worsened by eating, talking but is episodic and severe in nature. It is not associated with visual loss.

Trgeminal neuralgia is a symptom of MS!

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153
Q

How would you differentiate a 3rd nerve lesion from horner’s syndrome?

A

A lesion of the sympathetic chain causes a Horner’s syndrome with ptosis but does not affect eye movement.

3rd nerve lesion would cause ptosis and affect eye movement

Also, the ptosis in 3rd nerve palsy may be complete but in horner’s would be very subtle often

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154
Q

T/F: a 3rd nerve lesion can only cause a partial ptosis, but can cause a dilated pupil that is unreactive to light

A

F

A 3rd nerve lesion can cause COMPLETE ptosis AND a dilated pupil that isn’t reactive to light

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155
Q

Most serious cause of an acute 3rd nerve palsy

What about most common?

How would you differentiate the two

A

A rapidly expanding intracranial aneurysm is the most serious cause of an acute third nerve palsy, feared because it can herald rupture of the aneurym.

Most common would be microvascular cause (i.e. occlusion of the vasa nervorum of 3rd nerve). This is common in the elderly with HTN

In the microvascular (medical cause), the
pupil is usually spared (because the parasympathetic supply is on the outside of the nerve, whereas the motor supply is on the inside. The inside of the nerve is affected first by ischaemia (i.e. the motor function including ptosis) before the pupil.

In aneurysm cause (surgical cause), then the whole nerve is compressed so pupillary dilation earlier.

Other causes include: trauma (12%), compression from neoplasm (11%), postneurosurgery (10%), and compression from aneurysm (6%) and carotid artery dissection

156
Q

Compare how ischaemic vs compressive causes affect the 3rd nerve

A

Ischaemic causes (microvascular occlusion in elderly/HTN) are more likely to spare the pupil

Compressive causes (rapidly expanding aneurysm) is more likely to involve the pupil early (so is a worrying sign)

157
Q

T/F pain around the eye in a suspected 3rd nerve palsy is reassuring

A

F…. A compressive cause (e.g. aneurysm) usually affects the pupil early, is more likely in patients with a family history of intracranial aneurysm, and is more likely to be painful.

158
Q

How can you rule out an intracranial aneurysm

A

Neither CT nor MRI alone are sufficiently sensitive to rule out an aneurysm.

Non-invasive angiography (CTA, MRA) is less sensitive for small aneurysms than formal catheter angiography, but is sufficient to rule out a rapidly expanding aneurysm causing a third nerve palsy.

159
Q

Neglect involves which lobe?

What about weakness?

A

Neglect is due to lesion in parietal lobe

Weakness is due to lesion in frontal lon

160
Q

T/F cerebral hemisphere lesions commonly present as diplopia

A

F

Lesions in the cerebral hemispheres do not as a rule cause diplopia.

161
Q

Define stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

A sudden focal neurological deficit due to cerebrovascular insult.

Impairment of CNS function lasts >24hrs. In TIA, it lasts <24hrs.

162
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

-Where do lacunar infarcts fit in

A

1) Ischaemic (80%)
-Thrombosis:
More commonly: In elderly, atherosclerosis usually in smaller cerebral arteries causing lacunar infarcts. Less commonly: atherosclerosis in large vessels e.g. middle cerebral artery. Can arise from prothrombotic states (dehydration/thrombophilia)

-Emboli:
most commonly cardiac emboli due to AF. Also from carotid artery atheromatous plaques or from intimal flap or carotid dissection). Can get paradoxical embolus from thrombus in the leg slipping through PFO or other atrio-septal defect

-Hypoxic:
Systemic hypoperfusion/hypoxaemia.
Occurs in infants due to iscahemia during birth. Also due to septic shock and drowning

  • Vasculitis and cocaine
    2) Haemorrhagic (20%)- intracerebral (bleeding in brain itself)/subarachnoid haemorrhages (bleeding between pia mater and arachnoid mater)

Blood vessel breaks leading to a haematoma which compresses and damages surrounding brain tissue

Intracerebral haemorrhage most likely caused by hypertension

Subarachnoid haemorrhage most likely caused by ruptured aneursym

163
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

..

164
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

Progressively worsen over minutes to hours

Depends on location, but symptoms manifest on the contralateral side to the lesion.

Anterior cerebral artery: affects feet and legs

Middle cerebral artery: hands, arms, face, language centres in dominant hemisphere

Posterior cerebral artery: visual cortex

Brainstem strokes: both sides

Modalities affected:
Motor. Immediately flaccid paralysis. Then spastic paralysis and hyperreflexia

Specific types:
SAH–> worst headache of life

165
Q

Recognise the signs of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) on physical examination

A

NIH stroke scale.

11 specific categories, max score 42

  • Level of conscioussness
  • Motor function in arms
  • Motor function in legs
  • Visual field tests
  • Horizontal eye movement
  • Facial palsy
  • Limb ataxia
  • Sensory deficit
  • Language skills
  • Speech
  • Extinction and inattention

Check pulse in neck, arms and legs (cardiac cause?)

Auscultate for carotid bruits

166
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and interpret the results

A

Check o2 sats and keep above 94%

Check glucose level

FBC: platelet count, PT, PTT, INR, fibrinogen

Cardiac monitor

ECG (AF?)

Use non contrast CT to distinguish ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke.

(Avoid contrast to avoid mistaking it from blood)

MRI IS ACTUALLY MORE SENSITIVE FOR BOTH HAEMORRHAGIC AND ISCHAEMIC STROKE, BUT CT IS SAFER AND EASIER

You might detect a SAH.

SAH can be missed on CT due to small amount of blood, so LP needed can be done to look for RBCs/xanthachromia

167
Q

Generate a management plan for ACUTE MANAGEMENT OF stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

see below for prevention of future strokes management

How is the blood pressure controlled in ischaemic stroke

A

Assess ABC. Intubation may be necessary. Hypoxic patients to go on o2.

Don’t wait for test results unless thrombocytopenia or anticoagulant use is suspected.

Ischaemic

Thrombolysis with tPA. Ishcaemia is most severe in the core, but slightly less severe in the penumbra. The tPA is focuses on the penumbra

-Intravenous tPA if presents within 4.5hrs of symptom onset (or 3hrs of onset for elderly/diabetics). Aspirin NOT given within 24hrs of tPA.

IN ADDITION

-Mechanical thrombectomy if within 24hrs IF the clot is in the anterior cerebral circulation (ICA, ACA or MCA)

OR

-Mechanical thrombectomy with stent retriever within 6hrs IF the clot is in the ICA or proximal segment of MCA

If present >24hrs after symptom onset, then rectal aspirin immediately

Blood pressure control in iscahemic stroke:

  • There is loss of autoregulation
  • In treatment you allow permissive hypertension (preventing hypoperfusion)
  • But you must keep BP from going too high to avoid reperfusion haemorrhage (ESPECIALLY after tPA is given)

Haemorrhagic stroke

-Anticoagulants and antithrombolytics are contraindicated as this is a bleed!

-SAH
Medical: nimodipin (a CCB) to prevent vasospasm in blood vessels damaged by the haemorrhage
Surgical: treatment is surgical. You clip or block off the blood vessel. Craniotomy to relieve pressure

BP:
To keep BP sufficiently low (no higher than 140, see below), you give the beta blocker labetalol or the CCB nicardipine.

Raised ICP:
Head of bed elevation to 30°
Mannitol
Brief hyperventilation (causes cerebral vasoconstriction)

NPO (no food or drink until formal swallow evaluation!)

168
Q

Identify the possible complications of stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) and its management

A

Complication of ischaemic stroke treatment:

Giving tPA can potentially cause serious bleeding, so giving it to someone with an ischaemic stroke when the blood vessels are damaged can lead to haemorrhagic stroke!

169
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic)

A

.

170
Q

Management for cluster headaches

A

Oxygen
Subcutaneous sumatriptan

Prophylactic: verapamil

171
Q

What are the contraindications for rtPA

What should BP be before tPA is administered (i.e. in an ischaemic stroke)

What about if no tPA is given or if the patient has cardiac disease (i.e. in an ischaemic stroke)

What about BP in a haemorrhagic stroke

A
INR >1.7 
PTT >15s
BP>185/110
Platelet <100,000
Heparin in last 48hrs 
Surgery past 14 days 
GI haemorrhage last 21 dats 
Previous ischaemic stroke 
Head trauma 

SHOULD ONLY GIVE ASPIRIN 24HRS AFTERWARDS TO AVOID RISK OF BLEEDING

BP should be below 185/110, and should be kept below 180/105 for at least 24hr.

If no tPA is given or if the patient has cardiac disease, BP kept below 220/110.

In haemorrhagic stroke keep the BP high enough to perfuse brain but systolic pressure must be kept below 140 to avoid another bleed

172
Q

Define transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction.

The majority of TIAs resolve within the first hour, and diagnostic imaging allows recognition that some events with rapid clinical resolution are associated with permanent cerebral infarction.

NOT LEFT WITH ANY NEUROLOGICAL DEFICIT OR SYMPTOMS

173
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

.

174
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

.

175
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

.

176
Q

Recognise the signs of transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) on physical examination

A

.

177
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) and interpret the results

A

Rapid access TIA (in 24hrs) clinic:

CT/MRI and carotid USS and or MRA/CTA

FBC, electrolytes, glucose, lipids, clotting

ECG, echo (to look for atrial and ventricular clots) and send home with holter (ecg over 24hrs)

Angiography and carotid ultrasound.

NO VISIBLE INFARCTS SHOULD BE PRESENT ON CT/MRI (but you might be able to see little ischaemic areas with TIA)

MRI is gold standard

178
Q

Generate a management plan for transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

Work out ABCD2 score, figures out the risk of having a subsequent stroke following a TIA

Age
Blood pressure 
Clinical features
Duration of TIA
Diabetes II

Score 1-3 no hospitlisation unless in AF

Moderate score (4-5) or high score (6-7) should be hospitalised immediately and monitored for a day.

No immediate treatment required

179
Q

Identify the possible complications of transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) and its management

A

.

180
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)

A

Future stroke clearly highly likely

181
Q

What are the signs of raised ICP

A

Headache, vomiting, papilloedema

Cushing’s triad (HTN, bradycardia and irregular respirations)

182
Q

Outline the preventative management of ischaemic stroke

A

Stroke could’ve emerged from heart, so do an ECG + ambulatory cardiac monitoring. If there is evidence of AF then assume there is a blood clot from here, give anticoagulation therapy (warfarin AND rivoroxaban)

+

Long term antithrombotics (daily aspirin)

(these should also be given to people with valvular disease, endocarditis or MI)

Those with severe intracranial stenosis (based on MRI/CT angiography) should have clopi for 90 days.

Furhter investigations;

  • Echocardiography to locate source for embolic stroke.
  • Carotid artery stenosis
  • Hypercoagulable studies (protein C/S, plasminogen, antithrombin III, antiphospholipid antibodies. All associated with thrombosis)
183
Q

How would you manage carotid artery stenosis

A

40-69% stenosis= lifestyle changes

70%+= stent or carotid endarectomy

184
Q

Outline the preventative management of haemorrhagic stroke

A

MRI or CT 4-8wks after the stroke as the blood will be mostly reabsorbed and you might be able to see an underlying vascular malformation/brain tumour

Control HTN, diabetes

Quit smoking

Eating well, exercise regularly

185
Q

The following are suggestive of what condition:

  • vertigo on specific movements
  • vertigo resolves within a minute
A

BPPV

186
Q

What are the elements of essential tremor

A

Gradual onset over five years

No other associated symptoms

Around 50% with essential tremor

Symmetrical

Worse when lifting a cup

187
Q

What are the elements of parkinsons tremor

A

The actual tremor:

  • Pill rolling character
  • Low frequency
  • Asymmetrical

Gradual onset over five years

Resting (won’t be worse with lifting a cup for example)

Usually not hereditary. But

188
Q

4 cardinal featrues of parkinsons

A

Bradykinesia
Tremor
Rigidity
Postural instability

189
Q

What 3 features of a tremor would make you more liekyl to consider a diagnosis of essential tremor:

  • Onset at any age
  • Worse with alcohol
  • Family history
  • Worse with movement
  • Low frequency
  • Asymmetrical
A
  • Onset at any age
  • Family history
  • Worse with movement

(it actually gets better with alcohol weirdly)

190
Q

Spasticity

Rigidity

A

Pyramidal tract (UMN). More tone in the upper part of the movement. “clasp nice”

Extra-pyramidal lesion. Lead pipe rigidity. And cog wheel because you get tremor on top.

191
Q

Management of essential tremor

A

Watchful waiting
Propanalol
Reduce caffeine
Primidone

192
Q

Features of a tension headahce

A

Bilateral
Pressing/tightening in character
Pericranial tenderness

193
Q

Management of tension headache

A

Simple analgesia
Do NOT offer opioids
Identify co-morbidities (stress, sleep issues)

If chronic:
amitriptyline and acupuncture!

194
Q

Define cluster headache

A

One-sided headache in ophthalmic nerve distribution region with autonomic symptomatology

195
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of cluster headache

A

Unknown

Types:
1) Episodic: Daily episodes over 6–12 weeks; “clusters” followed by remission period up to 12 months

2) Chronic: Episodes without substantial remission period

Risk factors:

  • Male
  • Stressful periods, allergic rhinits, sexual intercourse, tobacco, excessive alcohol
196
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms/signs of cluster headache

A

Headache that is one-sided, sharp, stabbing and orbital/supraorbital, temporal head pain

Autonomic symptoms:
-Ipsilateral conjunctival hyperemia with lacrimation, nasal discharge, mioisis, oedema and drooping eyelid

1-8 episodes per day lasting 5 mins to 3hrs

Restlessness, agitation, suicidal ideation

197
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cluster headache and interpret the results

A

CT/MRI –> exclude possible cranial lesions.

Diagnosis requires each of the following:

  • Five unilateral/orbital/supraorbital/temporal attacks; 1–8 episodes daily, ≤ three hours
  • Agitation/restlessness
  • ≥ one autonomic symptom on same side as headache
198
Q

What is the tensilon test

A

The Tensilon test involves administering a very
short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to diagnose myasthenia gravis by
demonstrating by a rapid improvement in muscle weakness.

199
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome and when does it manifest

A

Subclavian steal syndrome is a phenomenon in which stenosis of the subclavian
artery proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery results in blood being ‘stolen’ from
the brain by retrograde blood flow down the vertebral artery and into the arm.

Leads to blackout

Occurs when increased demand for blood in the arm

200
Q

What are the causes of subclavian steal syndrome

A

Cervical rib, atherosclerosis, takayasu’s arteritis

201
Q

Hemisection of the cord produces which symptoms?

A

Hemisection of the cord is also known as Brown–Séquard syndome. This
results in ipsilateral paralysis and loss of light touch and vibration
sensation and contralateral loss in pain and temperature below the point
of the lesion. The spinothalamic tracts cross at the level of the cord, so
sensation to pain and temperature is lost in the contralateral limbs

202
Q

Someone has recently had a c section on the labour ward. They are lying on their bed complaining of a severe headache. They are shielding their eyes with the bed sheet. What is the most likely diagnosis

A

Low pressure CSF headache.

If the patient had an epidural during c section, then the catheter may have passed through the dura, creating a hole, and causing a leakage of CSF and a low pressure headache.

It is worse on standing and better on lying down. Radiating down into the neck. Terrible pain. Photophobia and neck stiffness

203
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is associated with which other condition

A

Multiple slcerosis

204
Q

Match the area of brain damaged with the following deficits:

  • Adequate understanding, poor fluency of speech
  • Inability to understand language, but fluent, nonsensical speech
  • Intact comprehension and fluent speech production, but speech repetition is poor.
A

-Broca’s area. Broca’s area, located in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, is
responsible for speech production.

-Wernicke’s area. Damage to Wernicke’s area results in the inability to understand language, however,
patients will be able to produce fluent, but nonsensical, speech

-The arcuate fasciculus connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas. Lesions of the
arcuate fasciculus results in intact language comprehension and fluent speech
production;

205
Q

What is the management of any patient presenting with acute neurological symptoms that resolve completely with 24hrs

A

They should be given 300mg aspirin immediately, and assessed urgently within 24hrs.

Patients with confirmed TIAs should then continue aspirin (or clopi) and be given secondary prevention meds (antihypertensives and statins)

206
Q

What are the most common causative agents for viral meningitis and viral encephalitis

A

Viral meningitis- enteroviruses e.g. poliovirus, cocksackie A) and herpes viruses (HSV, VZV, EBV)

Viral encephalitis- HSV

207
Q

What is the different in the Hx between viral and bacterial meningitis

A

symptoms are often less severe and do

not progress as quickly in viral meningitis

208
Q

What is diagnosis of meningitis dependent on, and thus what is the most appropriate first investigation

A

Diagnosed on basis of CSF analysis via an LP.

Therefore, a CT scan is the first most appropriate investigation

209
Q

Outline the appearance of CSF in the following 3 situations:
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
TB meningitis

A

Bacterial- cloudy/turbin

Viral- usually clear

TB-fibrinous

210
Q

Outline the cell type of CSF in the following 3 situations:
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
TB meningitis

A

Bacterial- neutrophil

Viral- lymphocyte

TB- lymphocyte

211
Q

Outline the protein concentration of CSF in the following 3 situations:
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
TB meningitis

A

High in all

212
Q

Outline the glucose concentration of CSF in the following 3 situations:
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
TB meningitis

A

Bacterial- low

Viral- normal

TB- low

213
Q

Presentation of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Wet, wacky and wobbly

Urinary incontienence,

Confusion/dementia

Gait disturbance

214
Q

T/F obstructive and non-obstructive hydrocephalus both cause confusion

A

T

215
Q

How to distinguish between obstructive and non-obstructive hydrocephalus

A

Obstructive hydrocephalus can also cause confusion, however, it usually presents
with a rapid drop in consciousness (if acute) and signs of raised ICP (e.g. Cushing’s
triad, headache that worsens when lying down),

216
Q

Non-obstructive hydrocephalus usually diagnosed with?

A

CT scan

217
Q

Define myasthenia gravis

A

An autoimmune condition associated with antibodies forming against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the NMJ, resulting in weakness

218
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of myasthenia gravis

What is lambert eaton myasthaenia syndrome

What diseases is it associated with

A

Impairment of neuromuscular junction transmission, due to auto-antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR).

A paraneoplastic subtype (Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome) is caused by auto-antibodies against pre-synaptic calcium ion channels impairing acetylcholine release.

Associated with other autoimmune conditions e.g. pernicious anaemia and thymoma development.

(75% have thymoma, so breakdown of immune tolerance is thought to arise in thymus)

219
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis

A

In younger ages, more common in females

Equal gender distribution at middle age

220
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis

Compare to lambert eaton

A

MG: Muscle weakness that worsens WITH REPETITIVE use or towards end of day

Lambert eaton: muscle weakness IMPROVES with repeated use.

Ocular: droopign eyelids, diplopa

Bulbar symtpoms: facial weakness (myasthenic snarl), disturbed hypernasal speech, difficulty smiling, chewing or swallowing (nasal regurgitation of liquids)

221
Q

Recognise the signs of myasthenia gravis on physical examination

Commonly affected muscles?

A

May be generalised, bular, or ocular.

EYES: Bilateral ptosis. Complex opthalmoplegia.

Test for ocular fatigue by asking them to sustain upward gaze for 1 minute and watch for progressive ptosis.

Ice test (ptosis improves >2mm from baseline when ice packs placed)

Bulbar: reading aloud may provoke dysarthria or nasal speech after 3 mins

Limbs: test power of muscle before and after repeated use (20 repetitions)

222
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for myasthenia gravis and interpret the results

A

1st investigations:

  • Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody analysis
  • MuSK antibodies
  • Pulmonary function tests (respiratory involvement)

Blood:

  • Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (present in 80%)
  • TFT (may be ass hyperthyroidism)
  • Atypical features may warrant testing of anti-MUSK (uncommon variant) and anti-VGCC Ab (for Lambert eaton)

Tensilon test: Short acting anti-cholinesterase increases ACh causeing rapid and transient imporvement in clinical deatures.
Avoided due to risk of bradycardia.

Nerve conduction study: May show decrement of muscle action potential. May differentiate between MG and LE.

EMG: single fibre EMG may demonstrate “jitter” (variability in latency from stimulus to muscle potential) indicating fluctuation at NM junction

CT thorax/CXR to visualise thymoma in mediastinum or malignancy in the lung (LE)

223
Q

What is a towne’s view, which fracture is seen well

A

Like a X-ray of the skull from a supero-posterior perspective.

Shows occipital bone fractures well

224
Q

What is a fixed, dilated pupil suggestive of

A

In particular the presence of a fixed dilated pupil is highly suggestive of significant raised intracranial pressure requiring urgent neurosurgical intervention

It suggests transtentorial herniation (coning)

225
Q

T/f in the head injury setting, IV contrast is indicated for CT scan

A

F

IV contrast is not indicated in the head injury setting.

226
Q

What does intracranial free air indicate on ct head

A

indicating there must be a skull fracture

227
Q

Which type of haematoma, SDH or EDH, is commoner

And describe the cause of each

A

Subdural haematomas are much more common than extradural haematomas, and they are usually due to tearing of a bridging vein from the cerebral cortex and a draining venous sinus.

Extradural haematomas (EDH) are located outside the dura and are most commonly due to tearing of the middle meningeal artery due to a fracture

228
Q

State the 3 ways that a SDH can present

A

It can be acute, chronic or acute on chronic.

229
Q

Outline the history for chronic SHD, and the CT findings of all SDH

A

Chronic SDH will often present with a vague history with symptoms such as fluctuating conciousness, headache, personality change, confusion.

The initial traumatic event may not be remembered or will have been trivial.

MUCH MORE COMMON IN:

1) ELDERLY
2) THOSE SUSCEPTIBLE TO MULTIPLE FALLS e.g. alcohol dependent people, people with epilepsy AND
3) THOSE ON ANTICOAGULATION)

A CT scan will show a crescent-shaped haematoma over one hemisphere and blood will tend to extend along he falciform ligament and over the tentorium cerebelli.

230
Q

What is the mortality from a traumatic SHD

A

60%

231
Q

What is the CT finding of EDH

A

A biconvex shape is seen with an EDH where the blood is limited by the dural attachments.

232
Q

PLEASE NOTE THAT OCULAR MG CAN OCCUR, IT’S NOT JUST PART OF THE GENERALISED MG

A

So you can get isolated ocular MG

233
Q

What proportion of patients with generalised MG vs ocular MG have AChR antibodies present in the blood

A

Tests for AchR antibodies are present in 95% of patients with generalised MG, but only in approximately 50% of patients with ocular MG (in which only the eyelids and extraocular muscles are affected)

234
Q

What are countrecoup contusions

A

These are when, for example you hit the back of your head, but the brain hits the front of the skull, resulting in bruises there

235
Q

What does contusion look like

A

White spots in the brain, which should usually be grey

236
Q

Head injury pain relief

A

NSAIDs and paracetemol
Prochlorperazine

Opioid is a bad choice (causes headaches and nausea)

237
Q

What neurological condition are you predisposed to in frontal/temporal lobe bruising

A

Epilepsy

So you need to do seizure prophylaxis

238
Q

T/F steroids should be given if you have traumatic brain injury

What should be given

A

F…. the group does worse with more infection

Tranexamic acid should be given in moderate bleeds

239
Q

What might increase ICP in traumatic brain injury

A

Occipiptal lobe fracture can cause occlusive thrombus in a venous sinus, which reduces venous return from the brain. You do a CTV to look for thrombosis

240
Q

How to reduce ICP?

A
  1. Reduce CSF in the head (can put in a drain)
  2. Reduce blood
    (sit up, remove collars (and NM block), make sure not constipated, mannitol (or hypertonic saline is better as mannitol causes diuresis)
  3. Reduce brain volume (by reducing brain activity, NM blocker, anti-seizure)
241
Q

Bilateral subdural haematoma?

A

The skull fracture down the midline can cause superior saggital sinus tear

242
Q

Triad of death in trauma?

A

Cold, metabolic acidosis, coagulopathy

243
Q

Difference between symptoms of spinal cord stenosis vs caudal equina

A

Cauda equina syndrome
is a severe form of lumbar spinal stenosis caused by sudden compression of the
nerves of the cauda equina.

Spinal cord stenosis is a narrowing of the spinal canal, most commonly occurring in
the lumbar spine.

An important distinction to take note of is that acute cord compression
(such as cauda equina syndrome) causes lower motor neuron signs, whereas
gradual cord compression (as in this patient) causes upper motor neuron signs.

244
Q

What are the history and signs of cauda equina

A

equina. It presents acutely with urinary retention and lower back pain.

Examination findings include lower motor neuron signs, perianal numbness and
lax anal tone.

245
Q

Causes of spinal cord stenosis

A

This includes osteophytes (osteoarthritis/paget’s), disk herniation, tumours, ligamentum flavum hypertrophy

246
Q

A seizure lasting a couple of seconds, just after they wake up. Experience many in a short space of time

A

Myotonic seizures

247
Q

What is the pattern of tone in upper motor neuron lesions

A

Upper motor
neuron (UMN) lesions (e.g. a stroke) will have an acute phase during which you get
‘loss of function’ signs (e.g. flaccid paralysis). Then, there will be an increase in
abnormal motor function caused by the loss of descending inhibitory inputs from the
central nervous system. This results in increased muscle tone (spasticity)

248
Q

Differentiate fasciculations from fibrillations

A

Fasciculations are visible
twitches in the muscle, caused by damaged motor units firing spontaneous,
uncoordinated action potentials. Fibrillations are twitches of individual muscle fibres
that can be observed using electromyography but are not visible to the naked eye.

249
Q

Pain in lower limbs when walking, relieved by bending forward or sitting down

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

250
Q

Gait in parkinsons?

A

Narrow

251
Q

What is type 1 neurofibromatosis manifestations

A

Type 1 mainly causes
peripheral manifestations such as café-au-lait macules (‘coffee-cloured, flat skin
lesions’), axillary freckling, neurocutaneous fibromas, phaeochromocytomas and
renal artery stenosis.

252
Q

What is type 2 neurofibromatosis manifestations

A

Type 2 has mainly central features, such as bilateral vestibular
schwannomas, meningiomas and gliomas.

253
Q

Side effect of IV phenytoin infusion

A

Hypotension and arrhythmia

254
Q

Causes of cauda equina syndrome

A
Bony metastasis
Myeloma
Epidural abscess
Disc prolapse
Epidural haematoma
Primary sacral tumour e.g. chordoma
255
Q

What is the management if you suspect cauda equina

A

This patient needs urgent same day assessment by spinal surgeon, imaging and then surgical decompression as appropriate – this must be done within hours and even waiting until the next day may allow irreversible damage and paralysis to occur.

256
Q

Differentiate signs from cauda equina syndrome and cord compression

A

Cauda equina compression causes flaccid paralysis with loss of reflexes. Cord compression usually causes spastic paralysis with brisk reflexes. Both cause sensory and power loss.

257
Q

What do the following findings suggest:
CSF electrophoresis reveals olignoclonal bands

Bence Jones proteins in the urine

High CSF protein

Xanthachromia

A

The diagnosis of
MS is heavily based on the clinical history and there is no straight-forward diagnostic
test. However, CSF electrophoresis may show oligoclonal bands and an MRI scan
may show sclerotic plaques that may or may not correspond with the neurological
symptoms experienced by the patient.

Bence-Jones proteins are immunoglobulin light chains which are found in the urine
of patients with multiple myeloma. High CSF protein is a feature of Guillain-Barré
syndrome. Xanthochromia is a ‘straw-coloured’ discoloration of the CSF seen when
performing a lumbar puncture.

258
Q

How long is xanthachromia present for after SAH

A

Xanthochromia will be present from 12 hours to 12 days after onset of
a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

259
Q

What is VHL

A

Autosomal dominant condition, mutation in tumour suppressor gene.

Tumours commonly include haemangioblastomas occuring in cerebellum and retina, clear cell renal carcinoma, phaeo, pancreatic islet and endolympohatic sac tumours

260
Q

What does wilsons disease show on MRI brain scan

A

Wilson’s disease
is an
autosomal recessive

genetic disorder
 in which 
copper
 accumulates in tissues; this manifests as 
neurological
 or 
psychiatric symptoms
 and liver disease. If there are 
neurological symptoms
, MRI of the brain is usually performed; this shows hyperintensities in the 
basal ganglia
.
261
Q

What is apraxia

A

Apraxia
is a disorder of higher-order
motor control
leading to difficulty performing skilled movements. It is not due to a problem with the
primary motor
systems or due to a lack of understanding.

Issues with planning and initiation

262
Q

t/f visual acuity is likely to be affected in idiopathic intravranial hypertension

A

F

extra-ocular movement and visual perimetry testing reveal abnormalities, but
visual acuity
testing does not

Frequent accompanying symptoms of
pseudotumor cerebri
include:
Visual field loss
- manifesting as enlargement of the blind spot
Extraocular movement disturbances most frequently due to
abducens

palsy
in 1/3 of patients
Pulsatile tinnitus
.

263
Q

What cranial nerve lesion is most associated with idiopathci intracranial hypertensioin

A

Abducens

264
Q

Where does the spinal cord end

A

L2

265
Q

What is the name of the structure where the spinal nerves end

A

Conus medullaris

266
Q

Cauda equina carries motor for waht

A
  • Genitals
  • Internal and external anal sphincter
  • Detrusor vesicae
  • Leg muscles
267
Q

What other functions than motor does cauda equina serve

A

Knee and ankle reflexes, skin sensation for legs and pelvis

268
Q

What are the causes of cauda equina

A

Compression, trauma or damage to multiple nerves of the cauda equina.

Lumbar disc herniation is most common

Spinal stenosis (narrowing of the vertebral foramen)- ank spond, sponylolisthesis

Trauma to spine (can directly damage nerves, or cause compression due to haematomas)

Growth in spinal cord (abscess, cyst, tumour)

269
Q

What is the difference between sciatica and cauda equina

A

It’s essentially a similar process, but the herniation is usually larger with cauda equina, and affectes the nerves going to the muscles controlling bladder and sphincter

270
Q

What are the causes of spinal stenosis

A

Can be congenital, or acquired.

Acquired cause is ankylosing spondylitis where bones remodel causing intervertebral disc ossification and thus narrowing of spinal canal

Another cause of spinal stenosis (and thus cauda equina) is spondylolithesis

271
Q

What is spondylolisthesis and what is the most common type

A

When a vertebra is displaced by tauma, surgery of degenerative disc spinal disease

Most common: anterolisthesis

272
Q

Symptoms of cauda equina

A

Reduced bowel or bladder control

Reduced tone of anal sphincter/muscle wall of bladder

Reduced sexual function

Saddle anaesthesia

1 or both legs can have muscle weakness, loss of knee and ankle reflexes and paraplegia

Sciatic PAIN

273
Q

Diagnosis of cauda equina syndrome

A

Usualyl based on pattern of sensory and mot`or nerve findings

CONFIRMED BY MRI/CT SCAN

274
Q

Define neurofibromatosis

A

Genetic condition- AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT.

Affect cells of neural crest origin, resulting in development of multiple neurocutaneous tumours

275
Q

Characterise type 1 neurofibromatosis

A
Cafe au lait spots
Axillary/inguinal freckling
Fibromas
Eye hamartomas (Lisch nodules)
Skeletal abnormalities (sphenoid wing dysplasia) 
Phaeochromocytoma/+ve family history
OT: optic tumour (optic nerve glioma)
276
Q

Characterise type 2 neurofibromatosis

A

Characterized by schwannomas, e.g. bilateral vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas), peripheral/spinal schwannomas, meningiomas, gliomas, cataracts

277
Q

Genes affected in neurofibromatosis are what type of genes

A

Tumour suppressor genes

278
Q

Genetic mutations in T1NF

A

Mutations in NF1 gene (chromosome 17) which encodes neurofibromin (a GTPase activating protein).

Mutations in neurofibromin result in excessive activity of the protooncogene p21-ras.

279
Q

Genetic mutations in T2NF

A

Type 2 NF: Mutations in NF2 (chromosome 22) which encodes merlin (or schwannomin).

280
Q

Hx of type 1 neurofibromatosis

A

Type 1 NF: Skin lesions, learning difficulties (in 40%), headaches, disturbed vision (optic gliomas, in 15%), precocious puberty (may indicate lesions of the pituitary from optic glioma involving the chiasm).

281
Q

Hx of type 2 neurofibromatosis

A

Type 2 NF: Hearing loss, tinnitus, balance problems, headache, facial pain or numbness.

282
Q

Examination of type 1 NF

A

Type 1 NF: >5 cafe au lait macules of >5mm (pre-pubertal individuals) or >15mm (post-pubertal individuals), neurofibromas (appear as cutaneous nodules or complex plexiform neuromas), freckling in armpit or groin, Lisch nodules (hamartomasoniris), spinal scoliosis.

283
Q

Examination of type 2 NF

A

Type2: NF: Few or no skin lesions, sensorineural deafness with facial nerve palsy or cerebellar signs if schwannoma large (see Acoustic neuroma).

284
Q

Investigations for neurofibromatosis

A

MRI/CT brain to look for optic gliomas (type 1) or to exclude other masses

Biopsy

Genetic testing (confirms the diagnosis)

285
Q

Detection of which protein in the CSF may diagnose parkinsons

A

Alpha-synuclein

286
Q

Sudden headache 2 weeks after traumatic brain injury

A

Posttraumatic

hydrocephalus
 is a frequent and serious complication that follows a 
traumatic brain injury
. It may present as 
normal pressure hydrocephalus
 or as 
increased intracranial pressure
. The onset of acute 
posttraumatic

hydrocephalus
is at least 2 weeks after the head trauma has occurred

287
Q

Outline the neurological abnormalities with subacute combined degeneration

A

Degeneration of the dorsal and lateral columns.

Vibration and touch are diminished with
paresthesia,
gait ataxia, and weakness.

288
Q

60 year old man Paraesthesia, bilateral loss of vibration and position sense, and ataxic gait, heel to shin abnormal. Background of coeliac

A

B12 deficiency (coeliac is RF)–> subacute combined degeneration

In SCD, the extremeties are affected symmetrically usually beginning with the lower limbs. eakness, clonus, and
cerebellar ataxia
can also occur.

289
Q

Management of migraine

A

Abortive:

  • Limit stimuli and activity
  • MILD TO MODERATE: NSAIDs
  • SEVERE: triptains or ergotamine (don’t combine). Can combine with NSAIDs. Avoid opioids
  • Add anti-emetic (IV or IM) if N&V present

Prophylaxis:

  • Avoid triggers, acupuncture
  • Pharm: b blocker, tricyclic antidepressants, anticonvulsants, CCBs
290
Q

Triptans are contraindicated in which patients

A

Coronary artery disease
Peripheral artery disease
Hypertension
Pregnancy and breastfeeding

291
Q

Mechanism of action for triptans

A

5-HT1 receptor agonist → vasoconstriction of (dilated) cranial and basilar arteries

292
Q

What are the indications for pharmacological prophylaxis of migraines

A

Frequent attacks (e.g., ≥ 3 attacks/month)
Long-lasting attacks (e.g., > 12–24 hours) or aura
Abortive therapy fails or is contraindicated

293
Q

Side effects of triptans

A

Temporary blood pressure increase (very common)

Paresthesia and sensation of cold in the extremities

Dizziness, malaise, flashes

Frequent intake (≥ 10x/month) can lead to headaches

Coronary ischemia (rare)

294
Q

What is the genotype assocatied with MS

A

HLA-DR2 genotype

.

295
Q

Blown pupil (aniscoria) is indicative of which kind of herniation

A

aniscoria is indicative of an

uncal herniation

296
Q

What might cause an uncal herniation

A

a
subarachnoid hemorrhage
leading to
increased intracranial pressure

297
Q

T/F. Herniation is always as a result of a high ICP

A

f.

Herniation can also occur in the absence of high ICP when mass lesions such as
hematomas
occur at the borders of brain compartments. In such cases, local pressure is increased at the place where the herniation occurs, but this pressure is not transmitted to the rest of the brain, and therefore does not register as an increase in ICP.

298
Q

What is the complicaitowwn of cingulate herniation

A

Cingulate
herniation occurs when the
cingulate gyrus

herniates
 beneath the 
falx cerebri
. This can lead to compression of the 
anterior cerebral artery
.
299
Q

What is the complication of a cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A
Cerebellar
 tonsillar herniation occurs when the 
cerebellar tonsils
 herniate down through the 
foramen magnum
. This can lead to compression of the medulla and lead to dysfunction of the respiratory centers.
300
Q

Treatment of a dry mouth e.g. due to head and neck radiotherapy and destruction of salivary glands

A

Pilocarmine, a muscarinic agonist

301
Q

Most dangerous complication of meningitis caused by N. Meningitidis

A

DIC

302
Q

What is tabes dorsalis and what is it a complication of

A
Tabes dorsalis
 is the 
loss of coordination
 of movement due to 
demyelination
 of nerves in the 
dorsal column
, and is typically a complication of 
neurosyphilis
.
303
Q

Risk factors for subdural haematoma

A
Risk factors include brain atrophy, as can be seen in elderly patients or those with chronic 
alcohol abuse
, as well as low-
coagulation
 states.
304
Q

3 types of subdural based on age of blood

A

Acute (1-3d, hyperdense on CT)

Subacute
(4d-2wks, isodense on CT)

Chronic (>2wks, hypodense on CT).

305
Q

Meningitis which Abx therapy in:

  • Gram neg N. Meningitidis
  • Gram +ve
  • Listeria
A
Bacterial meningitis
 caused by 
Neisseria meningitidis
 is best treated by a 3rd generation 
cephalosporin
 such as 
ceftriaxone
.Empirical therapy of 
community-acquired
 suspected 
bacterial meningitis
 in children and adults should include a combination of 
dexamethasone
, a third- or fourth-generation 
cephalosporin
, and 
vancomycin
.
Gram +ve: Vancomycin
 is used to treat 
meningitis
 caused by 
gram-positive
 organisms such as 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
, except for 

Listeria monocytogenes
which is treated with
ampicillin
.

306
Q

What is the most common cause of hemispatial neglect

A
Hemispatial neglect
 is a syndrome that occurs after an individual sustains a 
brain lesion
, and is characterized by 
agnosia
 of the 
contralateral
 half of the world. It is most often a result of damage sustained to the nondominant 
parietal cortex
 through a 
traumatic brain injury
, neoplasm, 
aneurysm
, or 
stroke
.
307
Q

How would you differnetiate a lesion to the dominat parietal lobe vs damage to the non-dominant

A

Damage to the dominant
parietal cortex
results in
neurological

deficits
 such as 
acalculia
, 
agraphia
, 
finger agnosia
, and left-right disorientation. 
With non-dominant, outside of their 
hemispatial neglect
, the patient is
neurologically
 intact.
308
Q

Somebody has hypersexuality, hyperorality and hyperphagia. Where is the lesion?

A
Bilateral 
amygdala
 damage leads to 
Kluver-Bucy syndrome
, characterized by 
disinhibited
 behavior such as 
hypersexuality
, hyperorality, and 
hyperphagia
. It is associated with 
herpes simplex virus
-1 
encephalitis
.
309
Q

What are CNS tumours

A

Primary tumours arising from any of the brain tissue types.

310
Q

Hx of CNS tumour

A

Headache or vomiting (raised intracranial pressure),

epilepsy (focal or generalized),

focal neurological deficits (dysphagia, hemiparesis, ataxia, visual field defects, cognitive impairment),

personality change.

311
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Spastic paraparesis (mimicking cord compression)

A

Para sagittal region

312
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Unilateral deafness, facial weakness, then unilateral ataxia and hemifacial sensory impairment

A

Cerebellopontine angle

313
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Anosmia, frontal lobe dysfunction

A

Olfactory groove

314
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Opthalmoplegia (III, IV, VI nerve palsies), V1 and V2 sensory loss

A

Cavernous sinus

315
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Sphenoid wing meningioma compresses II nerve causing ipsilateral optic atrophy and contralateral papilloedema

A

Foster Kennedy syndrome

316
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

itemporal hemianopia (suprasellar expansion and optic chiasm compression), hypopituitarism or hypersecretion of specific hormones (e.g. acromegaly, hyperprolactinaemia, Cushing’s disease)

A

Pituitary fossa

317
Q

Which location of tumour do the following features suggest?

Impairing upgaze (superior midbrain lesion) or obstructive hydrocephalus (at the level of third ventricle)

A

Parinaud’s syndrome (pineal region)

318
Q

Most common primary CNS tumour

A

Meningioma (benign)

319
Q

Where are medulloblastomas usually found and who in

A

Medulloblastoma: Invasive midline cerebellar tumour in children.

320
Q

Where are haemangioblastomas commonly found

A

Vascular tumours, often in the cerebellum.

321
Q

Which imaging is used in the first instance if brain tumour is suspected

A

CT head

But MRI is the better imaging

322
Q

Which imaging has higher sensitivity for brain tumour

How can a definitive diagnosis be achieved.

A

A definitve diagnosis is based on histologic and molecular characteristics

323
Q

Most common benign and malignant paediatric brain tumour

A

Most common type of benign pediatric primary brain tumor: pilocytic astrocytoma
Most common malignant pediatric primary brain tumor: medulloblastoma

324
Q

Most common benign and malignant adult brain tumour

A

Most common benign primary brain tumor in adults: meningioma

Most common malignant primary brain tumor in adults: glioblastoma multiforme

325
Q

Where can primary CNS tumours spread to

A

Primary CNS tumors do not metastasize to organs outside the CNS.

They spread within the CNS:
-Leptomeningeal metasteses (spread to meninges)

-Drop metastases (intradural extramedullary spinal metastases that are typically found in the lower thoracic and lumbar regions)

326
Q

Where do most adult tumours lie with respect to the tentorium

A

Majority are supratentorial (opposite to kids)

327
Q

T/F there’s no such thing as a grade II glioblastoma

A

T.

Glioblastoma is a type of astrocytoma. But it’s highly malignant so it’s by default a grade IV tumour

328
Q

A histology of brain tumour is done and a “pseudo-palisading pattern” is found. What type of brain tumour was it

A

This is the glioblastoma (a highly malignant astrocytoma)

It’s got this pattern because it’s so fast growing, that `what you get is a central area of necrosis (because it grows faster than angiogenesis can keep up with), but a peripheral area of viable cells.

329
Q

An adult brain tumour is removed and after surgery is histologically examined.

It has a multinuclear syncytium of fused cells. (spindle cells arranged in whorls) What brain tumour is it.

What other finding may be seen histologically

A

Meningioma

Psammoma bodies (calcifications) may also be present

330
Q

What cell type do meningiomas derive from

A

Cells in the arachnoid mater, called the arachnoid cap cells

Meningiomas form in the parasagittal regions and on the surface of the brain UNDER the dura mater.

331
Q

What is the growth of meningiomas

A

Graded I-III. Slow growing.

332
Q

Where can oligodendrogliomas form? Where do they typically form in adults though

A

Can occur in the brain or spinal cord.

In adults typically occur in frontal lobes as these neurons are the most heavily myelinated

333
Q

What is the growth patterns of oligodendrogliomas

A

Classifed grade II-III.

Relatively slow growing but can become malignant

334
Q

Histologically examined brain tumour has chicken wired blood vessels surrounding the tumours with calcifications, what tumour type is this

A

Grade III oligodendroglioma

335
Q

Histologically examined brain tumour has cells with round nuclei and “halo appearance” due to lots of cytoplasm surrounding the nuclei, in a fried egg appearance. What tumour type is this

A

Grade II oligodendroglioma

336
Q

You look under the microscopy at a tumour and find multiple thin walled capillaries growing near each other. You are informed this tumour came from the cerebellum. What is the likely tumour type

A

This is likely to be a haemangioblastoma.

337
Q

How are haemagioblastomas graded

A

They are grade 1 (slow growing tumours)

Rare in adults (it’s an infratentorial tumour, whereas most adult tumours are supratentorial)

338
Q

Which tumours can cause obstructive hydrocephalus

A

Pineallomas, ependymomas, medulloblastomas

339
Q

Spindle cells in whorls vs spindle cells in palisades

A

MENINGIOMA: Spindle cells in whorls with psamomma bodies

SCHWANNOMA: Spindle cells in palisades Antoni A tissue) alternating with myxoid areas (Antoni B tissue)
S-100 positive

340
Q

Monomorphic, acidophilic or basophilic, polygonal cells arranged in sheets or cords found in the sella turcica

A

Pituitary adenoma

341
Q

Where are schwanommas typically found

A

Cerebellopontine angle (infratentorial)

Unilateral deafness, facial weakness, then unilateral ataxia and hemifacial sensory impairment

342
Q

Most common secondary tumour

A
Lung cancer (most common)
Breast cancer
Malignant melanoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Colorectal carcinoma
343
Q

What investigation for extradural haematoma

A

NON-CONTRAST CT head

344
Q

Bilateral occipital lobe damage?

A
Anton syndrome, which is defined as 
cortical blindness
 due to bilateral 
occipital lobes
 damage that can occur in instances of 
stroke
 or trauma. 
Pupillary
 reactions are normal, and bilateral 
macular sparing
 may preserve central (tunnel) vision. With more extensive lesions, 
denial
 of 
blindness
 may occur.

They insist they can see

345
Q

Main risk factor for orbital cellulitis

A
In adults, acute or chronic infections of the 
sinuses
 can spread into the orbit causing 
orbital cellulitis
.
346
Q

Which seizure medication can cause polycystic ovarian syndrome

A
Valproic acid
 is an 
anti-epileptic
 drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy due to 
teratogenic effects
 causing 
neural tube defects
, and tends to cause 
polycystic ovarian syndrome
 in women with 
seizures
.
347
Q

Starting new seizure drugs. Patient says they’ve been more drowsy recently, and has come to the ED because of her skin blistering in her nose, on her lips and mouth

A
Adverse effects of 
levetiracetam
 include 
drowsiness
, mild 
psychiatric
 disturbances, and rarely 
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
 and toxic-epidermal necrolysis
348
Q

Side effects of carbamazepine

A
Adverse effects of this medication include 
drowsiness
, 
nausea
, 
headache
, and more seriously, 
agranulocytosis
349
Q

Intention tremor is most likely to be caused by a lesion where

A

Intention
tremors
occur at the end of guided, intentful movements. They are often caused by a lesion to the
cerebellar

hemisphere
,
ipsilateral
to the affected extremity

350
Q

Occlusion of basilar artery causes what stroke

A
Locked-in syndrome
 is a condition caused by a 
stroke
 involving the 
basilar artery
Basilar artery supplies the 
pons
, lower 
midbrain
, and medulla, and thus its 
infarction
 affects the 
corticospinal
 and 
corticobulbar
 tracts while sparing the 
oculomotor
 nerves.

So there is quadraplegia and loss of voluntary mouth, tongue and facial movements, with preserved consciousness and vertical eye movement.

351
Q

Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery causes what symptoms

A
Infarction
 of the 
anterior spinal artery
 results in 
medial medullary syndrome
, characterized most notably by its effects on the 
lateral corticospinal tract
 (
contralateral
paralysis
 of upper and lower extremities), 
medial lemniscus
 (decreased 
contralateral
proprioception
), and 
hypoglossal nerve
 in the caudal medulla (
ipsilateral
 tongue 
motor dysfunction
).
352
Q

Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery causes what kind of stroke

A
Infarction
 of the 
posterior cerebral artery
 results in 
deficits
 to the occipital and visual 
cortices
, and thus patients present with 
contralateral
hemianopia
 with 
macular sparing
 (as the portion of the 
visual cortex
 responsible for macular, or central, vision is also supplied by the 
middle cerebral artery
)
353
Q

Occlusion of the posterior inferor cerebellar artery causes what kind of stroke

A
Infarction
 of the 
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
 results in 
lateral medullary syndrome
, also called 
Wallenberg syndrome
, characterized most notably by its effects on the 
nucleus ambiguus
 (controls the soft 
palate
, 
larynx
, and 
pharynx
). Patients are unable to swallow (
dysphagia
) and have a 
hoarse
 voice. 
Ipsilateral

Horner syndrome
is also common.

354
Q

Bilateral facial nerve palsy?

A

Bilateral
facial nerve palsy
is often associated with untreated
Lyme disease and GBS

355
Q

Most common causes of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

This occurs when there is inflammation and fibrosis of the arachnoid granulations impairing resorption of CSF

This is most often seen following subarachnoid or interventricular hemorrhage or
meningitis
. It can however occur in the absence of an underlying observable cause, named
idiopathic

normal pressure hydrocephalus
.

356
Q

What is a subdural haematoma

A

A subdural haemorrhage (SDH) is a collection of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater.

Acute- within 72hrs
Subacute- 3 to 30 days
Chronic- after 3 weeks

357
Q

Aetiology of subdural haematoma

A

Trauma causing rapid acceleration and deceleration of the brain results in shearing forces which tear veins (“bridging veins”) that travel from the dura to the cortex.

Bleeding occurs between the dura and arachnoid membranes.

358
Q

Epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage

A

Acute: Tend to occur in younger patients/associated with major trauma (5–25% of cases of severe head injury). More common than extradural haemorrhage. Chronic: More common in elderly, studies report incidence of 1–5 per 100000.

359
Q

Hx of subdural haemorrhage:
Acute
Subacute
Chronic

A

Acute: History of trauma with head injury, patient has reduced conscious level

Subacute: Worsening headaches 7–14 days after injury, altered mental status

Chronic: Can present with headache, confusion, cognitive impairment, psychiatric symptoms, gait deterioration, focal weakness, seizures.

May not be a Hx of fall or trauma (have low index of suspicion in elderly and alcoholics)

360
Q

Examination of subdural

A

Acute: reduced GCS. Ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (compression of the ipsilateral 3rd nerve parasympathetic fibres), pressure on brainstem: reduced consciousness, bradycardia.

Chronic: neuro exam may be normal. Or focal neuro signs (III or VI nerve dysfunction, papilloedema, hemiparesis or reflex asymmetry)

361
Q

Investigation for subdural haemorrhage

A

CT non-contrast: Crescent or sickle shaped mass, concave over brain surface (compared to extradural which is lentiform).

CT appearance changes with time.

Acute subdurals are hyperdense, becoming isodense over 1–3weeks (such that presence maybe inferred from signs such as effacement of sulci, midline shift, ventricular compression and obliteration of basal cisterns); and chronic subdurals are hypodense (approaching that of CSF).

MRI-brain: Has higher sensitivity especially for isodense or small SDHs.

362
Q

Management of subdural acute

A

Acute: ALS protocol. f signs of raised ICP, head elevation and consider osmotic diuresis with mannitol and/or hyperventilation. Once stabilised, obtain CT-head.

Conservative: esp woth small/minimal midline shoft (SDH<10mm thickness, and midline shift <5mm)

Surgical: Prompt Burr hole or craniotomy and evacuations for symptomatic subdurals >10mm with >5mm midline shift (better outcome if within 4h). ICP monitoring device

363
Q

Management of chronic subdural

A

If symptomatic or there is mass effect on imaging, surgical treatment with Burrhole or craniotomy and drainage (a drain may be left in for 24–72h).

Asymptomatic SDH without significant mass effect is best managed conservatively with serial imaging to monitor for spontaneous resorption.

Haematomas that have not fully liquefied may require craniotomy with membranectomy.

364
Q

Complications of subdural

A

Raised ICP, cerebral oedema pre-disposing to secondary ischaemic brain damage, mass effect (transtentorial or uncal herniation).

365
Q

T/F chronic subdurals have a better prognosis than acute

A

T

Chronic have better outcome, reflecting lower incidence of underlying brain injury, with good outcomes in 3/4 of those treated by surgery.

366
Q

What is Horner syndrome

A

Characterised by reduced sympathetic innervation to the head

Leads to miosis, anhidrosis and partial ptosis

367
Q

Aetiology of horner’s

A

Most cases of HS are idiopathic, but conditions such as brainstem stroke, carotid dissection, and neoplasm are occasionally identified as the cause of HS.

CENTRAL: Brainstem stroke (Wallenberg), cervical spine injury (Brown Sequard syndrome), brain tumorurs, MS, lateral medullary syndrome etc.

PRE-GANGLIONIC: breast/lung cancer (pancoast tumour), iatrogenic, lymphadeniopathy, cervical rib

POST GANGLIONIC: Dissection of the internal carotid artery, cluster headache, tumor, HZV

368
Q

Investigation of horner’s if you suspect’s it’s due to carotid artery dissection

A

Appropriate imaging modalities should be obtained emergently and may include MRI and MR angiography or CT angiography of the neck. Conventional angiogram remains the gold standard. Patients should be treated promptly by anticoagulation under the supervision of a neurologist.

369
Q

Investigation of horner’s if you suspect’s it’s due to thoracic malignancy

A

Chest xray and then contrast CT/MR scan

370
Q

Which artery malformation is associated with trigeminal neuralgia

A
Trigeminal neuralgia
 can be caused by compression from an anatomical variation of the 
superior cerebellar artery
. `
Trigeminal neuralgia
 can result from a redundant loop of the 
superior cerebellar artery
 that impinges on the 
trigeminal
 root.
371
Q

Acute treatment vs prevention for cluster headaches

A
First-line
 treatments for an acute attack include oxygen and 
triptans
. 
Verapamil
's mechanism of action in the 
primary prevention
 of 
cluster headaches
 is still unclear, though one leading 
theory
 suggests that this medication may affect central neuronal pathways, particularly those in the 
hypothalamus
.
372
Q

What happens to the subdural haematoma

A

It starts hyperdense. As the haematoma ages, it becomes isodense and then in a few weeks hypodense (similar to CSF).

373
Q

Mixed density haematoma?

A

Rebleeding into the haematoma is common and density can appear mixed

374
Q

Dilated ventricles and expansion of subarachnoid space

A

The dilated ventricles fits with hydrocephalus

But hydrocephalus does not involve expansion of the subarachnoid space

Therefore something else is going on to make the subarachnoid space expand, and that’s cerebral atrophy

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo, also known as compensatory enlargement of the CSF spaces, is a term used to describe the increase in the volume of CSF, characterised on images as an enlargement of cerebral ventricles and subarachnoid spaces, caused by encephalic volume loss.

375
Q

What might the findings of obbstructive hydrocephalus be

A

Acute drop in conscious level. Diplopia.

Impaired GCS, papilloedema, VI nerve palsy (false localizing sign of increased ICP).

In neonates, the head circumference may enlarge, and “sunset sign” (downward conjugate deviation of eyes).

376
Q

Hyperintensity on the right temporal lobe

A
hyperintensity in the right 
temporal lobe
 which is specific to 
herpes simplex encephalitis
.
377
Q

What is extradural heamorrhage

A

Bleeding and accumulation of blood into the extradural space

378
Q

Cause of extradural

A

Head trauma causes fracture (most commonly squamous temporal bone as this is the thinnest part of cranial vault)

Ruptures middle meningeal artery

Arterial bleeding causes rapid accumulation of blood and strips the dura from the inner table of the skull.

Increased ICP and compression of underlying brain parenchyma

379
Q

Hx of extradural

A

Head injury with temporary loss of conscioussness, followed by lucid interval and then development of progressive deterioration on consicousness level

380
Q

Examination of extradural

A

Signs of scalp trauma or fracture

Headache

Reducing GCS

Signs of raised ICP (dilated unresponsive pupil on the side of the injury)

Abnormal posturing (decortical and decerebrate) and cushing’s sign (rising BP and bradvardia) are late signs

381
Q

Investigation for extradural

A

Urgent CT scan:

Diagnostic and identifies location of haematoma

Arterial bleed produces convex/lens-shaped haematoma.

Signs of raised ICP incllude midline shift, compression of ventricles, obliteration of basal cisterns and culcal effacement

382
Q

Which bug is likely to be the cause of meningitis in a child if they have seizure

A

children who have seizures are more likely to be infected by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza than meningococcus

383
Q

Which causative agent for encephalitis results in oedema of the temporal lobe

A

HSV

384
Q

Gold standard investigation for encephalitis

A

MRI

385
Q

Which seizure can be induced by hyperventilation

A

Absence

386
Q

First line for absence seizures

A

First line treatment is with ethosuximide, valproate or lamotrigine.

387
Q

Which screening test is used for alzheimers and what is thought of as abnormal

A

. The MMSE is the most widely used screening test for cognitive function and a score <24 is widely accepted as abnormal.