MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Define giant cell arteritis

A

Granulomatous inflammation of large arteries, particularly branches of the external carotid artery, most commonly the temporal artery.

One of the aorta + medium to large artery vasculitides

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2
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of giant cell arteritis

A

Unknown.

Genetic: Associated with HLA-DR4 and HLA-DRB1

Viral infection: parvovirus b19

Both the humoral and cellular immune systems have been implicated in the pathogenesis of GCA.

Pathphysiology:

  1. Inflammation (dendritic cells recruit monocytes, which differnetiate the macrophages and giant cells)
  2. Local vascular damage (macrophages produce MMPs)
  3. Concentric intimal hyperplasia (macrophages and giant cell produce PDGF and VEGF which stimulate intimal proliferation leading to reduced blood flow and ischaemia)

Association with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR): 40–50% of patients with giant cell arteritis also have PMR.

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3
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of giant cell arteritis

A

Peak onset 65-70 y/o. Female: male= 2-4:1. Norther european women

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4
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of giant cell arteritis

A

Subacute, over a few weeks

Constitutional symptoms
Fever, weight loss, night sweats
Symptoms of anemia: fatigue and malaise

Headache: scalp and temporal tenderness (pain on combing hair. Jaw and tongue claudication (when eating!).

Visual disturbances : Blurred vision, sudden blindness in one eye (amaurosis fugax=painless temporary loss of vision in one or both eyes and scintillating scotoma ).

Systemic features : Malaise, low-grade fever, lethargy, weight loss, depression.

Symptoms of polymyalgia rhuematica (PMR): Early morning pain and stiffness of the muscles of the shoulder and pelvic girdle (40– 60% of cases are associated with PMR).

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5
Q

Recognise the signs of giant cell arteritis on physical examination

A

Swelling and erythema overlying the temporal artery.

Scalp and temporal tenderness.

Thickened non-pulsatile temporal artery.

Reduced Visual acuity.

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6
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for giant cell arteritis and interpret the results

A

ACR criteria (3 of 5 required):

  • Age AT ONSET >50
  • Headaches
  • Abnormalities of temporal arteyr
  • Elevated ESR (>50mm/h)
  • Histopathaological abnormalities of temporal artery

Blood : raised ESR, FBC (normocytic anaemia of chronic disease).

Temporal artery biopsy : Within 48h of starting corticosteroids. Note that a negative biopsy does not exclude the diagnosis, because skip lesions occur.

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7
Q

Generate a management plan for giant cell arteritis

A

High dose oral prednisolone (40-60mg/day) to prevent VISUAL LOSS. Begin treatment as soon as temporal arteritis is suspected. Do not wait for a biopsy.

Reduce pred dose gradally according to symptoms adn ESR. Can require for 1-2 years

Low dose aspirin (+PPIs) to prevent ischaemic complications e.g. reduce risk of visual loss, TIAs or stroke.

Osteoporosis prevention (adequate dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, bisphosphonates).

If GCA is complicated by visual loss: IV pulse methylprednisolone (1 g for 3 days) followed by oral prednisolone (60 mg/day, as above).

Annual CXR for up to 10 years to identify thoracic aortic aneurysms. If detected, monitor with CT every 6– 12 months.

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8
Q

Identify the possible complications of giant cell arteritis and its management

A

Permanent vision loss: ∼ 20–30% if giant cell arteritis is left untreated

Cerebral ischemia (e.g., transient ischemic attack and stroke): < 2% of cases

Aortic aneurysm and/or dissection: ∼ 10–20% of patients

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9
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with giant cell arteritis

A

In most cases the condition lasts for ~2 years before complete remission.

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10
Q

Define sarcoidosis

A

Multisystem granulomatous inflammatory disorder

an immunologic disorder that results in lots of small nodules forming throughout the body.

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11
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of sarcoidosis

A

Unknown.

PATHOLOGY/PATHOGENESIS The unknown antigen is presented on the MHC Class II complex of dendritic cells to CD4 (Th1) lymphocytes, which accumulate and release cytokines (e.g. IL-1/IL-2).

This results in formation of non-caseating granulomas in a variety of organs.

RISK FACTORS:

  • Environmental risk factors include a prior infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Borrelia burgdorferi (which causes lyme disease), but to be specific, these pathogens are long gone when the autoimmune problem sets in.
  • Genetic: African American/family member with sarcoidosis
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12
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of sarcoidosis

A

Uncommon. More common in 20– 40 year olds, Africans and females. The prevalence is variable worldwide. Prevalence in UK is 16 in 100 000 (highest in Irish women).

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13
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of sarcoidosis

Where does it most commonly involve?

A

Sarcoidosis can involve nearly every organ, but they most often involves hilar lymph nodes which are lymph nodes that are near the point where the bronchi meets the lung.

General: fever, malaise, weight loss, bilateral parotid swelling, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

Lungs: breathlessness, cough (usually unproductive) , chest discomfort. Fine inspiratory crepitations

MSK: Bone cysts (e.g. dactylitis in phalanges), polyarthralgia, myopathy

Eyes: keratoconjuctivitis sicca (dry eyes), uveitis, papilloedema

Skin : Lupus pernio (red– blue infiltrations of nose, cheek, ears, terminal phalanges), erythema nodosum, maculopapular eruptions.

Neurological : Lymphocytic meningitis, space-occupying lesions, pituitary infiltration, cerebellar ataxia, cranial nerve palsies (e.g. bilateral facial nerve palsy), peripheral neuropathy.

Heart : Arrhythmia, bundle branch block, percarditis, cardiomyopathy, congestive cardiac failure.

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14
Q

Recognise the signs of sarcoidosis on physical examination

A

General: fever, malaise, weight loss, bilateral parotid swelling, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

Lungs: breathlessness, cough (usually unproductive) , chest discomfort. Fine inspiratory crepitations

MSK: Bone cysts (e.g. dactylitis in phalanges), polyarthralgia, myopathy

Eyes: keratoconjuctivitis sicca (dry eyes), uveitis, papilloedema

Skin : Lupus pernio (red– blue infiltrations of nose, cheek, ears, terminal phalanges), erythema nodosum, maculopapular eruptions.

Neurological : Lymphocytic meningitis, space-occupying lesions, pituitary infiltration, cerebellar ataxia, cranial nerve palsies (e.g. bilateral facial nerve palsy), peripheral neuropathy.

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15
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for sarcoidosis and interpret the results

Why would you do a 24-hr urine collection for sarcoidosis?

Stage 0, 1, 2 and 3 on CXR?

What happens to CD4:CD8 ratio on broncheoalveiolar lavage

A

Blood: SERUM ACE (is a measure of granuloma burden in tissues, product of macrophages), Ca2+ (elevated)

ESR, FBC (WCC may be reduced because of lymphocyte sequestration in the lungs), immunoglobulins (polycloncal hyperglobulinaemia), LFT (raised alkaline phosphatase and GGT)

24hr urine collection for: hypercalcuria

CXR: Stage 0 : May be clear. Stage 1 : Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Stage 2 : Stage 1 with pulmonary infiltration and paratracheal node enlargement. Stage 3 : Pulmonary infiltration and fibrosis.

High-resolution CT scan: For diffuse lung involvement.

67 Gallium scan: Shows areas of inflammation (classically parotids and around eyes).

Pulmonary function tests: # FEV 1 , FVC and gas transfer (showing restrictive picture).

Bronchoscopy and bronchoalveolar lavage: increased lymphocytes with increased CD4: CD8 ratio.

Transbronchial lung biopsy (or lymph node biopsy): Non-caseating granulomas composed of epithelioid cells (activated macrophages), multinucleate Langhans cells and mononuclear cells (lymphocytes).

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16
Q

What happens to WCC in sarcoidosis

A

WCC may be reduced because of lymphocyte sequestration in the lungs

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17
Q

What are the normal components of synovial fluid analysis

A

Colour

Leukocytes

%PMNs

Total protein

Glucose

Crystals

Culture

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18
Q

What would you expect to see in a gouty arthritis synovial fluid analysis

A

Colour- yellow

Leukocytes- raised

%PMNs: raised

Total protein: slightly raised

Glucose: reduced

Crystals: -vely birefringent needle-shaped crysals

Culture: negative

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19
Q

Interpret this synovial fluid analysis:

Color: Yellow/opaque Leukocytes: 100,000 mm3 %PMNs: 75 Total Protein: 4g/dL Glucose: 20g/dL Crystals: None Culture: Gram+ cocci in clusters

A

This is a typical synovial fluid analysis for septic arthritis or septic bursitis.

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20
Q

Where are the common sites of bursitis

A

Common sites of bursitis include trochanteric (as in the vignette above) subacromial, olecranon, prepatellar, and infrapatellar bursae.

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21
Q

Outline what happens to the bursa in bursitis

A

Trauma or repetitive use can irritate the bursa, leading to inflammation and proliferation of the mesothelial cells lining the sac.

Inflammation of the bursa results in the effusion of a clear fluid within the bursal sac.

With prolonged inflammation, the sac gets thickened and may cause erosion on the adjacent bone due to the pressure exerted by the sac.

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22
Q

What might radiographs of bursitis around the greater trochanter show

A

Radiographs may show some calcification arising from the apex of the greater trochanter.

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23
Q

What is the current vignette typical for

Gradual, dull, and nocturnal pain with poor response to salicylates. Radiograph shows a well-circumscribed, lytic lesion (> 2 cm) with a rim of reactive sclerosis.

Is this benign or malignant?

A

Osteoblastoma

Benign

This type of tumor is usually a solitary lesion and tends to affect the axial skeleton (m.c., posterior column of the cervical spine). Osteoblastoma is more common in males between 20 to 30 years. Patients present with gradual, dull, and nocturnal pain with poor response to salicylates. In the physical exam, findings may include decreased range of motion and tender and swollen affected area. Patients may also progress to develop a neurological deficit as a result of cord compression.

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24
Q

Differentiate osteoblastoma with an osteoid osteoma

A

Osteoid osteoma is basically same as osteoblastoma, but >1cm

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25
Q

Well defined bone tunour that is usually located on epiphysis of long bones.
Pt presents with limited range of motion.
Tumour doesn’t have reactive sclerotic rim.

A

Giant cell tumour (osteoclastoma)

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26
Q

Signs of osteosarcoma on imaging

A

ill-defined lesion, aggressive periosteal reaction, and cortical destruction

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27
Q

Give 3 extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Subcut nodules, pulmonary fibrosis and episcleritis

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28
Q

Deformities typically shown in rheum arthritis?

A

Ulnar deviation of the fingers

Z shaped thumb

Swan neck and boutonniere deformity

Trigger finger

Radial deviation of the wrist

(NOTE THAT THE DIPs ARE SPARED)

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29
Q

Triad for reactive arthritis?

Extra articular features

A

Uveitis, arthritis and urethritis

(days or weeks after GI/urogenital infection)

Other extra-articular features of reactive arthritis include circinate balanitis and
keratoderma blennorrhagicum (BROWN, commonly found on palms and soles)
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30
Q

Define carpal tunnel syndrome

(briefly, what makes up the carpal tunnel)

A

Mononeuropathy brought on by compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

Flexor retinaculum superiorly, and carpal bones inferiorly

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31
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Idiopathic (most common)
or

Secondary to:

  • Tenosynovitis: overuse, rheumatoid arthritis, other inflammatory rheumatic disease
  • Infaltrive disease of the canal/increased soft tissue: Amyloidosis, Myxoedema, myeloma, acromegaly
  • Bone involvement in wrist: osteoarthritis, fracture, tumour
  • Fluid retention states: pregnancy, nephrotic syndrome
  • Other: obesity, menopause, diabetes, end-stage renal disease, gout
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32
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Tingling and pain in the hand and fingers (may be woken up at night)

Weakness and clumsiness or hand

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33
Q

Recognise the signs of carpal tunnel syndrome on physical examination

A

Sensory impairment to median nerve distribution (first 3.5 fingers)

Weakness and wasting of thenar eminence (abductor pollicis brevis and opponens)

Tinnels sign: tapping carpal tunnel triggers symptoms (think “tapping tinnel”)

Phalen’s test: maximal flexion of the wrist for 1 minute may cause symptoms (think “phalens flexing”

Signs of the underlying cause: hypothyroidism (myxoedema) or acromegaly

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34
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for carpal tunnel syndrome and interpret the results

A

Diagnostic test of choice:
EMG

USS and MRI (space occupying lesion)

Bloods:
TFTs, ESR.

Nerve conduction stidues not always necessary. Shows impaired median nerve conduction across the carpal tunnel in the context of normal conduction elsewhere

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35
Q

Management of carpal tunnel

A

Mild- moderate:
Nocturnal wrist splinting in the neutral position. If there is inadequate response: a single injection of methylprednisolone into the carpal tunnel.

Referral to an occupational therapist/carpal bone mobilization.

Moderate to severe CTS refractory to conservative measures: Surgical decompression

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36
Q

Define rheumatoid arthritis

A

A chronic autoimmune inflammatory condition characterised by symmetrical deforming polyarthritis and extra-articular manifestations

Affects synovial joints

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37
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of rheumatoid arthritis

Gene assocaitions

What causes extra-articular symptoms

A

Autoimmune condition of unknown cause

HLA DR-1 and HLA DR-4 associations

Ass with Raynaud’s and Sjorgens

During flares, synovial and immune cells increase and granulations from in the synovial membrane, forming a pannus.

The pannus can damage cartilage and soft tissue and erode bone

Cytokines cause extra-articular symptoms

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38
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

3x more likely in females.

Peak incidence 30-50 years

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39
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Gradual (occasionally rapid) onset.

Usually affects peripheral joints symmetrically (occasionally monoarticular involvement, e.g. knee).

Pain, swelling and loss of mobility at affected joints

-Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite (–> weight loss)

Morning stiffness that improves as the day goes on

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40
Q

Recognise the signs of rheumatoid arthritis on physical examination

Which joints affected. Which joint is late to be affected

SEE EXTRA-ARTICULAR MANIFESTATIONS BELOW

A

Articular manifestations:

HAND: MCPs and PIPs usually affected, DIPs SPARED (not much synovium there)*. These lead to reduced grip strength

FEET: Metatarsophalangeal joints affected. Causes people to bear less weight on their toes, and more on their heal. So when they walk they hyperextend their toes.

Elbows, shoulders, knees, ankles can be affected.

Hip can be affected leading to groin, thigh and lower back pain. This is usually a late joint to be affected.

  • Ulnar deviation of the fingers at MCP joints (due to subluxation)
  • Swann neck deformities and boutonnieres deformity
  • Z thumb
  • Radial deviation at the wrist
  • Trigger finger
  • Wasting of the small muscles of the hand, palmar erythema
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41
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for rheumatoid arthritis and interpret the results

What is shown on xray of joints? DENS

What is needed for diagnosis?

What exactly is rheumatoid factor?

Which is the most specific biomarker?

A

FBC: Hb (reduced), platelets (increased), mild high WCC

ESR&CRP

Autoantibodies: 
rheumatoid factor (monoclonal IgM against Fc portion of IgG) present in 70% of people with rheumatoid, and 5% of normal population

and anti-CCP, possible anti-nuclear antibodies too

* Anti-citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies (C) levels are the most
specific investigation for rheumatoid arthritis.
*

However, rheumatoid factor should be tested for, and then anti-CCP is subsequently sent if rheumatic factor is negative, or to infrom decision making about starting therapy

Joint aspiration (acutely) to exclude septic arthritis

Bilateral plain radiographs of hand, wrist and feet (to minor disease progression): DENS

  • reduced bone Density
  • bone Erosions
  • Narrowing of joint space
  • Soft tissue swelling

DIAGNOSIS:

  • At least 6 weeks
  • At least 3 joints
  • Positive rheumatoid factor or anti-CCP
  • Raised CRP or ESR.

There is also a classification for diagnosis which you need to score above 6 on.

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42
Q

What is the primary cause of mortality associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Cardiovascular disease. Vasculitis and atheromatous plaques (–> MI and strokes)

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43
Q

What is the primary cause of mortality associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Cardiovascular disease. Vasculitis and atheromatous plaques (–> MI and strokes)

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44
Q

What are the extra-articular features of rheumatoid

A

EXTRA-ARTICULAR
-Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite (–> weight loss)

  • Vasculitis and atheromatous plaques (–> MI and strokes)
  • Vasculitis of skin: nail fold infarct, digital gangrene, ulcers, purpuric rash
  • Heart: pericarditis, pericardial rib, myocarditis, valvular regurg
  • Rheumatoid nodules (collections of macrophages and lymphocytes that have a central area of necrosis) on elbows, palms, over extensor tendons
  • Low serum iron (increased hepcidin production)
  • Pulmonary fibrosis and pleural effusions
  • Eyes: scleritis, epislceritis
  • Neuro: peripheral neuropathy, carpal tunnel, spinal cord compression
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45
Q

What is felty’s syndrome

A

Combo of:

  • Rheumatoid
  • Splenomegaly
  • Neutropenia
  • Lower limb pigmentation
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46
Q

Define gout

A

Monoarticular inflammatory arthritis characterised by deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints, soft tissues and kidneys

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47
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of gout

A

Purines (from nucleic acids) are usually broken down to uric acid using an enzyme cause xanthine oxidase.

In gout, the plasma becomes saturated with uric acid molecules. These bind to sodium to form monosodium urate, particularly in areas with slow blood flow (joints and kidneys)

RISK FACTOR:

  • HYPERURICAEMIA
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • Male
  • HTN
  • Dyslipidaemia
  • Alcohol use
  • Drugs

Causes of hyperuricaemia:

1) Impaired excretion from the kidneys
- idiopathic
- renal failure
- medication (CANT LEAP- ciclosporin, aspirin, nicotinic acid, thiazides, loop diuretics, ethambutol, alcohol, pyrizinamide)) - think TB meds!

2) Overproduction of purines
- increased consumption of purine rich foods (shellfish, anchovies and red meat)
- genetic predisposition
- chemo/radiation treatment

3) Rare causes:
- Von gierke disease
- Lesch-nyhan syndrome

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48
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of crystal arthropathy (gout, pseudogout)

A

Male to female 10:1.

More common in higher social classes

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49
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of crystal arthropathy (gout, pseudogout)

A

ACUTE:
Sudden excruciating monoarticular pain, usually the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe

  • Crystals cause tissue damage, resulting in a self-limited acute inflammatory episode= GOUT ATTACK.
  • A gout attack resolves spontaneously within 10 days

CHRONIC
Persistent low-grade fever, polyarticular pain with painful tophi (urate deposits), best seen on tendons and the pinna of the ear.

  • Repeated gout attacks can lead to chronic gout
  • This is a type of arthritis in which there is joint tissue destruction and permanent joint deformity
  • Permanent deposits of urate crystals= TOPHI
  • These tophi can be surrounded by protein which do not therefore trigger inflammatory response, but sometimes the crystals can get out of the protein wall and trigger new gout attacks
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50
Q

Recognise the signs of crystal arthropathy (gout, pseudogout) on physical examination

What is podagra?

What are the 2 main complications

A

Acute gout: Sudden excruciating monoarticular pain in MTP of big toe, usually symmetrical.

Joints of ankle, knees, wrist and elbow can be involved.

Joint swollen, warm and red.

WHEN IT INVOLVES BIG TOE=PODAGRA. Can wake them up from sleep.

Chronic gout: low grade fever

COMPLICATIONS:

  • Urate nephropathy
  • Uric acid renal calculi
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51
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for crystal arthropathy (gout, pseudogout) and interpret the results

A

Synovial fluid analysis:

  • Diagnosis depends on presence of monosodium urate crystals:
  • Needle shaped, negatively birefrigent under polarised light.

(this means they are yellow under parallel light and blue under perpendicular light)

Gram stain and culture to exclude infection

Blood: FBC (raised WCC), U&E, increased urate (but may be normal in acute gout), raised ESR

AXR/KUB film: uric acid renal stones often radiolucent

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52
Q

Outline how chemo/radiation therapy can cause gout

A

Lots of tumour cells die due to these therapies, leading to tumour lysis syndrome

Dead cells release their contents into the bloodstream including uric acid (as well as phosphate and potassium)

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53
Q

How does von girke disease cause gout

A

Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency means that pyruvate accumulates, preventing conversion of lactate –> pyruvate. Lactate and urate are excreted in the kidneys by the same transporter, so the excess lactate causes reduced urate excretion)

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54
Q

How does lesch-nyhan syndrome lead to gout

A

It causes deficiency of HGPRT, an enzyme used in the recycling of uric acid (to convert it back into purine)

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55
Q

What are the precipitants of a gout attack

A

Big meal with purine rich foods (meat, shellfish, anchovies)

Alcohol (as it competes with uric acid for excretion in the kidneys)

Infection

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56
Q

Define pseudogout

What crystals

A

Inflammatory condition causing pain in the

Calcium pyrophosphate

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57
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of pseudogout.

What are the associations

Provoking factors

A

Increased pyrophosphate production by CARTILAGE, leading to LOCAL pyrophosphate supersaturation and deposition of calcium pyrophospahte crystals.
SHEDDING of crystals into joint cavity precipitates acute arthritis.

Accumulate in the joints and soft tisuse where they can cause tissue damage.

Idiopathic. Cause not well understood like in gout

Most causes of joint damage predispose to pseudogout (e.g. osteoarthritis, trauma)

Associated with:

  • Trauma to joint
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Hypermagnesaemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypophosphataemia
  • Haemochromatosis

Provoking factors:
-Intercurrent illness, surgery, local trauma

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58
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of pseudogout

A

Associated with those over >50

Female to male is 2:1.

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59
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of pseudogout

Affected joints?

A

ACUTE ATTACK:
-Painful, swollen, warm and red (indistinguishable from acute gout)

But CPPD tends to affect >1 joint. Knee, shoulder, elbow and wrist.

CHRONIC DEGENERATION:
Joint destruction and limited joint mobility. Pain stuffness, functional impairment

Uncommon: tendonitis, tenosynovitis, bursitis

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60
Q

Recognise the signs of pseudogout

A

Acute arthritis: Red, hot, tender, restricted range of movement, fever.

Chronic arthropathy (similar to osteoarthritis): Bonyswelling, crepitus, deformity, e.g. varus in 
knees, restriction of movement.

It is associated with chondrocalcinosis

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61
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for pseudogout

What can you see on x ray

A

Synovial fluid analysis

CPPD not as evident as monosodium urate:
-Weakly positively birefringent under polarised light
(blue under parallel light, yellow under perpendicular light)
-Rhomboid/rod shaped appearance
-Seen in or outside the cell

Imaging can help:

  • CHONDROCALCINOSIS on x ray. This can be occur even if the disease is not clinically active at the time of presentation
  • Loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral cysts, sclerosis

Blood: FBC (may show increased WCC in acute attack), ESR (may be raised), blood culture (exclude infective arthritis)

Screen for:

  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Hypermagnesaemia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypophosphataemia
  • Haemochromatosis
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62
Q

.

A

.

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63
Q

.

A

.

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64
Q

.

A

.

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65
Q

.

A

.

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66
Q

.

A

.

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67
Q

.

A

.

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68
Q

.

A

.

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69
Q

.

A

.

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70
Q

.

A

.

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71
Q

.

A

.

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72
Q

Reiter’s disease is also known as reactive arthritis. What is the clinical triad

A

A sterile synovitis
that typically follows an infection and involves the classical triad of
urethritis, arthritis and conjunctivitis.

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73
Q

Which MSK condition affects the DIP more than the PIP

A

Primary nodal osteoarthritis

Pain is characteristically worse at the end of the day.

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74
Q

In what age group does polymyalgia rheumatica

A

It’s rare under 60s

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75
Q

T/F paget’s disease does not affect serum Ca2+ levels

A

T

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76
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with which HLA

A

sacroiliac pain that is worst in the morning and better with activity. It also
causes

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77
Q

Schobers test in ank spond?

A

Schober’s test will reveal reduced spinal flexion.

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78
Q

What is the straight leg raise. When is it positive

A

The straight

leg raise is a clinical test that elicits pain in patients with lumbar disc herniation.

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79
Q

Osteoarthritis bony swellings?

A

(Heberden’s and Bouchard’s

nodes).

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80
Q

What % of patients with psoriasis develop arthritis

A

5%

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81
Q

What is the presentation of psoriasic arthritis

A

The pattern of arthritis is variable but most commonly affects the distal
interphalangeal joints and is asymmetrical.

Nail or skin changes of
psoriasis are usually present, but may develop after the arthritis.

It is also
important to note that psoriatic arthritis may present as a symmetrical
polyarthritis, resembling rheumatoid arthritis.

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82
Q

What is it called if the psoriatic arthritis turns into marked joint deformity

A

A small number of patients
with psoriatic arthritis may develop arthritis mutilans, where peri-articular
osteolysis and bone shortening occur, producing marked deformity.

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83
Q

Define sarcoidosis

A

Immunological disorder that results in lots of nodules forming over the body

Multisystem, granulomatous inflammaotry disorder

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84
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of sarcoidosis

A

T cell proliferation without a pathogen

Forms nodules which contain granulomas. They have macrophages at the centre and T cells around the pathology, which are NON-CASEATING. The macrophages in the centre can merge together to form a Langerhans giant cell.

Trigger not known

Genetic:

  • African American
  • Family members with sarcoidosis

Environmental
-Prior infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Borrelia burgdorferi
(these pathogens are long gone when the autoimmune system sets in)

Can involve nearly any organ.

Most commonly involves:
-Hilar lymph nodes, which can cause hilar lymphadenopathy

Can also form in:

  • Skin (erythema nodosum, commonly on the front of the shins). Red, hard and painful
  • Uveitis (inflammation in the pigmented layer in the eye)
  • Heart (can lead to arrhythmia)
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85
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of sarcoidosis

A

African american females

Uncommon.

More common in 20-40 year olds

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86
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of sarcoidosis

A

GENERALISED:
-Fever, weight loss, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, bilateral parotid swelling, hepatosplenomegaly

SPECIFIC:

  • LUNG: SoB/coughing (unproductive), fine inspiratory creps
  • MSK: bone cysts (dactylitis in phalanges), polyarthralgia, myopathy
  • EYES: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes), uveitis, papilloedema.
  • SKIN: Erythema nodosum, maculopapular eruptions, Lupus pernio (red–blue infiltrations of nose, cheek, ears, terminal phalanges)
  • NEURO: Lymphocytic meningitis, space-occupying lesions, pituitary infiltration, cerebellar ataxia, cranial nerve palsies (e.g.. bilateral facial nerve palsy) , peripheral neuropathy
  • HEART: arrhythmias, BBB, pericarditis, cardiomyopathy, congestive cardiac failure
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87
Q

Recognise the signs of sarcoidosis on physical examination

A

..

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88
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for sarcoidosis and interpret the results

A

CHEST X-RAY or CT scan of chest. BILATERAL, HILAR LYMPHADENOPATHY

Blood test:

  • Raised calcium (due to excess vit D produced by macrophages)
  • Increased ACE (produced by T cells)
  • Increased ESR
  • WCC may be low due to lymphocyte sequestration in the lungs
  • immunoglobulins (polyclonal hyperglobulinaemia),
  • LFT (raised alkaline phosphatase and GGT).

Bronchoalveolar lavage:
-Increased T cells in the lung (increased CD4:CD8 ratio)

-Langerhans giant cell forms from fused marcrophages, and contain SCHAUMANN BODIES (calcium and protein deposits) and
ASTEROID BODIES

67 gallium scan: areas of inflammation around parotids and eyes

GOLD STANDARD: BIOPSY AND HISTOLOGY:
-Non-caseating granulomas with T cells peripherally and macrophages in the middle. Mutinucleate langerhans cell.

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89
Q

Outline chest x ray staging of sarcoidosis

A

Stage 0: may be clear

Stage 1: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

Stage 2: Stage 1 with pulmonary infiltration

Stage 3: Pulmonary infiltration and fibrosis.

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90
Q

T/F rheum arthritis is associated with erythema nodosum

A

F.

It is associated with infection (strep infections, TB), inflammatory disorders (sarcoid, IBD), drugs (oral contraceptive pill).

See derm.

Not rheum arthritis though

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91
Q

Define Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Inflammation and destruction of exocrine glands (usually salivary and lacrimal).

Can be “secondary” to other autoimmune diseases

Sicca syndrome is aka primary sjorgens syndrome

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92
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Sjögren’s syndrome

What are the HLA associations

What conditions is is associated with

A

Gen: HLA-B8, DR3
Enrivon: Recent exocrine gland infection

Ass with:

  • Rheumatoid arthritis,
  • scleroderma,
  • SLE,
  • polymyositits and
  • organ specific diseases like: PBC, autoimmune hepatitis, autoimmune thyroid disease and MG
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93
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Male to female around 1:9!!!!

Onset between 15-65 years old

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94
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Remember most commonly in middle aged women

General: fatigue, fever, weight loss, depression

Dry eyes (=keratoconjunctivitis sicca): Gritty, sore eyes, blurring of vision, redness

Dry mouth (=xerostomia): Dysphagia may result secondarily

Dry upper airways: Dry cough, recurrent sinusitis

Dry hair and skin (uncommon)

Dry vagina (uncommon): May cause dyspareunia

Reduced GI mucus secretion causing reflux eosophagitis, gastritis and constipation

95
Q

Recognise the signs of Sjögren’s syndrome on physical examination

A

Parotid or salivary gland enlargement.

Dry eyes.

Dry mouth or tongue.

Signs of the associated conditions.

96
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Sjögren’s syndrome and interpret the results

What is the confirmatory test

A

BLOOD:

  • Raised ESR
  • Raised amylase if salivary glands involved

AUTOANTIBODIES:
-Rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-ENA (which includes anti-SSA, aka anti-Ro. and also anti-SSB aka anti-La)

SCHIRMERS TEST:

  • Filter paper strip under eyelid.
  • Positive if <10mm of the strip is wet after 5 minutes

FLUORESCEIN/ROSE BENGAL STAINS:
-May show punctate or filamentary keratits (clumps of mucus on the corna)

SIALOMETRY
-Can be done to measure saliva flow

OTHERS:

  • Reduced parotid salivary flow rate
  • Reduced clearance on isotope scan

BIOPSY (=CONFIRMATORY TEST)
-Of salivary or labial glands

97
Q

What would a confirmatory lip biopsy show in sjorgens syndrome

A

hich will show extensive lymphocytic infiltrate, especially CD4+ T- cells, plasma cells, and macrophages; and thickening of the inner duct wall.

98
Q

What is the difference in the history between lambert eaton syndrome and myasthenia gravis.

A

MG is an autoimmune condition with antibodies against nicotinic acetycholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

Lambert eaton syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome characterised by production of antibodies again calcium channels, and they are usually produced from small cell lung cancers.

Myasthenia gravis is characterised by fatigue that gets worse with activity – patients often complain about severe fatigue towards the end of
the day.

WHEREAS

Fatigue, in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, improves with activity.

99
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica causes what symptoms at the shoulder and pelvic joints

A

Polymyalgia
rheumatica is an inflammatory condition, which causes pain and stiffness (WITHOUT
weakness) of the shoulder and pelvic girdle that is typically worst in the morning.

100
Q

What are the presentations of psoriatic arthritis

A

1) DIP joint disease
2) Psoriatic spondylopathy
3) Symmetrical polyarthritis
4) Assymetrical oligoarthritis and
5) ARTHRITIS MUTILANS (telescoping of the digits)

101
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome

A

Triad of RA, splenomegaly and neutropaenia.

Most commonly in patients with RA.

Low neutrophil count causes infection

102
Q

Which infection most commonly triggers reactive arthriits

A

Chlamydia trachomitis

103
Q

What is reiter syndrome

A

Type of reactive arthritis, characterised by:
Nongonococcal urethritis
Asymmetric oligoarthritis
Conjunctivitis

104
Q

What is the HLA association of reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27

105
Q

What is the most common organism causing reactive arthritis following diarroeah

A

Shigella

106
Q

Waht is the most common organism causign reactive arthirtis + keratoderma blenorrhagicum

A

Chlamydia

107
Q

Progressive hearing loss and arthritis?

A

Progressive
hearing loss
can occur in patients with Alports syndrome. Patients with Alports syndrome can present with
arthritis
, but other associated symptoms include
nephritis
and a family history is usually present.

108
Q

What is dermatomyositis

Clinical features

A
Dermatomyositis
 (DM) is a systemic 
connective-tissue
 disorder related to 
polymyositis
 (PM) and is characterized by 
skin rash
, 
erythroderma
, periungual 
telangiectasias
, "mechanic's hands" (rough, cracked skin), 
scalp
 psoriasiform changes, centripetal flagellate 
erythema
, 
calcinosis cutis
, symmetric proximal 
muscle weakness
, pain, tenderness, temporary 
paralysis
, and 
dysphagia
, among others.
109
Q

What are the investigation findings in dermatomyositis

A

The most appropriate first step for diagnosis is the study of symptomatology and CK blood measurements. Definitive diagnosis is through
muscle biopsy
, and skin biopsy and EMG are complementary

110
Q

What is the cause of dermatomyositis

A

The cause is unknown, but it may result from an initial viral or bacterial infection and the mechanism is conjectured to be
complement-mediated
damage of microscopic vessels with
muscle atrophy
and lymphocytic inflammation secondary to tissue
ischemia

111
Q

What is gottrons sign

A
Gottron's sign is an 
erythematous
, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and 
interphalangeal joints
 in 
dermatomyositis
.
112
Q

Describe the muscle weakness in polymoyositis and dermatomyositis

A

These conditions are characterized by symmetrical proximal
muscle weakness
and inflammation.

113
Q

SLE diagnosis

A

4 of the following 11 must be present:

S-erositis
O-ral ulcer
A-rthritis (non-erosive)
P-hotosensitivity
B-lood disorders (haemolytic anaemia, leukopaenia, thrombocytopaenia)
R-enal disorders (proteinuria, red cell casts)
Anti-nuclear antibodies
I-mmunological disorders
N-eurological disease (psychosis and seizures)
M-alar rash
D-iscoid rash

114
Q

Why is tensilon test rarely used

A

Causes bradycardia (anti-cholinesterase inhibitor

115
Q

Extra-articular features of ank spond

A
Apical lung fibrosis 
Aortic regurgitation 
Achilles tendonitis 
Anterior uveitis 
Amyloidosis

5 As

116
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum

A

Infection (strep, TB, salmonella, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis, yersinia, leprosy)

Inflammation (sarcoid, IBD (both), behcets)

Malignancy (N-H lymphoma, leukaemoa)

Drugs (oral contraceptive pill, sulphonamides, penicillin)

117
Q

Which drugs are risk factors for gout

A

Chemo
Low dose NSAIDs
Ciclosporins
Thiazide

118
Q

What are risk factors for septic arthritis

A

Prosthetic joints
Immunosuppression
Trauma to a joint

119
Q

How can you differnetiate an articular from periarticular pain on joint examination

A

Articular conditions are more likely to present with a diff usely infl amed joint (red, hot, painful) and pain on passive as well as active motion.

Periarticular conditions tend to have a focal point of tenderness on palpation (in bursitis this would be over the bursa; in tendonitis, over the tendon) and pain is usually much worse on active movement than on passive movement.

120
Q

Uveitis is commonly associated with joint pain caused by which arthropathies

A

HLA B-27 associated ones.

These are HLA class I related arthritides “seronegative arthritides”

Like ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, IBD related arthritis, bechcets disease (which is actually B51!) and psoriatic arthritis

121
Q

T/F being systemically well and afebrile rules out septic arthriits

A

f

122
Q

First line investigation in monoarticular arthropathy

A

Arthrocentesis of the joint

123
Q

Is serum urate indicated in the acute setting if you suspect gout?

A

No.

Patients who develop gout have often had hyperuricaemia for years, although during acute gout their serum urate is often normal or low. For this reason it should not be ordered in the acute setting. Also note that asymptomatic hyperuricaemia is fairly common in the population and thus a fi nding of elevated urate is not very helpful in diagnosis.

124
Q

What imaging might be useful if you have excluded intra-articular pathology in a joint

A

MRI

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) − is the imaging of choice for soft tissue injuries and other extra-articular pathology, e.g. osteomyelitis.

125
Q

What is the second commonest joint affected by gout

A

Gout most commonly aff ects the big toe (podagra), but the knee is the second most common joint affected and thus presentation of monoarthropathy of the knee is not atypical

126
Q

Disc herniation can lead to what pattern of pain

What are the other causes of this

A

It can lead to radiculopathy which is compression of a nerve root.

The most commonly affected nerve roots are L4-5 and L5-S1.

It results in sciatica, pain radiation from the back down to the leg.

OTHER CAUSES OF RADICULOPATHY:

  • degenerative diseases of the spine (leading to neuroforaminal or spinal canal stenosis)
  • fracture
  • malignancy (most commonly metastatic)
  • infection like extradural abscesses, osteomyelitis (most commonly TB, or herpes zoster)
127
Q

What are the motor and sensory deficits associated with the following radiculopathy, and which intervertebral disc herniation causes that radiculopathy

1) L4
2) L5
3) S1

A

Herniated discs tend to compress the nerve root BELOW them.
L3-4 herniation (rare)–> L4 RADICULOPATHY:
-Weakness in knee extension and reduced patellar reflex.
-Sensory: Extending from distal lateral thigh area over patella up to inner side of lower leg

L4-5 herniation–> L5 radiculopathy.

  • Weakened hip abduction and dorsiflexion
  • Difficulty HEEL walking
  • Sensory: Dorsolateral thigh, lateral side of the knee, anterolateral lower leg, dorsum of foot, big toe

L5-S1 herniation (MOST COMMON) –> S1 radiculopathy

  • Weakened plantar flexion
  • Difficulty TOE walking
  • Sensory: lateral foot
128
Q

What is the straight leg raise test

A

It is when person keeps leg straight and raises them one at a time.

If they get pain radiating down their leg, the sign is positive, suggesting lumbar disc herniation

MRI to confirm

129
Q

Clinical features of radiculopathy

A

Remember it’s compressing a spinal nerve so motor and sensory effects.

SENSORY: paraesthesia and numbness. radicular pain

MOTOR: weakness.

130
Q

Clinical features of radiculopathy

A

Remember it’s compressing a spinal nerve so motor and sensory effects.

SENSORY: paraesthesia and numbness. radicular pain

MOTOR: weakness.

Loss of deep tendon reflexes. See above.

Pain increases with pressure (coughing/sneezing) but reduces with changign position/short walks

131
Q

What is spinal cord compression

A

occurs when the spinal cord is compressed by a lesion such as a tumor, fracture, or ruptured disk

Compare this to radiculopathy which is when the nerve root itself is compressed

132
Q

What are the causes of spinal cord compression of acute vs insidious onset

A

Acute: vertebral fracture, acute disc herniation, hematoma

Insidious: abscess, primary tumor, metastasis (days to weeks); slow-growing primary tumors, degenerative spine changes, e.g., spondylosis (months to years)

133
Q

Diagnosis of spinal cord compression

A

Diagnosis is by X-rays but preferably magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine.[1] The most common causes of cord compression are tumors, but abscesses and granulomas (e.g. in tuberculosis) are equally capable of producing the syndrome.

134
Q

What is spinal stenosis

A

Spinal stenosis is an abnormal narrowing of the spinal canal or neural foramen that results in pressure on the spinal cord or nerve roots

Symptoms are typically gradual in onset and improve with bending forward

135
Q

What is neurogenic claudciation

A

Neurogenic
claudication
is a frequent symptom of
lumbar

spinal stenosis
, and is typically exacerbated by
lumbar

extension
and relieved by
lumbar
flexion.

Walking downhill would place the spine into 
extension
, with an increase in 
lumbar lordosis
. In association with 
lumbar
spinal stenosis
, 
extension
 would further 
compress
 the 
spinal nerves
, resulting in an increase in symptoms.
136
Q

Define ankylosing spondylitis

Which joints are affected

A

Seronegative inflammatory arthropathy affecting preferentially the axial skeleton and large proximal joints.

Inflammation starts at the entheses (sites of attachment of ligaments to vertebral bodies).

137
Q

Cause of ank spond

A

Unknown, strong link with HLA-B27 (>90% HLA B27 +ve, copared to 8% of general population)

Inflammation starts at entheses. Changes START in lumbar and progress to thoracic and cervical region.

138
Q

What bone changes occur in ank spond

A

Following inflammation of the entheses joints, there is reactive new bone formation (lumbar first –> cervical):

  • Squaring of vertebral bodies
  • Syndemophytes (vertical ossifications bridging the margins of adjacent vertebrae)
  • Fusion of syndesmophtes and facet joints (ankylosis and spinal immobility)
  • Calficiation of anterior and lateral spinal ligaments
139
Q

Epidemiology of ank spond

A

Commojn. Earlier presentation in men. Men to women is 6:1 at 16 years old, and 2:1 at 30

140
Q

History of ank spond

A

Low back and sacroiliac pain disturbing sleep (worse in morning, improves on activity, returns with rest)

Progressive loss of spinal movement.

ASYMMETRICAL PERIPHERAL ARTHRITIS.

Pleuritic chest pain (costovertebral joint involvement). Heel pain (plantar fasciitis)

141
Q

Examination of ank spond

A

Reduced range of spinal movement (in particular hip rotation)

Reduced lateral spinal flexion and occiput-wall distance (with patient standing next to the wall)

Schober’s test will show less than 5cm change in distance on forward flexion.

Tenderness of SI joints.

later stage: cervical kyphosis

142
Q

Investigation for ank spond

A

1st investigations: pelvic x ray.
The presence of radiographic sacroiliitis is a requirement for fulfilling the modified New York classification criteria for AS, which is the most specific criteria set for reaching a diagnosis
Radiographically apparent sacroiliitis may take many years to develop, and therefore a normal pelvic x-ray does not exclude the diagnosis

HLA-B27 is not diagnostic

MRI has been instrumental in allowing clinicians to diagnose AS early. Gadolinium enhancement not needed. You see bone marrow oedema on a T2-weighted sagittal short-tau inversion recovery (STIR) image

143
Q

Define spondylosis

A

Degeneration of the vertebral column from any cause

It si a pars interarticularis vertebral defect, mostly in the lumbar area

144
Q

Aetiology and risk factors for spondylosis

A

Age related wear and tear (spinal osteoarthritis)

Years of constant abnormal pressure on the vertebrae or discs caused by joint subluxation, sport induced stress, trauma, or poor posture

In response to the abnormal stress, new bone is created to compensate for the new weight.

145
Q

Examination for spondylosis

WHat is Lhermitte sign

A

Cervical compression test, a variant of spurlings test.

Laterally flex patient’s head and place downward pressure on it. Neck or shoulder pain on the ipsilateral side (i.e. the side to which the head is flexed) indicates a positive result for this test. (may indicate spondylosis)

eeling of electrical shock with patient neck flexion

Reduced range of motion of the neck, the most frequent objective finding on physical examination

146
Q

Investigation for spondylosis

A

MRI and CT scans are helpful for pain diagnosis but generally are not definitive and must be considered together with physical examinations and history.

147
Q

What is amyloidosis

What are amyloidi fibrils

A

Heterogeneous group of diseases characterized by extracellular deposition of amyloid fibrils.

Amyloid fibrils are polymers comprising low-molecular-weight subunit proteins, predominantly antiparallel b-pleated sheet configuration.

They associate with glycosaminoglycans and serum amyloid P-component (SAP), and their deposition progressively disrupts the structure and function of normal tissue.

148
Q

Types of amyloidosis?

A

AA (Serum amyloid A protein)

AL (Monocloncal immunoglobulin light chains)

ATTR (genetic variant transthyretin)

149
Q

What are the causes of AA amyloid

A

Deposition of serum amyloid A protein

Chronic inflammatory diseases:

  • Rheumatoid arthriits
  • Seronegative arthritides
  • Crohn’s
  • Chronic infection (bronchiectasis, TB, osteomyelitis), malignancy (Hodgkin’s, renal cancer)
150
Q

What is the cause of AL amyloid

A

Deposition of Monocloncal immunoglobulin light chains

Subtle monoclonal plasma cell dyscrasias, multiple myeloma, Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia, B-cell lymphoma

151
Q

What is the inheritance of ATTR

A

Autosomal dominant

152
Q

Where can amyloid affect?

A

Can be systemic (generalised) or localised:

e.g. pancreatic islets of Langerhans (type 2 diabetes), cerebral cortex (Alzheimer’s disease), cerebral blood vessels (amyloid angiopathy) and in bones and joints (in long-term dialysis caused by b2-microglobulin).

153
Q

What type of amyloid can patients get who have had long term haemodialysis

A

B-2 microglobulin

154
Q

Hx of amyloid

A

Renal: Proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, renal failure

Cardiac: Restrictive cardiomyopathy, heart failure, arrhythmia, angina (due to accumulation of amyloid in the coronary arteries).

GI: Macroglossia, hepatomegly, splenomegaly, gut dysmotility, malabsorption, bleeding

Neurological: Sensory and motor neuropathy, autonomic neuropathy (symptoms of bowel or bladder dysfunction, postural hypotension), carpal tunnel syndrome.

Skin: Waxy skin and easy bruising, purpura around eyes (characteristic of AL), plaques and nodules.

Joints: Painful asymmetrical large joints, “shoulder pad” sign (enlargement of the anterior shoulder).

Haem: Bleeding diathesis (factor X deficiency due to binding on amyloid fibrils primarily in the liver and spleen; and# synthesis of coagulation factors in patients with advanced liver disease).

155
Q

Macroglossia is characteristic of which amyloid

A

AL

156
Q

Purpura around eyes:

A

Characteristic of AL amyloid

157
Q

What causes bleeding problems in amyloid

A
  1. Factor X deficiency due to binding on amyloid fibrils primarily in the liver and spleen; and
  2. Reduced synthesis of coagulation factors in patients with advanced liver disease
158
Q

Investigation for amyloidosis

A

1st: serum immunofixation (presence of monoclonal protein in immunoglobulin light chain amyloidosis) or urine immunofixation (more sensitive)

IMMUNOGLOBULIN FREE LIGHT CHAIN ASSAY: abnormal kappa to lamda ratio

Bone marrow biopsy: clonal plasma cells

The diagnosis of amyloid requires tissue biopsy proof of deposits that stain positive for Congo red.[26] Apple-green birefringence is seen when Congo red stained material is viewed under polarised light.

Tissue can be taken from lip, skin, gingiva, subcutaneous fat, bone marrow, nerve, rectum, kidney, liver, or heart.

The deposits are always extracellular and appear amorphous.

159
Q

What is SLE

A

Multi-system inflammatory autoimmune disorder.

160
Q

How is SLE diagnosed

A

Systemic symptoms: General: Fever, fatigue, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly

4 out of 11 diagnostic criteria of the American College of Rheumatology provides 95% specificity and 85% sensitivity for SLE

Serositis (pleuritis, pleural effusions, pericarditis)
Oral ulcers, nasal. PAINLESS.
Arthritis >2 joints
Photosensitivity
Blood disorders. Haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia
Renal disease (urine casts, proteinuria) / raynaud’s
ANA
Immunological Abs (anti- dsDNA, anti-Smith, anti-Ro)
Neurological disorders (seizures, psychosis)
Malar rash
Discoid rash

161
Q

Aetiology of SLE

Drugs causing a SLE type disorder

A

Unknown.
Tissue damage may be mediated by vascular immune complex deposition related to the auto-antibodies

HLA-DR3
HLA-DR2
Complement deficiencies (C1q, C2)

Exogenous factors (e.g. drugs such as hydralazine and procainamide can cause a reversible SLE-like disorder

162
Q

SLE and proteinuria, SLE and red casts in urine

A

Proteinuria for the first one, lupus nephritis for second

163
Q

Epidemiology of SLE

A

Female 10 times more likely

164
Q

What is rowell syndrome

A

Rowell syndrome is a rare disease consisting of erythema multiforme-like lesions associated with lupus erythematosus.

165
Q

What is Libman sacks endocarditis

A

non-infective mitral valve disease

166
Q

Anti-histone antibodies with SLE?

A

Anti-histone: In drug-induced lupus

167
Q

What are ANAs

A

IgG antibodies

168
Q

Investigations for SLE

A

FBC, U&E, PTT may be prolonged (if antiphospholipid antibodies are present), raised ESR & normal CRP, anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith highly specific. ANA nearly always raised, but not specific to SLE.

REDUCED C3 complement

Renal biopsy if renal glomerulonephritis is suspected.

169
Q

What is mortality with SLE usually due to

A

Mortality is usually a result of infection (e.g. streptococcal sepsis) or renal failure. Prognosis worse if onset with renal involvement during pregnancy.

170
Q

What is scleroderma

A

Autoimmune condition, characterised by hard skin and other internal organ problems. Fibrosis and ischaemic tissue injury.

171
Q

How is scleroderma classified.

A

Scleroderma can be LOCALISED, or SYSTEMIC.

Systemic scleroderma is also known as systemic sclerosis.

Systemic sclerosis is further classified into diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

172
Q

What is the history of localised scleroderma

A

So this is not systemic sclerosis, it’s a localised scleroderma

It ONLY involves the skin, causing either:
-Morphoea localised scleroderma (discoloured oval patches on the skin, anywhere on body, itchy)

-Linear localised scleroderma (thickened skin occurs in lines along the face, scalp, legs or arms). It can improve after a few years but can cause permanent growth problems like shortened limbs

173
Q

What is the history of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

This used to be known as CREST syndrome.

Calcinosis
Rayndaud's phenomenon 
Esophageal dysmotility (-->dysphagia)
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

And skin manifestations.

The disease only affects the hands, lower arms, lower legs and feet and face (little bit like glove and stocking, but wouldn’t be called that)

Can eventually affect lungs and digestive system

174
Q

Which antibody is associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

ANA positive.

ANA anti-centromere antibodies are present (these are only occasionally present in diffuse systemic sclerosis)

175
Q

What is the most common initial presentation of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

What is a complication of it

A

Usually present with just raynauds.

People with limited scleroderma have a low frequency of lung, heart, and renal disease. But up to 30% of this subgroup may have the serious complication of pulmonary arterial hypertension.

176
Q

What is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis history

A

More likely to affect internal organs, and skin changes can affect whole body.

Symptoms come on suddenly and get worse quickly over the first few years, but then normally settles and skin gradually improves.

They also get CREST, but this time with the skin changes there is truncal involvement.

177
Q

What is the presentation of diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis history

A

Sympyoms generally much more severe, raynaud’s may precede or occur with skin symptoms

178
Q

Which antibodies are found in diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

What conditions are they associated with within diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

ANA positive.

Serum anti-topoisomerase (anti SCL-70) is SPECIFIC to diffuse scleroderma. It is associated with lung fibrosis.

Anti-RNA polymerase III is associated with renal crisis!

179
Q

T/F microstomia can occur only in diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

F. It can occur in limited too, as limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis can affect the face

180
Q

Which lung changes are associated with scleroderma

A

Pulmonary fibrosis –> pulmonary HTN.

Remember that obviously diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis will experience severe organ involvement sooner and more frequently, but this pulomonary HTN is the key complication of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

181
Q

What are the renal complications of scleroderma

A

Hypertensive renal crisis, chronic renal failure.

Remember that these are going to be much more present in diffuse

182
Q

Which headaches are associated with scleroderma

A

Trigeminal neuralgia (remember this is also assocaited with MS)

183
Q

How does the skin manifestation start in scleroderman

A

They begin in the fingers and move up the arm.

Initially the hands and fingers become swollen and doughy. Then, after fibrosis occurs years later, tight, shiny, smooth and stiff.

When the fingers are affected it’s called sclerodactyly and it can lead to ulceration, and lead to the fingers turning inwards to form a claw

184
Q

What can happen to the mouth and nose in sclerodemra

A

Mouth –> microstomia

Nose –> beaked

185
Q

What happens in rayndauds

A

When fingers exposed to cold, they go white, then blue, then red.

186
Q

After a chest x-ray where you suspect pulmonary fibrosis, what’s needed to confirm

A

High-resolution CT thorax is needed as a next to step to confirm pulmonary fibrosis

187
Q

What would lung function tests show in restrictive pattern of lung disease

A

Lung function tests show a restrictive pattern and reduced gas transfer in pulmonary fibrosis.

188
Q

What investigations would be used to evaluate dysphagia in scleroderma

A

Routine barium swallow and manometry are used to assess the dysmotility.

189
Q

Commonest cause of death in scleroderma

A

ardio pulmonary involvement is the commonest cause.

Renal can also cause

190
Q

T/F sjorgens is a recognised association with scleroderma

A

T

191
Q

Causes of acute monoarthritis

A

Infectious (septic arthritis)

Inflammatory

Crystal arthropathy

Reactive arthritis

Rheumatoid

Uncommon-other seronegative spondyloarhtopathy

192
Q

T/F you should perform joint aspiration before treatment with antibiotics

A

T

f septic arthritis is suspected then a joint aspiration should be performed swifty and before treatment with antibiotics.

193
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in young adukts

A

In young adults, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the commonest organism. Neisseria is the only common gram negative coccus. His symptoms of dysuria were secondary to gonorrhoea, and this was confirmed by culture of a urethral swab. Gonococcal arthritis is part of a disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI).

194
Q

Other commonest cuases of septic arthritis

A

Organisms that cause bacteraemia are those most responsible for septic arthritis, and therefore the most common organisms are Staphylococcus aureus, non-group A streptococcus and Gram negative organisms.

195
Q

How can disseminated gonococcal infection present

A

DGI can present with an arthritis-dermatitis syndrome involving joints and skin in 60% (classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis and migratory polyarthritis [e.g. painful elbow])

or a localised septic arthritis in 40%.

196
Q

Marfan results from a mutation in which gene

A

Fibrillin

197
Q

How can erythema nodusum be treated

A

It is benign and self limiting, can be treated with NSAIDs for symptoms

198
Q

What is the most common cause of chondrocalcinosis

A

Osteoarthritis. Note, it can also be seen in pseudogout

199
Q

Risk factors for osteoarthritis

A

Obesity, family history, trauma

Alkaptonuria, acromegaly

200
Q

T/F pharmacologic treatment is first line for osteoarthritis

A

F.

Education, social support, physiotherapy, occ therapy and weight loss

201
Q

Outline pharmacologic treatment for osteoarthritis

A

Paracetamol, especially regularly, should be the first line oral treatment for osteoarthritis (NSAIDs not superior)

Topical NSAIDs are widely prescribed and are effective and safe but a small amount of the topical preparation will be systemically absorbed

202
Q

Contraindications for COX-1 and COX-2

A

COX-1 is cytoprotective to GI tract so COX-1 inhibitor contraindicated in peptic ulcers

COX-2 is cardioprotective, so COX-2 inhibitors are currently contra-indicated in ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and peripheral vascular disease.

203
Q

What effect can ank spond have on the curvature of the spine

A

n axial spondyloarthropathy causes exaggerated thoracic kyphosis and reduced lumbar lordosis

204
Q

T/F atlant-axial subluxation is seen in ank spond

A

F!!!!!! This is seen in rheumatoid arthritis

205
Q

T/F sjorgens is seen in ank spond

A

F!!!! It’s seen with rheumatoid, SLE, scleroderma.

206
Q

Which conditions is ank spond associated with

A

is a seronegative spondyloarthritis and as such is associated with anterior uveitis, mucosal and skin lesions, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, and myocardial involvement including aoric regurgitation and cardiac conduction defects.

207
Q

Compare the areas of lung affected in ank spond with rheumatoid

A

Apical pulmonary fibrosis can be seen in an axial spndyloarthropathy but lower zone fibrosis is seen in rheumatoid arthritis.

208
Q

Inflammatory myopathies include which conditions

A

Polymyositis and

dermatomyositis

209
Q

Cause of the inflammatory myopathies.

What are main risk factots for polymyositis and dermatomyositis

A

Unknown. Proposed autoimmune.

Polymyositis may be associated with autoimmune connective tissue diseases (e.g. scleroderma).

Dermatomyositis may be associated with bronchial, stomach, testicular, breast and ovarian malignancy,

210
Q

HLA assocation of dermatomyositis

A

HLA linkage to DRW52.

211
Q

Autoantibodies with dermatomyositis

A

s anti-Jo-1, anti-Scl, anti-Mi2,

212
Q

History of polymyositis

Who does it affect

A

Typically affects adults

Affects proximal large muscle groups bilaterally, like shoulders and hips. Spares small muscle groups like hands.

Difficulty raising objects above head, rising from chair, climbing stairs

Worsens gradually over severeal months and there can be muscle atrophy

Myalgia and arthralgia may also occur

213
Q

Hisotry of dermatomyositis

A

Muscle manifestations same as polymyositis (progressive weakness of proximal, large muscle groups bilaterally)

But mainly affects children.

Skin manifestations include:

1) Heliotrope/lilac rash on upper eyelids + periorbital oedema. Rash can also appear on chest, neck or thighs
2) Grottens papules (red flat, scaly papules located on bony prominences e.g. hands or knees). Gottren’s sign is when these are on the metaphalangeal joints of the interphalangeal joints of the hand

214
Q

Examination of polymoyositis and dermatomyositis

A

Proximal muscle weakness and atrophy affecting both upper and lower limbs.

215
Q

Antibodies associated iwth polymyositis

A

Anti-Jo12 and anti-SRP

216
Q

Antibodies associated iwth dermatomysotis

A

Anti-Mi2

217
Q

Blood results for the inflammatory myopathies (poly and dermato)

A

Increased CK, lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST and ALT

Anaemia of chronic disease on blood count

218
Q

How to differentiate polymyositis from polymyalgia rheumatica

A

With polymyositis there is progressive weakness.

In polymyalgia rheumatica there is stiffness but no weakness.

Note that these both affect shoulder and hip

219
Q

Investigations for inflammaotry myopathies

Defiintiive diagnosis?

A

Careful evaluation for underlying malignancy

Muscle biopsy: Required for definitive diagnosis

Blood: raised CK (95%), ESR, autoantibody titres

EMG: Increased insertional activity, increased spontaneous fibrillations bnormallow-amplitude short duration polyphasic motor potentials and bizarre high-frequency discharges indicative of myopathy.

220
Q

Popping sound on external rotation of the knee

A
A 
medial meniscus
 tear is characterized by a "popping 
sound
" on 
external rotation
 of the knee (positive 
McMurray test
).
221
Q

What is fibromyalgia

A

Fibromyalgia (FM) is a neurosensory disorder characterized by chronic musculocutaneous pain.

222
Q

T/F fibromyalgia is an inflammatory condition

A

F.

notably, there is no identifiable inflammation that causes the musculocutaneous symptoms

223
Q

Common symptoms of fibromyalgia

A

Chronic, widespread pain, primarily at points where muscles and tendons attach to bone (tender points)

Fibro fog: E.g., poor memory, difficulty concentrating, and lack of clarity of thought

Headache, fatigue, morning stiffness, unrefreshing sleep, parasthaesthias

Further symptoms of autonomic dysfunction: digestive problems, weight fluctuation, palpitations, sexual dysfunction, night sweats

224
Q

Risk factors (associations) of fibromyalgia

A

Functional somatic syndromes (e.g., chronic fatigue syndrome , irritable bowel syndrome, tension or migraine headaches, chronic pelvic and bladder syndromes)

Psychiatric disorders (depression, generalized anxiety disorder)

Sleep disorders (e.g., sleep movement disorders such as restless leg syndrome)

Inflammatory rheumatic diseases (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis)

225
Q

Diagnosis of fibromyalgia

A

Clinical diagnosis.

Symptoms at least 3 months

Tender points

Pain affected areas in all 4 quadrants of the body

Lab values and findings are normal

226
Q

What is polymyalgia rheumatica

A

a common inflammatory rheumatic disease that mainly affects patients above the age of 50 years and occurs twice as often in women than in men

Most common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly (second most common overall)

227
Q

Aetiology of polymyalgia rheum

A

Unknown
HLA-DR4?
10-20% with polymyalgia rheumatica also have giant cell arteritis

228
Q

Hx/ examination of polymyalgia rheum

A
Systemic symptoms: 
"B symptoms": fever, weight loss, night sweats 
Fatigue and malaise 
Depressed mood 
Anaemia symptoms
MSK: 
Shoulder and pelvic girdle, neck
Worse at night
Morning stiffness (> 45 min)
Subjective weakness (NOT ACTUALLY WEAK) 

10–20% of patients with polymyalgia rheumatica also develop typical symptoms of giant cell arteritis

229
Q

Examination of polymyalgia rheum

A

difficulty rising from seated or prone positions, varying degrees of muscle tenderness, shoulder/hip bursitis, and/or oligoarthritis.

230
Q

Investigations for polymyalgia rheum

A

MAIN ONE: Raised ESR (>50mm/h)

Raised CRP, leukocytosis, nomochromic naaemia

NORMAL: CK, rheumatoid factors, no autoantibodies

Bursitis on USS of affected joints

231
Q

Management of polymyalgia rheum

A

Low-dose of oral glucocorticoids (alternative: IM glucocorticoids)

If symptoms improve (usually within 2–4 weeks): slowly taper and eventually stop glucocorticoids

You would also need to give calcium + vitamin D + bisphosphonate to protect the bones during the steroid use

The duration of treatment is typically at least 1 year, and it is often longer, depending upon the patient’s response.

No improvement after 2 weeks or relapse: increase dose

232
Q

Complications of polymyalgia rheum

A

Of condition:
Chronic relapsing condition, GCA

Of steroid therapy:
increased infections, osteoporosis, T2DM

233
Q

How to differentiate polymyalgia rheumatica from polymyositis/dermomyositis

A

Polymyositis and dermatomyositis have raised serum creatine kinase (normal in PMR)

234
Q

How to differentiate fibromylagia from PMR

A

Fibromyalgia has normal laboratory values (no raised ESR, normal everything)