NEUROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

What is hoovers sign
When is it used
What does it show

A

Test done to assess functional pattern of weakness.
Eg, if someone has L weak hamstrings, put your hand under L hamstrings when testing power of R quads. There is a reflex when R hip flexes, that L hip will extend. You should feel this. But when the muscle alone is tested it is weak. This is hoovers sign.
When attention is on the muscle it is weak but when it is not the muscle is normal.
It shows an inconsistent pattern of weakness - relatives to attention in task

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2
Q

What questions should you ask about regarding a functional seizure

A

Duration of event
Were their eyes open (organic) or closed
Rhythmic shaking or not
Post ictal confusion

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3
Q

What are the three features of Parkinson’s

A

Tremor - resting, poll pin
tone- hypertonia
Time- slow, bradykinesia, slow speech

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4
Q

What sits in meckels cave

A

Trigeminal ganglia
V2 maxilla
V3 mandibular

(V1) ophthalmic goes through cavernous sinus

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5
Q

Describe the vertebrae nerve roots of the cervical spine

A

Vertabrae- C1-7
1 atlas
2 axis

Nerve roots C1-8
Have spinal nerve that exits superiorly to C1, tf, at C7 have C8 nerve root below

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6
Q

What nerve roots make up the brachial plexus

A

C5-T1

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7
Q

Which cranial nerve enters and exits the cranial cavity

Where is it’s nuclei
What is it’s function

A

Enters foraman magnum
Exits jugular foremen with vagus

Nuclei from c1-c6
Function- sternocleidomastiod, traps

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8
Q

How is Lewy body dementia diagnosed

A

Onset of dementia within 2 years of Parkinson’s diagnosis (or onset)

After this it is Parkinson’s dementia

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9
Q

What diseases can mimic Parkinson’s

How do you assess for them

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy (upwards eye gaze) (build up of tau)
Cortico-basal degeneration (apraxia), akineasea one limb, involvement of sensory loss
Multiple system atrophy (autonomic features)

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10
Q

List some PD differentials

A
Parkinson’s Mimics (SNP, CBD) 
Vascular/ hypertension Parkinson’s (drugs can cause this as well, neuroleptic) 
Medications- antipsychotics 
Cerebellar disease 
Psychiatric conditions?
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11
Q

What is the typical presentation of Parkinson’s

What is atypical and what would this suggest

A

Typical is triad of Parkinsonism;
Resting tremor (asymmetrical)
Bradykinesia (facial, speech, tone, movements, getting dressed, ADL)
Hypertonia (rigidity, lead pipe, cogwheel = tremor + rigidity)

Atypical = some Parkinsonism but not triad. Features particularly in legs. 
?vascular cause 
?pressure hydrocephalus 
MRI to look for any spots of damage 
DAT scan
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12
Q

What is apraxia

What is a gait apraxia

A

Apraxia is difficulty planning a motor skills

Gait apraxia would be difficulty getting going and turning but ok once started

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13
Q

List some of the autonomic features of Parkinson’s

Explain why these occur

A

Increased secretions - saliva (drooling)

Because less dopamine - DA precursor to NA, so less NA for sympathetic NS, more parasympathetic

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14
Q

What monitoring is required for clozapine and why

A

ECG/ echo- myocarditis

Bloods - agranulocytosis

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15
Q

What is myesthenia gravis
What are the investigations
What is the management

A

Autoimmune disease, antibodies to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) on the post-synaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction

Bloods - look for autoantibodies
Electromyograph - decremental muscle response to repetitive nerve stimulation
CT to exclude thymoma

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Immunosupressants (steroids)
IVIG
Plasma exchange 
Sometimes thymectomy - even in pts who don't have a thymoma
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16
Q

What differentials would you consider in someone with fatigability

A

Myasthenia gravis
Polymyositis/ other myopathies
SLE
Takayasu’s arteritis

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17
Q

What should your examination include in a patient with myasthenia gravis

A

Look for ptosis
Get patient to gaze upwards for about 10 seconds - see if there is a ptosis (drooping/ falling eyelid)
Ask to flex shoulder joint 10x, see if they fatigue

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18
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis

A

Fatigable weakness - weakness that gets worse as the day goes on
Most commonly affecting the eyes (extraocular muscles), neck, upper limbs

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19
Q

What are the serious complications of myasthenia gravis

A

Slow breathing down
Always need to review respiratory rate in someone with MG
Type 2 respiratory failure

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20
Q

Where are nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

A

1.On skeletal muscle
Post-synaptic membrane
2.Autonomic ganglia - symp and parasymp - S/E, increased salivation, lacrimation, sweats, vomitting, miosis (excessive pupil constriction)
3. Nuclei in the brain

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21
Q

What conditions is MG associated with

A

Other autoimmune - Grave’s, RA, SLE

thymoma / thymic hyperplasia 85%

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22
Q

What is miosis

A

excessive constriction of the pupil

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23
Q

What are diplopia and ptosis signs of

A

Ocular weakness

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24
Q

How would you treat someone in myasthenia crisis

A

Plasmapheresis

Remove AChR antibodies from the circulation

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25
Q

List some postictal features

A

Postictal confusion

Postictal psychosis

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26
Q

What is a functional seizure

How would you explain this to a patient

A

It is a seizure where there is no organic pathology
It is a seizure that can happened whilst the brain is still normal and functional eg, there are no abnormalities found in any of the investigations or tests done.
Can explain this to patients using the example of the brain only having sensory information and learning as its tools to understand the world. When something makes these out of sync you can get seizures, but functionally the brain is still healthy and there is nothing to treat.

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27
Q

What can cause tunnel vision

A

Panic, stress, anger
Occular stroke, sudden drop in blood supply to brain
Papilledema
Glaucoma

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28
Q

What type of visual field defect would a posterior vascular event cause

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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29
Q

What neurological complications are there to heavy alcohol use

A

Wernickes (B1 deficiency) encephalopathy
Wernickes-Korsakoffs syndrome
Peripheral neuropathy
Hepatic encephalopathy (through liver cirrhosis)
Acute alcohol WD, seizures, psychosis

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30
Q

What investigation and examination would you do for hepatic encephalopathy

A

FBC, Haematinics, LFTs (GGT), U&Es
Ammonia (raised in hepatic encephalopathy) - can give something to help draw ammonia out in stool
Examine abdomen - distended? Ascites? fecal loading? Portal hypertensions signs? Jaundice?

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31
Q

What is the management of acute alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide - benzodiazepine

Pabrinix - B and C vitamins, prevent wernickes

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32
Q

List some of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A
Anxiety/Agitation/Irritability Nausea/Vomiting/Diarrhoea 
Convulsions
Tremor of hands, tongue, eyelids Insomnia Hallucinations
Sweating 
Fever with or without infection 
Delirium
Tachycardia 
Hypertension
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33
Q

How do benzodiazepines work

A

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA at the GABAA receptor, resulting in sedative, hypnotic (sleep-inducing), anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties.

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34
Q

How is the mechanism of action of alcohol

A

GABAa agonism

During withdrawal, inhibition via alcohol is gone and get overactivity causing seizures

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35
Q

What is an alternative to chlordiazepoxide in acute alcohol withdrawal

A

Lorazepam

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36
Q

Which part of the brain is damaged in wernickes encephalopathy

A

Brainstem and cerebellum.
Lesions are usually symmetrical in the periventricular region, diencephalon, the midbrain, hypothalamus, and cerebellar vermis. Brainstem lesions may include cranial nerve III, IV, VI and VIII nuclei, the medial thalamic nuclei, and the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve. Oedema may be found in the regions surrounding the third ventricle, and fourth ventricle, also appearing petechiae and small hemorrhages. Chronic cases can present the atrophy of the mammillary bodies.

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37
Q

What are the symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy

A

ophthalmoplegia
ataxia
confusion

Brainstem tegmentum. - Ocular: pupillary changes. Extraocular muscle palsy; gaze palsy: nystagmus.
Hypothalamus. Medulla: dorsal nuc. of vagus. - Autonomic dysfunct.: temperature; cardiocirculatory; respiratory.
Medulla: vestibular region. Cerebellum. - Ataxia.

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38
Q

What cells are granulocytes

A

Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

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39
Q

What are the features of an essential tremor

A
Bilateral 
With movement and testing
(PD) tremor resting 
Subsides with distraction 
Functional signs
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40
Q

What is the management of an essential tremor

A

Propranolol if stress related

Haematinic supplements?

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41
Q

What is dystonia

What are the different causes / types

A

Painful muscle contractions
Primary - idiopathic (Botox)
Secondary- CP, MND, any condition of hypertonia, Parkinson’s

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42
Q

What bloods should you take in someone who has a ?essential tremor

A

TFT - hyperthyroid
U&E - K, NA, Mg
Blood sugars

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43
Q

What is
Akinesia
Dyskinesia
Bradykinesia

A

Akinesia - not moving
Dyskinesia - abnormal involuntary movements
Bradykinesia - slow voluntary movements

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44
Q

What questions should you ask in a pt with PD who is having difficulty with swallowing

A

Liquids or solids?

Any recent chest infections (? Aspiration)

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45
Q

What bloods should you check before starting biologics

A

TB, VZV, VDRL, HIV

Because it makes you immunosupressed

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46
Q

What investigations should you do for bilateral absent reflexes

A

Neuropathy bloods

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47
Q

What should you comment on during a gait exam

A
Posture 
Arm swing 
Stride length 
Turning 
Antalgic gait, ataxia, apraxia 
Feet - any foot drop, narrow or wide base
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48
Q

List some of the autonomic features of Parkinson’s

Why do they occur

A

Salivation
Increased parasympathetic secretions
Occur because of decreased dopamine = decreased NA, = decreased sympathetic innervation = increased parasympathetic drive

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49
Q

List some differentials for an unwitnessed loss of consciousness

A

Seizure - epilepsy vs functional
Syncope
Heart disease - arrhythmias
Space occupying lesion (?)

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50
Q

List some of the causes of encephalitis

A

Viral - HSV, CMV, VZV, HIV, MMR, tick borne
Non-viral - bacterial meningitis, TB, malaria, listeria, Lyme disease, legionella, leptospirosis, aspergillosis, crytpococcus, schisto, typhus

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51
Q

What are meningeal signs

A

Neck pain - brudzinskis sign
Kernigs sign
Photophobia - light sensitivity
Headache

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52
Q

List some non-infectious causes of encephalopathy

A
Hypoglycaemia 
Hepatic (high ammonia) 
Alcohol - wernickes acute, korsakoffs 
DKA
Drugs 
Hyponatraenia (corrected too quickly)
Hypoxia brain injury 
Uraemia 
SLE
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53
Q

What are the management options for MND

A

Riluzole - glutamate inhibitor and NMDA antagonist

Physio and OT

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54
Q

What are the feature of MND

A
Mixed upper and lower signs
Eg, increased tone / rigidity and absent reflexes 
Fasiculations 
Pronator drift (lesion opposite side) 
Muscle wasting- look at thenar dorsum
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55
Q

How can you confirm brisk reflexes

A

Tap more gently
Then with fingers
Flick tip of finger- get reflex in thumb

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56
Q

Name the different types of lower motor neurone, what do they do

A

Alpha motor neuron- innervate motor unit (unit of contractile muscle fibres) - extrafusal

Gamma motor neuron- innervate intrafusal fibres- non contractile region / fibres that have stretch receptors in them

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57
Q

What are stretch receptors, what is their significance in disease

A

Receptions that monitor muscle length and velocity- when muscles stretches they connect with alpha and gamma MN- stimulate alpha MN to contract muscle
They are involved in maintaining muscle tone

Reflex is altered in diseases of pyrimadal and extrapyrimadal tracts
When innervation from UMN is depleted, stretch receptors are unopposed and get increased sensitivity and tone
When LMN is depleted, the sensitivity of stretch receptors doesn’t matter because Alpha MN is damaged and can’t stimulate muscle

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58
Q

What are the different possible causes for weakness

A

Cardiovascular event (aneurysm, stroke etc)
Inflammation (MS, encephalitis, infection)
Compression (tumour, meningioma etc)
Degeneration

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59
Q

How would you go about assessing the location of weakness

A
Find the level of lost function
Cortical- focal paresis 
Internal capsule - hemiparesis 
Midbrain - bilateral paresis 
Spinal cord - bilateral paresis- evaluate level, anything below cervical spinal roots is legs only 
Nerve root 
LMN 
Neuromuscular junction 
Muscle
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60
Q

What are the possible brainstem causes of weakness

A

Inflammation - MS
Bulbar- MND
Infection - encephalitis

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61
Q

What test can you do to differentiate between cerebellar and vesribulocochlear ataxia

A
Unterbergers test (stepping test)
Arms out eyes closed, stepping. Should do 50 steps.
If rotate more than 30 degrees, indicates labrynth pathology on the side of turning
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62
Q

What is the unterberger test doing

A

The task is to hold arms out and to step with eyes closed

To do this, brain relies on the vestibulocochlear system for sense of balance

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63
Q

What structures lay in the cavernous sinus

A
Opthalmic division of trigeminal V1 
Trochlear nerve 
Oculomotor nerve
Maxilla V2
Carotids - internal
Abducens
Trochlear
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64
Q

What level does the cauda equina start

A

L2

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65
Q

What is the management of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose (increases ammonia excretion)
Rifaximin (reduces intestinal ammonia producing bacteria)
Enema

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66
Q

What would you see on a neuroshyphillis blood film

A

spherocytes (bacteria is a spherocyte)

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67
Q

What are the non infectious causes of encephalitis

A

Autoimmune

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68
Q

What part of the brain is associated with prosopagnosia

A

Fusiform gyrus- temporal lobe

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69
Q

What causes the sensation of dizziness in labrythitis

A

Movement of the endolymph in semi circular canals- even when not moving

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70
Q

What are the different types of MS

A

Relapsing remitting
Primary progressive
Secondary progressive
Progressive-relapsing

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71
Q

What are the features of secondary progressive MS

A

MS that started as relapsing and remitting but is now a steady decline, no remittance periods

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72
Q

What are the features of relapse and remitting MS

A

Attacks of disability, inbetween attacks disability does not decline

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73
Q

What are the features of progressive-relapsing MS

A

Steady decline in disability with periods where it is worse (an attack). No period where disease is static.

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74
Q

Where are the crus cerebri, what are they

A

In the midbrain - they are a continuation of descending motor tracts from the cortex

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75
Q

What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex

What is it’s significance

A

It is the reflex between the CN of the vestibular (head position) and the eyes. It’s function is to allow fixed gaze as the head moves, eg when you are walking, running etc, your eyes remain fixed so that vision is not erratic.
When someone has a vestibular problem (dizziness) can test this reflex to see if it is a problem with vestibular system or if it is central deficit

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76
Q

What is the head thrust test and when is it used

A

Its used to differentiate vestibular vs non-vestibular (CNS, cerebellar) pathology of dizziness.
Ask patient to look at your nose, hold their head and move 20 degree to their right.
If eyes maintain gaze on your nose, vestibular system in tact.
If there is a corrective gaze, look away with head movement and back at nose, suggests vestibular problem.

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77
Q

List the different vestibular tests you can do in examination

A
Head thrust 
Untenbergers test (stepping test)
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78
Q

What syndrome presents similarly to myasthenia gravis
What patients would get this
What are the autoantibodies

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Patients with a pmhx of cancer
Autoantibodies against presynaptic calcium channels

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79
Q

What are the three symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy

A

Confusion
Opthalmoplegia (nystagmus, lateral palsy)
Ataxia

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80
Q

What are some causes for wernicks encephalopathy

A

Alcohol
Malnutrition
Anorexia
Severe D&V

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81
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome
What areas of the brain are damaged
What are the symptoms

A

Damage to hypothalamic and cerebral areas- atrophy

Can’t form new memories, confabulation (retrograde amnesia), apathy

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82
Q

List a clinical approach to assessing weakness

A
Cortical (Focal weakness)
Internal capsule (hemiparesis)
Basal ganglia (extrapyramidal)
Brainstem 
Spinal cord 
Anterior horn 
Nerve root
Peripheral nerve (symmetrical and mono neuropathies)
Neuromuscular junction 
Muscle
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83
Q

What differential should you consider in someone with ?PD

A

Wilson’s disease

Do bloods for caeruloplasmin

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84
Q

What is a cavernoma

A

Cluster of abnormal blood vessels, usually in the brain or spinal cord

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85
Q

What is the first line management of Huntington’s

A

Sulipride- D2 antagonist

Respiradrone

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86
Q

List some conditions that have Parkinsonism features but that are not PD

A
Dopamine antagonist medications- first and second gen antipsychotics, antiepileptics 
Other BG diseases:
1)PSNP
2)CBD
3)MSA
4)Lewy body dementia 
5)Wilson’s disease - Cu deposited in BG
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87
Q

What is xanthochromia

A

Break down if RBC’s in the CSF

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88
Q

When would you see Kayser Fleisher rings

A

Wilsons disease

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89
Q

What are the symptoms of wilsons disease

A

Autosomal recessive
Liver disease signs
CNS signs - dysarthria, dysphagia,dyskinesias, dystonias

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90
Q

What is the definition of dementia

A

Neurodegenerative syndrome with progressive decline in several cognitive domains

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91
Q

What is delirium tremens

A

Acute confusional state caused by alcohol withdrawal

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92
Q

When does delirium tremens start

A

2-3 days of alcohol withdrawal

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93
Q

What is delirium

A

Acute confusional state with disorientation, difficulty communicating, reduced awareness, and changes in perception

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94
Q

List some causes of delirium

A
Infection 
Dehydration 
Poor nutrition
Medication
Trauma
95
Q

What are neuroleptic drugs

A

Major tranquillisers

High potency antipsychotics

96
Q

What are neuroleptic drugs

A

Major sedatives

High potency antipsychotics - first generation antipsychotics such as haloperidol

97
Q

What is the difference between first and second generation antipsychotics

A

First - Dopamine targets only

Second - Dopamine, NA and Serotonin, t/f don’t get as many extra-pyramidal symptoms

98
Q

What is the cause of therapeutic delay in antidepressants

A

Transient downregulation of 5HT1a postsynaptic receptors, because increase in serotonin. Over time will upregulate. Short term homeostatic mechanism, which is over ridden long term.

99
Q

Give three features of neuroleptics

A

Psychomotor slowing
Emotional quieting
Affective indifference

100
Q

What are the different domains of cognition

A

Attention - can they concentrate on a task
Memory - can they retain information
Executive function - can they plan, conceptualise, organise, evaluate
Language - do they have fluency
Learning - knowledge skills attitudes
Perception (Visual-spatial, sensori motor) - can they make sense of the visual world, visually and somatosensory

101
Q

What is cognition

A

Mental processes put in place to understand and interact with the world

102
Q

What are the four different types of dementia

A

Fronto-temporal
Lewy body dementia
Alzheimers (Tau)
Vascular

103
Q

What is the treatment options for dementia

A

Alzheimers - acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, antiglut, vitamin supplements
Vascular dementia - do not use acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Lewy body dementia - avoid antipsychotics
Fronto-temporal - NEVER acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

104
Q

In which dementias should you never give acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

Fronto-temporal and vascular

Because there is not evidence they are beneficial, especially vascular

105
Q

In which group are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors indicated

A

Alzheimers

Lewy body, if severe

106
Q

List some of the ways you can distinguish between delirium and dementia

A

Onset: acute vs progressive
Pattern: Fluctuating or chronic
Attention: impaired acutely delirium, often impaired later with dementia
Behaviour: very acutely agitated, withdrawn or depressed - usually not the case in early dementia
Speech: incoherent/ rapid/ slowed; word finding problems
Thoughts: disorganised/ delusional delirium; usually intact early
Hallucinations: more prominent with delirium
Orientation: more disorientation with delirium

107
Q

What should you consider when assessing someone with cognitive impairment

A
Organic or psychiatric 
Delirium, dementia, both or neither 
Earliest symptoms
Length of Hx
Pattern of progression
Impact on functioning
108
Q

Which arteries does the III CN run between

A

Posterior cerebral artery

Superior cerebellar artery

109
Q

What arteries supply the cerebellum, where do they stem from

A

Superior cerebral artery (off basilar artery)
Anterior inferior cerebral artery (off basilar)
Posterior inferior cerebral artery (off vertebral)

110
Q

Which arteries are closest to the XII and XI CNs

A

vertebral

111
Q

What is Tau protein, what conditions are associated with it

A

Protein that stabilises microtubules in neurons. When these tangle they can no longer stabilise microtubles in the neuron and it degenerates.
They are associated with Alzheimers and PSNP.

112
Q

Name one of the functions of the olives in the cerebellum and the tracts running through the olives

A

Cerebellar motor-learning and function

olivopontocerebellar tract

113
Q

What are the three types of tremor

A

Rest (PD, BG)
Postural (essential)
Intention (cerebellum)

114
Q

What is hemiballism

A

Wild flinging or throwing movement
Like chorea but with large proximal muscles or shoulder and pelvic girdle
Rare, seen in elderly after strokes affecting STN

115
Q

What drugs can cause acute dystonia

A

Neuroleptics

Antiemetics

116
Q

What does a relative afferent pupillary defect show

A

Optic neuritis
Often MS
The affected eye has an afferent optic lesion (cant react as well to light) but can with consensual reflex from unaffected eye

117
Q

What is the medial longitudinal fasiculus

What does a defect in this show

A

It is a tract that connects the VIII CN to the nuceli of CN III, IV, VI
It basically integrates info between all the CNs involved with eye movements to their are coordinated
Get lesion in MS

118
Q

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for saccades and voluntary smooth pursuit eye movements

A

Frontal eye fields - Brodmann area 8, just in front of the precentral gyrus (motor cortex)

119
Q

What does dysmetria mean

A

Lack of coordination with a movement

120
Q

What is the life expectancy of someone with MND

A

3 years

121
Q

What percentage of MND is familial

A

5-10%

122
Q

What is the M to F ratio for MND

A

7:1

123
Q

What are the different conditions included in MND

A

ALS
Progressive bulbar palsy (presents with bulbar only) - reduced life expectancy
Primary muscular atrophy (LMN signs only in beginning)
Primary lateral sclerosis (UMN signs only in beginning) - best prognosis/ QoL
Spinal muscular atrophy
Kennedy’s disease

124
Q

what does myelitis mean

A

inflammation of the spinal cord

125
Q

what are the features of a sensory ataxia

A

High steppage

Unsteady gait

126
Q

What is astereognosis

A

Inability to recognise an object from touch

127
Q

What tracts does syringomyelia affect and why

What may be some presenting symptoms

A

Affects the decussation of the spinothalamic tract through the ventral white commissure - this passes next to the central canal
Syringomyelia is when the canal enlargens and forms cysts around the canal compressing adjacent tracts
Loose temperature and pain tract
Present with burns/ scars on hands from not sensing hot or painful stimuli
Charcots joints - put into unusual position bc no negative feedback from pain pathway

128
Q

What is Friedreichs ataxia

A

Degeneration of the spinocerebellar tracts

129
Q

What is hereditary spastic paraparesis

A

Progressive bilateral weakness of the legs, leading to marked stiffness of gait
Degeneration of corticospinal tract in thoracic region (usually)
Causes LL spastic paraparesis
Hyper-reflexia (UMN)
Extensor plantar responses (UMN)

130
Q

What type of spinal cord lesion would give you mixed Upper and Lower MN signs

A

A lesion in the cervical spine
LMN signs for arms
UMN signs for legs

131
Q

In what type of spinal lesion would you only see UMN signs in the legs

A

Thoracic

132
Q

In what type of spinal lesion would you only see LMN signs in the legs

A

Lumbosacral

133
Q

What are the nerve roots for the biceps, brachoradialis and triceps reflexes

A

Biceps - C5,6, Brachioradialis C5,6 (musculocutaneous)

Triceps - C6,7 (branch of radial)

134
Q

What are the nerve roots of the quadraceps reflex (knee) and Achilles (ankle) reflex

A

Quadraceps - L3,4 (femoral?)

Achilles - S1, 2 (sciatic)

135
Q

What are the first investigations you should do in someone with myasthenia gravis

A

Forced vital capacity - to look if weakness is affecting lung capacity
Then: EMG tests, Bloods (Anti-cholingeric antibodies)

136
Q

What should you include in your examination of someone with myasthenia gravis

A

Percuss sternum for thyoma
Fatiguable weakness - eye movements
Arm - abduct x20 then assess power again

137
Q

What are the differentials for a one sided ptosis

A

Horner’s syndrome
III nerve palsy
Myasthenia gravis

138
Q

What are the differentials for a bilateral ptosis

A

Myasthenia Gravis

Myotonic dystrophy

139
Q

What is ocular myasthenia

A

Weakness of the ocular muscles and eyelid, causes diplopia and ptosis

140
Q

If someone is unable to adduct their right eye and has a left lateral nystagmus what is this a sign of and what tract is damaged.

How do you know the oculomotor nerve is in tact

A

Sign of MS
R medial longitudinal fasiculus - damage is on same side that eye cant adduct

Upwards and downwards movements are fine so not a problem with oculomotor

141
Q

How can you test functional signs in myasthenia gravis

A

As to cover one eye and test diplopia

142
Q

What are red flag symptoms in SAH

A

Drowsiness

Hemiplegia

143
Q

What are the risk of a subdural haematoma

A

Midline shift
Herniation
Coning

144
Q

What arterial dissections can cause horners syndrome

A

Carotid artery - painful neck + horners
Vertebral - PICA supply of dorsolateral medulla - blocks descending sympathetic fibres - horners + stroke features = vertebral artery dissection

145
Q

In which type of cerebral haematoma is LP contraindicated

A

Extra dural

146
Q

What can help you differential between a intracerebral vs an meningeal bleed

A

Pain/ headache

Raising ICP signs, eg nausea vomitting

147
Q

What are the stages of cushings reflex

A
  1. Tachycardia & HTN (sympathetic response to raised ICP)
  2. Bradycardia (bareoreceptor response to HTN)
  3. Irregular breathing and apnea (increasing pressure on brainstem)
148
Q

How would a vertebral artery dissection present

What questions should you ask in a Hx

A

Posterior event signs - headache, neck pain + medulla/ cerebellar ischemic signs
Cerebellar signs (PICA) - ataxia, nystagmus, nausea
Medulla signs - sensory and temperature loss ipsilateral side of face, contralateral side of body
Ask about any trauma, neck extension, neck manipulation

149
Q

What questions should you ask in someone who has presented with a gradual onset problems with balance that are getting worse

A

Do they have spinning with balance problem? - Vestibular
Positional related - BPPV
Visual - spinocerebellar
Any weakness? - GB (ascending)
Trauma/ head injury - posterior haematoma
FHx - hereditary ataxias

150
Q

What past medical history would make you suspicious of a vertebral artery dissection in someone with posterior event signs

A

Ehlers-Danlos

Marfans syndrome

151
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (CJD)

A

Prion disease - misshapen protein that causes proteins around it to misshape aswell.
Can get it spontaneously or from bovine spongiform encephalopathy (variant CJD)

vCJD can be transmitted by blood
spontaneous CJD only by consumption of the brain

152
Q

What MRI features would you see with CJD

A

Spongiform changes

Ribboning

153
Q

What is the presentation of CJD

A
Progressive dementia
Focal CNS signs
Myoclonus (95% have this)
Depression 
Eye signs (diplopia, SNP, complex visual disturbance, hallucinations, cortical blindness)
154
Q

What could cause CJD

A

contaminated surgical instruments
corneal transplants
growth hormone from human pituitaries
blood (vCJD)

155
Q

What is the commonest cause of brown sequard syndrome

A

MS

156
Q

What is conus medullaris

A

Tapering end of the spinal cord

157
Q

What nerve roots is the hypogastric nerve

A

T10-L2

158
Q

List some causes of coma

A

Metabolic: hypoxia, co2 narcosis, poisoning (CO), myxodema, hypo/ hyperglycaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, addisons crisis, hypothermia, sepsis, drug overdose
Neurological: trauma, vascular (stroke), epilepsy, infection (meningitis, encephalitis), SOL (tumour), brainstem compression. Anything that can cause raised ICP.

159
Q

Outline the management of coma

A

ABC (ventilate, oxygen, IV fluids)
IV access
Protect cervical spine
Blood sugars
Treat seizures
Treat potential cause - thiamine, naloxone etc
Brief history & exam
Bloods + toxicology screen, CRP, ABG, drug levels
Cultures, including malaria, urine culture
CXR
CT head

160
Q
Summarise the important aspects of management for the following neuro emergencies:
Status epilepticus 
Myasthenia crisis / GBS crisis
ICP 
Coma
A

Status - Lorazepam & phenytoin
Myasthenia and GBS - Ventilate, IVIg, Plasma exchange
ICP - elevate head, hyperventilate with oxygen, mannitol, toxicology screen, surgical referral
Coma - protect cervical spine (trauma), collateral history and examination to find cause of coma, control seizures, treat potential causes

161
Q

What type of imaging is the most sensitive for cerebral infarct

A

Diffusion weighted MRI

162
Q

What type of imaging is best for seeing MS lesions

A

T2 weighted MRI

163
Q

What features should you confirm in someone with suspected polyneuropathy

A

1.Length dependent pattern:
Distal first then ascending
Legs more affected than arms
2. Pattern of onset - patchy (progressive multifocal neuropathy), or distal and ascending

164
Q

What fibre is affected in a burning paraesthesia

A

C fibres - carry pain (slow), hot temperature and pressure

165
Q

What would loss of pain and temperature suggest

A

Small fibre neuropathy

166
Q

What is a charcot joint, how would this develop

A

Denervation to a weight baring joint
Over time joint collapses under weight and get deformity
Common in diabetes, or any neurological disease that compromises innervation of a weight baring joint, eg MS

167
Q

What test helps determine axonal from demyelinating neuropathy

A

Nerve conduction studies and electromyography

168
Q

What differentiates a cerebellar vs vestibular nystagmus

A

Cerebellar fast beat towards side of lesion

Vestibular fast beat away from side of lesion (called corrective)

169
Q

What colour is a bleed on CT

A

White

170
Q

What colour is a haematoma (old blood) on CT

A

Dark/ black

171
Q

Why is fresh blood white and old blood dark on CT

A

Fresh blood is hyper dense (lots of iron, Hb etc), old blood is hypodense as it has lost Hb, proteins etc that make it dense and it is replaced with CSF

172
Q

What are some signs of early ischemic stroke on CT

A

Loss of grey-white interface - because of tissue swelling

173
Q

What are the two causes of loss of grey-white interface on CT

A

Early ischemic stroke
Abscess
Anything that is cytotoxic
A mass doesn’t usually cause this

174
Q

How long does it take for an ischemic stroke to show up on CT

A

6-8 hours plus

175
Q

What type of MRI scan should be used on an acute stroke

A

DWI

176
Q

What is CHADVASC used for

A

To estimate risk of stroke in patient with AF (non-rheumatic) - risk of thromboembolism
HASBLED - risk of bleeding

177
Q

What is HAS-BLED used for

A

HAS-BLED is a scoring system developed to assess 1-year risk of major bleeding in patients taking anticoagulants with atrial fibrillation

178
Q

What is ABCD2 used for and what do letters stand for

A

Used to assess severity of TIA and whether need urgent (24 hr) review or less urgent (within a few days review)
A = age >60
B = blood pressure >140/90
C = clinical features , speech disturbance, unilat weakness
D = duration (<60, >60 mins) diabetes

179
Q

What is the bamford classification of stroke

A

Total anterior circulation infarct.
1.High cerebral function (Dysphasia, visuospatial) + 2.Unilateral weakness of face or leg (and/or sensory) + 3.Visual field defect

Partial anterior circulation infarct.
2/3 of above

Lacunar stroke.
Pure motor, pure sensory, Motor-sensory loss / mixed ataxia

Posterior circulation infarct.
CN palsy
Bilateral motor-sensory deficit
Isolated homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness
Cerebellar signs
Conjugate eye movement disorder (gaze disorder)

180
Q

What are the risks of thrombolysis

A

haemorrhage

Adverse drug reaction

181
Q

What are the contraindications to thrombolysis

A

Any pre-exciting bleeding disorder

Pregnancy

182
Q

What is the management of a suspected stroke

A

CT/ MRI within 1 hour
If haemorrhagic stroke or eligible for thrombectomy need CT or MR ango
If no bleed - 300mg aspirin (continue for 2 weeks) + thrombolysis within 4.5 hours on onset, thrombectomy within 6 hours. Often these two offered together unless there is a contraindication

183
Q

What is the secondary prevention of ischemic stroke

A

Antiplatelet therapy - clopidagrel 75 mg

If

184
Q

What is the eligibility criteria for thrombectomy in acute stroke

A

acute ischaemic stroke
confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography (CTA) or magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
Those who were well between 6 and 24 hours previously (including wake up stories)
Those who DWI MRI or CT perfusion studies show potential to salvage brain tissue. Show you which bits of brain are penumbra (salvageable) vs infarcted.
If considering Thrombectomy after 6 hours, need CT perfusion imaging to basically tell you if there is an area of the brain salvageable.

185
Q

What investigations should you do in someone with acute stroke

A
Bloods:
Blood sugars 
Cholesterol (total and ratio) 
Clotting profile (?haemorrhagic stroke)
BP - sitting and standing 
ECG
186
Q

What should you ask about before prescribing aspirin

A

Any past dyspepsia
Give PPI with aspirin in so
Any bleeding contraindications

187
Q

When should anticoagulants be used in the management of acute stroke

A

If venous sinus thrombosis

Carotic artery dissection (can anticoagulate or antiplatelet)

188
Q

What is the initial management of a haemorrgahic stroke

A

Clotting profile if on warfarin or bleeding RFs
Treat abnormal INR with IV Vit K + prothrombin complex concentrate.
Blood pressure management if <6 hours of onset, systolic is between 150 - 210 mmHg
- do rapid BP management of systolic >220

189
Q

What is the blood pressure target post stroke

A

130/80 - if not diabetic or >75 (higher target for these for these)

190
Q

what is the surgical management of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Previously fit people should be considered for surgical intervention following primary intracerebral haemorrhage if they have hydrocephalus.
Must be hydrocephalus
Must be anterior circulation
Cant be posterior fossa

191
Q

Who should not get surgery post haemorrhagic stroke unless medical treatment is not working

A

small deep haemorrhages
lobar haemorrhage without either hydrocephalus or rapid neurological deterioration
a large haemorrhage and significant comorbidities before the stroke
a score on the Glasgow Coma Scale of below 8 unless this is because of hydrocephalus
posterior fossa haemorrhage.

192
Q

What are the indications for decompressive craniotomy

A

clinical deficits that suggest infarction in the territory of the middle cerebral artery, with a score above 15 on the NIHSS
decreased level of consciousness, with a score of 1 or more on item 1a of the NIHSS
signs on CT of an infarct of at least 50% of the middle cerebral artery territory:

with or without additional infarction in the territory of the anterior or posterior cerebral artery on the same side or
with infarct volume greater than 145 cm3, as shown on diffusion-weighted MRI scan

193
Q

What is the secondary prevention for ischemic stroke and TIA

A

Aspirin (2 weeks)
Then switch to definitive (lifelong) antiplatelet therapy (clopidogrel)
Risk factor management: BP, cholesterol, sugars
If evidence of severe intracranial arterial stenosis can use duel antiplatelet therapy, or if they have also had MI in past

194
Q

What is the secondary prevention of haemorrhagic strokes

A
Manage the risk factors 
HTN - manage - highest risk factor 
Consider changing anticoagulant dosing 
Alcohol 
Do HASBLED score on those with AF
195
Q

What is the definition of a seizure

What is the definition of epilepsy

A

A sudden excess in neuronal discharge that causes a disturbance in neurological function
A lower threshold to develop seizures

196
Q

What are the causes of seizures in children

A

epilepsy

Non-epileptic seizures

197
Q

List some non-epileptic seizures in children

A
Febrile
Metabolic - hypoglycaemia, calacemia, mg, na+
Head trauma
Meningitis/ encephalitis 
Poisons/ toxins
198
Q

List some common childhood epileptic seizures

A

Idiopathic (70-80%) - cause unknown, presumed genetic
Secondary - cerebral dysgenesis/ malformation, vascular occlusion, cerebral damage eg HIE, congenital infection
Cerebral tumour
Neurodegenerative disorders
Neurocutaneous syndromes

199
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hypertonia in UMN disease

A

Unopposed / hyperexcitable spinal stretch reflex
See this most obviously in spasticity as when stretch the muscle, the reflex increases and get length (velocity) dependent rigidity

200
Q

What is the presentation of cerebral palsy

A

Abnormal limb and/ or trunk posture - pushing back with head, constantly fisted hand or stiff leg on one side, difficulty changing position, crossed legs, stiff legs, pointed toes, toetip gait
Abnormal tone - can start as hypotonia as newborn, but should become hypertonia over time. Trunk and neck most hypotonic - floppy baby
Delay in motor milestones
Feeding difficulties - oromotor incoordination, slow feeding, gagging, vomiting
Asymmetric hand function before 12 months

201
Q

What is the neurology word for past pointing

A

Dysmetria

202
Q

What is a pyramidal pattern of weakness

A

Weak upper limb extensors

Weak lower limb flexors

203
Q

What is myositis in children

A

Benign post viral muscle inflammation, often follow upper resp infection
CPK can be raised

204
Q

What is dermatomyositis

A

Systemic illness, combination of genetic predisposition + viral priming of immune system. Insidious onset, fever, miserable child, proximal weakness, rash to eyelids. Muscle biopsy shows inflammatory cell infiltrate and atropy. Management is steroids and physiotherapy to prevent contractures.

205
Q

List some causes of proximal myopathy

A

drugs, alcohol, thyroid disease, osteomalacia, idiopathic inflammatory myopathies (IIM, eg polymyositis, dermatomyositis), hereditary myopathies, malignancy, infections and sarcoidosis

206
Q

How are brain tumours graded

A

Grade 1 - hypertrophy/ metaplasia, benign, no/ slow spread, mostly normal cells, don’t come back
Grade 2 - meta/ dysplastic, some local spread, abnormal cells, sometimes comes back
Grade 3 - anaplastic, very abnormal cells, a lot of spread, will come back
Grade 4 - anaplastic, very abnormal cells, diffuse spread, will come back, vascularised, necrosis

207
Q

Where are most brain tumours located in children

A

Infratentorial - 60%

208
Q

How are brain tumours classified

A

Histology, cytogenetics eg IDH, MGMT mutant

209
Q

List some stroke mimics

A

Seizures
Tumours /Abscess
Migraine
Metabolic (e.g. hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia)
Functional
Spinal cord/peripheral nerve/cranial nerve

210
Q

List some of the reversal agents of anticoagulants

A

Warfarin (Beriplex and Vitamin K)
Heparin (Protamine)
LMWH (partially reversed with protamine)
Apixaban/Rivaroxaban/Edoxaban (Beriplex is possibly effective)
Dabigatran (Idarucizumab)

211
Q

Explain the process of hyponatraemia

A
Low Na = water shift from intravascular to extravascular 
Brain swelling (if fast - raised ICP) 
Brain tries to adapt by giving up electrolytes and osmolytes from cells (fast and slow adaptation, respectively) - brain returns to normal size but with a different osmolality 
If correct quickly at this point, hypertonic fluids will draw out more fluid from the brain causing shrinkage and demyelination (pontine)
Slow correction will normalise
212
Q

What are the red flags for a suspicious headache

A

Vomiting more than once with no other cause.
New neurological deficit (motor or sensory).
Reduction in conscious level (as measured by the Glasgow coma score).
Valsalva (associated with coughing or sneezing) or positional headaches.
Progressive headache with a fever.

213
Q

What does a headache made worse with valsalva manoeuver tell you

A

When you do valsalva it causes a transient raise in ICP. If the headache is stimulated by this, it means it is a pressure headache - is a sign of arnold-chiari malformation.
Also reduces CO and so can cause someone to faint.

214
Q

What is the management of different intracranial bleeds

A
  1. intracerebral - manage bleeding via INR, manage hypertension, CNS observations and surgical referral if worsening/ midline shift - decompressive craniotomy
  2. SAH - manage BP, Nimodipine, Urgent surgical referral - coil or clip of aneurysm
  3. Subdural bleed - manage INR, consider surgery depending on neuro obs, size etc. May need need evacuation via craniotomy
  4. Extradural bleeds - urgent surgical referral. Can give mannitol. Thrombus evacuation and ligation of bleeding vessels.
215
Q

What is full recovery after a seizure

A

GCS 15

So if having seizure, want a GCS15 between seziures, if doesnt have this then status

216
Q

Red flags for cauda equina

A
Bilateral leg weakness
Urinary retention 
Perineal numbness
Saddle paraesthesia 
Incontinence 
Back pain
217
Q

management of cauda equina

A
Lay flat 
Dexamethasone 
Analgesia 
MRI spine 
Neurosurgical referral
218
Q

presentation of cord compression

A

Always think about it with weak legs
Cervical - will get UMN symptoms, hyperreflexia and spasticity
Thoracic - UMN/ mixed UMN and LMN
Lumbar- LMN - CAUDA EQUINA

219
Q

Red flags for cord compression

A

NERVES - Motor, sensory, pain
ORGANS - urinary retention/ incontinence, bowel incontinence/ constipation
Painless urinary retention
Radiculopathy - sharp, radiating pain (straight leg raise)
Sensory loss
Saddle paraesthesia (perineal nerve S1,2,3)
Weak legs
Fall
Back pain

220
Q

What is the innervation of the internal and external anal sphincter

A

Internal - smooth muscle, involuntary - autonomic (splachnic) and pelvic nerve (s2,3,4)
External - skeletal muscle - voluntary - pudendal (s2,3,4)

221
Q

Why is loss of anal tone a red flag for cauda equina

A

Loss of innervation from pudendal nerve to external anal sphincter

222
Q

How does cord compression cause constipation in children

A

Pelvic nerve, S2, 3, 4 - innervates internal anal sphincter, relaxes it to open. If cord compression in lumbar area, this will be impaired and sphincter doesn’t dilate. Test leg reflexes as could show level of compression if there is one.

223
Q

How should you think about/ remember cord compression

A
  1. NERVES (neuro sypmtx - weakness, numbness, pain)
  2. ORGANS (retention, constipation, incontinence)
  3. CLINICAL (weak legs, fall, back pain, ?prostate disease, ?malignancy)
224
Q

What is the difference between palliative and non-palliatives cord compression

A

Palliative more likely to have radiotherapy than surgery

225
Q

What are pinpoint pupils a sign of and why - what size are they

A

<2mm
Thalamic pupils - loss of sympathetic inhibition
Opioid overdose - sympathetic inhibition

226
Q

What size are dilated pupils, what do they show and why

A

> 7 mm
Show compression of 3rd nerve - occular motor nerve
Show uncal (medial temporal lobe) herniation
Sympathetic drug overdose (eg stimulants)

227
Q

What features distinguish MND from other neurological conditions

A

No eye involvement - vs myasthenia gravis
No sphincter involvement - vs MS and polyneuropathies
No sensory loss - vs MS

228
Q

What comes first in MND dysphagia or dysphasia

A

Dysphagia

If dysphasia - more likely to be lump or something else

229
Q

What is a pyramidal pattern of weakness

A

Upper limb - extensors weaker than flexors

Lower limb - flexors weaker than extensors

230
Q

What is the difference between nerve conduction studies and EMG

A

nerve conduction tests the function of peripheral nerves - eg median nerve. Does this by measuring speed (and frequency of spikes, i think). Slower speeds = peripheral nerve damage. You can also distinguish in the test between acute and chronic demyelination (not sure how).
EMG looks at electrical activity of muscles. Can distinguish between upper and lower MN changes on the muscle.

231
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy

A

Viral infection of facial nerve - LMN
Can also involve opthalmic and vestibular coclear nerve
Management is steroids

232
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

Complication of shingles
Caused by VZV
Affects facial nerve and get rash around ear and on palate

233
Q

Rules for epilepsy and DVLA

A

One-off seizure - inform DVLA and no licence for 6 months (if seizure free in that time)
Epilepsy diagnosis (>2 seizures in 5 years) - must be seizure free for 1 year
Withdrawing meds - inform dvla and stop driving
New seizure on switching meds - inform dvla and stop driving
Switching meds - depends, ask neurologist
If seizures only when asleep - need to inform but may be able to keep licence
If seizures dont impair awareness - need to inform but may be able to keep licence