Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCQ's > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

The tapetum lucidum is part of which structure?

  1. Sclera
  2. Retina
  3. Ciliary body
  4. Choroid layer
  5. Lens
A
  1. Choroid layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cranial nerve does not have a parasympathetic motor component?

  1. VI
  2. III
  3. X
  4. VII
  5. IX
A
  1. VI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the largest tract of decussating fibres that passes between the two cerebral hemispheres?

  1. Pons
  2. Thalamus
  3. Medial leminiscus
  4. Corpus callosum
  5. Optic chiasma
A
  1. Corpus callosum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Conscious proprioception information (kinaesthesia) is relayed from the forelimb to conscious level by the following tract system?

  1. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
  2. Spinothalamic tract
  3. Cuneate tract
  4. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
  5. Gracile tract
A
  1. Cuneate tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With which part of the nasal cavity do the paranasal sinuses communicate directly?

  1. Gutteral pouch
  2. Ventral nasal meatus
  3. Middle nasal meatus
  4. Common nasal meatus
  5. Dorsal nasal meatus
A
  1. Middle nasal meatus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

From what part of the spinal cord does sympathetic nerve supply to the head arise?

  1. Cervical segments 5 - 8
  2. Thoracic segments 1 - 3
  3. Cervical segments 3 - 5
  4. Cervical segments 1 - 3
  5. Thoracic segments 5 - 10
A
  1. Thoracic segments 1 - 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the location of the cell bodies of the post-ganglionic nerves that supply the structures of the head?

  1. Atellate ganglion
  2. Basal ganglion
  3. Cranial cervical ganglion
  4. Lateral horn of thoracic spinal cord
  5. Middle cervical ganglion
A
  1. Cranial cervical ganglion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of epithelium lines the aboral surface of the soft palate?

  1. Simple cuboidal
  2. Transitional
  3. Pseudo-stratified ciliated non-keratinised, ciliated, pseudo-stratified (respiratory)
  4. Stratified squamous
  5. Ciliated stratified squamous
A
  1. Simple cuboidal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From which visceral arch (VA) does the mandible develop?

  1. II
  2. I NCC and 1st VA
  3. II and III
  4. III
  5. I and II
A
  1. II and III
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which of the following species is the vertebral artery a principal source of blood to the entire brain?

  1. Cat
  2. Ox
  3. Sheep
  4. Dog
  5. Horse
A
  1. Ox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What bone invests the guttural pouch?

  1. Sternohyoid
  2. Epihyoid
  3. Stylohyoid
  4. Atlas
  5. Thyrohyoid
A
  1. Thyrohyoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of these structures supports the nostril?

  1. Philtrum
  2. Alar plate
  3. Vomer
  4. Alar cartilage
  5. Nasal conchae
A
  1. Alar cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which bones comprise the hard palate?

  1. Nasal and sphenoid
  2. Palatine and incisive
  3. Palatine, maxilla and incisive
  4. Palatine and nasal
  5. Palatine
A
  1. Palatine, maxilla and incisive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the embryological origin of the middle ear?

  1. First pharyngeal cleft
  2. First pharyngeal pouch
  3. Second pharyngeal arch
  4. First pharyngeal arch
  5. Second pharyngeal pouch
A
  1. First pharyngeal arch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The junction between the sclera and cornea is called the:

  1. Limbus
  2. Ciliary body
  3. Fornix
  4. Caruncle
  5. Oro serrata
A
  1. Limbus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Innervation of the laryngeal mucosa is provided by:

  1. Glossopharyngeal n (IX) and vagus (X)
  2. Vagus n (X)
  3. Accessory n (XI)
  4. Glossopharyngeal n (IX)
  5. Hypoglossal n (XII)
A
  1. Vagus n (X)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which part of the upper respiratory tract provides most resistance to airflow?

  1. Larynx
  2. Nasal conchae
  3. Pharynx
  4. Nostrils
  5. Nasal cavity
A
  1. Nostrils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the origin of the lipid layer of the pre-corneal tear film?

  1. Lacrimal gland
  2. Gland of the third eyelid
  3. Accessory gland of the third eyelid
  4. Conjunctival goblet cells
  5. Tarsal gland
A
  1. Tarsal gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The lens develops from:

  1. Endoderm
  2. Surface ectoderm
  3. Neural crest cells
  4. Mesoderm
  5. Neuroectoderm
A
  1. Surface ectoderm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bones contribute to the zygomatic arch of the dog?

  1. Temporal and palatine bones
  2. Temporal and zygomatic bones
  3. Lacrimal and palatine bones
  4. Temporal and sphenoid bones
  5. Frontal and sphenoid bones
A
  1. Temporal and zygomatic bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which paranasal sinus in the horse is a divided structure?

  1. Ethmoidal
  2. Palatine
  3. Sphenoid
  4. Maxillary
  5. Frontal
A
  1. Maxillary
22
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies sensory innervation to the larynx?

  1. Hypoglossal (XII)
  2. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
  3. Accessory (XI)
  4. Facial (VII)
  5. Vagus (X)
A
  1. Vagus (X)
23
Q

The carotid sinus at the origin of the internal carotid artery is innervated by

  1. Vagus n (X)
  2. Facial n (VII)
  3. Glossopharyngeal n (IX)
  4. Abducens n (VI)
  5. Accessory n (XI)
A
  1. Glossopharyngeal n (IX)
24
Q

The upper premolars and molars are innervated by:

  1. Auriculopalpebral (VII)
  2. Facial (VII)
  3. Auriculotemporal (V)
  4. Mandibular (V)
  5. Infraorbital (V)
A
  1. Infraorbital (V)
25
Q

Which paranasal sinus is present in cats but not in dogs?

  1. Sphenoidal
  2. Frontal
  3. Maxillary
  4. Palatine
  5. Ethmoidal
A
  1. Sphenoidal
26
Q

What is the anatomical position of the lacrimal gland?

  1. Fused to the orbital ligament
  2. Ventral to lateral angle of eye
  3. Medial to the third eyelid
  4. Dorsal to lateral angle of eye
  5. Within the eyelid
A
  1. Dorsal lateral angle of eye.
27
Q

Which bones contribute to the zygomatic arch of the dog?

  1. Frontal and sphenoid bones
  2. Temporal and zygomatic bones
  3. Temporal and palatine bones
  4. Lacrimal and palatine bones
  5. Temporal and sphenoid bones
A
  1. Temporal and zygomatic bones
28
Q

A farmer calls you out to see a dairy cow with a sore eye. When you examine the cow it is clear that it is very painful as the cow is closing the eye tightly. To aid in opening the eyelids so you can examine the eye itself, you decide to perform a local nerve block of the auriculopalpebral nerve (a branch of the facial nerve CNVII) to cause relaxation of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Where would you place your needle to perform this block?

  1. Ventral to the dorsal orbital rim advancing caudally in close contact with the bone of the orbit.
  2. At the infraorbital foramen.
  3. At the junction between the supraorbital process and the zygomatic arch.
  4. Most dorsal point of the dorsal edge of the zygomatic arch.
A
  1. Most dorsal point of the dorsal edge of the zygomatic arch.
29
Q

Which extrinsic muscles of the eye does the oculomotor nerve (CN III) provide motor innervation to?

  1. Medial rectus, dorsal rectus, ventral rectus, retractor bulbi muscles.
  2. Medial rectus, dorsal rectus, ventral rectus and ventral oblique muscles.
  3. Lateral rectus, medial rectus, ventral rectus and ventral oblique muscles.
  4. Lateral rectus, medial rectus, dorsal rectus and ventral rectus muscles.
A
  1. Medial rectus, dorsal rectus, ventral rectus and ventral oblique muscles.
30
Q

Which cranial nerve is attached to the brain at the pons?

  1. Trigeminal nerve (CNV)
  2. Facial nerve (CNVII)
  3. Oculomotor nerve (CNIII)
  4. Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
A
  1. Trigeminal nerve (CNV)
31
Q

Why would paralysis of the dorsal and ventral buccal branches of the right facial nerve (CNVII) result in marked clinical signs in the horse?

  1. The horse’s facial musculature is well innervated
  2. The right dorsal and ventral buccal branches have more nerve fibres than the left
  3. The dorsal and ventral buccal branches are very superficial
  4. The horse lacks a firm muzzle and therefore facial asymmetry is more evident than in other species
A
  1. The horse lacks a firm muzzle and therefore facial asymmetry is more evident than in other species
32
Q

Which cranial nerve branch passes all the way through the middle ear cavity?

  1. Vestibular component of the vestibulocochlear nerve
  2. Chorda tympani
  3. Major petrosal nerve
  4. Cochlear component of the vestibulocochlear nerve
A
  1. Chorda tympani
33
Q

Which of the following contains neurones derived from basal lamina of the neural tube.

  1. Dorsal horn of grey matter of spinal cord
  2. Ventral horn of grey matter of spinal cord
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Diencephalon
  5. Basal nuclei of cerebrum
A
  1. Ventral horn of grey matter of spinal cord
34
Q

Derivatives of the embryonic hindbrain include:

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Pons
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla oblongata + Pons
  5. Medulla oblongata + Pons + Cerebellum
A
  1. Medulla oblongata + Pons + Cerebellum
35
Q

In which species is the anastomosing branch of the vertebral artery a major source of arterial blood supplying the cerebrum?

  1. Dog
  2. Cat
  3. Horse
  4. Small ruminants
  5. Ox
A
  1. Ox
36
Q

Beta two adrenergic receptors:

  1. cause smooth muscle relaxation when activated
  2. are post-ganglionic receptors for Acetylcholine
  3. are pre-ganglionic receptors for the neurotransmitter Dopamine
  4. cause smooth muscle contraction when activated
  5. are restricted to the myocardium
A
  1. cause smooth muscle relaxation when activated
37
Q

Which statement best describes Acetylcholine?

  1. A major neurotransmitter with muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
  2. The major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS
  3. The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS
  4. A neurotransmitter inactivated by reuptake mechanisms
  5. It stimulates the heart to beat faster
A
  1. A major neurotransmitter with muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
38
Q

The depolarisation phase of an action potential implies that:

  1. The resting membrane potential is unchanged and the Na+ and K+ are in equilibrium.
  2. A stimulus is causing Na+ influx into the nerve cell, followed by a rapid influx of NA+ due to conformational change on the Na+ gated channels but with slow K+ ion efflux.
  3. There is a gradual Na+ influx, followed by rapid opening of Na+ gated channels coupled with high efflux of K+
  4. There is slow Na+ influx coupled with a high K+ efflux due to conformation change in the K+ gated channels.
  5. The potassium pump is operating at the higher limit thus increasing the amount of intracellular K+.
A

A stimulus is causing Na+ influx into the nerve cell, followed by a rapid influx of NA+ due to conformational change on the Na+ gated channels but with slow K+ ion efflux.

39
Q

All of the following can cause raised intracranial pressure. Which ONE of these is not classified as a space-occupying lesion?

  1. Astroctye tumour (astrocytoma)
  2. Coenuris cerebralis parasitic cyst
  3. Bacterial meningitis
  4. Haematoma (blood clot)
  5. Abscess
A
  1. Bacterial meningitis
40
Q

A tumour is present in the brain. Which one of the following would NOT normally be associated with, or be a consequence of, this lesion?

  1. Displacement of local areas of the brain
  2. Herniation of the cerebellar vermis
  3. Hydrocephalus
  4. Compression of brain areas
  5. Bor borygmi
A
  1. Bor borygmi
41
Q
A
42
Q

Coactivation is the stimulation of lower motoneurons by the upper motor neurons resulting into:

  1. Activation of gamma motoneurons to extrafusal fibres
  2. Activation of alpha motoneurons to intrafusal fibres
  3. Activation of both alpha and gamma motoneurons to extrafusal fibres and intrafusal fibres respectively.
  4. Activation on gamma motoneurons causing the muscle spindles to relax.
A

Activation of both alpha and gamma motoneurons to extrafusal fibres and intrafusal fibres respectively.

43
Q

In crossed-extensor reflex sensory inputs are relayed to the spinal cord and to the interneurons. The interneurons respond by sending inhibitory and facilitatory motor response:

  1. causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb to relax and flexor muscles to contract while both extensor and flexor muscles in the contralateral side relax.
  2. causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb (ispilateral) to relax and flexor muscles to contract while extensor muscles in contralateral side relax and flexor muscles contract.
  3. causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb to relax and flexor muscles to contract while both extensor and flexor muscles in the contralateral side to contract.
  4. causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb (ispilateral) to relax and flexor muscles to contract while extensor muscles in contralateral side contract and flexor muscles to relax
A
  1. causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb (ispilateral) to relax and flexor muscles to contract while extensor muscles in contralateral side contract and flexor muscles to relax
44
Q

Extraocular muscles play an important role in fixation reflex as well as normal eye movement. What would be the effect of a lesion in the abducens nerve (CN VI)?

  1. Medial strabismus.
  2. Lateral strabismus.
  3. Ventrolateral strabismus.
  4. Dorsal strabismus.
A
  1. Medial strabismus.
45
Q

In Menace response the sensory arm is the optic nerve and the motor response is thru one of the following:-

  1. The Cranial nerve VI to the retractor bulbi muscle.
  2. Cranial nerve VII to orbicularis oculi and CN III to Levator palpebral superioris muscle.
  3. Cranial nerve V to the ocular extraocular structures.
  4. Cranial nerve VII and tectospinal tracts to the neck.
A
  1. Cranial nerve VII and tectospinal tracts to the neck.
46
Q

Which of the following are NOT correctly paired?

  1. Dorsal columns/touch and conscious proprioception
  2. Spinothalamic tract/”pin-prick” pain
  3. Spinocervicothalamic tract/touch and conscious proprioception
  4. Spinoreticular tract/true pain
  5. Spinocerebellar tracts/conscious proprioception
A
  1. Spinocerebellar tracts/conscious proprioception
47
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the general sensory cortex is FALSE:

  1. It lies in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere
  2. It receives almost entirely a contralateral input
  3. Representation is somatotopic
  4. Representation is disproportionate
  5. Representation shows an inverted image
A
  1. It receives almost entirely a contralateral input.
48
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the cerebellum is FALSE ?

  1. It consists of 2 hemispheres and a vermis
  2. It is attached to the brainstem by 3 paired cerebellar peduncles
  3. Inputs from the internal ear and vestibular system are made to the flocculonodular lobe.
  4. The inputs from the spinocerebellar tracts are mainly ipsilateral.
  5. The deep nuclei are motor nuclei of basal laminar origin.
A
  1. The deep nuclei are motor nuclei of basal laminar origin.
49
Q

Sound wave detection, amplification and impulse generation is carried out in the organ of Corti in the inner ear. A static wave produced in the scala vestibuli pass thru the helicotrema to the scala tympani where it causes the vibration of the basilar membrane. The vibration of the basilar membrane in turn cause:-

  1. The hair cell on the basilar membrane vibrate in resonance thereby causing a shearing movement of the cilia against the rigid tectorial membrane resulting in discharge of impulses to the cerebral cortex thru CN VIII.
  2. The endolymph in the scala media to vibrate thereby causing the bipolar cells to discharge impulses thru CNV III.
  3. The hair cells on the basilar membrane to undergo a shearing movement against the Reissner’s membrane resulting in depolarisation and generation of impulses through the vestibular branch of CN VIII.
A
  1. The hair cell on the basilar membrane vibrate in resonance thereby causing a shearing movement of the cilia against the rigid tectorial membrane resulting in discharge of impulses to the cerebral cortex thru CN VIII.
50
Q

Bilateral vestibular lesions has a grave prognosis and is manifested in the following signs:-

  1. Tilting of the head to one side, vomiting, falling on to one side and nystagmus with a slow phase to the lesion side
  2. No head tilt, vomiting, wide base stance with the feet and no nystagmus.
  3. No head tilt, occasional nystagmus to one side of the head, wide base stance with the feet to support the body.
  4. Head turn from side to side, no nystagmus, normal nystagmus cannot be induced, wide base stance with the feet to support the body and occasional vomiting.
A
  1. Head turn from side to side, no nystagmus, normal nystagmus cannot be induced, wide base stance with the feet to support the body and occasional vomiting.
51
Q

The Guttural pouch is a diverticulum of the Eustachian tube in the middle ear in the equines. The Eustachian tube is important in equilibrating pressure exerted on the tympanic membrane as a result of sound waves. Occasionally the guttural pouch may become infected and/or inflamed affecting tissues that lie close to or run on its surface. The effect of this inflammation on surrounding tissues may cause:-

  1. Deafness
  2. Loss of balance and laryngeal paralysis.
  3. Dysphagia, Epistaxis, Horner’s syndrome, Lingual and facial paralysis.
  4. Difficult breathing.
A
  1. Dysphagia, Epistaxis, Horner’s syndrome, Lingual and facial paralysis.
52
Q

In regard to ruptures of intervertebral discs in dogs, which of the following is FALSE?

  1. Some dog breeds are predisposed to slow bulging of certain intervertebral discs
  2. Rupture of thoracic intervertebral discs is common
  3. The major spinal cord lesion following acute disc rupture is haemorrhage in the grey matter
  4. When many discs rupture, they do so dorsally
  5. Disc rupture is untreatable
A
  1. Rupture of thoracic intervertebral discs is common

MCQ's (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions