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Veterinary Medicine > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are Oligodendrocytes?

A

Responsible for myelinating individual axons in CNS.

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2
Q

What is the role of astrocytes?

A

-Provide blood-brain barrier -Provide nutrients to the nervous tissue -Maintain extracellular ion balance -Absorb excess neurotransmitter -Role in repair/scarring process of CNS after traumatic injury

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3
Q

Name the somatic receptors and where they’re located..

A

1) Golgi tendon organs - Tendon 2) Muscle spindles - Muscles 3) Meisnners corpuscles - Skin light touch 4) Merkells disks - Skin, touch and texture 5) pacinian corpuscle - Pain and dee pressure 6) Ruffini corpuscle - Stretch/Kinesthesia (joint angles) 7) Free nerve endings - Pain

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4
Q

What is the ventricular system?

A

4 interconnected ventricles where cerebrospinal fluid is made. Choroid plexus within ventricles, is a network of ependymal cells that produce CSF. Ventricular system continuous within central canal of spinal cord

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5
Q

How does the brain receive its blood supply?

A

Corotid arteries that are arranged into cerebral arterial circle, Also known as the circle of willis

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6
Q

whats the difference between a pre-ganglionic neurone and a post-ganglionic neurone?

A

Pre-ganglionic - cell body in brain or spinal cord (CNS) - axon myelinated and extends to autonomic ganglion - Long in parasympathetic and short in sympathetic Post-ganglionic - Cell body lies outside CNS in an autonomic ganglia - axon unmyelinated and terminates in the wall of the visceral organ - short parasympathetic and long in sympatheic

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7
Q

What are the sources of Dual innervation?

A

Parasympathetic - Craniosacral division - Preganglionic cell bodies located within 4 cranial nerves (3,7,9 & 10). These cranial nerves are associated with the autonomic NS Sympathetic - thoracolumbar - Pre Ganglionic cell bodies with thoracic and 2 lumbar segments of the spinal cord

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8
Q

Name and describe the transparent media of the eye

A
  • Conjuctiva - continuous with eyelid. Lined by stratisfied squamous epithelium. highly vascular and contains goblet cells
  • Cornea - Level of hydration critical for transparency, Avascular and obtains 02/nutrients from aqueous humour and air. has 5 layers:
  1. conjunctiva
  2. bowmans membrane
  3. thick transparent fibrous layer
  4. descemets membrane
  5. endothelium
  • Aqueous humour - Produced by ciliary body and provides nutrients for cornea and lens. Also maintains intra occular pressure (25mm.Hg) and is replaced several times a day.
  • Lens - derivitive of optic placode. Live cells shaped live an onion and has cuboidal epithelium rostrally. Soft cortex and harder nucleus. Avascular and obtains nutrients from aqueous humour.
  • Vitreous humour - Secreted by ciliary body up until maturity. contains water, hyaluronic acid and collagen. pressure prevents retinal detachment. Supports lens anteriorly and retina posteriorly.
    *
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9
Q

Describe the structure of the retina, uvea and sclera

A

Sclera

  • Continuous with the cornea
  • similiar to cornea, except is vascular and made up of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue

Uvea - 3 components

  • choroid - closest to retina. contains outer black layer, vascular layer and tapetum lucidum which is most inner. Refracts light not allowing it to leave eye.
  • Ciliary body - produces aqueous and vitreous humour and also has muscle fibres that attach to lens, allowing distant vision
  • Iris - vascular, coloured and contractile to alter pupil size

Retina - outgrowth of diencephalon

  • Has non visual part containing epithelium and pigments
  • inner layer containing photoreceptive cones ( colour) and rods (black and white), ganglions and stromal cells
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10
Q

Describe the flow of aqueous humour in the eye

A
  • aqueous humour secreted by the ciliary body
  • flows from posterior chamber to anterior
  • Then through the iridocorneal angle and is drained into the episcleral venous system

A blockage in the iridocorneal angle can increase intra occular pressure leading to glaucoma

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11
Q

What are the extra occular muscles of the eye

A
  • Lateral Rectus
  • Medial Rectus
  • Ventral Rectus
  • Dorsal rectus
  • Ventral oblique
  • Dorsal oblique
  • Retractor bulbi
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12
Q

Describe species variation in blood supply to brain

A

Dog,man, & horse

  • Internal carotids and basilar artery supply CAC
  • Vetebral artery supplies rest of the brain

Sheep & cat

  • Only amostomising rami of maxillary artery supply CAC
  • Has rete mirabille (complex of arteries and veins lying close together which exchange heat and ions via a counter current)
  • vetebral artery supplies medulla oblongata
  • Basilar drains away from CAC

OX

  • Anastomosing rami of maxillary and vetebral artery supply CAC
  • Basilar also drains away

Veterbral artery can not be accessed from the throat, therefore in ritual slaughter animal may be concous some time after cut to structures of the throat.

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13
Q

Describe venous drainage of the brain

A
  • Cerebral veins lack valves and drain into venous sinuses of dura matter
  • Dorsal cerbral vein drains into dorsal saggital sinus
  • Great cerebral vein into straight sinus
  • Caudal vein drains into dorsal petrosal sinus
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14
Q

Describe the normal Visual pathway

A
  • Lateral objects are peceived by the nasal retina and medial objects by the temporal retina
  • Signals from the nasal retina can pass over to the other side of the brain at the optic chiasma
  • information synapses at the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalmus
  • Then passed onto the occipital lobe

A lesion on the pituitarry could cause tunnel vision by compressing on the optic chiasma, stopping information from the nasal retina from being perceived

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15
Q

Describe the menace responce

A
  • Once information travels to the lateral geniculate nucleus and then the occipital lobe, transverse fibres transmit signsl to the pons
  • It is then transmitted to the cerebellar peduncles and then the cerebellum
  • CN VII nucleus perceives this information and sends signals down it motor fibres to the obicularis oculi muscle to close eye lid
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16
Q

Describe fixating response

A
  • retina - lateral geniculate nucleus - occipital lobe
  • transverse fibres send information to the pons - cerebellum
  • Nucleus of cranial nerves III, IV & VI receive information and send signals down motor fibres to extra occular muscles
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17
Q

Describe pupillary response

A
  • Signal decussates at the optic chiasma BUT does not synapse at the LGN but at the Rostral colliculi
  • Efferent fibres then pass to edger-wesphal nucleus
  • Parasympathetic fibres of cranial nerve VII then synapse at ciliary ganglion
  • Post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres then cause ciliary muscle of the eye to contract, thus reducing pupil size
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18
Q

Describe symptoms of Horners syndrome and what part of the brain is responsible for monitoring day length

A

Horners syndrome

  • Miosis - pupil size decrease
  • Ptosis - drooping eyelid
  • 3rd eye lid protrusion
  • Enopthalmia - eyes sunken into socket
  • Conjunctiva vascular enlargement

Suprachiasnatic nucleus of hypothalamus monitors amount of light entering eye throughtout day. Important in seasonal breeders

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19
Q

What are the foramen that the cranial nerves exit the cranium from?

A
  • Infraorbital canal - V2
  • Optic canal - II
  • Orbital fissure - III, IV, VI & V1
  • Alar foramina - V2 & V1
  • Oval foramen - V3
  • Jugular foramen - IX, X & XI
  • Hypoglossal foramen - XII
  • Foramen magnum - SC & XI
  • Stylomastoid foramen - VII
  • CN I exits via cribiform plate of mesethmoid bone
  • CN VIII exits via internal auditory meatus
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20
Q

Describe structure of outer ear

A
  • Pinna
  • Vertical cartilage = Scutiform cartilage
  • Horizonatal cartilage = annular cartilage
  • Arranged in boot shape making it difficult to remove foreign objects and can lead to a build up of cerumin
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21
Q

What are the structures of middle ear?

A
  • Tympanic membrane - Malleus - Incus - Stapes - Oval window
  • Stapedius (VII) attaches to stapes and tensor tympani (V3). Contraction of stapedius pulls stapes away from oval window, decreasing sensitivity. Contraction of tensor tympani causes tension in ossicles, and increases sensitivity
  • Connected to nasopharynx via eustchian tube. In horses this extends dorsally to form guttaral pouch. Infections here can cause horners syndrome ( sympathetic nerve of cranial cervical ganglion), facial parlysis (VII) and lingual paralysis (XII)
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22
Q

Describe structure of inner ear

A
  • Cochlea extends laterally, making contact with bony labryinth. Comparmentalisation into upper and lowe level called scali vestibula and scali tympani. These contain perilymph. Middle level is scali media and contains endolymph.
  • Between scala vestibuli and scali media is the rigid reissners membrane
  • Between scala media and scali tympani is the basillar membrane.
  • Outer hair cells are efferent cells recieving information from the brain and amplify soft sounds
  • Inner hair cells are afferent fibres carrying information to the brain via CN VIII
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23
Q

Describe the process of sound conduction

A
  • Vibrations from the oval window cause deflection fo basilar membrane
  • Basilar membrane has different thicknesses, meaning different frequences are dissapated at different points along the membrane
  • Movement of basilar membrane causes inner and outer hair cells to sheer against the tectorial membrane.
  • Flexion of cilia towards kinoocilia causes depolarisation and transmitter release.
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24
Q

How is the pathway for vision and hearing linked

A

Hair cell - Bipolar spiral ganglion - dorsal/ventral cochlear nuclei - Caudal Colliculis - medial geniculate nuclues - Temporal cortex

Caudal and rostral colliculus linked, therefore CN III, IV & VI activated when a sound is heard to look in that direction

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25
Q

What are the 5 receptor organs in the vestibular system

A
  • Cristae ampullares - 3 located at the ampulla of the semi-circular canals
  • Maculae - one found in the utricile (parallel because they measure vertical acceleration) and the other in the saccule (perpindicular because it measure horizontal acceleration)
26
Q

Describe the role of cristae ampullares and maculae

A

Maculae

  • Composed of neuroepithelium ( hair & supporting cells), otoliths and otolithic membrane
  • Otoliths sit on membrane making it heavier than surrounding fluid, therefore by gravity will be able to sense acceleration

Cristae ampullaris

  • Composed of neuroepithelium and cupula.
  • upon angular rotation, endolymoph deflects the cupula against the hair cells, causes impulses to be sent through neurons that are attached to them
27
Q

Explain the vestibul-ocular reflex

A
  • Vestibular fibres are constantly disharging. when the head is still the rate of disharge is the same from both sides
  • when the head turns for example left, Left vestibular fibres increase disharge (to left horizontal canal), and the right decreases
  • This results in right abducens (VI) innervation, innervating the right lateral rectus muscle to cause eye to move right

Unilateral legion can decrease firing from the same side. Leads to disruption in dynamic equilibrium, making it seem as if heads moving when its not, leading to nystagmus. With a slow phase towards lesion and a fast away.

28
Q

What are lower motor neurones, what are their function and what are the fibre types

A
  • Somatic motor pathway in which neurones are located in the ventral column of grey matter in SC & within nuclei of Cranial nerves
  • funtion is to regulate and control contraction of skeletal muscle
  1. Alpha motorneurones - Innervate ordinary muscle fibres (extrafusal)
  2. Gamma motoneurones - Innervate interfusal muscle spindles. Cause spindle to contract through isometric contraction
29
Q

What are the roles of Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles

A

Muscle spindles

  • Made up of intrafusal fibres that run parallel to ordinary fibres
  • concentration of nuclei in the centre in either a nuclear bag or nuclear chain & muscle spindles at the end of fibres.
  • Innervated by either Annulospiral ( sensory endings wrapped around chain or bag) or Flower spray (only arround nuclear chain)

Golgi tendon organs

  • Monitor tension in tendon caused by passive muscle contraction.
30
Q

Describe knee jerk reflex

A
  • Patellar tendon struck
  • causes shortening of muscle spindles which is detected by sensory neurons and feeds back to spinal cord
  • Synapses back to a alpha motor neurone to produce rapid contraction of quadriceps muscle (monosynaptic).
  • In dysynaptic reflex, the antagonising muscle e.g the hamstring will relax
31
Q

Describe spinothalmic tract

A
  • 3 neurone chain
  • Contralateral relay
  • Relay to cerebral cortex is via thalamus. Thalamus filters out irrelevant information so not everything reaches a conscious level
32
Q

Describe spino reticular tract

A
  • Bilateral relay
  • Multinuerone relay
  • Finely mylenated
  • diffuse relay to cortex
  • more primitive system
33
Q

Describe the Spino cerebellar tract

A
  • 2 neurone pathway
  • Ipsilateral relay
34
Q

What are the 2 pathways for pain ?

A
  • Fast initial pain travels through free nerve endings to large myelinated fibres. travels through spinothalmic tract. localised quick ending pain
  • Slow delayed pain picked up by free nerve endings and transmitted to small unmyelinated fibres. travels through the spinoreticular tract causing localised pain, nausua and lowered blood pressure
35
Q

What is hyperalgesia

A

Condition in which tissue damage leads to the release of chemicals which increase sensitivity in nociceptors. Making light touch induce pain

36
Q

Describe corticospinal tract

A
  • basis of skilled activity
  • 2 neurones
  • Contralateral relay
  • Voluntary movements
37
Q

Describe extra pyramidal system

A

Involved in involuntary motory systems such as reflexs, posture & locomotion

Consists of:

  • Rubrospinal (red nucleus) tract (crawling babies & gait in other animals)
  • Tectospinal tract (auditory/hearing responses)
  • Vestibulospinal tract ( Vestib ular nerve)
  • Reticulospinal tract ( arousal and conciousness)

2 neurones from command centre & has a contralateral relay except for vestiubulospinal tract which has a bilateral relay

38
Q

What are the different areas of cerebral cortex

A
  1. Hippocampus - Important role of consilidation from short term memory into long term. Also important in spacial navigation
  2. Piriform lobe - Involved in the perception of olfaction
  3. Neocortex - important in perception of sound, vision, sleep, memory and learning processes
39
Q

What are the areas of neocortex

A
  • Projection areas - sensory processing occurs. 4 lobes.
  1. Frontal - Voluntary movement
  2. Parietal - processing sensory information from touch
  3. Temporal - communicates with hippocampus to form new visual long term memorys. also crucial with auditory perception and visual perception
  4. Occipital - visial perception
  • Association areas - Connects sensory and motor areas. Also associated with higher mental activities
40
Q

Describe the structure of the lymbic system

A

Ancient system adapted to new function

  • Hippocampus
  • Fornix - carries information from hippocampus to mammiliry bodies
  • Mammilary bodies - important in recollective memory
  • Cingulate gyrus - coordinates sensory information with emotions, regulates emotional response to pain and aggression
41
Q

What is the mechanism and causes of epileptic fits

A

Mechanism

  • Wave of spontaneous excitation in motor areas
  • spreads from small group of neurones in motor cortex
  • Can be localised or like seen in the dog, widespread
  • Usually a loss of consciousness

Causes

  • Metabolic/toxic
  • Structural damage to cortex (canine distemper)
  • Tumours (Usually seen in older dogs with no previous history)
  • Trauma
  • Idiopathic
42
Q

How is CSF resorbed

A

Resorbed into the blood by the arachnoid bili which potrude into the extracerebelar veins and sinuse

43
Q

What is the reaction to injury of the following structures: Neurones, oligodendrocytes, astrocyte, ependymal cells, choroid plexus and water balance

A

Neurone

  • Excitotoxicity - excess release of neurontransmitter (e.g glutamate) and decreased removal by astocytes leads to neuronal necrosis
  • Oxidative damage - Free radical production damages lipid rich membrane
  • When a neuron process degenerates, it also degenerates afferent/efferent fibres both antero/retrograde are lost

Oligodendrocytes - selective injury to myelin sheath

Astrocyte - Can cause either hyperplasia or hypertrophy

Ependymal cell - obstruct csf flow

Choroid plexus - Tight junctions are compramised and therefore substances leak into CSF

Water balance - Cause swelling and increased intracranial pressure leading to ischemia (reduced blood flow). Can be caused by:

  • BBB damage
  • Impairment to Na/K pump
  • Increased permeability of desmosomal junction between ependymal cells
44
Q

what are the two types of Arthropods and what distinguishes them

A

Insecta

  • Covered in hard exoskeleton and seperated into head,thorax and abdomen
  • Has one pair of compound eyes (main eyes) with honeycomb fascets, 3 simple eyes knows as Oceli & pair of antennae
  • mouth part can be sponge like labellae or slender like mosquito to penetrate skin
  • Wing ventation used to distinguish adult flys
  • Alimentary system compriseing of crop, proventriculus, mapighian tubules (kidneys)
  • Has many fat vacuoles for food reserves

Arachnida

  • 3 pairs of legs in larvae and 4 as adult
  • Egg-larvae-nymph-adult
45
Q

Describe the characteristics of cestodes

A
  • Tapeworms have male and female gonads.
  • In most species cross fertilization between worms needed, but some can self fertilize
  • There are 6 different types of Metacestodes - larval stage that grows in intermediate host
  1. Cysticerus - Fluid filled bladder with inverted scolex (head)
  2. Cysticercoid - Fluid filled cyst (less than cysticercus) and no inverted scolex
  3. Strobilocercus - scolex joined to small fluid filled cyst by chain of segments
  4. Coenurus - Similiar to Cysticercus but multiple inverted scolex
  5. Hydatid cyst - Like coenurus, but thousands of inverted scoli. fluid filled bladder can grow to size of a football!
  6. Alveolar cyst - Like hydatid cyst, but exogenous as well as endogenous budding
46
Q

Describe characteristics of Trematodes (flukes)

A

2 different types

  1. Monogeneans - Ectoparasites on fish. have direct life cycle
  2. Digeneans - Dorso-ventrally flattened, no blood vessels, 2 ventral suckers, muscular pharynx to pump food into blind ending gut.

Life cycle of Fasciola hepatica

  • Eggs released in faeces and miracidium hatch from the stimulus of rain and light intensity
  • Penetrates molluscan (snail) by proteases
  • Sporocyst forms and releases radiae
  • Cercaria released from radiae and attach to grass and lose tail. now metacercaria
  • Ingested and immature fluke exocysts and travels to liver
  • Adults liver fluke then releases oocyte
47
Q

Describe characteristics of Nematodes (roundworms)

A

Have fluid filled body maintained at a high pressure. Sexes are seperated. Males have two spincules that hold female in place. Males can also have large expansions on the tail know as bursa, used for taxonomy.

  • Nematodes eggs vary greatly in morphology, used to distinguish species
  • Life cycle: Egg-L1-L2-L3-L4-Adult
  • Cause disease when emergence occurs from mucosa
  • Head contains leaf crow, buccal cavity and teeth
48
Q

Describe Locomotion and life cycle of protozoa

A
  • Unicellular
  • Usually reproduce asexually but sometimes can have sexual and Asexual repro in same host

Locomotion

  • Fine short hairs on body surface move in unison to move. Also waft food into cytosome
  • Flagellum
  • Pseudopodia - Extension of cytoplasm
  • Glide

Life cycle of Coccidia

  • Oocyte passed in faeces. Asexual reproduction (sporulation) must occur for sporozoites (infective) to form in sporocyst
  • Infects epithelial cells and grow. Nucleus divides multiple time to form large shizont containing merozoites (shizogony)
  • Shizont ruptures and merozoites released infect furthur epithelial cells. Either go on to form another generation of shizonts or sexual phase and form Microgametocytes (male) or Macrogametocyte (female)
  • Microgametons pentrate and fertilise a epithelial cells with a Macrogameton, resulting in formation of zygote. This is surrounded by cyst wall and forms Oocyte
49
Q

Where does olfactory nerve (CN I) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches on the Olfactory bulb
  • Exits cranium via cribriform plate
  • Special visceral Afferent fibres transmitting sense of smell.

fibres replaced every 30/60 days in dogs

50
Q

Where does Optic nerve (CN II) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to the brain via diencephalon
  • Leaves cranium via optic canal
  • Special somatic afferent fibres transmiting visual information to the brain
51
Q

Where does occulomotor nerve (CN III) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to the midbrain
  • Leaves cranium via Orbital fissure
  • Has General somatic efferent fibres controlling extra ocular muscles (Dorsal rectus, medial rectus, ventral rectus, ventral oblique and levator pulpebral superioris) & General visceral efferent fibres controlling Sphincter pupillae ( iris contraction) & ciliary muscles (alter curvature of lens)
52
Q

Where does Trochlear nerve (IV) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to dorsal midbrain
  • Exits formaen via Orbital fissure
  • Has General somatic efferent fibres controlling Dorsal oblique muscle, Smallest cranial nerve
53
Q

Where does Trigeminal nerve (V) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to the pons
  1. V1 exits cranium via orbital fissure. Has general somatic afferent fibres carrying sensory information from eye (cornea and conjunctiva) and upper eyelid
  2. V2 exits cranium via round and Alar foramina. Has general somatic afferent fibres carrying sensory information from horns, nasal cavitity, sinuses and palate.
  3. V3 exits cranium via Oval foramina. Has General somatic afferent fibres carrying sensory information from rostral 2/3 of tongue, mandible and teeth. Also has general somatic efferent innervating muscles of mastication and muscles of the palate.
54
Q

Where does Abducens nerve (CN VI) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to medulla oblongata
  • Leaves cranium via Orbital fissure
  • Has General somatic efferent fibres innervating retractor bulbi and lateral rectus muscles
55
Q

Where does Facial nerve (CN VII) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to medulla oblongata
  • Leaves cranium via stylomastoid foramen
  • Has General somatic efferent fibres controlling muscles of facial expression. Has general visceral efferent fibres innervating parasympathetic control of lacrimal and salivary glands. Has Special visceral afferent allowing for taste sensation in rostral 2/3 of tongue
56
Q

Where does Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches at medulla oblongata
  • Leaves cranium via internal acoustic meatus passing into petrosal bone.
  • Has special somatic afferent fibres receiving sensory information from cochlea and cristae ampullares/macuale
57
Q

Where does glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to medulla oblongata
  • exits cranium via jugular foramen
  • Has general sensory efferent innervating stylopharnygeus muscle. General visceral afferent receiving sensory information from carotid body,pharynx and middle ear. Has general visceral efferent innervating parotid and zygomatic salivary glands via parasympathetic innervation. Also has Special visceral afferent receiving taste sensation from caudal 1/3 of tongue. General somatic afferent from external ear.
58
Q

Where does Vagus (X) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to medulla oblongata
  • Exits cranium via Jugular foramen
  • Has general somatic efferent fibres innervating larynx, pharynx and oesophagus. General visceral afferent from tongue, pharynx and larynx. General visceral efferent providing parasympathetic innervation thorax and abdominal viscera. has special visceral afferent fibres providing taste from epiglottis/palate. General somatic afferent of external ear/dura matter
59
Q

Where does accessory nerve (XI) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • attaches to medulla oblongata
  • Exits cranium via jugular foramen
  • General somatic efferent innervating brachiocephalicus and trapezius.
60
Q

Where does Hypoglossal nerve (XII) attach to brain, exit foramen, what are its fibre types and funtion?

A
  • Attaches to medulla oblongata
  • Leaves cranium via hypoglossal canal
  • has general somatic efferent fibres innervating extrinsiv muscles of the tongue.
61
Q
A

Veterinary Medicine (11 decks)

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