Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the EEG changes in infantile spasms?

A

Hypsarrhythmia

A triad of high amplitude, disorganised background and multifocal discharges

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2
Q

What is the treatment of infantile spasms?

A

ACTH
Vigabatrin

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3
Q

What is the typical features of infantile spasms?

A

Age of onset - between 4-7 months

Occur on clusters
Rapid flexion of the trunk, neck and extremities

Often occurs at beginning or end of sleep

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4
Q

What are the EEG findings of absence seizures?

A

3Hz generalised spike-wave discharges

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5
Q

What is the treatment of absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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6
Q

What is the prognosis of absence seizures?

A

Majority of children will grow out of them by adolescences

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7
Q

What are the features of absence seizures?

A

Presentation between 4-10 years of age

Staring, lack of a postictal state
Automatisms

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8
Q

What are the features of benign Rolandic epilepsy?

A

Seizures soon after sleep onset or just before awakening

Onset between 4-11 years
Facial twitching and drooling

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9
Q

What is the treatment of benign rolandic epilepsy?

A

Spontaneously remit

If Tx is considered - 1st line is carbamazepine

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10
Q

Which condition presents with jerking movements of the upper extremities upon awakening?

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

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11
Q

What are the EEG findings in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

EEG 4-6Hz (spike and polyspike wave)

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12
Q

What is the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Sodium valproate

May also consider lamotrigine or levetiracetam

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13
Q

What is the treatment of choice for partial seizures?

A

1st line - Carbamazepine
2nd line - Levetiracetam (can be given alongside COCP)

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14
Q

What is the treatment of choice for generalised tonic clonic seizures?

A

1st line - Sodium valproate
2nd line - Levetiracetam

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15
Q

What are the common side effects of ethosuximide?

A

GI upset
Leukopenia

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16
Q

What are the common side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Rash - SJS
SIADH/ hyponatraemia
Hepatotoxicity
Leucopenia

17
Q

What are the common side effects of phenytoin?

A

Zero order kinetics - the rate of elimination is constant regardless of the plasma concentration of the drug

Hirsutism
Gum hypertrophy
Teratogenic

18
Q

What are the common side effects of Lamotrigine?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

19
Q

What are the side effects of sodium valproate?

A

Weight gain
Tremor
Hair loss
Dose related thrombocytopenia
Hepatotoxicity

Hyperammonaemic encephalopathy

20
Q

What are the side effects of topiramate?

A

Closed angle glaucoma

21
Q

What is Sandifier syndrome?

A

Back arching, dystonic posturing of the limbs - may be provoked by feeding or lying flat (may be alleviated by sitting up)

Due to GORD

22
Q

What is the origin of the nerves and skin?

A

Ectoderm

23
Q

Where do neurocutaneous conditions originate embryologically from?

A

Ectoderm

24
Q

What is the inheritance of NF1?

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutation on chromosome 17
Onset in childhood

25
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of NF1?

A

2 or more of the following:
- 6 or more cafe-au-lait spots (>5mm in pre-pubertal, >15mm in post-pubertal)
- Axillary of inguinal freckling
- Two or more iris/ lisch nodules
- Distinctive bony lesion (sphenoid dysplasia)
- Two or more neurofibromas
- Optic glioma (<6 years)
- 1st degree relative with NF1

26
Q

What complications can occur in neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Renal vascular stenosis
Phaeochromocytoma

27
Q

What is the inheritance of NF2?

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutation in chromosome 22

28
Q

What is the inheritance of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant
Mutation on chromosome 9 and 16

29
Q

What are the main features of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Ash leaf spots
Shagreen patch
Periungal fibromas
Facial angiofibromas
Cardiac rhambdomyoma
Renal and pulmonary angiomyolipomas
Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas

30
Q

What are the clinical features of Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

A

Facial port wine stain in V1, V2 or even V3 distribution of the trigeminal nerve
Glaucoma
Seizures

May develop ipsilateral cerebral leptomeningealangioma - may calcify over time and cause tram track/ railroad calcifications on CT scan

31
Q

Which conditions are commonly associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Developmental delay
Learning disabilities
ADHD
Contralateral hemiparesis
Soft tissue hypertrophy
Hemianopia

32
Q

What are the EEG findings in subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

A

Burst suppression

33
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral loss of vibration, weakness and position sense and contralateral loss of temperature and pain sensation

34
Q

Is Bells palsy upper or lower motor neurone related?

A

Lower motor neurone palsy

Forehead is included

35
Q
A