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Year 3 Incorrect Questions > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions are a contraindication to triptans?

A

Ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and previous stroke or TIA

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1
Q

First line prevention of uncomplicated migraine

A

Beta blocker e.g. atenolol, propanolol

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2
Q

Sensation of being hit in the back of head, smoking history, EDS

A

Ruptured berry aneurysm

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3
Q

Periorbital headache with ptosis, lacrimation, conjunctival inflammation

A

Cluster headache

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4
Q

History of TIA and AF with stepwise decline in memory

A

Vascular dementia

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5
Q

First line management of mild to moderate dementia

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine or galantamine

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6
Q

Management of moderate to severe dementia

A

Memantine (NMDA antagonist)

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7
Q

Why are people with Down syndrome more likely to get Alzheimer’s?

A

Amyloid precursor protein is found on chromosome 21

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8
Q

Drug to reduce severity of attacks in MS

A

3 day course oral methylprednisolone

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9
Q

Drug to reduce relapse rate in MS

A

Beta-interferon

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10
Q

Pt is unable to extend knee due to muscle spasm - should botox be injected into extensor or flexor muscles?

A

Flexors. e.g. biceps femoris if unable to extend knee

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11
Q

What would you see on CSF panel in MS patient?

A

<1 white cell, <1 red cell, CSF glucose:serum glucose=0.6, protein 0.5 (normal 0.2-0.45g/L), distinct bands of IgG on Western Blot

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12
Q

Pathological hallmark of MS on MRI

A

Plaques of gadolinium-enhancing T2 hyperintensity

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13
Q

What type of stroke is caused by small vessel infarction?

A

Lacunar stroke (no cortical signs e.g. hemianopia, speech problems)

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14
Q

First line investigation for suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

CT non-contrast (detects 90% within48h onset)

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14
Q

WHich nerves are affected first in PNS pathology?

A

Long nerves e.g. legs before arms

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15
Q

Anticonvulsant causing elevated liver enzymes and hepatic dysfunction

A

Sodium valproate

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16
Q

How does phenytoin work?

A

By blocking voltage-gated sodium channels to prevent further action potentials

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16
Q

Pt’s plasma phenytoin level is 7mg (ref 10-20mg) after initial management of seizure with phenytoin, how can a further seizure be prevented?

A

Increase dose of phenytoin
(current levels are below therapeutic window)

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17
Q

Side effects of sodium valproate

A

Think VALPROATE
- Vomiting
- Appetite (increased, weight gain)
- Liver failure
- Pancreatitis
- Reversible hair loss
- Oedema
- Ataxia
- Teratogencity/tremor/thrombocytopenia
- Encephalopathy

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18
Q

What is Jacksonian march?

A

Leg starts twitching, and movement moves up her right trunk to involve right arm (or left)

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19
Q

In status epilepticus pts, what should be given after buccal diazepam?

A

IV midazolam

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20
Q

Jacksonian march and Todd’s palsy are features of what type of seizure?

A

Focal seizure without impairment of consciousness - frontal lobe origin

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21
Q

Features of temporal lobe seizures

A

Aura initially (e.g. feeling sick, a sense of anxiety or smelling unusual smells)

Followed by impaired awareness
- stare blankly
- automatisms (e.g. lip-smacking or fidgeting with their hands)

Post-ictal phase
- slightly confused
- unsure of what has happened.

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22
Q

How to differentiate between temporal lobe and absence seizures?

A

Absence seizures only last a few seconds and do not have a post-ictal phase

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23
Q

In what type of seizures is carbamazepine most used?

A

Partial/focal

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24
Q

First line for focal seizures

A

Lamotrigine or leviteracetam

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25
Q

Def of status epilepticus

A

A seizure lasting 5 minutes or more
OR multiple seizures over 5 minutes without returning to a full level of consciosuness between episodes.

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26
Q

Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibres?

A

X
IX
VII
III

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27
Q

mTBI features

A

Loss of consciousness
Amnesia
Fencing posture

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28
Q

What happens to neurons in mTBI?

A

Neurons pulled apart, leak contents into brain
Neurons that don’t die release NTs and ion fluxes
- K otu, Ca in, battery remotes round the wrong way

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29
Q

What happens in post-cpncussive phase?

A

Diminished blood flow due to metabolic cascade
Results in poor cerebral response to 2nd injury
- brain more vulnerable

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30
Q

Unilateral supratentorial arterial bleed suggests what type of haematoma

A

Extradural haematoma

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31
Q

Vomiting post-head injury suggests…?

A

SKull fracture

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32
Q

Cushing’s reflex in head injury

A

Increased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, irregular breathing

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33
Q

Next line management of IIH patient with one eye decr visual acuity, bilateral papilloedema and some haemorrhage on 250mg acetazolamide

A

Refer to surgeons for consideration of optic nerve fenestrations

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34
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt II syndrome?

A

Reactivation of varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion.
Unilateral acute facial nerve paralysis, erythematous vesicular rash in the ear canal.

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35
Q

Lumbar spinal stenosis pain gets better when patient does what?

A

Bend forward when sitting down

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36
Q

Peripheral neuropathy is caused by which TB drug?

A

Isoniazid

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37
Q

Presentation of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Tetrad of confusion, ataxia, nystagmus and opthalmoplegia

Hx of alcohol dependency

Manage with thiamine to avoid the development of Korsakoff syndrome

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38
Q

Which muscle disorder is managed with prednisolone and pyridostigmine?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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39
Q

Management of essential tremor

A

Propranolol!!!! primidone, topiramate, gabapentin, clonazepam.

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40
Q

Management of Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

Prednisolone and acyclovir

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41
Q

Which antibody is most commonly positive in myasthenia gravis?

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR)

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42
Q

What drug is given in conjunction with levadopa in PD and why?

A

Carbidopa
- reduces the breakdown of levodopa peripherally, leading to a better therapeutic effect.

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43
Q

Name a nausea drug that makes Parksinonism symptoms worse

A

Metoclopramide
- it’s a dopamine antagonist but also has a bit of 5HT3 antagonism

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44
Q

Right upper and lower limb motor power and sensation both reduced - where is the infarct?

A

MCA

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45
Q

Wernicke’s vs Broca’s apahasia

A

Wernicke = word salad
Broca = broken speech

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46
Q

What is hereditary spastic paraparesis?

A

Degeneration of corticospinal tracts and sometimes dorsal column
Presents with spasticity, hyperreflexia and gait disturbance

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47
Q

Scissor gait suggests?

A

Increased muscle tone in the adductor muscles
e.g. due to herediatry spastic paraparesis

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48
Q

Hemiplegia, homonymous hemianopia, and Wernicke’s dysphasia - where is the infarct?

A

Lateral hemisphere - supplied by MCA

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49
Q

Investigation to diagnose encephalitis

A

CSF viral PCR
- most common cause is HSV

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50
Q

Proximal muscle weakness which improves on repetition with Hx of small cell lung cancer?

A

Lambert Eaton syndrome

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51
Q

Excessive alcohol intake assoc with peripheral neuropathy, hyporeflexia and muscle atrophy of lower limbs suggests which deficiency?

A

Thiamine

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52
Q

Xanthochromia in CSF?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage
- CT angio

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53
Q

Management of Bell’s palsy

A

Prednisolone

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54
Q

Features of Lewy body dementia

A

Cognitive impairment and non-threatening visual hallucinations assoc with Parkinsonian triad

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55
Q

Clin pres of progressive supranuclear palsy

A

Parkinsonian triad of tremor, hypertonia, and bradykinesia
- with a vertical gaze palsy

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56
Q

Common non-motor symptom of parkinson’s

A

Anosmia
Postural hypotension

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57
Q

Management of on and off motor symptoms in Parkinson’s

A

MAO-B inhibitor - such as rasagiline
COMT inhibitor - entacapone
Dopamine antagonist

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58
Q

What medication is given alongside levadopa to increase its bioavailability?

A

Carbidopa
- it reduces the breakdown of levodopa peripherally, leading to a better therapeutic effect.

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59
Q

BP contraindication for thrombolysis

A

blood pressure greater than 180/110mmHg

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60
Q

PMN WCC, raised protein and low glucose suggest which cause of meningitis?

A

Bacterial

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61
Q

Left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing would result from infarct in which cerebral artery?

A

Right posterior cerebral
- posterior cerebral artery supplies corresponding occipital cortex which encodes contralateral visual field
- macular sparing because macular vision is encoded bilaterally like the forehead

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62
Q

When is aspirin given in stroke?

A

Aspirin 300mg 24h after after alteplase treatment for 2 weeks afterwards
- only if CT has ruled out haemorrhagic stroke

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63
Q

Test to confirm narcolepsy

A

Multiple Sleep latency test

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64
Q

Management of jerky movements in hands etc known as choreoathetosis

A

Tetrabenazine

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65
Q

Test to monitor for resp failure in GBS pts

A

Regular FVC

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66
Q

Which drug can be used to reduce the risk of long term neurological symptoms in bacterial meningitis?

A

Dexamethasone IV
- given within 4h of IV antibiotics

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67
Q

Mechanism of action of dipyridamole

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase and adenosine deaminase

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68
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture caused by which antiepileptic?

A

Phenytoin

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69
Q

How long after onset can you provide thrombolysis?

A

4.5 h
- thrombolyse first and then aspirin 24h later after CT to confirm no subsequent haemorrhage

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70
Q

Headache accompanied by vertigo, diplopia, dysarthria and tinnitus, as well as bilateral visual symptoms and bilateral paresthesias.

A

Basilar migraine
- manage ibuprofen

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71
Q

How does anticipation occur in Huntington’s?

A

Spermatogenesis

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72
Q

Acute dystonic reaction is usually caused by what type of drug?

A

Dopamine antagonist e.g. metaclopramide
- forced extension of the neck, rigid opening of the jaw, and sustained upward deviation of the eyes.

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73
Q

LP changes in GBS

A

isolated rise in CSF protein

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74
Q

Only licensed med in MND?

A

Riluzole

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75
Q

types of stroke reformat this

A

AICA: lateral pontine syndrome = Marie-Foix. CN7 and 8. ipsilateral (unless stated otherwise):
VAN - H = vertigo, ataxia, anaesthesia (CL body, IL face), nystagmus and Horner’s.

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76
Q

Hx of head injury and CT showing only one ventricle, ?haemorrhage

A

Subdural haemorrhage

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77
Q

Does extradural or subdural haemorrhage have a faster symptom onset?

A

Extradural

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78
Q

Ipisilateral occulomotor palsy and contralateral limb weakness suggests infarct affecting which artery

A

Posterior cerebral artery

79
Q

Lesion of which cranial nerve would present with nystagmus?

A

CNVIII
- balance etc

80
Q

Sudden vertigo, deafness, vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar infarct

81
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia in pt with IV access but no swallow ability

A

100ml 20% glucose

82
Q

What does hyperattenuation on CT mean in stroke?

A

Haemorrhagic stroke

83
Q

Is ischaemic heart disease contraindicative to thrombolysis or thrombectomy?

A

NOOOOOO

84
Q

Management of essential thrombocytosis

A

Hydroxycarbamide

85
Q

To which artery is thrombectomy most beneficial?

A

Proximal middle cerebral artery

86
Q

Which lobe is affected if pt is right handed?

A

Left (always contralateral to handedness)

87
Q

UMN signs post-stroke

A

Clonus, hypertonia, muscle weakness

88
Q

LMN signs post-stroke

A

Hypotonia, muscular atrophy, hyporeflexia, fasciculations

89
Q

Long term stroke prophylaxis

A

Clopidogrel 75mg OD
Atorvastatin 80mg OD

90
Q

Clumsy hand dysarthria is a type of…

A

Lacunar infarct syndrome

91
Q

INR level contradicating thrombolysis?

A

INR >1.7

92
Q

Type of stroke causing locked in syndrome

A

Basilar artery stroke
- only get vertical eye movements and blinking

93
Q

How to investigate the cause of a young person’s stroke post-DVT with no APS Hx?

A

Bubble echocardiogram
- ?patent foramen ovale

94
Q

Specific epileptic symptoms and where they originate from

A

Frontal Lobe: Jacksonian March
Parietal Lobe Paraesthesia
Occipital Lobe: Visual phenomena
Temporal Lobe: HEAD*

95
Q

Triad of myoclonic jerks, absence seizures and generalised TC seizures

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

96
Q

Which hormone is raised post-ictally and can help differentiate between NEAD and true epilepsy?

A

Prolactin

97
Q

Bilaterak reduced power more prominent in RHD with normal tone and reflexes, some prox thigh fasciculations and pos anti GM1 Abs

A

Multifocal motor neuropathy

98
Q

What does pos rombergs test mean?

A

Sensory ataxia (loss of proprioception in distal legs

99
Q

First line for neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin, pregablin, duloextine, amitryptiline

100
Q

Most common visual defect assoc with optic neuritis

A

Central scotoma

101
Q

SCDC involves which tracts of the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal and lateral
- spinothalamic unaffected so pain and temp sense are maintained

102
Q

Resting tremor and bradykinesia and rigidity

A

triad of Parkinson’s

103
Q

Temporal lobe lesions on MRI in a young boy with HSV

A

Viral encephalitis

104
Q

WHich facial muscle is spared in stroke?

A

Anterior part of occipitofrontalis muscle

105
Q

Loss of taste to ant 2/3 of tongue, ear pain and deafness?

A

Bell’s palsy

106
Q

Subdural haemorrhage ocurs from bleeding from whcih vessels

A

Bridging vessels between dural venous sinuses and cortex

107
Q

Stroke with no motor symptoms is likely….

A

Post cerebral artery infarct

108
Q

Wernickes area is supplied by….

A

Inf division of MCA on dominant side

109
Q

Stroke with only symptom being contralateral numbness?

A

LACS

110
Q

Spindle cells and psammoma bodies on tumour histology

A

Meningioma

111
Q

Post communicating artery aneurysm would likely present with which cranial nerve palsy?

A

CNIII
- diplopia and nystagmus

112
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory lss with lower etxremity more affected

A

Anterior cerebral artery infarct

113
Q

First line investigation of Horner’s syndrome

A

CXR for pancoast tumour
- less likely post-thyroidectomy or surgical trauma

114
Q

Where is the lesion if pt presents with RAPD?

A

Optic nerve
- think optic neuritis

115
Q

Aphasia, headache, psychiatric symptoms, fever

A

HSV encephalitis
- aphasia indicates temporal lobe involvement
- LP would show lymphocytosis and incr protein

116
Q

Tremor worse with alcohol and grabbing things

A

Essential tremor
-auto dominant usually

117
Q

Transient painful visual loss in one eye, horizontal diplopia, electric pain after a bath

A

MS (MRI brain and spine)
1. Optic neuritis
2. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
3. Lermitte’s

118
Q

L5 radiculopathy presents with

A

Weakness of foot dorsiflexors, inverters and everters
NP pain in lumbar, posterior thigh, antlat leg, foot and big toe
Sensory loss at first webbed space

119
Q

Bacterial infection on LP

A

Pos culture
Incr white cells (PMN leukocytes, immune response)
Incr protein (bacterial replication)
Decr glucose (bacteria eats it)

120
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis

A

People in household should get 500mg one off oral ciprofloxacin
- don’t think this is on Tayside formulary
- under 12s get 250mg

121
Q

Wallenberg’s syndrome

A

Infarct of lateral medulla
- post inf cerebellar artery
- ipisilateral horner syndrome
- contralateral pain and temp loss
- ataxia/nystagmus
- CN 9,10,11,12 palsy

122
Q

Groggy after unwitnessed collapse

A

SPECIFIC sign of post-ictal phase of epileptic seizure

123
Q

Ipsilateral CNIII palsy and contralateral weakness

A

Weber’s syndrome
- “pt presents with left down and out eye and right sided weakness of limbs”

124
Q

Management of Bell’s palsy

A

Oral prednisolone
+ otoscopy to check for Ramsay Hunt (usually ext ear vesicular rash but can also appear on TM)

125
Q

Common peroneal vs tibial nerve function

A

TIPPED
- Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes
- Peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes (palsy = footdrop)

126
Q

Clinical difference between mononeuritis multiplex and MS

A

Mononeuritis only has LMN signs
- MS has both but UMN signs predominate on examination

127
Q

Which symptoms do not present in TIA?

A

Headache (suggests migrane etc)
Shaking/motor signs before attack (suggests seizure)

128
Q

Most common cause medical CNIII palsy

A

Diabetes

129
Q

Hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex is caused by…

A

Hypoglossal nerve
- when pressure applied to neck HR decr

130
Q

Why are Ca channel blockers used in haemorrhage?

A

Prevention of vasospasm-induced cerebral ischaemia to allow for optimal perfusion

131
Q

Mx menière’s disease

A

Diuretics and low salt diet

132
Q

How to diff between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke on CT?

A

Ischaemic stroke: HYPO-dense area on CT
Haemorrhagic stroke: HYPER-dense area on CT

133
Q

Anti epileptic causing stones and WL

A

Topiramate
- topaz crystals in the kids

134
Q

Migraine prophylaxis

A

Topiramate
- teratogenic
Amitriptyline
- if u don’t know contraception status

135
Q

‘Loss of grey-white matter differentiation’ on CT in a pt woken up confused with slurred speech

A

Cytotoxic oedema 2o to ischaemic stroke

136
Q

Gm pos rod cause of meningitis in pregnancy

A

Listeria
- from food e.g. soft cheese
- can cause chorioamnionitis and pre term labour

137
Q

ARDS + pyrexial, tachycardic and has laboured breathing. She also appears floppy and lethargic, but there are no dysmorphic features, mother ate loads of cheese in pregnancy

A

Listeria
- meconium stained liquor is also a RF

138
Q

Crescent-shaped homogeneously hyper-dense extra-axial collection adjacent to the left fronto-parietal convexity

A

Subdural haematoma
- recurrent falls and confusion with risk factors including alcohol use, age, recent trauma, anticoag use)

139
Q

Parkinsonism + defective upward gaze + personality change

A

Pro-gaze-ssive supranuclear balls-y
- prog supranuclear palsy

140
Q

Brown Sequard T10 on right side findings

A

Increased tone and hypereflexia, extensor plantar response and reduced joint position sense in the right leg, loss of pain and temperature sensation from the left leg up to the level of the umbilicus. Normal examination of the arms

141
Q

How many doses of benzo should you try in status epilepticus before trying something else?

A

2 doses max
- move on to phenytoin or valproate
- after 20 mins there is serious risk and gen anaesthesia should be considered

142
Q

Establishes status epilepticus?

A

> 20 mins seizure activity
10 mins with no response to benzos

143
Q

Burr hole vs craniotomy in acute subdural haemorrhage

A

Craniotomy
- burr hole for chronic

144
Q

Why is high BP (>190 systolic) a contraindication to thrombolysis?

A

High BP + Thrombolysis = Brain haemorrhage

145
Q

Barthel index

A

To assess functional independence in post-stroke pts

146
Q

Type of sweaty problems in Horner’s syndrome

A

Anhidrosis

147
Q

How can you relieve acute dystonia?

A

Anticholinergic
- procyclidine or biperiden

148
Q

What is Todd’s palsy?

A

Essentially paralysis/exhaustion after a frontal lobe focal seizure

149
Q

What does split hand mean in MND?

A

The radial aspect of the hand is far more affected than the ulnar aspect

150
Q

Ipsilateral: facial paralysis/pain and temperature loss/deafness
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temperature loss
Ataxia, nystagmus

A

AICA
AICAnt hear you

151
Q

Which cranial nerves are affected y the cerebellar strokes?

A

AICA = CN5, 6, 7, 8
PICA = CN9, 10, 11, 12

152
Q

What type of bitemp hemianopia would present first?

A

Lower
- due to craniopharyngeoma

153
Q

Is Bell’s palsy upper or lower MN problem?

A

Lower - two Ls in Bell’s

154
Q

Gradual onset severe headache associated with nausea and three episodes of vomiting

A
155
Q

Sensory loss of posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot, weakness in plantar flexion of foot, reduced ankle reflex, positive sciatic nerve stretch test

A

S1 root lesion

156
Q

First line management of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

157
Q

First line management of an acute dystonic reaction

A

Procyclicdine

158
Q

First line treatment of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

IV pabrinex

159
Q

India ink stain meningitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

160
Q

First line prophylaxis for migrain

A

Propranolol
- topiramate if contraindicated e.g. in asthma

161
Q

WHen can LP in SAH be done?

A

12h after onset
- this is when blood will break down and xanthochromia will be seen

162
Q

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies

A

Myasthenia gravis

163
Q

Anti voltage gated calcium channel antibodies

A

LEMS

164
Q

PICA stroke/lat medullary/Wallenberg

A

DANVAH
Dysphagia, ipsilateral Ataxia, ipsilateral Nystagmus, Vertigo, Anaesthesia, ipislateral Horner’s

165
Q

Where is the lesion in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

Lesion on the contralateral Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF)

166
Q

Frontal balding and unable to let go when shaking hand, prog hand weakness

A

Myotonic dystrophy
- trinucleotide repeat

167
Q

What eye condition may indicate TIA?

A

Amaurosis fugax
- essentially is an eye TIA
- vision goes without pain and them comes back
- cotton wool spots and hard exudates

168
Q

Type 1 vs 2 CMT

A

Inherited polyneuropathy with champagne bottle legs

Type 1 = demyelinating
Type 2 = axonal

169
Q

Familial ALS mutation

A

SOD1

170
Q

Risk factors for thiamine defic (and 2o wernicke’s encephalopathy)

A

Alcohol abuse, malnutrition, bariatric surgery, and hyperemesis gravidarum

171
Q

Most common cause of intracranial haemorrhage, can be exacerbated by straining or valsalva maneouevres

A

Hypertension

172
Q

Huntington’s shows atrophy of….

A

Caudate nucleus and putamen

173
Q

How does parietal lobe damage present?

A

contralateral visual field, astereognosis, constructional apraxia (non-dominant), dressing apraxia (non-dominant) and ideomotor apraxia (dominant). Right hemisphere (i.e. non-dominant) parietal lesions are particularly prone to producing visual neglect.

174
Q

Noncontrast CT hyperdensity

A

Thombosis

175
Q

Severe, throbbing headache occurring all across her head, nausea and vomiting, non contrast CT shows hyperdensity in sagittal sinus

A

Intracranial venous thrombosis

176
Q

Delta sign on CT in context of stroke

A

Filling defect in sagittal sinus

177
Q

Management of severe hypoglycaemia

A

20% glucose solution IV

178
Q

Hypo or hyperreflexia in SCDC?

A

Hyperreflexia

179
Q

Alternative to clopidogrel in TIA prevention

A

Change to dual therapy with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole

180
Q

Stroke presenting with contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia

A

Posterior cerebral artery

181
Q

Sweaty and anxious pt with history of bilateral lower limb paraplegia 2o to transection of spinal cord, Cushing’s signs

A

Faecal impaction / urinary retention are the most common triggers of autonomic dysreflexia

182
Q

Elec imbalance following SAH

A

Hyponatraemia

183
Q

Management of myasthenic crisis

A

intravenous immunoglobulin, plasmapheresis

184
Q

Pit adenoma vs craniopharyngioma

A

Pit adenoma
- pushes up from below = superior quantrantopia
Craniopharyngioma
- pushes down from above = inferior quantropia

185
Q

How to remember where uvula/tongue deviates to in cranial nerve palsy?

A

CNX = uvulA = Away
CNXII = Tongue = Towards

186
Q

Midbrain stroke characterised by the an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis

A

Weber’s syndrome

187
Q

Bleeding in subdural haemorrhage is due to

A

bridging veins between cortex and venous sinuses

188
Q

As well as MRI, what other inv should all TIA patients get?

A

Carotid artery doppler

189
Q

How does hyperventilation work to reduce raised ICP?

A

Hyperventilation -> reduce CO2 -> vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries -> reduced ICP

190
Q

Derm reaction caused by carbamazepine

A

Stephen Johnson
- watch for new med changes and new rash covering mouth and significant area of skin

191
Q

Negative CSF findings with lower limb weakness, progressive

A

GBS
- neg CSF is essential for diagnosis

192
Q

Loss of pain and temp sensation but intact DCML senses in Chiari malformation

A

Syringomyelia
- dilatation of a CSF space within the spinal cord

193
Q

First seizure but normal imaging and EEG - driving?

A

Stop driving for 6 months

194
Q

Which primary cancers most commonly met to the brain?

A

Left Brained Metastases Can Kill
Lung >Breast > Melanoma > Colorectal > Kidney

195
Q

Improvement in muscle power with exercise

A

LEMS

196
Q

Symmetrical tremor in PD

A

Drug induced

197
Q

Management MG vs MG crisis

A

MG - pyridostigmine
MG Crisis - Ig

198
Q
A

Year 3 Incorrect Questions (6 decks)

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