Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 Incorrect Questions > Mixed/Formatives etc > Flashcards

Mixed/Formatives etc Flashcards

1
Q

Low impact tauma in old people, crescent shaped hypodensity on CT

A

Subdural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Man falls off horse, lucid interval, hyperdense biconvex on CT

A

Extradural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Huntington’s triple repeat of….

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Two year slow onset of Parkinsonism, mainly affecting gait and lower limbs with no autonomic dysfunction

A

Vascular parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does LOAF stand for?

A

Lateral two lumbricals
Opponens pollicis
Abductos pollicis brevus
Flexor pollicis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fried egg frontal lobe brain tumour, presents with seizures and headache in a child

A

Oligodendrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immediate management of TIA 3h ago if symptoms are now resolved

A

Aspirin 300mg
- don’t CT it won’t pick up, wait until spec clinic for MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PLS affects which motor neurons

A

UMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PMA affects which motor neurons

A

LMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First synapse in somatosensory pathway of ST tract

A

Lumbar spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Function of vestibulospinal tract

A

Activates the antigravity extensory muscles
- extensor mechanism prevents you falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fixed dilated pupil, head trauma, unilateral descending tentorial herniation

A

Uncal herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of LEMS

A

3, 4- diaminopyridamine (no steroids involved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of absencse seizure

A

Ethosuximide or valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name an antidepressant used to block SSRI side effects

A

Mirtazapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Schizophrenic symptoms from childhood, lack of close friends and severe social anxiety

A

Schizotypal personality disoorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Depression, anxiety, irriability, physial health hanges e.g. chest rash

A

Substance misuse (consider if MH symptoms + physical symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of psychosis in PD

A

Atypical antipsychotics e.g. olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of delirium in PD

A

Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Investigation for parkinsonism with dementia or LBD

A

CT
- DaT scan them if CT doesn’t show anything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Medical management of PTSD

A

Sertraline or venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Biggest risk factor for puerperal psychosis

A

Bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Characteristic sign of SVT on ECG

A

<120ms QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

First line management of ectopic

A

IM methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

First line inv of endometriosis

A

TVUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management of urge incontinence

A

Oxybutynin or mirabegron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pain before period, sore pooping, tender nodular mass on pelvic exam

A

Endmetrial cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3rd line PET management

A

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

First line inv for secondary amennhorroea

A

Urine beta hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of complete molar pregnancy

A

Surgical removal and send tissue for pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pt comes in looking for a new contraception 2 days PP, she has BMI 41 and her partner has a vasectomy booked

A

Progesterone only pill
- don’t give long term due to vasectomy
- don’t give COCP due to weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ovarian tumour with transitional cels, coffee bean nuclei and fibrous stroma

A

Brenner
- comes from bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hormone inhibiting contractility in late pregnancy

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hormone increasing contractility in late pregnancy

A

Oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hormone increasing contractions and excitabilit and producing prostaglandins in late pregnancy

A

Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where should quinsy pts be treated?

A

Admit to hospital, risk of airway compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Imaging choice for kidneys specifically PCKD

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management of AKI in burns patient

A

Fluid challenge with crystalloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Components of tetralogy of fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis
VSD
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can NPH present with tremor as well as triad?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why do you get pink urine in G6PD?

A

Intramedullary cause of haemolysis
- therefore you get breakdown products in the urine e.g. haemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Prophylactic therapy for polycythemia vera

A

Aspirin
- due to risk of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Arterial thrombosis stroke, 3 miscarriages, FHx early death, prolonged PT and APTT

A

Antiphospholipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Elderly male with uncomplicated UTI who is penicillin allergic

A

Cotrimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What UTI abx given in 1st and 2nd trimester?

A

Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What UTI abx given in 3rd trimester?

A

Trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lumbar puncture in meningitis?

A

NOOOOO
- due to incr risk of raised ICP and coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which hormone gives negative feedback to hypothalamus during follicular phase?

A

Oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens to steady state plasma conc when you double the rate of admin of a FOK drug?

A

Steady state plasma conc doubles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What cells incr membrane resistance in central nervous system?

A

Oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is next step management in triple neg breast cancer pt who has had WLE and SNB?

A

Radiotherapy
- unless maybe there was cancer left behind in nodes not sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Investigation for male breast lump

A

US
- due to dense breast tissue
- may go on to do biopsy/mammo etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What’s the underlying mechanism behind urge incontinence in old female pt with Hx T2D?

A

Detrusor muscle overactivity
- T2D related bladder atony would cause stress like symptoms and dribbling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Contraindication to progesterone only implant

A

Active breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Wells score >4, what’s the first line investigation?

A

Urgent CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Episodes of blacking out with strong family history incl sudden death and ECG changes

A

Brugada syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Best way to analysea 16 gene panel for long QT

A

Whole genome/exome sequencing
- looking for point mutation in muliple genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can you detect in chromosomal microarray?

A

Copy Number Variations (CNV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

80 yo with hot tender breast and overlying cellulitis with no response to 2 courses of abx

A

Inflammatory breast cancer
- urgent 2ww to breast clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of stricture is specific to Crohn’s?

A

Ileal stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Management of acute liver failure with neutrophilic ascitic tap in alcoholic?

A

Broad spectrum abx
- to mange the bacterial peritonitis
- can’t give emergency liver transplant due to active alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Red jelly sputum pneumonia post-op for bowel obstruction in CF pt

A

Klebsiella pneumonia
- klebs is a gut commensal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Slow progressive bilateral conductive hearing loss, normal ear appearance, 35 yo

A

Otosclerosis

64
Q

Acute onset painful eye, raised ICP symptoms, optic nerve cupping, red reflex present

A

Acute closed-angle glaucoma

65
Q

Antipsychotic drug causing withdrawal seizures

A

Benzodiazepines

66
Q

Mx of AAA <45mm, 45-54mm, >54mm

A

<45mm yearly US
45-54mm 3 monthly US
>54mm red for surg assessment

67
Q

Old man with loss of motor and bladder control, loss of pain and temperature sensation from T10 down, not Hx trauma

A

Anterior spinal artery ischaemia
- causes damage to anterior 2/3 of spinal cord causing upper and lower CS and ST loss of function

68
Q

Triad of diagnostic criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

69
Q

Creamy or green +/- blood nipple discharge

A

Duct ectasia

70
Q

First line ER positive breast cancer medical management

A

Tamoxifen - premeno
Anastrozole - post meno

71
Q

How can you determine if pt will have axillary clearance or SNB?

A

Pre op axillary US

72
Q

Cut off for metformin treatment in GH

A

> 7 (use insulin)

73
Q

Post menopausal post coital dark red bleeding - most common cause

A

Vaginal atrophy
- FL oestrogen creams

74
Q

Prevention of vasospasm in SAH

A

Nimodipine

75
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies and siderocytes on blood film suggest

A

Hyposplenism or post splenectomy

76
Q

Basophilic stippling and cabot rings on blood film suggest

A

Lead poisoning
- think lead = metal = ring

77
Q

TRALI vs TACO

A

Essentially both fluid overloaded butttttttttttt
- TRALI = hypotension (manage with O2)
- TACO = hypertension (manage with diuretics)

78
Q

a benign ovarian tumour
ascites
pleural effusion

A

Meig’s syndrome

79
Q

Which types of miscarriages have open cervical os?

A

Open your Is
- incomplete and inevitable

80
Q

A normocytic anaemia with low serum iron, low TIBC but raised ferritin in a patient with a chronic illness is typical of

A

Anaemia of chronic disease

81
Q

Best investigation for fistula e.g. vesicovaginal fistula after prolonged difficult delivery presenting with dribbling incontinence

A

Urinary dye studies

82
Q

How long should you wait to restart COCP after ullipristal emerg contraception?

A

5 days

83
Q

What do the antibodies mean in chickenpox exposure pregnancy questions?

A

IgG: G = Got antibodies
IgM: M = Met someone with the virus (infected)

84
Q

Vaginal bleeding at less than 6 weeks gestation

A

Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

85
Q

Med to be taken before fibroid surgery that can help decr size

A

GnRH agonist e.g. Leuprolide

86
Q

Big risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Trophoblastic disease

87
Q

When is lack of foetal movements a concern to you?

A

After 28 weeks
- fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours
- do doppler and then CTG

88
Q

When should preg people with hyperemesis be admitted to hosp for IV fluids?

A

1) Not keeping down antiemetics or fluids
2) Ketonuria and/or weight loss >5%
3) Comorbidity e.g UTI and can’t take oral Abx

89
Q

When is AFP raised in pregnancy?

A

Neural tube defects

90
Q

FL inv vestibular schwannoma

A

AUdiogram and MRI gadolinium enhanced

91
Q

Medical vs surgical nerve CNIII palsy

A

Med = down and out
Surg = down and out + dilated

92
Q

How should MND pts be fed?

A

PEG

93
Q

MoA of hyperventilation in raised ICP pts

A

Reduce blood carbon dioxide to induce cerebral vasoconstriction
50%

94
Q

ToP meds

A

Oral Mifepristone followed by Misoprostol vaginally 36-48 hours later

95
Q

Early vs late onset GBS in neonate

A

Early <1 week
Late >1 week

96
Q

How often should people with PCOS be inducing a withdrawal bleed on COCP?

A

Every 3 months

97
Q

Inheritance of CMT

A

Auto dominant

98
Q

FL prevention of tumour lysis

A

Aggressive hydration and allopurinol
- if high risk add rasburicase

99
Q

Management of PMDD

A

FL COCP
SSRI e.g. sertraline or fluox

100
Q

Empiric treatment of coag negative staph

A

Vancomycin

101
Q

FL inv in pt with low plates

A

Examine for signs of bleeding
- if plates <50 and signs of bleeding -> platelet transfusion

102
Q

When would prothrombin or FFP be given in bleeding on warfarin?

A

Only in major bleeding e.g. haemorrhage post-trauma
- give FFP if prothrombin not available

103
Q

How strong should breakthrough meds be in relation to sustained release?

A

1/6

104
Q

Clotting factor affected by VWF

A

VIII looks like VW

105
Q

Thrombotic risk factors + lupus and gradual onset headache and focal neuro

A

Venous sinus thrombosis

106
Q

Quadruple test is done from…..

A

13 weeks

107
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in young adults

A

Neisseria

108
Q

How to rmember most common meningitis organisms?

A

Explaining Big, Hot Neck Stiffness
E. coli, Group B strep (neonates)
Haemophilius influenzae (older infants/children)
Neisseria meningitis (adults <50)
Streptococcus pneumoniae (>50yo)

109
Q

Chandelier sign

A

Eponymous name for cervical excitation

110
Q

FL management in acute stress reaction

A

Trama focussed CBT

111
Q

Smoking affects neutrophls in what way……

A

Neutrophilia

112
Q

Raised protein and lymphocytes with polymorphonuclear cells on LP

A

Tubercular or cryptococcal meningitis
Lymphocyte = viral
polymorph = bacterial
mixed = TB

113
Q

What pneumonia is assoc with cold IgM haemolytic anaemia?

A

Mycoplasma

114
Q

Management of cervical ectropion

A

Unconercned - reassure and follow uo
Concerned - colposcopy

115
Q

bHCG >1500 and no evidence yet of IUP

A

Presume ectopic

116
Q

Palliative management of breathlessness at EOL

A

Morphine sulphate 2.5-5mg

117
Q

Soft and high uterus with PPH and lots of clots

A

Uterine atony
- RFs include uterine overstretch with twins

118
Q

Klumpke’s palsy

A

Dermatomal sensory loss in the C8-T1 distribution
Weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
Potential ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome if T1 involvement occurs

119
Q

How often should severe PET pts be getting bloods?

A

U&E, FBC, transaminases and bilirubin three times per week

120
Q

Mangeement of drug induced parkinsonism

A

Procycline

121
Q

FL management of pt with cord compression

A

Dexamethasone

122
Q

95% of extradural bleeds are…

A

Supratentorial

123
Q

Lentiform-shaped heterogenous hyper-dense extra-axial collection

A

Extradural haemorrhagge

124
Q

Acute cord compression in the context of anticoagulation…..

A

Think epidural haematoma

125
Q

How is SAH managed?

A

Endovascular coiling
- can’t suck it out bc mixed with CSF
- can;t ligate artery

126
Q

Second inv after CT to diagnose SAH

A

LP 12 after symptom onset
- CTA is used to guide management and is gold standard

127
Q

Acute subdural haemorrhage management

A

Craniotomy

128
Q

Managment of extradural haemorrhage

A

Ligation of bleeding vessel

129
Q

Severe back pain followed by four-limb flaccid weakness

A

Spinal cord infarction
- cauda equina = HAPPENS AT BOTTOM OF CORD SO ONLY LEGS

130
Q

Head CT in 1 hour

A

Clinical evidence of skull fracture.
30 minutes retrograde amnesia.
Focal neuro or seizure.
GCS <13 at any time (or <15 2 hours after injury).
Vomiting.
LOC and amnesia in:
- Are >65 years
- Suffered a dangerous mechanism of injury
- Coagulopathy

131
Q

Head CT in 8 hours

A

If pt on warfarin

132
Q

Management of intracranial venous sinus thrombosis

A

LMWH

133
Q

Contraception to be stopped after 50

A

COCP and depo

134
Q

Anti D is given in TOPs and miscarruages after….

A

10 weeks

135
Q

When can you start COCP after levonogestrel?

A

Immediate
- 5 days if ullipristal

136
Q

When are forceps allowed?

A

o Fully dilated cervix (10cm)
o One-fifth or nil palpable abdominally (-2 station)
o Ruptured membranes
o Contractions present
o Empty bladder
o Presentation (Cephalic) and position (OA – OP possible with rotational)
o Satifactory analgesia – Vaccuum/low forceps (Perineal block), Mid-forceps (Epidural)

137
Q

Fluids given in HG

A

Normal saline with added potassium IV

138
Q

PP only need emergency contraception at how many days ……

A

21§

139
Q

For how long after TOP is a pos pregnancy test normal finding

A

4 weeks

140
Q

Staging of endo cancer

A
  1. Confined to uterus
  2. Spread to cervical stroma
  3. Spread to adnexal structures
  4. Spread to bowel, bladder or more distant’§
141
Q

FL for ITP plates <30

A

Prednisolone oral

142
Q

Fl for ITP plates >30

A

Observation

143
Q

Is graft-host tranasfusion disease assoc with B or T cells?

A

T cells

144
Q

Which type of HRT is incr risk of breast cancer?

A

Combiend

145
Q

Anastrozole incr risk of ……

A

Osteoporosis

146
Q

What inv next for reduced foetal movement if you can’t find heartbeat on doppler?

A

Ultrasound
- won’t find it on CTG if it’s not on doppler, US will be more sensitive

147
Q

What happens if you find late decels on CTG that midwife is concerned about?

A

Fetal blood sampling
- if <7.2 then C section
- more likely just do urgent C section bc FBS might take too long and risk baby

148
Q

Painful 3rd nerve palsy is ……. until proven otherwise

A

Post comm artery aneurysm

149
Q

Blood pressure problems in pregnancy don’t present until…..

A

20 weeks
- any HT before that is pre-existing

150
Q

Hb threshold for iron tabs in pregnancy

A

110

151
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia

A

Posterior cerebral artery

152
Q

Normal endo thickness

A
  • During menstruation: 2-4mm
  • Early proliferative phase (day 6-14): 5-7mm
  • Late proliferative: up to 11 mm
  • Secretory phase: 7-16 mm
153
Q

Urine turns red on standing

A

Acute intermittent porphyria
- assoc with abdo pain, vomiting, HT, tachycardia, seizures, psych symptoms

154
Q

Biochem findings in myeloma

A

High calcium. Normal phosphate. Normal alkaline phosphate

155
Q

Mx APS in pregnancy

A

Dalteparin (LMWH) and aspirin

156
Q
A

Year 3 Incorrect Questions (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions