Neurogenetics Flashcards

1
Q

How does Down syndrome cause intellectual disability?

A

miR-155 inhibition of SNX27

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2
Q

Mutations in FMR1 cause

A

fragile X syndrome (CGG trinucleotide repeat)

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3
Q

Repeats in the 5’ UTR of the _ gene affect expression leading to fragile X

A

FMR1

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4
Q

ALS has a _ inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant

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5
Q

Nonsyndromic hearing loss has a _ inheritance

A

Autosomal recessive

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6
Q

Leach-Nyhan Syndrome has a _ inheritance

A

X linked recessive

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7
Q

_ gene is mutated in Lesch-Nyhan

A

HPRT1

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8
Q

Rhett syndrome is due to mutations in

A

MECP2 gene on chromosome X

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9
Q

Rhett syndrome has a _ inheritance

A

X linked dominant

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10
Q

Leigh syndrome is cause by mutations in _

A

MT-ATP6

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11
Q

Some gene variants influence susceptibility to brain disease but are not _

A

100% penetrant

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12
Q

_ gives rise to the neural plate

A

Dorsal ectoderm

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13
Q

_ give rise to the neurons and glia that form the CNS

A

Neuroepithelial cells

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14
Q

_ arises from the neural crest

A

Melanocytes, Schwann cells, neurons, head mesoderm

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15
Q

Neurogenic Placodes contribute to the

A

PNS and CNS

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16
Q

_ gives rise to neurons

A

Neurogenic Placode

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17
Q

The olfactory Placode gives rise to_

A

olfactory epithelium and GnRH neurons

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18
Q

The forebrain (prosencephalon) forms

A

Lateral ventricles and third ventricle

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19
Q

The midbrain (mesencephalon) forms _

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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20
Q

The hindbrain (rhombencephalon) forms

A

Fourth ventricle

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21
Q

The prosencephalon becomes

A

Telencephalon (lateral ventricle)
Diencephalon (third ventricle)

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22
Q

The mesencephalon becomes the

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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23
Q

The rhombencephalon becomes

A

Metencephalon and myelencephalon

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24
Q

The alar plate gives rise to

A

Primary sensory structures

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25
Q

The basal plate gives rise to

A

Primary motor structures

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26
Q

Neuroblasts in the CNS undergo _ migration toward the pial surface

A

Radial

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27
Q

In the cerebellum, granule cells migrate

A

From an external layer near pial surface to a deeper layer (explains striking motor achievement in first year)

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28
Q

Somatosensory neurons begin as _ cells but change into _

A

Bipolar, pseudounipolar

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29
Q

The only flexure remaining at birth

A

Mesencephalic

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30
Q

Caudal neural tube closure defect

A

Spina bifida

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31
Q

Rostrum neural tube closure failure

A

Anencephaly

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32
Q

Encephalocele

A

Partial failure of rostral neural tube closure

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33
Q

Causes of lissencephaly (smooth brain)

A

Genetic: PAFAH1B1 and DCX
Viral infection during pregnancy

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34
Q

Chiari malformations

A

Caused by genetics and malnutrition

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35
Q

Dandy-Walker malformation

A

Vermis of cerebellum does not form due to chromosomal abnormalities

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36
Q

New neurons are produced in

A

The olfactory epithelium

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37
Q

Neurons migrate from _ to the _ and from _ to the _ of the hippocampus

A

Subventricular zone
Olfactory bulb
Subgranular zone
Dentate gyrus

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38
Q

Neuronal progenitors replace

A

Neurons

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39
Q

Glial progenitors replace

A

astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

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40
Q

Factors blocking neuroregeneration

A

Glial scar
CSPGs

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41
Q

_ are being tested to create axon regeneration

A

olfactory ensheathing cells

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42
Q

Telencephalon consists of

A

Cerebral cortex and basal ganglia

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43
Q

Diencephalon consists of

A

Epithalmus, thalamus, subthalmus, and hypothalamus

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44
Q

Mesencephalon consists of

A

Tectum and tegmentum

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45
Q

Metencephalon consists of

A

Cerebellum and pons

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46
Q

Myelencephalon consists of

A

Medulla

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47
Q

The Diencephalon forms the walls of the

A

Third ventricle

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48
Q

What connects the two thalamus?

A

The intrathalamic adhesion

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49
Q

What seperates the basal ganglia (telencephalon) from the thalamus (diencephalon)?

A

Internal capsule (collection of axons)

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50
Q

The frontal lobe is seperated from the parietal lobe by

A

The central sulcus

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51
Q

The frontal lob is separated from the temporal lobe by the

A

Lateral fissure

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52
Q

The parietal lobe is partially separated from the temporal lobe by

A

Lateral fissure

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53
Q

The parietal lobe is separated from the occipital lobe by the

A

Parietal-occipital fissure

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54
Q

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

A

Longitudinal fissure

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55
Q

Major fiber bundles

A

Corpus callosum
Cingulum (connects cingulate gyrus with entorhinal cortex)
Fornix (connects the hippocampus with the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus)

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56
Q

The anterior two thirds of the spinal cord is supplied by

A

The anterior spinal artery

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57
Q

The posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord is supplied by

A

The posterior spinal artery

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58
Q

What are watershed areas?

A

Borders between cerebral arteries vulnerable to stokes because of reduces blood supply

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59
Q

Ischemic stroke is due to

A

Blockage of the arteries

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60
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke is due to

A

Rupture of the arteries

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61
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

Tight junctions between endothelial cells that form a barrier

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62
Q

How do infectious agents get into the brain?

A

Hijack transporters
Damage the blood brain barrier
Infection of the meninges
Travel along olfactory and trigeminal nerves

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63
Q

Which cranial nerve is part of the CNS?

A

CN II

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64
Q

Why can vision be compromised in MS?

A

The optic nerve is myelinated by oligodendrocytes because it is part of the CNS

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65
Q

Cranial meninges layers

A

Dura matter- tough, thick external fibrous layer
Arachnoid mater- thin intermediate layer
Pia mater- delicate internal vascular layer

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66
Q

The dura mater is divided into the _ layer and _ layer

A

Periosteal and meningeal

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67
Q

Pachymeninx

A

Dura mater

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68
Q

Leptomeninx

A

Arachnoid and Pia mater

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69
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

Agains meningeal dura
Arachnoid trabeculae
Arachnoid granulations (transverse the meningeal dura to enter the rural venous sinuses)

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70
Q

Pia mater

A

Adherent to the brain
Highly vascularized

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71
Q

Potential dural spaces

A

epidural- between cranium and Periosteal dura
Subdural- between dura and arachnoid
Subpail/intracerebral- deep to Pia, within neural parenchyma

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72
Q

Real spaces

A

Subarachnoid
Contains CSF, arteries (Circle of Willis) and veins
Within subarachnoid space

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73
Q

_ forms the dural partitions

A

The meningeal dura

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74
Q

The flax cerebri separates

A

Right and left cerebral hemispheres

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75
Q

The tentorium cerebelli seperates

A

Occipital and superior aspect of cerebellum

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76
Q

The flax cerebelli seperates

A

Right and left hemispheres of cerebellum

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77
Q

The diaphragma sellae has an opening for

A

The infundibulum

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78
Q

Dural venous sinuses drain

A

Internal and external veins and CSF into IJVs

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79
Q

Midline sinuses

A

Superior Sagittal
Inferior sagittal
Straight
Occipital
Confluence

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80
Q

Paired sinuses

A

Transverse
Sigmoid
Superior petrosal
Inferior petrosal
Cavernous

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81
Q

What courses through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI
Internal carotid arteries

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82
Q

Supratentorial Innervation of the dura

A

V1, V2, V3

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83
Q

Intratentoral innervation of the dura

A

C2 & C3 carried by CN X and CN XII

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84
Q

Arteries of the dura

A

Middle meningeal (from maxillary arteries)
Intracranial cerebral arteries (within subarachnoid space)
Small meningeal arteries (from external carotid branches)

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85
Q

Epidural intracranial hemorrhage source

A

Usually arterial, middle meningeal
Hematoma between cranium and dura mater

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86
Q

Subdural hem orange

A

Venous, usually cerebral vein/dural sinus
Hematoma between dura and arachnoid mater

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87
Q

Subarachnoid and intracerebral hemmorage

A

arterial, usually cerebral
Hematoma within subarachnoid space or neural parenchyma

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88
Q

CSF flow

A

Lateral ventricles
Interventricular foramen
Third ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
Lateral and medial apertures, central canal of spinal cord
Subarachnoid space
Arachnoid granulationas
Superior sagittal sinus

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89
Q

Bipolar neurons are found in

A

Vestibular ganglion, olfactory epithelium, retina

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90
Q

Pseudounipolar neurons are found

A

DRG and trigeminal ganglion

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91
Q

Microglia

A

Mesodermal origin
Macrophages of CNS
Respond to injury or infection

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92
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Line the ventricles, help form CSF

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93
Q

Radial glia are found

A

In the cerebral cortex

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94
Q

Bergmann glia are found

A

In the cerebellum

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95
Q

Astrocytes

A

Derived from neural tube
Take up excess potassium or neurotransmitters
Regulate BBB
Respond to injury
Express GFAP

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96
Q

The BBB is comprised of

A

Endothelial cells forming tight junctions
Foot processes of astrocytes
Pericytes

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97
Q

Oligodendroglia

A

Derived from neural tube
Mylenation in CNS

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98
Q

Satellite cells

A

Surround neuronal cell bodies in peripheral ganglia

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99
Q

_ is continuous with the dura mater

A

The epineurium

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100
Q

Chromatolysis is a hallmark of

A

Retrograde neuronal degeneration

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101
Q

Neuroregeneration can occur in the

A

PNS

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102
Q

What acts a a capacitor for cells

A

The lipid bilayer of the cell membrane (stores charge of opposite sign on two surfaces)

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103
Q

How is the diffusion potential of an ion calculated

A

The Nernst equation (allows us to estimate changes in the membrane potential based on potassium)

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104
Q

What prevents ions from moving down concentration gradient in cells to establish equilibrium?

A

Na/K ATPase establishes resting membrane potential

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105
Q

Why is the membrane potential negative?

A

Cells are more permeable to K (50x more permeable) than Na at rest

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106
Q

Which equation takes into account the permeability of ions?

A

Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation

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107
Q

The membrane potential of the cell becomes more negative as

A

K leaves

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108
Q

Resting membrane potential is essential for the generation of

A

Action potentials

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109
Q

Depolarization

A

The membrane potential becomes less negative

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110
Q

Hyperpolorization

A

The membrane potential becomes more negative

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111
Q

Reduced ATP levels and the inhibition of Na-K ATPS cause

A

Depolarization (due to diffusion leading to equilibrium)

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112
Q

An action potential requires

A

Resting membrane potential (controlled by Na-K ATPase)
Ion channels

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113
Q

Ligand gated ion channels can be opened by

A

Intracellular ligands
Extracellular neurotransmitters

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114
Q

Voltage gated channels are opened by

A

Depolarization

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115
Q

In the inactivation state, the channel cannot be opened until

A

It moves to closed state

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116
Q

The voltage sensor of voltage gated calcium channels is composed of

A

4 positively charges arganine residues on S4

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117
Q

Na channel inactivation gate

A

Swing shut

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118
Q

K channel inactivation

A

Ball and chain

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119
Q

What channels are sufficient to generate an action potential?

A

Na channels

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120
Q

The depolarization of Na channels ultimately leads to

A

The opening of virtually all Na channels

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121
Q

Channels move from

A

Open to inactivation to closed

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122
Q

Slow sodium channel inaction contributes to

A

Epilepsy

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123
Q

Threshold

A

The membrane potential above which an action potential is gen

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124
Q

K channels open slower than Na channels leading to

A

Hyperpolorization

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125
Q

Axon potential is _ down the axon

A

Propagated

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126
Q

Myelin reduces _ to increase conduction velocity

A

Capacitance

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127
Q

What increases conduction velocity?

A

Myelin (decreases capacitance)
Diameter (increased=decreased resistance)

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128
Q

How are neurotransmitters loaded?

A

Proton pump
Vesicular neurotransmitter transporter
Anionic transmitters

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129
Q

SNARE proteins

A

Mediate fusion of vesicle

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130
Q

Munc18-1

A

Assembles SNARE complex

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131
Q

Synaptotagmin

A

Senses Ca++ and prevents spontaneous fusion
When Ca++ binds promotes fusion

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132
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters

A

Acetylcholamin and glutamate

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133
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA
Glycine

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134
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

A

S
L
U
D
G
E
M

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135
Q

Fast _ transmission uses ligand-gated ion channels

A

Ionotropic

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136
Q

Slow _ transmission uses receptors coupled to G proteins

A

Metabotropic

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137
Q

Two classes of neurotransmitter receptors

A

Ionotropic and metabotropic

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138
Q

Group I metabotrobic glutamate receptors

A

Potentiate NMDAR-induced Ca++ influx (worsen conditions like ALS)

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139
Q

Group II and Group III

A

Reduce NMDAR induced Ca++ influx

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140
Q

Termination of neurotransmitter effects

A

reuptake, glial cell transporters
Diffusion, enzymatic degradation

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141
Q

excitatory post-synaptic potential

A

Na+ influx causes membrane depolarization

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142
Q

Inhibitory post synaptic potential

A

Cl- influx leads to Hyperpolorization

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143
Q

The periorbita is continuous with the

A

Periosteal layer of the dura

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144
Q

The periorbita forms the

A

Orbital septa

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145
Q

The lateral walls of the orbit are

A

Perpendicular

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146
Q

The medial walls of the orbit are

A

Parallel

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147
Q

Fovea centralis

A

Area of most acute vision
Densely populated with cones

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148
Q

Can we see at the optic disk?

A

No

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149
Q

The visual axis is offset _ from the orbital axis

A

27.5 degrees

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150
Q

Relationship of sinuses to eye

A

Medial wall-ethmoid sinuses
Inferior wall- maxillary sinuses

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151
Q

THe medial wall of the orbit is known as

A

Lamina papyracea “paper thin wall
Most susceptible to fracture

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152
Q

Blow out fracture

A

Fractures of the walls of orbit due to translation of the globe posterior leading to an increase in pressure causing fracture

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153
Q

3 layers of the globe

A

Fibrous layer
Vascular layer
Neural layer

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154
Q

The fibrous layer is divided into

A

Sclera post 5/6
Cornea ant. 1/6

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155
Q

The vascular layer of the globe is composed of

A

Choroid post 5/6
Ciliary body
Iris

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156
Q

The neural layer is composed of

A

Retina (has both visual and non-visual parts)

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157
Q

Sclera

A

Maintains shape
Provides attachment for extra-ocular muscles
Covered by conjunctiva (palpebral, bulbar)
Between the palpebral and bulbar is the the conjunctival sac

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158
Q

Cornea

A

Most significant refractive media of eye
Avascular (fed by aqueous humor and lacrimal fluid)
Highly sensitive (greatest density of nerve endings CN V1)

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159
Q

Choroid (vascular layer)

A

Pigmented layer between sclera and retina
Fed by ciliary branches of opthalmic artery
Vascular supply to outermost layer of retina (rods and cones)

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160
Q

Ciliary body

A

Ciliary muscle (sphincter surrounding lens) contraction releases tension (close vision) and relaxation increases tension (far vision)
ciliary processes (produces aqueous humor-carries nutrients and oxygen)

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161
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Maintains shape of the eye globe
Maintains proper distance between refractive surface (cornea-lens-retina)
Nutrition source for avascular tissues of the eye (lens and cornea)
Controls IOP

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162
Q

Accommodation

A

Lens thickens
Pupil constricts
Eyes converge

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163
Q

The ciliary body allows for

A

Lens accommodation

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164
Q

Iris

A

Sphincter pupillae
Dilator pupillae

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165
Q

Sphincter pupillae

A

Parasympathetic fibers from CN III narrows aperture of pupil

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166
Q

Dilator pupillae

A

Sympathic innervation from internal carotid plexus
Widens aperture of pupil

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167
Q

Retina

A

Optic part- outer layer is pigmented epithelium, inner layer contains light-receptive neurons

Ciliary part, radial part (non visual)
Transition zone between visual zone and non visual zone is the ora serrata

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168
Q

Transition zone between visual zone and non visual zone of the retina is the

A

ora serrata

169
Q

The anterior segment is divided into

A

Anterior and posterior chambers (divided by iris)

170
Q

The lens and the ciliary body separates the

A

Anterior segment from the posterior segment

171
Q

The anterior chamber is full of

A

Aqueous humor

172
Q

The posterior segment is filled with

A

vitreous humor

173
Q

Central retinal artery

A

Supplies all retinal neurons except rods and cones
Subject to increases in CSF pressure
Located deep to dura mater
No collateral anastomoses (blindness a concern)

174
Q

Ciliary branches

A

Supply choroid vascular layer
Blood supplies rods and cones

175
Q

Venous drainage of the eye

A

Superior and inferior ophthalmic vein
Infection of the superficial face can drain into the Supra-orbital vein and infra-orbital vein drain into the cavernous sinus and may lead to serous infection

176
Q

The frontal nerve gives rise to

A

Supratrochlear (medial)
Supraorbital (lateral

177
Q

The nasociliary nerve branches into

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoid

178
Q

The ciliary ganglion

A

Nasocilliary branch (sensory)
Inferior division of occulomotor (parasympathetic)
Sympathetic root from internal carotid plexus
Long and short ciliary branches

179
Q

Where is the ganglion cell of the retinal located

A

the diencephalon (thalamus)

180
Q

What is the pathway of visual information?

181
Q

The retina is part of the

A

Eye and the brain (diencephalon)

182
Q

Light enters the eye via the pupil and is focused on the _ by the _

A

Retina
Lens

183
Q

The initial processing of visual information occurs in

A

The retina

184
Q

_ contains the highest concentration of cones where the finest visual discrimination occurs

A

Fovea (within the macula)

185
Q

Where do the axons of the ganglion cell exit the retina?

A

The optic disk

186
Q

What artery supplies the retina?

A

The central retinal artery (travels with optic nerve)

187
Q

What are the layers of the retina the photons travel though?

A

Ganglion cell axons
Ganglion cell layer
Inner plexiform layer
Inner nuclear layer
Outer plexiform layer
Out nuclear layer
photoreceptor layer
Retinal pigmented epithelium

188
Q

Light travels from

A

Ganglion cell axons to photoreceptor layer

189
Q

Information travels from

A

The photoreceptor layer to the ganglion cell axons

190
Q

Photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells and horizontal cells in the _ layer

A

Outer plexiform layer

191
Q

Bipolar cells synapse with amacrine cells and ganglion cells in the _ layer

A

Inner plexiform

192
Q

Ganglion cell axons form

A

Optic nerve, chasm, tract and the brachium of the superior colliculus (synapse of Retino-recipient nuclei)

193
Q

Rods

A

Specialized for low light environment
Outside of fovea
Responsible for peripheral vision

194
Q

Cones

A

Color detection and fine visual discrimination
Require lots of light
In the fovea

195
Q

Rods have _

196
Q

the nucleus of the photoreceptors are in the

A

Outer nuclear layer

197
Q

The outer segments of the photoreceptor cells are in the

A

Photoreceptor layer

198
Q

The synaptic body of the photoreceptor cells is in

A

The outer plexiform layer

199
Q

How many types of cones and rods are there?

A

3 cone
1 rod

200
Q

Red cones

201
Q

Green cones

202
Q

Blue cones

203
Q

Why is color blindness more common in men?

A

Opsins are on X chromosome

204
Q

Protanopia

A

Loss of L cones (no red vision)

205
Q

Deuteranopia

A

Loss of M cones (loss of green vision)

206
Q

Tritanopia

A

Loss of S cones (loss of blue vision)

207
Q

How do we sharpen edges

A

Specific response to input from a portion of photoreceptor:
Light on center only
Light on surround only

208
Q

What cells perform lateral inhibition

A

Horizontal and amacrine cells

209
Q

Whether the lesion in the the optic tract, chiasm, or nerve is important because

A

Each location results in different visual defects

210
Q

The hypothalamus and the third ventricle are _ to the optic chiasm

211
Q

The infundibulum is _ to the optic chiasm

212
Q

Retinal ganglion cells project to

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus- circadian pacemaker (photosensitive ganglion)
Pretectal nuclei- pupillary response to light
Superior colliculus- reflexive eye and head movements in response to visual stimuli (mostly rods)
Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus-fine visual discrimination (mostly cones)

213
Q

The superchiasmatic nucleus receives input from

A

Photosensitive ganglion cells which have their own pigment (melanopsin)

214
Q

Where is melanopsin?

A

Photosensitive ganglion cells traveling to the superchiasmatic nucleus

215
Q

The pretectal area receives direct retinal input and projects to

A

The accessory oculomotor nucleus

216
Q

The projection from the retinal ganglion cells to the pretectal area is the _ limb

217
Q

The projection from the accessory motor nucleus to the ciliary ganglion via CN III is part of the _ limb

218
Q

The superior colliculus of the midbrain receives direct retinal input via

A

The brachium of the superior colliculus

219
Q

The superior colliculus receives input from

A

Visual cerebral cortex
Pretectal nuclei

220
Q

The superior colliculus is involved in

A

Visual reflexes

221
Q

The superior colliculus projects to

A

The spinal cord via the tectospinal tract
Pulvinar of the thalamus

222
Q

The brachium of the superior colliculus carries information from

A

The retinal ganglion cells to the superior colliculus

223
Q

The lateral gesticulate nucleus receives input from the retina via

A

The optic tract

224
Q

The optic radiations are a collection of myelinated axons that originate _ and terminate _

A

In the lateral geniculate nucleus
Primary visual cortex

225
Q

Optic radiations are _ organized

A

Retinotopically

226
Q

The primary visual cortex is found

A

Along banks of calcarine fissure

227
Q

The primary visual cortex is supplied by

A

Calcarine artery and branches of middle cerebral artery

228
Q

Which axons cross the optic chiasm to the contralateral side

A

Ganglion cell axons originating from the nasal retina

229
Q

Which ganglion cell axons remain ipsilateral

A

Ganglion cell axons from the temporal retina

230
Q

Axons from the retinal ganglion cells continue after the optic chiasm to form

A

The optic nerve

231
Q

Dorsal visual stream

A

Parietal lobe
Where is it

232
Q

Ventral visual stream

A

Temporal lobe
What is it

233
Q

Object recognition requires

A

Parahippocampal gyrus

234
Q

Face recognition requires

A

Occipitotemporal gyrus

235
Q

The occulomotor nucleus complex is located in the

A

Rostral midbrain

236
Q

The trochlear nucleus is located

A

In the caudal midbrain

237
Q

The abducens nucleus is located in the

A

Caudal pons

238
Q

Lesion of CN III

A

Ipsilateral loss whether the nucleus or nerve is affected
Loss of control of eye movement muscles
Loss of control of pupil response to light

239
Q

The trochlear nerve crosses so damage to the left trochlear nucleus causes deficits on the

A

Opposite side (damage to the nerve causes ipsilateral loss)
A lesion at the decussation of the trochlear nerve will affect both eyes

240
Q

Loss of the control of the superior oblique will result in an eye which is positioned

A

Upwards and outwards when looking forward

241
Q

A lesion of the abducens nerve will result in a _ loss

A

Ipsilateral

242
Q

Brain stem gaze centers project to oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nuclei and

A

Coordinate eye movement

243
Q

Brain gaze centers

A

Midbrain- riMLF, INC
Pons- PPRF, RIP
Medulla- MVN, NPH

244
Q

Conditions associated with damage to gaze centers

A

PSP, NPC, SCA2, MSA, OMAS

245
Q

Vertical gaze is controlled by

A

RiMLF an INC of the dorsal midbrain (important for upward eye movements)

246
Q

Lateral gaze is controlled by

A

PPFR (located in dorsal pons)
Projects to abducens nucleus which has a projection to oculomotor nucleus allowing PPRF to control lateral gaze

247
Q

Vestibular nuclei regulate eye movement in response to

A

Head movement allowing eyes to stay fixated on the object even when the head is turning

248
Q

The vestibular nuclei project to the abducens nucleus with

249
Q

Eye fields within cerebral cortex control eye movements via

A

Projections to the brain stem gaze centers

250
Q

How is the afferent system assessed?

A

Phychophysical tests-Visual acuity, color vision, contrast sensitivity, stereo-acuity, visual field
Imaging- OCT, MRI/CT
Electrophysiology

251
Q

Assessment of visual association

A

Screening tools- Montreal cognitive assessment, Boston cookie theft picture
Detailed neuro-psychological profile

252
Q

Before starting the eye exam you need to

A

Take a thorough history

253
Q

Ocular exam

A

Visual acuity
confrontation visual fields
Extraocular motility and alignment
Pupils
Adnexa
Anterior segment
IOP
Posterior segment

254
Q

OD

255
Q

OS

256
Q

Sc

A

Without correction

257
Q

Cc

A

With correction

258
Q

Ph

259
Q

CF

A

Counting fingers

260
Q

HM

A

Hand motion

261
Q

LP

A

Light perception

262
Q

NLP

A

No light perception

263
Q

If someone can typically see something at 40 feet but you must stand 20 feet away to see

264
Q

How to check acuity in children

A

CSM (corneal reflex)
Allen pictures/lea symbols
Tumbling E’s
HOTV chart

265
Q

Refractive error

A

Shape of eye keeps image from focusing clearly on the retina
Most common type of vision problem
Treated with glasses

266
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness
Distance objects look too blurry
Eye too long, image focused in front of retina

267
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness
Near objects blurry
Eye to short, image focused behind retina

268
Q

Astigmatism

A

Distant and mid-range objects poured or distorted
Irregular shape to the cornea

269
Q

Presbyopia

A

Middle/older adults unable to focus on near field objects
Loss of ability of lens to change focus with age

270
Q

Checking visual fields

A

Confrontation
Tangent screen
Goldmann- test far out into field
Automated- normal database for comparison but less personalizable

271
Q

Extraocular motility and alignment is used to asses for

A

Tropic and Phoria

272
Q

Ductions are _ movements

273
Q

Versions are _ movements

A

Binocular, simultaneous, conjugate movements in same direction

274
Q

Vergences are _ movements

A

Binocular, simultaneous, disconjugate or disjunctive movements

275
Q

How do you test for the relative afferent pupillary defect? (Pupils dilate when light is shined)

A

Swinging flashlight test

276
Q

Anisocoria

A

Abnormal pupil size

277
Q

Mydriatic pupil indicates

A

Loss of parasympathetic input to the iris sphincter

278
Q

A mitotic pupil could be due to

A

Loss of sympathetic input to the iris dilator muscle

279
Q

Normal position of the eye lids

A

Lower- at the limbus
Upper-2mm below limbus

280
Q

Should you see fluorescein staining on the cornea?

281
Q

Angle of the eye

A

Sit of aqueous drainage- evaluate using gonioscopy

282
Q

Opacity of the lens is

A

A cataract (must use slit lamp exam to determine location)

283
Q

Gold standard to check IOP

A

Goldmann applanation

284
Q

Do no check eye pressure if

A

You suspect a ruptured globe

285
Q

Direct opthalmoscope

A

Upright image field up to equator in dilated pupil

286
Q

indirect opthalmoscope

A

Real, inverted image, binocular, up to ora serrata

287
Q

Normal cup to disc ration

A

0.3
If larger or asymmetric suspect glaucoma

288
Q

Ocular exam is gold standard for all physical exams including looking at

A

Disc and macula

289
Q

Fluorescein staining is the easiest way to look for

A

Corneal abrasions

290
Q

Dilation is safe if you

A

Check AC depth (often only way yo look at posterior segment)

291
Q

Steps of pupil exam

A

Observe in room light, bright light, and dark light
Test light reflex by having patient in dark room look at the distance at a large target to avoid accommodation
Swinging flashlight test to asses for asymmetry in the afferent pathways
If sluggish pupil response, test near response by having patient focus on close-up target

292
Q

RAPD

A

Swinging flashlight
One pupil is slow to constrict compared to the other

293
Q

A relative afferent pupillary defect usually means the patient has

A

Ipsilateral optic nerve
Large retinal lesion
NOT cataract, refractive error, cornea

294
Q

Optic neurophathy causes

A

Loss of vision
Relative afferent pupillary defect
Optic disc edema, atrophy, cupping
Optic disc may also appear normal

295
Q

Two most common acute optic neuropathies

A

Optic neuritis
Ischemic optic neuropathy

296
Q

Typical case of optic neuritis

A

You patient
Acute unilateral loss of vision
Ipsilateral relative afferent pupillary defect
Central field defect or color vision loss
Pain/discomfort with eye movement
Disc edema
Patients improve to normal in 3-12 months

297
Q

Treatment of optic neuritis

A

IV steroids (NOT oral steroids unless given in super high doses)
Strong association with MS (need MRI)

298
Q

Features of typical ischemic optic neuropathy

A

Older patients
Arthritic and non-arteretic forms
Actule, unilateral loss of vision
Ipsilateral relative afferent pupil defect
Swollen optic nerve
Little visual recovery
Usually painless
NO association with MS

299
Q

Treatment of ischemic optic neuropathy

A

No treatment but help control risk factors

300
Q

Giant cell arthritis

A

Elderly patients
Headache
Scalp tenderness
Jaw claudication
Fever, malaise
Associated with poly Alia rheumatic a
Visual loss
*EMERGENCY
-Stat ESR, CRP, CBC
-Immediately start high dose steroids
-perform temporal artery biopsy

301
Q

Disc pallor causes

A

Old optic neuritis
Chronic papilledema
Compressive optic nerve lesion
Advanced glaucoma

302
Q

Disc elevation or swelling

A

Papilledema
Pseudopapilledema
Papilitis due to optic neuritis, inflammatory optic neuropathy, or infectious optic neuropathy
Ischemic optic neuropathy

303
Q

Papilledema symptoms

A

Headache
Minimal vision problems early
Profound vision loss over time

304
Q

Papilledema characteristics

A

Blurred swollen margin
Disc hypermedia
Peripapillary hemmorages
Loss of spontaneous venous pulsations
Usually bilateral, can be asymmetric
Enlarged blind spots

305
Q

Causes of papilledema

A

Serve HTN
Brain tumor
Venous sinus thrombosis
Intracranial hemorrhage
Meningitis
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

306
Q

Idiopathic intracranial HTN

A

Diagnosis of exclusion
Common in young obese females
Normal neuroimaging
Elevated opening pressure on lumbar puncture with normal CSF analysis

307
Q

Idiopathic intracranial HTN treatment

A

Acetazolamide (if this fails surgical treatment)

308
Q

Pseudopapilledema

A

Elevated nerves, but no edema
Vessels sharp and distict
Spontaneous venous pulsations
Crowded disc
Optic nerve drusen

309
Q

Anisocoria

A

Unequal pupils efferent pathway

310
Q

In Anisocoria which pupil is abnormal

A

In bright light, the larger pupil is abnormal due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers or circular sphincter muscle

311
Q

Anisocoria withdriasis (adie tonic pupil)

A

Damage of the parasympathetic ciliary ganglion
Benign and idiopathic
Dilute pilocarpine super sensitivity
Light-near dissociation
Irregular pupil
Vermiform movement

312
Q

Other causes of Anisocoria with mydriasis

A

Cranial nerve III palsy (not likely if isolated)
pharmacologic
Iris sphincter trauma/damage

313
Q

In dim light a smaller/Miotic pupil is abnormal due to

A

Sympathetic fibers or dilator muscle

314
Q

Anisocoria with mitosis is commonly caused by

A

Horner syndrome

315
Q

sympathetic pathway in Horner syndrome

A

Central neuron
Preganglionic
Postganglionic

316
Q

Testing for Horner syndrome

A

Topical cocaine test confirms
Topical apraclonide test confirms
Hydroxyamphetamine localizes

317
Q

Horners syndrome acquired causes

A

Carotid dissection
Carotid aneurysm
Apical lung tumor
Neuroblastoma

318
Q

Lesions of the retina and optic nerve produce VF defects

A

Only on ipsilateral eye

319
Q

Pre-chiasmatic lesion

A

Affects vision in one eye only

320
Q

Visual field patterns of optic neuropathy

321
Q

Optic nerve VF defects

A

Papillomacular bundle
enlarged blind spot nerve fiber layer defects (disc edema)
Nerve fiber layer defects

322
Q

Junctional visual field loss

A

Only complains of vision loss OD

323
Q

Bitemporal hemiopsia

A

Look for chiasmal lesion

324
Q

Bitemportal visual field loss

A

Lesions of chiasm (pituitary adenoma)
Requires neuroimaging studies

325
Q

Binasal heteronymous hemianopia

A

Lateral chiasm or bilateral optic nerve
Bilateral internal carotid artery aneurysms, hardened atherosclerotic ICAs, hydrocephalus/enlarged 3rd ventricle
More commonly caused by glaucoma, optic disk drusen, chronic raised intracranial pressure

326
Q

Post chiasmal lesions cause

A

Homonymous hemianopsia

327
Q

The LGN has _ blood supply and _

A

Dual blood supply
Ocular dominance columns

329
Q

Congruity means

A

Same shape and size

330
Q

The more anterior the lesion the more _ and the more posterior lesion the more _

A

Incongruous
Congruous

331
Q

Triad of optic tract lesions

A

Homonymous hemiaopia
Optic atrophy
contralateral RAPD

332
Q

A unilateral Homonymous hemianopsia does NOT decrease

A

Acuity (if bilateral, acuity will decrease)

333
Q

Temporal lobe lesions

A

Inferior radiations
Superior Homonymous hemianopsia “pie in the sky”
Incongruous

334
Q

Parietal lesions

A

Inferior defects “pie on the floor”

335
Q

Occipital lobe lesions

A

Very congruous
Macular sparing
May spare or involve temporal crescent
Neurologically isolated

336
Q

Damage to the where pathway

A

Dorsal dream
Vision for action
Visio-special disorders

337
Q

Neglect is seen in

A

Parietal lobe lesions

338
Q

Bilateral parietal damage (balint syndrome)

A

Simultanagnosia
Optic ataxia
Oculomotor apraxia

339
Q

Damage to what pathway

A

Ventral (temporal stream)
Discrimination of shapes/objects
Visio-perceptual disorders

340
Q

Akinetopsia

A

Can’t see moving objects due to bilateral lesion in temporal lobe

341
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Inability to recognize familiar faces (temporal)

342
Q

Topographagnosia

A

Inability to navigate familiar landmarks (temporal)

343
Q

Alexia without a graphic

A

Inability to read
Ability to write preserves (temporal lesion)

344
Q

Anosognosia

A

Deficient of self awareness
Denial of blindness

345
Q

Alexia with a graphic

A

Parietal lobe lesion
Inability to read and write

346
Q

Why do the eyes move?

A

Best visual acuity
Prevent retinal adaptation

347
Q

Eye movement categories

A

Visual fixation
Smooth pursuit
Saccades
Vestibular
Optokinetic
Vergence

348
Q

The pursuit system

A

Maintains stability of object on fovea while it moves
Initiation from ipsilateral parietal lobe

349
Q

Saccadic system

A

Bring stationary objects in line with fovea
Contralateral frontal lobe/frontal eye fields

350
Q

Horizontal gaze center

351
Q

Vertical gaze center

A

RiMLF and INC

352
Q

The vestibulo ocular system is necessary to

A

Maintain image/object on fovea while head moves

353
Q

VOR cancelation

A

Follow moving object as head moves

354
Q

Conjugate gaze abnormalities

A

Gaze palsie that restricts movement of both eyes

355
Q

Vertical gaze

A

Midbrain (3rd nerve)
INC
RiMLF

356
Q

Horizontal gaze

A

Pons (6th nerve)
PPRF

357
Q

Internuclear opthalmoplegia

A

Lesion of MLF
ipsilateral adduction defect

358
Q

Supranuclear disorder

A

Dorsal midbrain syndrome
Vertical gaze policy
Light/near disassociation
Convergence-retraction nystagmus
Lid retraction
Pineal tumor

359
Q

Double vision

A

If still present when one eye is closed it is NOT ocular misalignment

360
Q

Lesion of CN III

A

Ptosis
Eye down and out
Parasympathetic pupillomotor-Susceptible to compression
Central somatomotor fibers- susceptible to ischemia

361
Q

A pupil involved third nerve palsy is _ until proven otherwise

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

362
Q

Third nerve palsy is caused by

A

DM, HTN
PCommA aneurysm (pupil involving)
Trauma
Brain neoplasm

363
Q

Locations for CN III palsy’s

A

Fascicle
Nerve nucleus
Edge of tentorium cerebelli
Cavernous sinus
Subarachnoid space
Orbital apex

364
Q

Trochlear nerve palsy

A

Vertical diploplia
May develop contralateral head tilt

365
Q

Causes of abducens nerve palsy

A

Trauma
Commonly congenital in children

366
Q

Location of 4th nerve palsy

A

Nuclear fascicular, subarachnoid space, cavernous sinus, orbit

367
Q

Abducens nerve palsy

A

Horizontal diplopia and esotropia

368
Q

Causes of 6th cranial nerve palsy

A

Idiopathic
Trauma
Ischemic

369
Q

Locations of 6th nerve palsy

A

Nucleus
Fascicles
Subarachnoid space
Orbit
Isolated

370
Q

5th cranial nerve lesion

A

Decreased corneal sensation
Hermetic infections
Neurotrophic corneal ulcers

371
Q

7th cranial nerve palsy

A

Eyelid closure
Exposure keraopathy

372
Q

Thyroid eye disease

A

Commonly affects IR and MR
Eyelid retraction, proptosis, chemosis
Treat with steroids, decompression surgery

373
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Ptosis and diplopia

374
Q

Nystagmus

A

Spontaneous back and forth movement

375
Q

Trabeculotomy

A

Cloudy cornea
POAG

376
Q

Goniotomy

A

Clear cornea

377
Q

What is the primary site of resistance in POAG

A

Trabecular meshwork

378
Q

PACG presentation

A

Fixed, mid-dilated pupil
Ciliary flush
Corneal edema
Narrow or closed anterior chamber angle

379
Q

PACG management

A

Laser iridotomy

380
Q

Suspect glaucoma if

A

CDR >0.5
CDR asymmetry >0.3
ISNT

381
Q

Glaucoma pattern field loss obeys

A

Horizontal meridian

382
Q

Most common cause of irreversible blindness

383
Q

Most common cause of reversible blindness and visual impairment

384
Q

The lens of the eye is suspended by

385
Q

Common cause of medication induced cataracts

A

Corticosteroids

386
Q

Posterior sub-capsular cataract causes

A

Diabetes mellitus
Corticosteroids

387
Q

Amblyopia

A

Loss of visual acuity not correctable by glasses in otherwise heathy eye
Treatable before 10 but ideally begin before 5
Brain problem

388
Q

Types of amblyopia

A

Refractive
Strabistic
Form-deprivation
Occlusion

389
Q

Refractive amblyopia

A

Difference in refractive state between 2 eyes
Commonly asymmetric hyperopia
Treatment with glasses and patch

390
Q

Strabismic amblyopia

A

Eye is misaligned
Diplopia in adults or suppression in children
Treatment- glasses, patch

391
Q

Form-deprivation amblyopia

A

Light not able to reach retina for transduction to cortex
Medial opacity (cataract, corneal scar, hyphema, vitreous hemmorage), ptosis, capillary hemangioma

392
Q

Occlusion amblyopia

A

Iatrogenic from over-patching normal eye

393
Q

The cover test can be used to detect

A

Strabismus

394
Q

Comitant strabismus

A

Misalignment equal in all gaze positions

395
Q

Incomitant strabismus

A

Degree of misalignment varies with eye position
3rd, 4th, 6th CN palsy
Also may be due to trauma

396
Q

Heterophobia

A

Latent tendency for the eyes to deviate
Manifests only when binocular vision is interrupted

397
Q

Esodeviation

A

Most common ocular misalignment

398
Q

Pseudoesotopia

A

No misalignment on cover test
Re-examine in 3 months

399
Q

Infantile esotropia

A

Within first 6 months
Large angle
Cross fixation
Treat surgically, sometimes glasses needed

400
Q

Exodeviations

A

Latent or manifest divergence

401
Q

Intermittent exotropia is induced by

A

Daydreaming, fatigue, illness, visual distraction

402
Q

Vertical strabismus

A

Vertical misalignment
Commonly caused by superior oblique palsy
Can be acquired due to trauma
Torticollis

403
Q

Leuocoria

A

White pupil
Caused by: cataract, retinal detachment, rentipathy of prematurity, retinal vascular abnormality, intraocular tumor

404
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

Associated with chromosome 13

405
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity

A

Abnormal retinal blood vessels
Treatment: laser ablation, anti-VEGF injection

406
Q

The choroid is fed by

A

Ciliary branches of ophthalmic which supply photoreceptors

407
Q

When the ciliary muscle contracts

A

Tension on the zonules decreases and the lens becomes more spherical allowing for close vision

408
Q

When the ciliary muscle relaxes

A

Tension on zonule increases and the lens becomes thinner allowing for far away vision

409
Q

Sphincter pupillae is innervated by

A

Parasympathetics from CN III

410
Q

Dilator pupillae is innervated by

A

Sympathetics from internal carotid plexus

411
Q

Optic neurons receive blood supply from

A

Central retinal

412
Q

What seperates the anterior and posterior segments

413
Q

What seperates the anterior and posterior segments

414
Q

What secretes aqueous humor

A

Ciliary processes

415
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the eye

A

Edinger westphal nucleus in midbrain synapse in ciliary ganglion and travel in short ciliary nerves to reach the pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscles

416
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the eye

A

Superior cervical ganaglion and postganglion fibers travel along interval carotid plexus to reach ciliary ganglion
Pass through ganglion to dilator pupillae and superior tarsal muscles
Afferent fibers travel along sympathetic pathway from iris and cornea

417
Q

Horners syndrome is a loss of _ innervation

A

Sympathetic

418
Q

Lacrimal pathway

A

Lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, Canalicular, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct