Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Most ocular trauma

A

People <30 yrs
Occurs at home
With blunt or sharp objects
Without eye exam

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2
Q

With trauma induced lid injuries you must rule out

A

Associated ocular injury (globe rupture, hyphema)

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3
Q

Laceration danger zones

A

The eyelid margin (tarsus-must realign to avoid nothing, if not done correctly can cause exposure or epiphoria)
The lacrimal outflow system (Lacrimal canaliculus, must stent to avoid excess tearing)
Upper Eyelid retractors (see orbital fat, must get CT orbits)

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4
Q

What do we do for animal bites?

A

Copious irrigation
Debridement nonviable tissue
Early primary wound closure
Broad spectrum antibiotics

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5
Q

What do we do form chemical/contact injuries?

A

Irrigate to pH neutrality
Topical anesthetic
Identify acid vs base

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6
Q

Thermal injury

A

Usually affects eyelid
Must lubricate to preserve tissue viability
Late phase treatment

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7
Q

Abrasions and foreign bodies

A

Illuminate, anesthetic, fluorescein
Lid eversion
Topical cycloplegia, antibiotic, eye patch

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8
Q

Topical anesthetics should only be used

A

During exam or procedure
Never prescribed

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9
Q

How do we detect abrasions and foreign bodies

A

Fluorescein

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10
Q

Suspect a ruptured globe if

A

Severe blunt trauma
Sharp object
Metal on metal contact
High velocity injury

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11
Q

Warning signs of open globe

A

Laceration
Pigment
Pupil irregularity
Sub conjunctival hemorrhage
Uveal prolapse
Hyphema
Lens opacity/dislocate

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12
Q

Suspect an open globe if

A

Bullous sub conjunctival hemorrhage
Uveal prolapse
Peaked or keyhole pupil
Hyphema
Vitreous hemorrhage
Post-traumatic lens opacity
Low IOP
Anterior chamber is collapsed
Seidels sign
Gross inspection/symmetry

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13
Q

What do you do if the globe is ruptured?

A

Shield eye
No topical meds
Antiemetic narcotics
Tetanus prophylaxis
IMMEDIATELY refer to ophthalmologist

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14
Q

If you see post-traumatic proptosis you should suspect

A

Hemmhorage or orbital emphysema (air from sinus)
Must get CT orbits

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15
Q

What do you do for orbital hemorrhage?

A

Systemic corticosteroids
Ocular hypotensive agents
****Canthotomy/cantholysis
Therapeutic orbital floor fracture

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16
Q

Signs of an orbital fracture

A

Globe dystopia (enophthalmos)
Diplopia
Blepharoptosis
Hypoesthesia

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17
Q

Orbital imaging

A

CT (assessing for fractures, metallic FB may exist)
Orbit protocol (axial, coronal, sagittal)

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18
Q

Orbital fractures features

A

Fractures
Orbital heme
Orbital air
Optic neuropathy
Globe injury

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19
Q

Medical treatment for orbital fractures

A

Antibiotics
Nasal decongestion
Oral steroids
Abstinence from aspirin, NSAIDS, nose-blowing

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20
Q

Indications for surgery for orbital fractures

A

Enophthalmos
Restrictive diploplia
Defect >50% of orbital wall

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21
Q

Traumatic optic neuropathy is associated with

A

Closed head injury, mid facial fracture
Common in motor vehicle accidents

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22
Q

Traumatic optic neuropathy features

A

Loss of vision
Ipsilateral afferent pupillary defect (swinging flashlight test)

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23
Q

Flashing lights and floaters are associated with

A

Retinal detachment

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24
Q

A peaked iris toward an area of sub conjunctival hemorrhage indicates

A

Ruptured globe

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25
Q

A laceration medial to the punctum may injure

A

The lacrimal canaliculus

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26
Q

The uvea includes

A

Iris
Ciliary body
Choroid

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27
Q

The fundus includes

A

Retina
Macula
Optic nerve

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28
Q

What is the dividing structure for pre-septal and post-septal infections

A

Orbital septum

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29
Q

_ is the key for red eye and pink eye

A

History (onset, progression, other people with eye condition, trauma, contact lenses, recent URI, visual disturbances, discharge, itching, photophobia, PMH, medications, allergies)

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30
Q

Key exam points for red or pink eye

A

Visual acuity
Pattern of hyperemia
Classify discharge
Detect opacities
Fluorescein
Anterior chamber depth
Pupil irregularities
IOP
proptosis

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31
Q

Red flags for people with red/pink eye

A

Blurred vision
Sever pain
Photophobia
Colored halos

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32
Q

Reduced visual acuity indicates

A

Keratitis
Iridocyclitis
Glaucoma
NEVER in simple conjunctivitis

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33
Q

Ciliary flush indicates

A

Ciliary or iris involvement

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34
Q

Corneal o pacification indicates

A

KP
Diffuse haze
Corneal ulceration

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35
Q

Other red flags

A

Pupil abnormalities
elevated IOP
proptosis
Strabismus

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36
Q

Blepharitis

A

Inflammation along eyelid margin associated with normal skin flora
If angular associated with Moraxella
Burning sensation, mattering
Toothpaste sign
Swollen meibomian gland
Treatment: remove debris with soap
If staph use bacitracin

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37
Q

Hordeolum

A

Acute bacterial infection of sebaceous glands
External (Zeus, moll)
Internal (meibomian)
Painful pustule formation (tenacious/gritty/purulent secretions)
Treatment: massage and compress
Antibiotics if systemic infection

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38
Q

Chalazion

A

Hail stone (hard, painless lump)
Chronic lipo-granulomatous inflammation of Meibomian gland(may develop from internal Hordeolum)
Same management as Hordeolum

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39
Q

Dacryocystitis

A

Inflammation of the lacrimal sac caused by flow obstruction and subsequent bacterial infection
Erythema and edema over the lacrimal sac (mucopurulent drainage expression on massage of punctum)
Treatment: ophthalmology consult, broad spectrum antibiotics
Surgical correction

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40
Q

Dry eye syndrome

A

Tear defiency, abnormal tear film, Meibomian dysfunction
Burning history, foreign body sensation
Associated with aging
Treatment: artificial tears, lubricating ointment, punctual occlusion

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41
Q

Bacterial Conjunctivitis

A

Self-limited
**Think purulent discharge
Neonates-gonococcal conjunctivitis
Adults-pseudomonas, proteus, bacillis
Treatment: antibiotics

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42
Q

Conjunctivitis: Chlamydia

A

Trachomatis- leading cause of blindness in poverty stricken
Adults- chronic, low grade hyperemia with inferior bulbar and palpebral mounds
Elementary bodies on direct fluorescent AB stain
Treatment: antibiotics, treat sexual partners for adults

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43
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis

A

chlamydial: from infected cervix, onset >7 days after birth
Gonococcal: <3 days after birth

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44
Q

Viral conjunctivitis

A

Most common caused of acute red eye- often adenovirus
Watery/mucoid discharge

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45
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis

A

Itchy eyes with watery discharge
Management:
Vasoconstrictors
H1 receptor antagonists
NSAIDs
Mast cell stabilizer
H1 receptor antagonist and Mast cell stabilizer

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46
Q

Corneal abrasion

A

Pain, blurred vision, photophobia, tearing, miotic pupil
Fluorescein stain
Treatment: lubrication

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47
Q

Pterygium and pinguecula

A

Pterygium grows onto cornea, pinguecula does not
Associated with UV exposure

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48
Q

Acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Ciliary flush, corneal edema, fixed mid dilated pupil, elevated IOP
EMERGENCY: beta blocking agent to lower IOP
Alpha agonists- decrease aqueous production and increase outflow
Laser iridiotomy

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49
Q

Anterior Uveitis

A

Autoimmune reaction
Inflammation of iris and ciliary muscle
Periocular pain and photophobia
URGENT referral to ophthomologist

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50
Q

Keratitis

A

Blurred vision, photophobia, periocular plain, FB sensation
Ciliary flush with white cloud, irregular light reflex
Dendritic ulcer on fluorescein stain= Herpes
EMERGENT Referral
Avoid steroids
Risk of corneal perforation and endophthalmitis

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51
Q

Episcleritis and scleritis

A

Focal inflammation
Ocular pain and hyperemia
Urgent referral
Systemic corticosteroids
Severe ocular pain and and hyperemia
Thinning and meting do sclera

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52
Q

Preseptal cellulitis

A

Pain, swelling edema
Prevent spread to post-septal issues

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53
Q

Post-septal or orbital cellulitis

A

Bacterial infection of periocular tissue
Papilledema
Admit and ophthalmology consult
Antibiotics

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54
Q

Thyroid eye disease

A

Retraction of upper lid
Impaired eye movement and muscle edema (IR most common)
May have systemic signs of hyperthyroidism
Bring thyroid levels to normal range

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55
Q

Orbital tumors

A

Gradual development of proptosis, diplopia

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56
Q

Red eye conditions that are non-vision threatening

A

Conjunctivitis
Corneal abrasions
Small foreign body
Pterygium

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57
Q

Red eye conditions that are vision threatening

A

Orbital cellulitis
Scleritis/uveitis
Chemical injury
Keratitis
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Penetrating trauma/cranial perforation
Corneal ulcerations

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58
Q

Optical coherence tomography

A

Uses tight to take cross sectional pictures of the retina
In Vivo histology
Takes a series of photos which can be used to create a 3D reconstruction

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59
Q

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

A

Proximal to bifurcation at the optic nerve
Severe vision loss, retinal whitening, cherry red spot, vessel attenuation
Risk factors: HTN, coronary artery disease, smoking
Associated with concurrent or future strokes

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60
Q

Branch retinal artery occlusion

A

Distal branch occlusion
Segmental retinal whitening and vessel attenuation
Emboli may or may not be present

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61
Q

Central rental vein occlusion

A

Painless vision loss
Diffuse retinal homorrhage, disc edema, cotton wool spots
Risks: HTN, vascular disease, >65

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62
Q

Branch retinal vein occlusion

A

Retinal hemorrhages, educate, cotton wool spots

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63
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy

A

Acute: malignant HTN/HTN emergency
Chronic: leads to arteriosclerosis and predisposes to vascular occlusions and macroaneurysms

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64
Q

Rental findings in HTN emergency

A

Optic disc edema, diffuse retinal hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, macular star
Bilateral
**when patient presents with bilateral, adult, decline in vision must check BP
Admit patient and reduce BP

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65
Q

Chronic HTN

A

no symptoms
Can predispose to vein occlusions, arterial occlusions, macular edema, macroaneurysms
Flame hemorrhage, AV nicking, cotton wool spots
Control BP

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66
Q

Age related macular degeneration

A

Leading cause of blindness in developed world in people >50
Dry: non-exudative or non-neuvascular
Wet: exudative or neuvascular
Advanced ages, smoking, family history, Northern European ancestry
Symptoms: blurry vision, decreased reading ability, metamorphopsia, central scotoma
Advanced: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Peripheral vision unaffected

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67
Q

AMD pathophysiology

A

Inflammation or oxidative stress leading to accumulation of drusen
Deprivation of retinal pigment epithelium oxygen and nutrients leading to retinal atrophy

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68
Q

Dry AMD

A

Drusen and pigmentory changes
NO hemorrhage
Progressive
Blindness may develop in late AMD

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69
Q

Stages of Dry AMD

A

Early: Few drusen, Good vision (20/20 to 20/40)
Intermediate: many large drusen, vision still good (20/30 to 20/80)
Late: drusen, pigmentary changes center involving, vision 20/100-20/200

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70
Q

Dry AMD treatment

A

Stop smoking
AREDS2 vitamins to strop progression to Wet AMD
Amsler grid testing to detect transition to Wet AMD

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71
Q

Wet, Exudative or Neovascular AMD

A

Damage to outer retinal layers to neovascular growth into the retina
Hemmorage, subretinal fluid, macular edema, presence of retinal pigment epithelial detachments

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72
Q

Wet AMD pathophysiology

A

Choroidal neuvascularizzation forms due to brakes in Bruch’s membrane caused by drusen
Subrential fluid, hemorrhage, and potentially irreversible scarring
New onset distortion and loss of vision

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73
Q

Complications of Wet AMD

A

Disciform scar

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74
Q

Wet AMD treatment

A

Anti-VEGF agents to mediate growth of neovascular vessels (induction therapy: 3 injections at 4-6 week intervals, if dry extend interval between injections)

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75
Q

Normal vitreous structure

A

Collagen fibrils separated by hyaluronan

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76
Q

Posterior vitreous detachement

A

Hyaluronan loss with age
Collagen fibrils collapse and vitreous shrinks (remain adherent
Flashes and floaters, blurry vision

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77
Q

Retinal tears

A

Breaks in retina created through localized traction of vitreous gel
Retinal defect breaks suction that attaches retina
Most occur as a result of posterior vitreous detachment (can be caused by trauma, myopia)
Symptoms are identical to those of posterior vitreous detachment
Treatment: laser retinopexy/cryotherapy

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78
Q

Retinal detachment

A

Separation of the neurosensory retina from the RPE
3 types:
Rhegmatogenous (break/tear most common)
-need to determine if macular is attached or detached
Tractional (diabetes associated)
Exudative
Symptoms: flashes and floaters + painless black curtain, variable blurred vision
Treatment: surgical retinal specialist (find breaks, plug breaks, seal breaks)

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79
Q

Sclera buckle

A

External repair
Retinal detachment repair
Pushes eye wall inward to relieve traction and re-apples retina to eyewall

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80
Q

Pars Plana Vitrectomy

A

Internal repair
Remove vitreous gel and lose areas of adherer to relieve traction
Hold retina in place with gas bubble
Use laser to self the retina and seal breaks

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81
Q

Categories of Systemic Illness related to Eye disease

A

Infectious
Autoimmune, non-infectious, inflammatory
Neoplastic
Vascular disease
Toxic
Hereditary
Metabolic/nutritional

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82
Q

Diabetic retinopathy is the leading cause of _

A

blindness in working age

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83
Q

Diabetic Retinopathy pathogenesis

A

Multi factorial
Hyperglycemia leads to endothelial damage (retinal capillary changes, basement membrane thickening)
Loss of pericytes
Endothelial barrier decompensation leads to leakage and edema

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84
Q

Consequences of proliferative diabetic retinopathy/traction retinal detachment

A

Preretinal hemorrhage
TRD

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85
Q

Screening guidelines for diabetics

A

Type 1- annual screening for diabetic retinopathy beginning 5 years after disease onset
Type 2- screening at time of diagnosis and annually thereafter

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86
Q

Diabetic retinopathy treatment:

A

NPDR: better glycemic and BP control, risk factor modification
PDR: panretinal photocoagulation +/- intravitreal injection
Diabetic macular edema: anti-VEGF
Traction retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage: surgical vitrectomy

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87
Q

Anti-VEGF for diabetic macular edema

A

Injected into vitreous
Decrease vascular permeability leading to resolution of macular edema

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88
Q

What is Uveitis?

A

Inflammation of uvea (choroid, ciliary body, iris)
Defined by location affected (different causal conditions)

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89
Q

Warning signs of uveitis

A

Pain
Photophobia
Eye redness
Vision loss

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90
Q

Infectious disease associated with uveitis

A

TB
Syphilis
Herpes simplex and varicella zoster retinitis
CMV
toxoplasmosis
West Nile
Zika
Ebola virus

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91
Q

Chorodial tubercle

A

Tuberculosis

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92
Q

Syphilitis-associated uveitis

A

Can present many ways
Conjunctivitis, scleritis, interstitial keratitis, granulomatous is uveitis, large keratic precipitates, iris nodules
**Chorioretinitis
Vasculitis, vitritis
Manage with IV penicillin

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93
Q

Retinal whiting is associated with

A

VZV

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94
Q

Endogenous endophalmitis

A

Infection in the body can hematogenously spread to eye
Decreased vision, red, injected eye
Anterior chamber and vitreous inflammation, pain
Management: find systemic source, IV/intraocular antibiotics, surgery as indicated

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95
Q

Treatment of non-infectious uveitis

A

Prednisone
If reoccurs/suboptimal response restart steroid taper an and add anti metabolic
Add biologic

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96
Q

HLA-B27 associated anterior uveitis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Pain, redness, photophobia
Visual acuity decline
Slit lamp-posterior synechiae
Macular edema

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97
Q

Sarcoidosis uveitis

A

Bilateral granulomatous panuveitis
Ocular involvement
work up: CT chest, ACE, lysozyme, iCa
Non-casceating epitheloid granuloma s
PFTs and gallium scan

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98
Q

SLE retinal vasculitis

A

IV solumedrol, prednisone, IV cyclophosphamide
Secondary complication: retinal neovascularization

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99
Q

Ocular malignancy

A

Usually uveal metastasis
Men-lung
Women-breast

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100
Q

Most common primary intraocular tumor

A

Choroidal melanoma

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101
Q

Metastatic lesions are likely to develop in

A

Choroid

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102
Q

Hydroxychloroquine toxicity causes

A

Bull’s eye maculopathy
Ring of RPE depigmentation, sparing fovea
Paracentrol scotoma that affects reading and eventually central vision
Screening: Humphrey visual field 10-2, multifocal ERG, spectral domain optical coherence tomography scan, fundus autofluorescence
**flying saucer sign

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103
Q

Checkpoint inhibitor uveitis

A

Sunset glow fundus
Headache, tinnitus, vitiligo

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104
Q

Space occupying lesions result in_

A

Proptosis

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105
Q

Thyroid ophthalmopathy

A

Most common cause of exophthalmos
Immune mediated
Extraocular (recuts muscle) enlargement due to accumulation of extracellular matrix proteins, endomysial edema, fibrosis, fatty infiltration and lymphocytic cell infiltration
*****spares tendons and fat

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106
Q

Idiopathic orbital inflammation

A

Acute onset pain and proptosis
Immune disorder
May be ini or bi lateral
May affect all of orbit or confined to lacrimal gland or eye muscles
*****Tendons and fats involved
Diagnosis of exclusion

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107
Q

Chalazion

A

Tensor nodule
Lipid granuloma

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108
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

Most common malignancy of eyelid
Lower lid
Locally invasive

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109
Q

Acute purulent conjunctivitis

A

Bacterial or viral
Redness, itching, exudate
Neutrophils

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110
Q

Pinguecula/ Pterygium

A

Yello-white pacification
Actinic damage in sun-exposed areas
Solar elastosis
Must rule out actinic induced tumors

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111
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Near limbus
in situ: confined to epithelium
SCC invaded through basement membrane into stroma

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112
Q

Keratitis/ulceration

A

Due to wide variety of pathogens (bacteria, fungi, viruses-Herpes simplex, parasites- ancanthameoba)
Lots of neutrophils present

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113
Q

Keratoconus

A

Bilateral degeneration
Progressive thinning and ectasia
Conical shape generating astigmatism
*****central thinning + breaks in Bowman’s layer

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114
Q

Fuchs Endothelial Dystrophy

A

Most common dystrophy
Inherited disorder with incomplete penetrance
5th or 6th decade
Common transplant indication
Thickened Descemet’s membrane + Guttae
Loss of endothelial cells (stroma and Bullous keratopathy)

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115
Q

Glaucoma

A

Evelvated IOP
Open angle- increased resistance in open angle
Angle closure- iris adheres to the trabecular meshwork

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116
Q

Cataract

A

O pacification of crystalline lens
Common cause of vision loss
Age- related results primarily from opacification of the lens nucleus (nuclear sclerosis)

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117
Q

What is the uvea

A

Highly vascularized, pigmented (melanocytes)
Iris, ciliary body, choroid

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118
Q

Uveal melanoma

A

Most common primary intraocular malignancy of adults
**not associated with UV light
Due to maturations in GNAQ and GNA11
Deletion in BAP1
Usually incidental finding or present due to visual symptoms related to retinal detachment
Prognosis depends on size, cell type, proliferative index, cytogenetic profiles
Hematogenous spread to liver (80% 5 year survival rate)

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119
Q

Histology of uveal melanoma

A

Spindle cell
Mixed
Epitheloid (worse prognosis)

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120
Q

Arteriolosclerosis

A

Thickening of vascular wall

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121
Q

Macular star

A

Exudate from damages vessels in outer plexiform layer in malignant hypertension

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122
Q

Hypertension histology features

A

Macular star
Arteriosclerosis
Nerve layer infarct (occlusion of retinal arterioles, cotton-wool spot)

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123
Q

Pathology of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Retinal edema, exudates, hemorrhages, capillary microaneurysms, loss of pericytes

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124
Q

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

New vessel sprouting on surface of retina
Retinal neuvascularization (when breaching the internal limiting membrane)
Vitreous hemorrhage and scarring

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125
Q

Age related macular degeneration

A

Leading cause of blindness in elderly
Loss of central (fovea) vision
Can be atrophic or exudative

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126
Q

Atrophic AMD

A

Dry
Atrophy of RPE
Photoreceptor degeneration

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127
Q

Neuvascular AMD

A

Wet
Choroidal neovascularization
Hemmhorrhage and scarring
Detached RPE

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128
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

Most common primary intraocular tumor worldwide
Most common intraocular tumor of children
Leukocoria
Loss of both RB alleles

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129
Q

Retinoblastoma pathology

A

Microscopic: Encephloid white
Microscopic:
-blue:blue cell tumor, hyper cellular, high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio, numerous mitoses and karyorrhectic debris
-pink: necrosis
-purple: dystrophic calcifications
Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes

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130
Q

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

A

Similar to stoke
-ischemia: transient interruption to blood flow, transient loss of vision
-infarct: total interruption in blood flow, permanent loss of vision
Bilateral infarcts have been reported in temporal arteritis

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131
Q

Giant cell arteritis

A

Chronic granulomatous inflammation of large to small sized arteries in the head
Most common vasculitis in elderly adults
Ophthalmic artery occlusion may lead to supper blindness
Diagnosis based on temporal artery biopsy
Treat with high dose steroids

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132
Q

Pathology of giant cell arteritis

A

**Transmural chronic inflammation with giant cells
Intimal thickening
Disruption of internal elastic lamina

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133
Q

What is the role of the somatosensory system

A

Mediates multiple senses with distinct neuroanatomical pathways

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134
Q

The dorsal column and medical lemniscus system, trigeminal lemniscus pathway senses

A

Fine touch, vibration, conscious proprioception

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135
Q

The anterolateral system, trigeminothalmic tract pathway senses

A

Crude touch, pain, temperature

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136
Q

Somatosensation for the body starts with the

A

DRG

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137
Q

Somatosensation for the face starts with the

A

Trigeminal ganglion

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138
Q

DRG neurons

A

Carry somatosensory info from body to spinal cord
Pseudounipolar shape
Peripheral processes of a DRG neuron extension into the skin via spinal nerve
Central processes of a DRG neuron extend into the spinal cord

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139
Q

DRG cell bodies

A

Differ in size

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140
Q

small DRG cell bodies are

A

Associated with pain and temp

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141
Q

large DRG cell bodies are associated with

A

Fine touch and proprioception

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142
Q

Pain and temp are associated with which system

A

Anterolateral system
-free nerve endings
-pain receptors

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143
Q

Mechanoreceptors are associated with which system

A

Dorsal column, medial lemniscus system
-meissners corpuscles
-Merkel cells
-pacinian corpuscles
Ruffini’s corpuscles

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144
Q

Proprioception is associated with which system

A

Dorsal column/medial lemniscus (conscious) or system or spinocerebellar tracts (unconscious)
-muscles spindles
-Golgi tendon organ

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145
Q

Pain and temp DRG neurons have peripheral processes with

A

Free nerve endings

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146
Q

Meissners corpuscles account for _ receptors on finger tips

A

60%

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147
Q

Merkel cells account for _ of receptors on finger tips

A

30%

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148
Q

Pacinian corpuscles account for _ of receptors on finger tips

A

3%

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149
Q

Proprioception is mediated by

A

Muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon organs
Information is transmitted to cerebral cortex (conscious) and cerebellum (unconscious)

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150
Q

How does primary somatosensory axon diameter and myelination affect conduction

A

Speed conduction

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151
Q

A Dermatomal loss indicates

A

Damage to a spinal nerve root

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152
Q

A more restricted pattern of loss will occur

A

If a specific peripheral nerve is affected

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153
Q

DRG axons project into _ and ascend _

A

Dorsal column (formed by fasciculis cuneatus and gracious)
Ipsilaterally

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154
Q

Fasciculus cuneatus can be found in

A

Cervical spinal cord

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155
Q

The gracile column carry’s sensation from

A

The legs

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156
Q

The cuneate nucleus carries sensation from

A

The upper body

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157
Q

The dorsal column increase in width from

A

Sacral to cervical levels

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158
Q

Axons of gracile and cinematic fasciculi terminate

A

In the medulla in gracile and cuneate nuclei

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159
Q

Crossing axons of the gracile and cuneate nuclei give are known as

A

Internal accurate fibers

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160
Q

Ascending axons after crossing are known as

A

Medial lemniscus

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161
Q

Lesions of the medial lemniscus at any level will result in loss of fine touch and conscious proprioception on the _ side

A

Contralateral

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162
Q

Neurons in the VPL project via _ to _

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsule to the post-central gyrus of the cerebral cortex

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163
Q

Neurons in the primary somatosensory cortex project to

A

Other cortical areas

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164
Q

Somatosensory radiations originate from _ and project to _

A

Originate from VPL of thalamus
Project to primary somatosensory cortex (post central gyrus)

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165
Q

The anteriolateral system conveys

A

Pain and temp information for the body

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166
Q

DRG neurons have axons that enter the spinal cord through _ and terminate _

A

Lissauer’s tract
In the substantia gelatinousa of the dorsal horns

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167
Q

Pain information reaches the _ in the medulla and pons as well as the _ in the midbrain

A

Reticular formation
Periaqueductal gray

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168
Q

Lesions of the spinothalamic tract at any level will result in

A

Loss of pain and temperature on the opposite side of the body

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169
Q

Neurons in the VPL project via _ to the _

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsule
Post-central gyrus of the cerebral cortex

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170
Q

_ and _ are activated by painful stimuli which may be related to _

A

Cingulate gyrus and insula
Suffering

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171
Q

_ receives pain information and projects to the reticular formation which provides feedback to the spinal cord

A

PAG

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172
Q

The PAG projects to

A

Reticular formation

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173
Q

What nuclei are part of the reticular formation and project to the dorsal horn?

A

Nuclei magnus and paragigantocellularis

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174
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Described as burning
Common in diabetes
Can also occur after herpes zoster
Irritation of the neurons but no tissue damage

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175
Q

Due to plasticity pain may occur as a result of inappropriate reorganization at higher levels of the nervous system

A

Phantom limb pain

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176
Q

Trigeminal ganglion neurons have axons which enter_ and terminate in the _

A

Pons
Main trigeminal nucleus

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177
Q

Neurons in the main trigeminal nucleus have axons which cross the midline and ascend in

A

The trigeminal lemniscus

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178
Q

Neurons in the VPM project via _ to the _

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsule
Post-central gyrus of the cerebral cortex

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179
Q

Neurons of the VPM project to

A

The lateral post central gyrus

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180
Q

Neuronal cell bodies in the trigeminal ganglion have axons that travel from

A

The PNS as the trigeminal nerve, enter the pons and descend as the spinal trigeminal tract

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181
Q

The spinal trigeminal nucleus nconveys

A

Pain and temp info

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182
Q

Axons from the spinal trigeminal nucleus ascend to _ via _

A

VPM
trigeminothalamic tract

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183
Q

Neuronal cell bodies in the spinal nucleus of V have axons that cross and ascent to _ as the _

A

VPM
Trigeminothalamic tract

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184
Q

Neurons of the VPM project to the

A

Postcentral gyrus

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185
Q

Mesencephalic nucleus of V

A

Displaced ganglion cells project to principle sensory nucleus and motor V
Proprioceptive information for the face

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186
Q

The Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus conveys

A

Proprioceptive information for the face

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187
Q

Lower motor neurons innervate

A

Muscles

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188
Q

Lesions in lower motor neurons cause

A

Flaccid paralysis

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189
Q

Upper motor neurons terminate on

A

Lower motor neurons

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190
Q

Lesions of upper motor neurons cause

A

Spastic paralysis

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191
Q

CN motor nuclei and the ventral horn of the spinal cord are

A

Lower motor nuclei

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192
Q

Pyramidal neurons in the pre central gyrus, red nucleus, superior colliculus, vestibular nuclei, and reticular nuclei are

A

Upper motor nuclei

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193
Q

Brain stem indirect motor control nuclei are

A

Upper motor neurons

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194
Q

Final common pathway

A

Lower motor neurons

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195
Q

The ventral horn in large in the _ and _

A

Cervical and lumbosacral enlargements

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196
Q

Lower motor neurons in the spinal cord are _ organized

A

Somatotopically organized
The motor nucleus to axial muscles are located in the ventromedial cell group
The motor nucleus to the limb muscles are in the dorsolateral cell group

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197
Q

Lower motor neurons in the ventral horn have axons that exit in the

A

Ventral roots

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198
Q

Lower motor neuron axons form _ with the muscle cells

A

Neuromuscular junctions

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199
Q

Lower motor neurons are found in _

A

The nuclei of the cranial nerves with motor components (axons terminate in muscles in the head and neck)

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200
Q

Edinger-westphal, superior and inferior salivary and dorsal motor vagal nuclei are part of the _ system

A

Parasympathetic

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201
Q

Rabies

A

Affects lower motor neurons
Spreads retrograde

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202
Q

Polio

A

Affects lower motor neurons
Picornavirus tranmitted via fecal oral route
From gut it spreads to spinal cord and destroys neurons in ventral horn
Can also kill lower motor neurons in brainstem

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203
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy

A

Neuroregeneration disorder that affects lower motor neurons in the ventral horn
Loss of function mutation in the SMN1 gene (encodes survival motor neuron proteins
Results in muscular atrophy

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204
Q

The primary motor cortex is in the

A

Precentral gyrus

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205
Q

The primary motor cortex receives info from

A

Premotor and supplementary motor cortex

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206
Q

The primary motor nucleus contributes to the

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

207
Q

The secondary motor cortex receives information from

A

Basal ganglia via the ventral anterior nucleus of the thalamus

208
Q

The premotor cortex receives information from the cerebellum via

A

The ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

209
Q

The supplementary and premotor cortex project to _ and contribute to _

A

The primary motor cortex and contributes to the corticospinal tract

210
Q

The cell bodies of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts originate in the

A

Pre-central gyrus of the cerebral cortex

211
Q

The corticobulbar axons terminate in lower neurons of the

A

Ventral horn of the spinal cord

212
Q

Most projections of the corticobulbar tract are

A

Bilateral (except facial and hypoglossal nuclei)

213
Q

The projection from the corticospinal tract are primarily

A

Contralateral

214
Q

The axons from the corticobulbar tract terminate in the brainstem and are not found

A

In the pyramids of the medulla or the spinal cord

215
Q

The lateral area of the precentral gyrus controls _ and gives rise to _

A

Face and head movements
Corticobulbar tract

216
Q

All of the precentral gyrus except the lateral portion give rise to the

A

Cortispinal tract

217
Q

Axons of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts are located in _ of the cerebral peduncle

A

The middle 1/3

218
Q

Where are the lower motor neurons of the corticospinal tract?

A

Ventral horn of the spinal cord

219
Q

Where are the upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract located?

A

Precentral gyrus

220
Q

The upper motor neuron axons of the corticospinal tract form the

A

Corticospinal tract

221
Q

The axons of the lower motor neurons of the corticospinal tract form the

A

Ventral root

222
Q

Axons from pyramidal neurons in layer 5 of the periphery grove rise to

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

223
Q

The precentral gyrus contains the

A

primary motor cortex

224
Q

Corticospinal and corticobulbar tract axons descend in

A

The posterior limb and the gene of the internal capsule, respectively

225
Q

The corticospinal tracts and corticobulbar tracts descend in the _ of the cerebral peduncles

A

Middle 1/3

226
Q

Where are the cerebral peduncles are located

A

On the ventral surface of the midbrain

227
Q

The corticospinal tract is somewhat dorsal in the _ but ventral in the _ and _

A

Pons
Midbrain, medulla

228
Q

The corticospinal tract crosses in the _

A

Pyramidal decussation of the caudal medulla

229
Q

Pathway of the corticospinal axons

A

Descent in corticospinal tract
Decussation in the caudal medulla
Becomes lateral corticospinal tract as it travels to lateral funiculus of spinal cord

230
Q

The lateral corticospinal tract primary influences

A

Lateral LMNs

231
Q

The ventral corticospinal tract primarily influences

A

Medial LMNs

232
Q

Most corticobulbar projections are bilateral except

A

Facial motor nucleus of the pons- partial bilateral input (control forehead) and completely crossed input (neurons controlling lower face)

Hypoglossal nucleus receives contralateral input from the corticobulbar tract

233
Q

The hypoglossal nucleus of the medulla receives primarily _ input from the corticobulbar axons

A

Contralateral

234
Q

Craniobulbar lesion vs CN VII lesion

A

CN VII lesion- cannot wrinkle forehead
corticobulbar lesion- can wrinkle forehead

235
Q

Corticobulbar tracts do not extend past

236
Q

Corticospinal tracts get smaller as it extends _

A

Causally toward the spinal cord

237
Q

The frontal eye fields mediate

A

Lateral gaze and saccades

238
Q

Frontal eye fields project to contralateral

239
Q

The PPRF projects to ipsilateral

A

CN nuclei III, IV, VI via MLF

240
Q

Internuclear neurons in abducens nucleus project to the

A

contralateral occulomotor nucleus via MLF to the coordinate lateral and medial recuts muscles

241
Q

Brainstem upper motor neurons receive input from _ and project to _

A

Cerebral cortex
Lower motor neurons

242
Q

Brainstem upper motor neurons

A

Superior colliculus- tectospinal tract
Red nucleus- Rubrospinal tract
Vestibular nuclei-vestibulospinal tracts
Reticular formation- reticulospinal tracts

243
Q

Propriospinal pathways

A

Communication between different segments of spinal cord allowing for movement coordination

244
Q

Neurons in the superior colliculus (UMNs) project to the contralateral spinal cord via _ and influence _

A

Tectospinal tract (travels in the ventral funiculus)
Medial LMNs

245
Q

Neurons of the red nucleus of the midbrain project to the contralateral spinal cord via _ and influence _

A

Rubrospinal tract (travel in lateral funiculus)
Influence lateral LMNs (facilitate flexion of upper extremities)

246
Q

Vestibular nuclei project to the spinal cord via

A

Vestibulospinal tracts (travel in the ventral funiculus)
Medial- projects bilateral from medial vestibular nuclei to medial LMNs, end at cervical levels
Lateral- projects ipsilaterally from lateral vestibular nucleus to lateral LMNs, facilitates extensors and postural stability

247
Q

Neurons in the reticular formation project to the spinal cord via _ and facilitates _

A

Ventral funiculus
Postural control

248
Q

Voluntary control of limbs, especially fine movements of the hands

A

Corticospinal

249
Q

Voluntary control of facial movement, chewing swallowing and speech

A

Corticobulbar

250
Q

Coordination of head and neck with eye movements

A

Tectospinal

251
Q

Facilitation of upper limb flexors

A

Rubrospinal

252
Q

Facilitation of extensors, postural stability

A

Lateral vestibulospinal
Pontine reticulospinal

253
Q

Inhibition of spinal segment reflexes

A

Medullary reticulospinal

254
Q

ALS results in

A

Degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons (degeneration of corticospinal tracts)
Gain of function mutation in SOD1 gene

255
Q

A reflex arc consists of

A

Afferent limb and efferent limb

256
Q

A sensory neuron either synapses _ or _

A

Directly on lower motor neuron
Interneuron that synapse on lower motor neuron

257
Q

A functioning upper motor neuron is not necessary to elicit

A

A reflex (may result in abnormal reflex)

258
Q

The neuronal cell body responsible for afferent limb of spinal cord reflex is in

A

Dorsal root ganglion

259
Q

The neuronal cell body responsible for efferent limb of spinal cord reflex is in

A

Anterior (ventral horn

260
Q

Medial muscles are represented in the _ ventral horn
Lateral muscles are represented in the _ ventral horn
Flexors are represented _ within the ventral horn
Extensors are represented _ within the ventral horn

A

Medial
Lateral
Dorsally
Ventrally

261
Q

The afferent limb of the spinal can involve sensory info from

A

Muscle spindles, golgi tendon organs, or pain receptors

262
Q

Pain may stimulate a _ reflex

A

Withdrawal

263
Q

Flexor withdrawal reflex

A

Pain info enters dorsal horn
Interneuron process leads to either motor excitation or inhibition
Activation of flexors on same size as pain and extensors on opposite side

264
Q

Components of stretch reflex

A

Afferent: DRG peripheral process in contact muscle spindle and central process in contact with inter neurons or lower motor neurons in ventral horn
Efferent: lower motor neurons in the ventral horn with axons that innervate muscles

265
Q

Sensory receptors of muscles and tendons

A

Golgi tendons
Muscle tendons

266
Q

Motor neurons of muscles and tendons

A

Alpha (extrafusal)- movement
Gamma (intrafusal)- cause contraction allowing muscle spindles to respond to change in extrafusal muscle

267
Q

Damage to upper motor neurons _ lower motor neurons resulting in _ stretch reflexes

A

Disinhibits
Increased

268
Q

Re-emergence if Babinski sign in adults is indicative of

A

Upper motor damage

269
Q

Bladder control

A

Autonomic reflex involving the spinal cord descending input from the brain

270
Q

Reflex incontinence occurs when

A

Spinal cord in completely damages from rostral to sacral levels
No way to control reflex because you have no sensory input

271
Q

_ spinal cord lesions can destroy the spinal micturation reflex

272
Q

Lesions _ causes decorticate posturing

A

Above the red nuclei

273
Q

lesions _ cause decerebrate posturing

A

Below the red nuclei but above the vestibular nuclei

274
Q

The basal ganglia are involved in

A

Cognition
Emotion
Movement

275
Q

The caudate, putmen, and accumbens

276
Q

Putmen and globes pallidus

A

Lenticular nucleus

277
Q

The caudate nucleus is found

A

Within the lateral ventricle

278
Q

The globus pallidus is divided into

A

Globus pallidus externa and interna

279
Q

_ is the part of the limbic system involved in addiction

A

Nucleus accumbens

280
Q

What seperates the external and extreme capsules

281
Q

What supplies the basal ganglia

A

Lenticulostriate arteries (branch off of middle cerebral arteries)

282
Q

The subthalamic nucleus is located

A

in the diencephalon ventral to the thalamus

283
Q

The substantia Niagara is located in

A

The mesencephalon

284
Q

The substantia Niagara produces _ and projects to the _ and _ via the _ pathway

A

Domaine
Caudate and putmen
Nigrostriatal pathway

285
Q

Damage to the substantia Niagara results in

A

Parkinson’s disease

286
Q

Huntingtons disease

A

Enlarged lateral ventricles due to degeneration of striatum
Behavior change, cognitive impairment, involuntary movements/neural rigidity (indirect pathway is disrupted)
Autosomal dominant (CAG repeat)= polyglutamine tracts, genetic anticipation

287
Q

Wilson disease

A

Copper accumulation in the basal ganglia
Kayser-Feisher Rings
Autosomal recessive, loss of function mutation in ATPB7

288
Q

What is the effect of a lesion of the subthalmic nucleus in the diencephalon

A

Hemiballismus (hyperkinetic movement on contralateral side of body

289
Q

Lesion of substantia nigra causes

A

Hypokinetic disorders like Parkinson’s

290
Q

Dopamine is excitatory for _ and inhibitory for _

A

D1 receptors (direct pathway)
D2 receptors (indirect pathway)

291
Q

Activation of the direct pathway _ from the cerebral cortex

A

Increases output

292
Q

Activation of the indirect pathway _ from the cerebral cortex

293
Q

Parkinson’s pathways

A

Death to neurons in the substantia nigra leads to decreased inhibition of globus pallidus interna and increased inhibition of globus pallidus externa leading to increase inhibition increased inhibition of the thalamus by globus pallidus interna and less output to the cerebral cortex leading to hypokinetic disorders

294
Q

Degradation of GABA neurons in the striatum causes

A

Huntington disease

295
Q

Inputs to the cerebellum

A

pons via middle cerebral peduncle
Spinal cord via inferior cerebral peduncle

296
Q

The cerebellum sends info to the _ via the _

A

Thalamus
Superior cerebellar peduncle

297
Q

Damage to the cerebellum causes

A

Ataxia and other forms of incoordination

298
Q

The cerebellar peduncles are

A

Collections of axons

299
Q

The vermis and paravermis make up the

A

Spinocerebellum

300
Q

Lateral cerebellar hemisphere

A

Cerebrocerebellum

301
Q

Flocculonodular lobe

A

Vestibulocerebellum

302
Q

The cerebellar cortex receives input from

A

Spinal cord, vestibular nuclei, inferior olive, pons

303
Q

Layers of the cerebellar cortex

304
Q

Mossy fibers terminate on

A

Granule cells

305
Q

Mossy and climbing fibers project contralaterally to

A

Deep nuclei

306
Q

Deep cerebellar nuclei project

A

Out of the cerebellum

307
Q

The inferior Olivia ray nucleus projects to the contralateral Purkinje cells via _ as _

A

The inferior cerebellar peduncle
Climbing fibers

308
Q

Axons originating from the frontal cerebral cortex travel in the _ of the cerebral peduncle

A

Medial 1/3

309
Q

Axons originating from the rest of the temporal lobe cortex travel in the _ of the cerebral peduncle

A

Lateral 1/3

310
Q

The superior cerebral peduncle is comprised of axons that leave the cerebellum from _ and decussate in the _

A

Dentate nucleus
Midbrain

311
Q

Blood supply of cerebellum:

A

Superior cerebellar artery- superior Cerebellum, superior cerebellar peduncle, part of middle cerebellar peduncle
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery - Ventral an inferior Cerebellum, middle cerebellar peduncle
Posterior cerebellar artery- inferior and posterior Cerebellum, inferior cerebellar peduncle

312
Q

Lesion of the vestibulocerebellum

A

Impaired balance and wide based gait
Nystagmus
Symptoms due to damage to vestibular system

313
Q

Lesions of the spinocerebellar pathways result in

A

Stomping gate due to lack of Proprioceptive information which makes patients unaware of where there legs and feet are without visual input

314
Q

Lesions of the cerebrocerebellum pathway

A

Intention tremor
Difficulty with skilled movements
Suptle nystagmus

315
Q

Other symptoms of cerebellar damage

A

Dysarthria
Abnormal swallowing

316
Q

Symptoms of lesions of cerebellar pathways will be _ to the side of the cerebellum

A

Ipsilateral

317
Q

Lateral Medullary syndrome

A

Stokes involving branch of vertebral artery or posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Ipsilateral pain and temp loss for the face
Contralateral pain and temp loss for body
Ataxia

318
Q

_ is a common cause of cerebellar damage

319
Q

Freidreich ataxia

A

Autosomal recessive
GAA trinucleutude repeat in intron 1 of MRDA gene
Accumulation of iron in mitochondria kills neurons with long axons
Spasticity loss of fine touch (corticospinal, tract), vibration (dorsal root ganglion loss), ataxia, including stopping gate (dorsal root ganglion and spinocerebellar tract loss)

320
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Loss of function mutation in ATM gene
Purkinje cells degenerate after birth leading to ataxia
Problems with balance, hand coordination, eye movements, and slurred speech

321
Q

Spinocerebellar ataxias

A

Autosomal dominant
Abnormal gait, incoordination of limbs, abnormal eye movements, degeneration of cerebellum

322
Q

The vestibular apparatus is located

A

Within the labyrinth of the temporal bone

323
Q

The orientation of the semicircular canals is different to

A

Allow for representation of the 3 special dimensions

324
Q

The vestibular apparatus consists of

A

Urticle, saccule, 3 semicircular ducts

325
Q

Sensory receptors for the vestibular apparatus are found

A

In five locations: 3 ampullae associated within the semicircular canals, the urticle, and the saccule

326
Q

The crisae within the three ampullae detect

A

Rotational acceleration

327
Q

The maculae within the urticle and the saccule detect

A

Linear acceleration and head position

328
Q

he air cells are the _ of the vestibular system and are found in both _ and _

A

Sensory receptors
Cristae of the ampullae and the maculae of the urticle and saccule

329
Q

Hair cells are embedded in the

A

Cupula of the ampullae

330
Q

The cristae of the ampullae detect

A

Rotary movement

331
Q

The maculae of the utricle and saccule detect

A

Linear motion and gravity
Utricle- acceleration in the horizontal plane
Saccule- acceleration in the verticals plane

332
Q

The vestibular nuclei are located

A

In the dorsal lateral medulla and pons

333
Q

The vestibular cortex is composed of

A

Parietal operculum and posterior insula

334
Q

_ is critical for coordinated movements

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

335
Q

The abducens nucleus projects to the contralateral occulomotor nucleus via _ so the muscles of the two eyes are in sync

336
Q

Which lobe of the cerebellum interacts with the vestibular system to produce coordinated eye movements

A

Flocculonodular lobe

337
Q

The lateral vestibulospinal tract facilitates

A

Extensor muscles

338
Q

Damage to the vestibulospinal system may cause difficulty with

A

Balance and motor coordination (ataxia)

339
Q

Disturbances of the vestibular system can result in

A

Nausea and vomiting (vomiting center in the medulla)

340
Q

The taste pathway is _

A

Ipsilateral

341
Q

What cranial nerves convey taste information

A

CN VII, IX, X

342
Q

All cranial nerves conveying taste information contribute to _ and terminate on _

A

Solitary tract
Solitary nucleus

343
Q

Taste buds are in

344
Q

How do taste buds work

A

Fluids enter taste port
Microvilli contain taste receptors (salty, sweet, bitter, sour, umami)
Receptor cells release transmitters onto afferent nerve fibers

345
Q

Ageusia

A

Absence of taste

346
Q

Hypogeusia

A

Decreased taste

347
Q

Dysgeusia

A

Abnormal taste

348
Q

The olfactory epithelium lines

A

The superior nasal concha

349
Q

Sustentacular cells are

A

Supporting cells near olfactory receptor cells

350
Q

Basal cells are

A

Stem cells that give rise to neurons in adults
Located in olfactory epithelium

351
Q

The axons of olfactory receptor neurons form the _ which protects to _ in the olfactory bulb

A

Olfactory nerve
Mitral cells

352
Q

Is the olfactory nerve myelinated?

A

No but it is ensheathed by Schwann cells

353
Q

The olfactory bulb is part of the

A

Telencephalon

354
Q

The olfactory stria form the

A

Olfactory trigone

355
Q

The amygdala projects to _ and is involved in _

A

Hypothalamus
Feeding behavior

356
Q

The piriform cortex is involved in

A

Fine discrimination of odors

357
Q

The entorhinal cortex is involved in

A

Associations between odors and memories

358
Q

Anosmia

A

Absence of smell

359
Q

Hyposmia

A

Decreased smell

360
Q

Dysosmia

A

Abnormal smell

361
Q

Kallmann’s syndrome

A

Anosmia (olfactory nerves do not enter brain
Hypogonadal

362
Q

Uncinate fits

A

Olfactory hallucinations
Feelings of unreality

363
Q

Olfactory nerve transection

A

Loss of smell

364
Q

Age related loss of olfactory receptor neurons

A

Diminished smell (hyposmia)

365
Q

Loss of smell is one of the first signs of

A

Parkinson’s
Alzheimer’s
Other forms of dementia
Distinguishing sign of COVID

366
Q

How does COVID affect olfaction

A

Infection of sustentacular cells where virus replicates

367
Q

Unilateral deafness implies

A

Unilateral lesion of cochlear nuclei, CN VIII or the choclea

368
Q

The cochlear duct contains

369
Q

Ménière’s disease

A

Excessive amounts of endolymph
Low frequency ringing, hearing loss and dizziness
Only one ear is affected

370
Q

Organ of Corti

A

Contains hair cells which transducer sound waves into neural signals

371
Q

What type of ganglion cells are in the spiral ganglion

A

Bipolar type I ganglion cells

372
Q

What type of cells are in teh superior Olivia ray complex

A

Unipolar type II ganglion cells in the spiral ganglion

373
Q

Damage to hair cells can result in

A

Hearing loss

374
Q

Intensity

375
Q

Frequency

376
Q

High frequencies are represented at the _ of the cochlea while low frequencies are at the _

A

Base (often loose ability to hear high frequencies with age, also sensitive to toxic drug effects
Apex

377
Q

What causes bilateral hearing loss

A

Aging, toxicity, genetic factors

378
Q

Most frequent mutation in deaf individuals

A

gap junction protein beta 2 (disruption of hair cell function)

379
Q

What kills hair cells?

A

Loud noises

380
Q

CN VIII enters the brainstem at the _ and terminates

A

Junction between the medulla and the pons
Cochlear nuclei

381
Q

The caudate nucleus is separated from the putamen by

A

Anterior limb of internal capsule

382
Q

In Huntington disease the _ are among the earlies to degenerate

A

Caudate and the putamen

383
Q

Huntington disease

A

Autosomal dominant
Gain of function mutation in HTT
Symptoms include chorea

384
Q

The putamen and globus pallidus are seperated from the thalamus by the

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsule

385
Q

The claustrum seperates the

A

External and extreme capsule

386
Q

Where is the amygdala located

A

Anterior temporal lobe

387
Q

The striatum receives inputs from the

A

Cerebral cortex via corticostriatal pathway
Substantia nigra via nigrostriatal pathway

388
Q

Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra causes

A

Parkinson’s disease (problems initiating movements and resting tremor)

389
Q

Unilateral damage of the subthalamic nucleus can result in

A

Hemiballismus (flinging of the contralateral arm)

390
Q

Wilson disease

A

Signs related to damage to basal ganglia
Autosomal recessive
Loss of function in ATP7B
Abnormal accumulation of copper
Kayser-Fleuscher rings

391
Q

Lesion of the subthalamic nucleus

A

Hemiballismus (sudden, violent, involuntary movements of limb on contralateral side)

392
Q

Function of the vestibular system

A

Sensory and motor components that provide information about the position of the head in three dimensional space to the brain
Coordinates eye movements and maintains balance

393
Q

Damage to the vestibular system cause

A

Dizziness, vertigo, imbalance, and nystagmus

394
Q

Three semicircular canals

A

Anterior, posterior, lateral

395
Q

Sensory cells are located

A

3 crystal ampullarii in each semicircular canal
2 maculae associated with the utricle and saccule

396
Q

What structures detect movement

A

Hair cells

397
Q

Sensory information from the vestibular nuclei travels to the cerebellum via inferior cerebellar peduncle

398
Q

Four deep nuclei of the cerebellum

A

Dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

399
Q

Damage to the vermis results in

A

Truncus ataxia

400
Q

Damage to the cerebellar hemispheres

A

Impairs skilled movements especially involving the hands (dysmetria)

401
Q

The three main cellular layers in the cerebellar cortex are the

A

Molecular, Purkinje, and granule

402
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

Purkinje cells degenerate in children as a result of a loss of function mutation in ATM gene

403
Q

Damage from the dentate nucleus to the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus results in

A

Intention tremor

404
Q

Where is the reticular formation located

A

Core of midbrain, medulla, and pons

405
Q

The dendites of the reticular formation

A

Respond to extreme stimuli

406
Q

Where are the gaze centers located?

A

In the reticular formation
Midbrain- INC, riMLF (vertical gaze)
Pons- PPRF (horizontal gaze)

407
Q

The reticular formation acts as _ and projects to _

A

UMN
LMN in the spinal cord

408
Q

The reticular formation coordinates rhythmic movements such as walking via the

A

Reticulospinal tract

409
Q

What controls swallowing?

A

Swallowing centers in the reticular formation

410
Q

Emesis is controlled by

A

Vomiting centers in the reticular formation of the medulla

411
Q

The vomiting center can be activated by

A

Strong emotion (limbic system)
Vertigo (vestibular system)
Chemicals from the blood (chemoreceptor trigger zone)
Visceral afferents (from the vagus)

412
Q

The vomiting center coordinates emesis by

A

Causing closure of pharynx, larynx, glottis (via nucleus ambiguus)
Gastrointestinal chances (via dorsal motor vagus)
Respiratory changes (ventral respiratory group, another reticular formation center)

413
Q

Micturition is controlled by

A

A center in the pontine reticular formation

414
Q

Voluntary control of micturition

A

Frontal lobe receives sensory information from thalamus about bladder state
The pontine micturition center (reticular formation) receives input from the cerebral cortex and communicates with the spinal cord to trigger emptying of the bladder

415
Q

Reticular formation role in respiration and cardiac function

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract receives chemo sensory information relevant to cardiac and resp function
Cardiac info is transferred to rostral ventral lateral medulla (reticular formation) which sends input to the IML to exert sympathetic control
Cardiac info is transferred to nucleus ambiguus (exerts parasympathetic function via vagus)
respiratory info is sent to the rostral ventral respiratory group (reticular formation) which projects to the phrenic nucleus via the spinal cord

416
Q

Locus coeruleus

A

Located in pons, lateral to fourth ventricle
Releases noradrenalin (wakefulness, increased attention response, learning)

417
Q

Serotonin-containing neurons

A

Found in the raphe nuclei of the midbrain, pons, and medulla
Involved in sleep-wake cycle
Lesion or impairment causes insomnia
Also important for mood

418
Q

Pedunculopontine and laterodorsal tegmental nuclei

A

Acetylcholine pathways
Located in the midbrain and project to diencephalon and brainstem

419
Q

Medial septal nucleus

A

Acetylcholine pathway
Projects to the hippocampal formation

420
Q

The nucleus basalis

A

Acetylcholine pathway
Projects widely within the cerebral cortex

421
Q

Acetylcholinergic

A

Acetylcholine pathway
Projections important in mood, sleep, learning

422
Q

Where is the nucleus basalis located

A

Ventral to the anterior commissure and ventral pallidum

423
Q

The ascending reticular activating system projects to

A

Hypothalamus and thalamus

424
Q

The reticular formation is important for

A

Sleep regulation

425
Q

Orexin is involved in

A

Wakefulness and appetite
Mutation= narcolepsy

426
Q

Melatonin regulates

A

Circadian rhythms

427
Q

The primary somatosensory cortex corresponds to

A

Postcentral gyrus

428
Q

Premotor cortex corresponds to

A

Caudal portion of middle frontal gyrus

429
Q

Primary auditory cortex corresponds

A

Anterior transverse temporal gyrus

430
Q

Primary visual cortex corresponds to

A

Cuneate and lingual gyri

431
Q

Supplementary motor cortex corresponds to

A

Caudal portion of superior frontal gyrus

432
Q

3 types of cerebral cortex

A

Archicortex (3 layers, hippocamplal formation)
Paleocortex (3-4 layers, olfactory cortex)
Neocortex (6 layers, majority of cerebral cortex

433
Q

Brodmann’s areas

434
Q

Layers of cerebral cortex

435
Q

Information is processed by

A

Columns in the cerebral cortex

436
Q

3 main types of projections involving cerebral cortex

A

Projection fiber bundles: connect cortex with sub cortical structures
Commissural bundles: connect two cerebral hemispheres
Association bundles: connect one area of cortex with another area in the same hemisphere

437
Q

The anterior commisure connects

A

Olfactory and limbic structures
connects two olfactory bulbs and the two amygdala

438
Q

Most information is transmitted between left and right cerebral hemispheres via

A

corpus callosum

439
Q

Parts of the corpus callosum and their connections

A

Forceps minor fiber bundle in the genu- connects frontal lobes
Rostrum fibers- orbital regions
Body- connect parietal and temporal lobes
Forceps major fiber bundle in the splenium- connects occipital lobes

440
Q

The left hemisphere is usually dominant for

441
Q

The right hemisphere does

A

Visual special processing
Facial recognition

442
Q

_ is responsible for expressive speech and is located primary within the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere

A

Broca’s area

443
Q

_ is responsible for receptive speech and is located primarily in the superior temporal gyrus close to the parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

A

Wernicke’s area

444
Q

Planum temporal

A

Higher order processing center for sound

445
Q

Wernicke and Broca’s areas are connected by

A

Arcuate fasciculus
Lesions result in conduction aphasia

446
Q

Prosody is primarily represented in

A

Right hemisphere

447
Q

What connects adjacent gyri

A

Short association fiber, arcuate fibers, or adjacent gyri

448
Q

The uncinate fasciculus connects limbic structures in the

A

Temporal lobe with the frontal lobe

449
Q

The cingulum connects the _ with _

A

Cingulate gyrus
Limbic

450
Q

Reading involves multiple areas of the brain

A

Inferior frontal gyrus- vocalization, articulation
Parieto-temporal- word analysis
Occipito-temporal- word recognition, automaticity

451
Q

People with dyslexia have a greater reliance on structures in the _ lobe

452
Q

Some dyslexia has been associated with a neuronal migration disorder called

A

Periventricular nodular heteropia

453
Q

Gerstmann Syndrome

A

Dysgraphia
Dyscalculia
Finger agnosia
Left right confusion
Lesion on angular gyrus of dominant hemisphere

454
Q

Hemineglect

A

Lesion in parietal cerebral cortex causes patient to disregard opposite side

455
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Facial blindness
Damage to right fusiform gyrus

456
Q

Types of dementia resulting from damage to the cerebral cortex

457
Q

The autonomic nervous system is also known as the

A

General visceral efferent system

458
Q

The ANS acts on

A

Cardiac and smooth muscle as well as organs

459
Q

ANS divisions

A

Parasympathetic
Sympathetic

460
Q

The parasympathetic system has _ preganglionic axons and _ postganglionic axons

A

Long
Short

461
Q

The sympathetic system has _ preganglionic axons and _ postganglionic axons

462
Q

ANS preganglionic neurotransmitter

463
Q

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter

464
Q

ANS sympathetic nervous system postganglionic neurotransmitters

A

NE- most tissues
Ach- sweat glands
Adrenal medulla- releases epinephrine or norepinephrine

465
Q

The cell bodies of postganglionic neurons are located in

A

Autonomic ganglia (multipolar)

466
Q

What controls the sympathetic and parasympathic nervous systems via projections to preganglionic neurons

A

Hypothalamospinal tract

467
Q

Preganglionic neuronal cell bodies of the ANS are located in the _ while postganglionic cell bodies are located in the

468
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the _

A

IMLCC at T1-L2

469
Q

Preganglionic myelinated neuron axons exit in the _ and travel in the _ before terminating in _

A

Ventral roots
White ramus
Paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia

470
Q

Postganglionic neurons are located in _ and their unmyelinated axons travel within the _

A

Paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia
Gray ramus

471
Q

Sympathetic nervous system
Postganglionic neurons are _
Axons are _ and travel in _
They release _ as their neurotransmitter

A

Multipolar
Unmyelinated, gray ramus
Noradrenaline

472
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate sweat glands release _

473
Q

Central horners syndrome

A

Miosis, ptosis, anhydrous is

474
Q

The hypothalamus controls the adrenal gland in two ways

A

Short term- ANS
Long term- endocrine

475
Q

Preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are located

A

In the brainstem and sacral spinal cord

476
Q

The _ is located in the occulomotor complex in the midbrain and is responsible for constricting pupils

A

Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal (preganglionic parasympathic neurons)
Ciliary ganglion (postganglionic parasympathetic neurons)

477
Q

Lacrimation and salivation

A

Superior salivatory nucleus is located in the pons (preganglionic)
Pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia (postganglionic)
Also under control of hypothalamus

478
Q

Dorsal motor nucleus of the Vagus

A

Medulla
Control lung, hearing, gastrointestinal

479
Q

Parasympathic postganglionic neurons are

A

Multipolar, unmyelinated

480
Q

Presynaptic fibers of the sympathetics synapse

A

Paravertebral ganglia or prevertebral ganglia

481
Q

Pathways in the sympathetic chain

A

Ascend then synapse (head, cardiopulmonary, neck, upper limb)
Synapse at level (thoracic cardiopulmonary)
Descend then synapse (spinal nerves to lower trunk and lower limb)
Bypass to synapse in the prevertebral ganglia (innervation for abdominopelvis viscera)

482
Q

Parasympathetics

A

Craniosacral system

483
Q

Presynaptic parasympathetic fibers

A

Very long
Most synapse with postsynaptic cell bodies in or all wall or target organ
EXCEPTIONS: ciliary, pterygopalatine, optic, submandibular

484
Q

The suprarenal gland uses _ as a postsynaptic neurotransmitter

A

Epinephrine

485
Q

Does the skin have Parasympathetics

486
Q

Skin sympathetics

A

Gray rami to periphreal nerve
Contracts arrector pili (Ach/NE) , Vascoconstrictiion (Ach/NE), Increases sweating (Ach/Ach)

487
Q

Eyes sympathetics

A

Carotid plexus to long and short ciliary nerves
Dilation of pupils (Ach/NE)

488
Q

Eyes Parasympathetics

A

CN III to ciliary ganglion to short ciliary nerve
Constricts pupil
Contracts ciliary muscle (accommodation)
(Ach/Ach)

489
Q

Lacrimal glands sympathetics

A

Carotid plexus to
-deep petrosal nerve
-nerve of Pterygoid canal
-maxillary nerve
-zygomatic nerve
-lacrimal nerve
Descreases secretion due to vasoconstriction
(Ach/NE)

490
Q

Lacrimal glands Parasympathetics

A

CN VII to nerve of pterygoid canal to pterygopalatine ganglion (synapse)
Promotes secretion
(Ach/Ach)

491
Q

Salivary gland sympathetic

A

Via carotid plexus
Decreases secretion due to vascoconstriction
Thicker secretions
(Ach/NE)

492
Q

Salivary glands Parasympathetics

A

CN IX to optic ganglion
CN VII to submandibular ganglion
Follows branches of mandibular nerve
Makes secretions more abundant and fluid
(Ach/Ach)

493
Q

Heart Sympathetics

A

Cervical and upper thoracic sympathetic ganglia to cardiac plexus
Increases heart rate
Increases strength of contraction
Dilates coronary vessels
(Ach/NE)

494
Q

Heart Parasympathetics

A

Vagus nerve to the cardiac plexus
Decreases heart rate
Weaker contractions
Constriction of coronary vessels
(Ach/Ach)

495
Q

Lungs Sympathetics

A

Upper thoracic sympathetic ganglia to pulmonary plexus
Inhibits parasympathic effects
Constriction of vessels
(Ach/NE)

496
Q

Lungs parasympathics

A

Vagus nerve to pulmonary plexus
Constriction of bronchi
Bronchial secretion
(Ach/Ach)

497
Q

Splanchnic nerves

A

Carry autonomic supply to and from viscera
Cardiopulmonary- postsynaptic sympathetic to heart and lungs
Abdominopelvic- Presynaptic sympathetic to prevertebral ganglia
-greater- to celiac ganglia
-lesser- to superior mesenteric and aorticorenal ganglia
-least- to renal plexus
-lumbar- to inferior mesenteric ganglia
Sacral- Presynaptic sympathetic to pelvic viscera
Pelvic- Presynaptic parasympathics to lower digestive and pelvic viscera

498
Q

Suprarenal medulla sympathetics

A

T10-L1 spinal cord
Through Paravertebral ganglia
Splanchnic nerves
Through prevertebral ganglia
Synapses in suprarenal medulla
Releases epinephrine directly into bloodstream
(Ach/Epi)

499
Q

Suprarenal medulla Parasympathetics

500
Q

Digestive tract sympathies

A

Splanchnic nerves to prevertebral ganglia
Decreases peristalsis
Reduces blood supply
Contracts internal anal sphincter
(Ach/NE)

501
Q

Digestive tract sympathetics

A

Vagus and pelvic Splanchnic nerves
Promotes peristalsis
Increases digestive juices
Allows for defecation
(Ach/Ach)

502
Q

Urinary tract Sympathetics

A

Splanchnic nerves to prevertebral ganglia
Decreases urine formation
Maintains urinary continence
(Ach/NE)

503
Q

Urinary tract Parasympathetics

A

Vagus nerve and pelvic Splanchnic nerves
Contracts bladder wall
Relaxes internal sphincter of the bladder
(Ach/Ach)

504
Q

Liver and gallbladder sympathetics

A

Splanchnic nerves to prevertebral ganglia
Activates glycogenolysis
(Ach/NE)

505
Q

Liver and gallbladder Parasympathetics

A

Vagus nerve
Promotes conservation of glycogen
Increases bile secretion
(Ach/Ach)

506
Q

Genital system sympathetics

A

Splanchnic nerves to inferior hypogestric plexus
Causes ejaculation
Decreases erection
(Ach/NE)

507
Q

Genital system Parasympathetics

A

Pelvic Splanchnic nerves
Increases erection
(Ach/Ach)

508
Q

Sympathetic lesions

A

Oculosympathetic palsy
Ptosis
Miosis
Anhidrosis
Enophthalmos

509
Q

Parasympathetic lesion

A

CN III- enlarged pupil
CN VII- dry eyes
CN VII/IX- dry mouth

510
Q

Hypothalamus function

A

Control ANS
Control endocrine
Memory formation
Maintain homeostasis

511
Q

Anterior hypothalamus contains

A

Paraventricular nucleus
Supraoptic nucleus
Suprachiasmatic nucleus

512
Q

SON and PVN

A

Vasopressin/oxytocin containing mango cellular neurons
Project to posterior pituitary which releases vasopressin and oxytocin into general circulation

PVN also has parvocellular neurons which project to the median eminence and release TRH and CRH

513
Q

SCN

A

Receives input from the retina
Project to area ventral to PVN
Involved in circadian rhythm