NEUROCOGNITIVE

Question 1

1. Which organization defines intellectual disability as a condition characterized by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior that emerges before the age of 18 years?
   a) DSM-5
   b) World Health Organization (WHO)
   c) American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disability (AAIDD)
   d) American Psychological Association (APA)

Answer 1

c) American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disability (AAIDD)

Rationale: The definition specified in the question is provided by AAIDD. It focuses on intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior emerging before 18 years.

Question 2

2. Intellectual Disability was formerly referred to as:
   a) Dementia
   b) Cognitive Disorder
   c) Mental Retardation
   d) Learning Disability

Answer 2

c) Mental Retardation

Rationale: Historically, Intellectual Disability was termed as Mental Retardation. However, this terminology has been updated to use a more respectful and appropriate term.

Question 3

3. Which of the following is NOT a domain of adaptive functioning?
   a) Conceptual
   b) Practical
   c) Imaginative
   d) Social

Answer 3

c) Imaginative

Rationale: Adaptive functioning comprises three domains: conceptual, practical, and social. Imaginative is not a recognized domain in this context.

Question 4

5. What does DSM-5 stand for?
   a) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Disorders, 5th Edition
   b) Diagnostic and Statistical Measurement of Disorders, 5th Edition
   c) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition
   d) Diagnostic and Systematic Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition

Answer 4

c) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition

Rationale: The DSM-5 is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition. It’s a standard classification of mental disorders used by mental health professionals.

Question 4

4. The onset of Intellectual Disability occurs during which period?
   a) Adulthood
   b) Developmental
   c) Elderly years
   d) Anytime

Answer 4

b) Developmental

Rationale: Intellectual Disability has its onset during the developmental period.

Question 4

6. Which severity level of Intellectual Disability is considered the most severe?
   a) Mild
   b) Moderate
   c) Severe
   d) Profound

Answer 4

d) Profound

Rationale: Among the provided options, “Profound” represents the highest level of severity for Intellectual Disability.

Question 4

7. Rosa’s Law replaced which term with “Intellectual Disability”?
   a) Intellectual Inability
   b) Mental Degradation
   c) Mental Retardation
   d) Cognitive Dysfunction

Answer 4

c) Mental Retardation

Rationale: Rosa’s Law, in the U.S., replaced the term “Mental Retardation” with “Intellectual Disability”.

Question 5

8. Deficits in which area can confirm an Intellectual Disability through both clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing?
   a) Adaptive functions
   b) Physical abilities
   c) Intellectual functions
   d) Emotional understanding

Answer 5

c) Intellectual functions

Rationale: The DSM-5 criteria state that deficits in intellectual functions, such as reasoning and problem-solving, are confirmed by clinical assessment and standardized intelligence testing.

Question 6

9. Which statute in the United States replaced the term ‘mental retardation’ with ‘intellectual disability’?
   a) Smith’s Law
   b) Brown’s Law
   c) Rosa’s Law
   d) White’s Law

Answer 6

c) Rosa’s Law

Rationale: Rosa’s Law is the federal statute in the United States that mandated the replacement of the term ‘mental retardation’ with ‘intellectual disability’.

Question 7

10. According to DSM-5 criteria, without ongoing support, adaptive deficits limit functioning in one or more activities of daily life, such as:
    a) Abstract thinking
    b) Learning from experience
    c) Communication
    d) Academic learning

Answer 7

c) Communication

Rationale: Per the DSM-5, adaptive deficits, without continuous support, can impede functions in daily life activities, including communication.

Question 8

1. At which level of intellectual disability can an individual typically achieve academic skills up to approximately the sixth-grade level by their late teens?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 8

d) Mild

Rationale: Individuals with mild intellectual disability can typically learn academic skills up to approximately the sixth-grade level by their late teens.

Question 9

2. Which level of intellectual disability is often not distinguishable from normal until a later age in preschool years?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 9

d) Mild

Rationale: Individuals with mild intellectual disability may appear normal in their developmental milestones during the early years and might not be distinguishable until later.

Question 10

3. At which developmental stage might individuals with profound intellectual disability show some motor and speech development?
   a) Preschool Age
   b) School Age
   c) Adult

Answer 10

b) School Age

Rationale: During school age, individuals with profound intellectual disability may demonstrate some motor and speech development.

Question 11

4. Which level of intellectual disability allows individuals to usually achieve social and vocational skills adequate for minimal self-support during adulthood?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 11

d) Mild

Rationale: Adults with mild intellectual disability can usually achieve the necessary social and vocational skills for minimal self-support.

Question 12

5. In which age group are individuals with severe intellectual disability generally unable to profit from training in self-help?
   a) Preschool Age
   b) School Age
   c) Adult

Answer 12

a) Preschool Age

Rationale: During preschool age, individuals with severe intellectual disability typically show poor motor development and are generally unable to profit from training in self-help.

Question 13

6. At the moderate level of intellectual disability, individuals can profit from training in which skills during school age?
   a) Social and occupational skills
   b) Advanced academic skills
   c) Vocational training
   d) Self-maintenance without supervision

Answer 13

a) Social and occupational skills

Rationale: During school age, individuals with moderate intellectual disability can profit from training in social and occupational skills.

Question 14

7. Which level of intellectual disability requires constant aid and supervision during preschool age?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 14

a) Profound

Rationale: Individuals with profound intellectual disability need constant aid and supervision, especially during their early developmental years.

Question 15

8. In adulthood, individuals with which level of intellectual disability may need guidance and assistance under unusual social or economic stress?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 15

d) Mild

Rationale: Adults with mild intellectual disability can typically achieve self-support but may require guidance and assistance when faced with uncommon social or economic stressors.

Question 16

9. Which level of intellectual disability in adults can typically develop self-protection skills to a minimal useful level in a controlled environment?
   a) Profound
   b) Severe
   c) Moderate
   d) Mild

Answer 16

b) Severe

Rationale: Adults with severe intellectual disability can develop self-protection skills to a minimal useful level when in a controlled environment.

Question 17

10. During which developmental stage can individuals with moderate intellectual disability often travel alone in familiar places?
    a) Preschool Age
    b) School Age
    c) Adult

Answer 17

b) School Age

Rationale: During the school age, individuals with moderate intellectual disability may learn and become capable of traveling alone in places they are familiar with.

Question 18

1. What is the estimated range for the prevalence of intellectual disability in developing countries?
   a) 1 to 3 per 1,000 children
   b) 5 to 8 per 1,000 children
   c) 10 to 15 per 1,000 children
   d) 20 to 25 per 1,000 children

Answer 18

c) 10 to 15 per 1,000 children

Rationale: In developing countries, the prevalence of intellectual disability is typically between 10 to 15 per 1,000 children.

Question 19

2. In Western societies, the prevalence of intellectual disability is estimated to be what percentage of the population?
   a) Less than 1%
   b) 1 to 3%
   c) 4 to 6%
   d) 7 to 9%

Answer 19

b) 1 to 3%

Rationale: In Western societies, intellectual disability affects an estimated 1 to 3% of the population.

Question 20

3. During which age range is the incidence of intellectual disability reported to be the highest?
   a) 1 to 5 years
   b) 5 to 9 years
   c) 10 to 14 years
   d) 15 to 19 years

Answer 20

c) 10 to 14 years

Rationale: The peak incidence of intellectual disability is observed in school-age children, especially between 10 to 14 years.

Question 21

4. Intellectual disability is more common in which gender?
   a) Females
   b) Males

Answer 21

b) Males

Rationale: Intellectual disability is approximately 1.5 times more prevalent in males than in females.

Question 22

5. Which factor is NOT typically associated with the etiology of intellectual disability? a) Chromosomal abnormalities b) Prenatal exposure to toxins c) Postnatal nutrition d) Prenatal trauma, such as prematurity

Answer 22

c) Postnatal nutrition Rationale: While nutrition can impact cognitive development, the given factors specifically cited for intellectual disability's etiology were genetic causes, prenatal exposure, and prenatal trauma.

Question 23

6. Which of the following is a potential genetic cause for intellectual disability? a) Prenatal exposure to infections b) Sociocultural factors c) Chromosomal abnormalities d) Prenatal trauma

Answer 23

c) Chromosomal abnormalities Rationale: Genetic causes for intellectual disability include chromosomal abnormalities and inherited conditions.

Question 24

7. Sociocultural factors can be classified under which category of etiological factors for intellectual disability? a) Genetic b) Developmental c) Environmental or acquired d) Prenatal exposure

Answer 24

c) Environmental or acquired Rationale: Sociocultural factors are considered environmental or acquired factors that can lead to intellectual disability.

Question 25

8. Prenatal exposure to which of the following can contribute to intellectual disability? a) Fresh air b) Infections c) Nutritious food d) Physical exercises

Answer 25

b) Infections Rationale: Prenatal exposures to infections and toxins are potential developmental and environmental contributors to intellectual disability.

Question 26

9. Inherited conditions leading to intellectual disability are examples of: a) Genetic factors b) Environmental factors c) Sociocultural factors d) Prenatal exposure factors

Answer 26

a) Genetic factors Rationale: Inherited conditions that result in intellectual disability are classified under genetic causes.

Question 27

10. Which of the following does NOT contribute to intellectual disability? a) Chromosomal abnormalities b) Prenatal exposure to alcohol c) Proper postnatal nutrition d) Prenatal trauma

Answer 27

c) Proper postnatal nutrition Rationale: Proper postnatal nutrition is generally beneficial for cognitive development and is not a contributing factor to intellectual disability. On the contrary, it can help in promoting better cognitive outcomes.

Question 28

1. Which gene mutation is known to cause Fragile X syndrome, a well-known cause of intellectual disability? a) BRCA1 b) FMR1 c) TP53 d) CFTR

Answer 28

b) FMR1 Rationale: Fragile X syndrome is caused by mutations in the FMR1 gene. It's one of the most recognized single gene causes of intellectual disability.

Question 29

2. Fragile X syndrome is significant because it is: a) The least common X-linked gene associated with intellectual disability. b) An autosomal dominant condition. c) The first identified and most common X-linked gene directly causing intellectual disability. d) Only present in females.

Answer 29

c) The first identified and most common X-linked gene directly causing intellectual disability. Rationale: Fragile X syndrome is notably the first identified and most common X-linked gene that is directly linked to intellectual disability.

Question 30

3. Abnormalities in which type of chromosomes are frequently linked with intellectual disability? a) Mitochondrial chromosomes b) Sex chromosomes c) Autosomes (autosomal chromosomes) d) All of the above

Answer 30

c) Autosomes (autosomal chromosomes) Rationale: While abnormalities in autosomal chromosomes often correlate with intellectual disability, variations in sex chromosomes typically lead to distinctive physical syndromes without intellectual disability.

Question 31

4. Variations in which type of chromosomes generally result in distinct physical syndromes but not necessarily intellectual disability? a) Mitochondrial chromosomes b) Sex chromosomes c) Autosomes (autosomal chromosomes) d) None of the above

Answer 31

b) Sex chromosomes Rationale: Aberrations in sex chromosomes can lead to distinctive physical syndromes, but these do not always include intellectual disability.

Question 32

5. If a genetic condition is referred to as "X-linked", it means the gene causing the condition is located on which chromosome? a) Chromosome 21 b) An autosomal chromosome c) Y chromosome d) X chromosome

Answer 32

d) X chromosome Rationale: An "X-linked" genetic condition signifies that the gene responsible for the condition is situated on the X chromosome.

Question 33

1. Which chromosome is associated with Down syndrome due to the presence of an extra copy? a) Chromosome 20 b) Chromosome 21 c) Chromosome 23 d) Chromosome 15

Answer 33

b) Chromosome 21 Rationale: Down syndrome arises from an extra copy of chromosome 21, which is central to the disorder's genetic basis.

Question 34

2. Who first described Down syndrome based on physical characteristics? a) Gregor Mendel b) Watson and Crick c) Langdon Down d) Rosalind Franklin

Answer 34

c) Langdon Down Rationale: The English physician Langdon Down first described Down syndrome in 1866.

Question 35

3. Recent studies on Down syndrome suggest what about postnatal interventions? a) They are less effective than prenatal interventions. b) They have no effect on cognitive deficits. c) They may help address cognitive deficits more than previously thought. d) They can eliminate all symptoms of Down syndrome.

Answer 35

c) They may help address cognitive deficits more than previously thought. Rationale: There's a growing body of evidence suggesting the potential of postnatal interventions to address cognitive deficits in Down syndrome.

Question 36

4. In which animal model have pharmacological interventions been studied for potential benefits in Down syndrome? a) Drosophila melanogaster b) Caenorhabditis elegans c) TS65Dn mouse d) Zebrafish

Answer 36

c) TS65Dn mouse Rationale: Preliminary studies, particularly with the TS65Dn mouse model, indicate the potential of pharmacological interventions in addressing Down syndrome-related deficits.

Question 37

5. What is a common physical characteristic seen in individuals with Down syndrome? a) Large ears b) Epicanthal folds c) Protruding nose d) Long fingers

Answer 37

b) Epicanthal folds Rationale: One of the distinguishable physical features of individuals with Down syndrome is the presence of epicanthal folds.

Question 38

6. How many chromosomes are typically found in individuals with Down syndrome due to trisomy 21? a) 45 b) 46 c) 47 d) 48

Answer 38

c) 47 Rationale: Individuals with Down syndrome usually possess 47 chromosomes when it's due to trisomy 21, with an extra chromosome 21 being the cause.`

Question 39

7. In a translocation case of Down syndrome, how many chromosomes are typically present? a) 45 b) 46 c) 47 d) 48

Answer 39

b) 46 Rationale: In translocation cases, despite the presence of extra genetic material causing Down syndrome traits, the total chromosome count remains 46.

Question 40

8. Asymptomatic carriers of the translocation associated with Down syndrome have how many chromosomes? a) 45 b) 46 c) 47 d) 48

Answer 40

a) 45 Rationale: Unaffected carriers of the translocation typically have only 45 chromosomes, which is a unique aspect of this genetic variation.

Question 41

9. Which other chromosome is commonly involved in translocation cases with chromosome 21 in Down syndrome? a) Chromosome 20 b) Chromosome 19 c) Chromosome 15 d) Chromosome 23

Answer 41

c) Chromosome 15 Rationale: In translocation cases, chromosomes 21 and 15 commonly fuse, leading to the presence of extra genetic material and the associated traits of Down syndrome.

Question 42

10. Which of the following statements about Down syndrome is true? a) It's the least researched syndrome in intellectual disability. b) It arises from a lack of genetic material on chromosome 21. c) It is the most researched and discussed syndrome in intellectual disability. d) Only females can have Down syndrome.

Answer 42

c) It is the most researched and discussed syndrome in intellectual disability. Rationale: Down syndrome holds a significant position as the most investigated and discussed syndrome in the realm of intellectual disability.

Question 43

Which syndrome is recognized as the second most common single cause of intellectual disability? a) Down Syndrome b) Prader-Willi Syndrome c) Fragile X Syndrome d) Turner Syndrome

Answer 43

c) Fragile X Syndrome Rationale: The information specifically mentions Fragile X Syndrome as the second most common single cause of intellectual disability.

Question 44

agile X Syndrome arises due to a mutation on which chromosome? a) Y chromosome b) Chromosome 21 c) X chromosome d) Chromosome 18

Answer 44

c) X chromosome Rationale: The mutation that causes Fragile X Syndrome is located on the X chromosome.

Question 45

Which physical characteristic is NOT associated with Fragile X Syndrome? a) Large and elongated ears b) Hyperextensible joints c) Tall stature d) Macroorchidism after puberty

Answer 45

c) Tall stature Rationale: The provided information mentions "short stature" as a characteristic of Fragile X Syndrome.

Question 46

Which of the following behavioral disorders is associated with Fragile X Syndrome? a) ADHD b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder c) Bipolar disorder d) Schizophrenia

Answer 46

a) ADHD Rationale: The information mentions a high incidence of ADHD in persons with Fragile X Syndrome.

Question 47

During which period is there a noticeable decline in intellectual functions in individuals with Fragile X Syndrome? a) Infancy b) Early childhood c) Puberty d) Late adulthood

Answer 47

c) Puberty Rationale: The information provided states that intellectual functions in individuals with Fragile X Syndrome may decline during puberty.

Question 48

Which speech characteristic is associated with Fragile X Syndrome? a) Stuttering b) Slow speech rate c) Rapid perseverative speech d) Inability to speak

Answer 48

c) Rapid perseverative speech Rationale: Rapid, perseverative speech is specifically mentioned as a characteristic of those with Fragile X Syndrome.

Question 49

Which gender typically exhibits milder symptoms of Fragile X Syndrome? a) Males b) Females

Answer 49

b) Females Rationale: Female carriers of Fragile X Syndrome generally exhibit milder symptoms than affected males.

Question 50

In terms of language function challenges, individuals with Fragile X Syndrome have difficulties in: a) Hearing b) Phrasing and sentence formation c) Vocabulary acquisition d) Pronunciation

Answer 50

b) Phrasing and sentence formation Rationale: The provided information indicates that individuals with Fragile X Syndrome have difficulties in combining words into phrases and sentences.

Question 51

Which syndrome is associated with a mutation at the fragile site (Xq27.3)? a) Klinefelter Syndrome b) Rett Syndrome c) Angelman Syndrome d) Fragile X Syndrome

Answer 51

d) Fragile X Syndrome Rationale: The mutation causing Fragile X Syndrome is specifically located at the fragile site (Xq27.3).

Question 52

Which of the following is NOT a strength observed in persons with Fragile X Syndrome? a) Socialization b) Communication c) Academic achievements d) Speech rate

Answer 52

c) Academic achievements Rationale: While strengths in communication and socialization are observed in individuals with Fragile X Syndrome, academic achievements aren't mentioned as a strength.

Question 53

Which chromosome is associated with a deletion causing Prader-Willi Syndrome? a) Chromosome 10 b) Chromosome 15 c) Chromosome 21 d) Chromosome 23

Answer 53

b) Chromosome 15 Rationale: The information specifies that Prader-Willi Syndrome results from a sporadic small deletion on chromosome 15.

Question 54

Which behavior is commonly seen in individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome? a) Compulsive reading b) Rapid speech c) Compulsive eating d) Excessive sleeping

Answer 54

c) Compulsive eating Rationale: The description emphasizes that persons with Prader-Willi Syndrome exhibit compulsive eating behavior, often leading to obesity.

Question 55

Which physical characteristic is NOT associated with Prader-Willi Syndrome? a) Long stature b) Small hands c) Small feet d) Reduced muscle tone (hypotonia)

Answer 55

a) Long stature Rationale: The information provided indicates that persons with Prader-Willi Syndrome have a short stature.

Question 56

Which is a hormonal disorder associated with Prader-Willi Syndrome? a) Hyperthyroidism b) Adrenal insufficiency c) Hypogonadism d) Cushing's syndrome

Answer 56

c) Hypogonadism Rationale: The information lists hypogonadism as one of the characteristics of individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome.

Question 57

Which chromosome is linked to a deletion causing Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome? a) Chromosome 5 b) Chromosome 4 c) Chromosome 3 d) Chromosome 7

Answer 57

a) Chromosome 5 Rationale: The information specifies that Cat's Cry Syndrome results from a deletion in chromosome 5.

Question 58

Which of the following physical characteristics is NOT associated with Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome? a) Microcephaly b) High-set ears c) Micrognathia d) Hypertelorism

Answer 58

b) High-set ears Rationale: The syndrome is characterized by low-set ears, not high-set ears.

Question 59

What is the primary reason for the distinctive cat-like cry in children with Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome? a) Vocal cord abnormalities b) Laryngeal abnormalities c) Lung abnormalities d) Tracheal abnormalities

Answer 59

b) Laryngeal abnormalities Rationale: The cat-like cry is caused by abnormalities in the larynx

Question 60

As individuals with Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome age, what happens to their distinctive cry? a) It becomes louder b) It remains unchanged c) It disappears gradually d) It becomes more frequent

Answer 60

c) It disappears gradually Rationale: The information indicates that the cat-like cry diminishes and eventually fades as they grow older.

Question 61

Which eye feature is characteristic of Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome? a) Protruding eyes b) Oblique palpebral fissures c) Constant tearing d) Discoloration of the iris

Answer 61

b) Oblique palpebral fissures Rationale: Children with this syndrome have oblique palpebral fissures, which are slanting eye openings.

Question 62

How does the intellectual capability of children with Cat's Cry (Cri-du-Chat) Syndrome typically present? a) Mildly disabled b) Severely intellectually disabled c) Average intellectual capacity d) Highly gifted

Answer 62

b) Severely intellectually disabled Rationale: The information states that children with Cat's Cry Syndrome are typically severely intellectually disabled.

Question 63

What is the approximate prevalence of PKU in live births? A. 1 in 1000 B. 1 in 10,000 to 15,000 C. 1 in 100,000 D. 1 in 5,000

Answer 63

B. 1 in 10,000 to 15,000 Rationale: PKU affects approximately 1 in 10,000 to 15,000 live births.

Question 64

Which enzyme deficiency is primarily responsible for PKU? A. The enzyme converting glucose to fructose B. The enzyme converting phenylalanine to tyrosine C. The enzyme breaking down fatty acids D. The enzyme responsible for DNA replication

Answer 64

B. The enzyme converting phenylalanine to tyrosine Rationale: PKU results from the inability to convert phenylalanine due to a deficient enzyme responsible for the conversion.

Question 65

What percentage chance do parents with a PKU-affected child have of their subsequent child also having PKU? A. 5-10% B. 10-15% C. 20-25% D. 30-35%

Answer 65

C. 20-25% Rationale: For parents with a PKU-affected child, the probability of a subsequent child having PKU is 20-25%.

Question 66

Which symptom is NOT associated with PKU? A. Eczema B. Vomiting C. Hair loss D. Convulsions

Answer 66

C. Hair loss Rationale: Eczema, vomiting, and convulsions are symptoms associated with PKU, but hair loss is not mentioned.

Question 67

How is PKU transmitted genetically? A. Dominant autosomal trait B. X-linked recessive trait C. Recessive autosomal Mendelian trait D. Dominant X-linked trait

Answer 67

C. Recessive autosomal Mendelian trait Rationale: PKU is inherited as a recessive autosomal Mendelian trait.

Question 68

Which behavioral trait is NOT commonly associated with children with PKU? A. Temper tantrums B. Hand-flapping C. Twisting hand mannerisms D. Jumping constantly

Answer 68

D. Jumping constantly Rationale: Children with PKU typically exhibit temper tantrums and unique hand mannerisms, but constant jumping isn't specified.

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a challenge faced by individuals with PKU? A. Verbal comprehension B. Visual disturbances C. Auditory difficulties D. Perceptual challenges

Answer 69

B. Visual disturbances Rationale: Persons with PKU often have challenges with verbal comprehension, auditory, or perceptual aspects, but visual disturbances are not mentioned.

Question 70

Children with PKU often have distinct: A. Visual patterns B. Taste preferences C. Behavioral traits D. Sleeping habits

Answer 70

C. Behavioral traits Rationale: Children with PKU often show distinct behavioral traits, including temper tantrums and unique hand mannerisms.

Question 71

Which amino acid's metabolism is primarily affected in PKU? A. Tryptophan B. Lysine C. Phenylalanine D. Glutamine

Answer 71

C. Phenylalanine Rationale: PKU results from the body's inability to convert phenylalanine, an essential amino acid.

Question 72

Which disorder primarily affects only females and is characterized by stereotypical hand-wringing movements? A) Down Syndrome B) Fragile X Syndrome C) Prader-Willi Syndrome D) Rett Syndrome

Answer 72

D) Rett Syndrome Rationale: Rett Syndrome is primarily a degenerative disorder that affects only females and is characterized by stereotypical hand-wringing movements.

Question 73

At what age does deterioration in communication skills, motor behavior, and social functioning typically begin in Rett Syndrome? A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 3 years D) 5 years

Answer 73

B) 1 year Rationale: Deterioration in communication skills, motor behavior, and social functioning in Rett Syndrome starts around the age of 1.

Question 74

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Rett Syndrome? A) Hand-wringing B) Ataxia C) Teeth-grinding while asleep D) Progressive gait disturbances

Answer 74

C) Teeth-grinding while asleep Rationale: Teeth-grinding is observed while the child is awake, not during sleep, in individuals with Rett Syndrome.

Question 75

Which part of the brain shows evidence of atrophy in Rett Syndrome? A) Hippocampus B) Frontal Lobe C) Cerebellum D) Cerebral Cortex

Answer 75

D) Cerebral Cortex Rationale: Rett Syndrome is characterized by cerebral atrophy, specifically in the cerebral cortex.

Question 76

Which system is suggested to have abnormalities in Rett Syndrome due to decreased pigmentation of the substantia nigra? A) Dopaminergic nigrostriatal system B) Serotonergic system C) GABAergic system D) Glutamatergic system

Answer 76

A) Dopaminergic nigrostriatal system Rationale: The decreased pigmentation of the substantia nigra in Rett Syndrome suggests abnormalities of the dopaminergic nigrostriatal system.

Question 77

By what age is severe spasticity typically present in Rett Syndrome patients? A) Infancy B) Late childhood C) Middle childhood D) Adolescence

Answer 77

C) Middle childhood Rationale: Severe spasticity is usually present in Rett Syndrome patients by middle childhood.

Question 78

Which of the following complications is NOT typically observed in Rett Syndrome? A) Scoliosis B) Seizures C) Ataxia D) High blood pressure

Answer 78

D) High blood pressure Rationale: High blood pressure is not a typical complication of Rett Syndrome. The other options, scoliosis, seizures, and ataxia, are associated with the disorder.

Question 79

Which syndrome is also known as von Recklinghausen's neurofibromatosis? a) Rett Syndrome b) Down Syndrome c) Turner Syndrome d) Neurofibromatosis

Answer 79

d) Neurofibromatosis Rationale: Neurofibromatosis is also referred to as von Recklinghausen's neurofibromatosis, making it the correct choice.

Question 80

What kind of spots are characteristic of Neurofibromatosis on the skin? a) Cherry red spots b) Café au lait spots c) Blue-grey spots d) Port-wine stains

Answer 80

b) Café au lait spots Rationale: One of the hallmark characteristics of Neurofibromatosis is the presence of café au lait spots on the skin.

Question 81

Which of the following tumors is NOT typically associated with Neurofibromatosis? a) Optic gliomas b) Acoustic neuromas c) Hepatic tumors d) Neurofibromas

Answer 81

c) Hepatic tumors Rationale: While optic gliomas, acoustic neuromas, and neurofibromas are associated with Neurofibromatosis, hepatic tumors are not mentioned as a characteristic of the condition.

Question 82

What is the approximate incidence of Neurofibromatosis? a) 1 in 500 births b) 1 in 5,000 births c) 1 in 50,000 births d) 1 in 500,000 births

Answer 82

b) 1 in 5,000 births Rationale: The disorder is mentioned to occur in about 1 of every 5,000 births.

Question 83

Which system's abnormal cell migration causes the characteristic tumors in Neurofibromatosis? a) Lymphatic system b) Nervous system c) Cardiovascular system d) Muscular system

Answer 83

b) Nervous system Rationale: Neurofibromatosis is characterized by neurofibromas, optic gliomas, and acoustic neuromas caused by abnormal cell migration in the nervous system.

Question 84

Neurofibromatosis is caused by: a) A single recessive gene b) A pair of dominant genes c) A single dominant gene d) A pair of recessive genes

Answer 84

c) A single dominant gene Rationale: Neurofibromatosis results from a single dominant gene, which can either be inherited or appear as a new mutation.

Question 85

What proportion of individuals with Neurofibromatosis typically exhibit mild intellectual disability? a) One fourth b) One third c) Half d) Three fourths

Answer 85

b) One third Rationale: Up to a third of those diagnosed with Neurofibromatosis may have mild intellectual disability.

Question 86

1. Which of the following syndromes is known to have a phenotypic presentation that includes adenoma sebaceum and ash-leaf spots? a) Neurofibromatosis b) Rett Syndrome c) Tuberous Sclerosis d) Prader-Willi Syndrome

Answer 86

c) Tuberous Sclerosis Rationale: Tuberous Sclerosis is characterized by physical features including adenoma sebaceum and ash-leaf spots.

Question 87

2. Tuberous Sclerosis is inherited via which type of genetic transmission? a) Autosomal Recessive b) X-linked Recessive c) Autosomal Dominant d) X-linked Dominant

Answer 87

c) Autosomal Dominant Rationale: Tuberous Sclerosis is passed down through autosomal dominant transmission.

Question 88

3. What is the prevalence of Tuberous Sclerosis? a) 1 in 5,000 b) 1 in 10,000 c) 1 in 15,000 d) 1 in 20,000

Answer 88

c) 1 in 15,000 Rationale: Tuberous Sclerosis occurs in approximately 1 out of every 15,000 individuals.

Question 89

4. In which age group can infantile spasms due to Tuberous Sclerosis first appear? a) At birth b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 1 year

Answer 89

c) 6 months Rationale: Infantile spasms related to Tuberous Sclerosis can manifest as early as 6 months of age.

Question 90

5. What proportion of Tuberous Sclerosis patients who are NOT intellectually disabled experience seizures? a) One-third b) One-half c) Two-thirds d) Three-quarters

Answer 90

c) Two-thirds Rationale: Seizures manifest in two-thirds of those Tuberous Sclerosis patients who are not intellectually disabled.

Question 91

6. Which neurocutaneous syndrome is the second most common after Neurofibromatosis? a) Phenylketonuria b) Cat's Cry Syndrome c) Tuberous Sclerosis d) Rett Syndrome

Answer 91

c) Tuberous Sclerosis Rationale: Tuberous Sclerosis is the second most common neurocutaneous syndrome.

Question 92

7. How many individuals with Tuberous Sclerosis have a progressive intellectual disability? a) One-third b) Half c) Two-thirds d) Three-fourths

Answer 92

c) Two-thirds Rationale: A progressive intellectual disability is observed in up to two-thirds of individuals affected by Tuberous Sclerosis.

Question 93

What is the genetic pattern of inheritance for Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked d. Y-linked

Answer 93

c. X-linked Rationale: Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is an X-linked disorder, meaning it is associated with a gene on the X chromosome.

Question 94

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? a. Microcephaly b. Choreoathetosis c. Macrophthalmia d. Spasticity

Answer 94

c. Macrophthalmia Rationale: The symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome include intellectual disability, microcephaly, seizures, choreoathetosis, and spasticity. Macrophthalmia (large eyes) is not a listed symptom.

Question 95

What distinctive behavior is associated with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? a. Excessive laughter b. Self-mutilation by biting c. Echoing of one's own speech d. Walking on toes

Answer 95

b. Self-mutilation by biting Rationale: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is notably associated with severe compulsive self-mutilation, such as biting of the mouth and fingers.

Question 96

Which enzyme deficiency is associated with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? a. Hexokinase b. Catalase c. An enzyme involved in purine metabolism d. Lysozyme

Answer 96

c. An enzyme involved in purine metabolism Rationale: Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is caused by a deficiency of an enzyme involved in purine metabolism.

Question 97

Which of the following best describes Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? a. A disorder with unpredictable behavioral patterns. b. A syndrome characterized primarily by large body stature. c. A genetically determined syndrome with a specific behavioral pattern. d. A disorder resulting from postnatal trauma.

Answer 97

c. A genetically determined syndrome with a specific behavioral pattern. Rationale: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a genetically determined syndrome that manifests with a specific and predictable behavioral pattern, notably including compulsive self-mutilation.

Question 98

Which of the following best describes primary prevention for intellectual disability? a) Dietary control for metabolic disorders. b) Hormone replacement therapy. c) Genetic counseling for families with a history of genetic disorders. d) Addressing psychiatric complications of intellectual disability.

Answer 98

c) Genetic counseling for families with a history of genetic disorders. Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on actions that minimize or eradicate factors causing intellectual disability. Genetic counseling can guide families with a history of genetic disorders, hence helping in preventing the disorder in future generations.

Question 99

Secondary prevention of intellectual disability emphasizes on: a) Avoiding alcohol during pregnancy. b) Addressing psychiatric complications promptly. c) Offering optimal maternal and child healthcare. d) Public health policies improvement.

Answer 99

b) Addressing psychiatric complications promptly. Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on quickly addressing medical and psychiatric complications of intellectual disability to reduce their severity and progression.

Question 100

Tertiary prevention aims to: a) Minimize conditions leading to intellectual disability. b) Decrease the after-effects or resulting disabilities. c) Improve public health policies. d) Screen for conditions like PKU.

Answer 100

b) Decrease the after-effects or resulting disabilities. Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on mitigating the sequelae or the subsequent disabilities that arise from a condition.

Question 101

Which intervention is associated with secondary and tertiary prevention? a) Dietary control for metabolic disorders. b) Public health education. c) Hormone replacement therapy for endocrine disorders. d) Genetic counseling.

Answer 101

a) Dietary control for metabolic disorders. Rationale: Early treatment of inherited metabolic disorders through dietary adjustments can help in reducing the severity (secondary prevention) and managing the after-effects (tertiary prevention).

Question 102

What is the main focus of interventions for children with intellectual disability? a) Prescribing medications. b) Genetic testing. c) Tailoring based on social, educational, psychiatric, and environmental needs. d) Regular health check-ups.

Answer 102

c) Tailoring based on social, educational, psychiatric, and environmental needs. Rationale: Interventions for children with intellectual disability should be tailored according to the individual's unique requirements in various aspects of their life.

Question 103

Which of the following is NOT an example of primary prevention? a) Genetic counseling. b) Hormone therapies. c) Abstinence from alcohol during pregnancy. d) Public health policy improvement.

Answer 103

b) Hormone therapies. Rationale: Hormone therapies are treatments that address specific conditions and would be categorized under secondary or tertiary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on eliminating or reducing conditions leading to the development of intellectual disability.

Question 104

Which of the following metabolic disorders can be treated effectively in an early stage by dietary control? a) PKU. b) Rett Syndrome. c) Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome. d) Neurofibromatosis.

Answer 104

a) PKU. Rationale: PKU (Phenylketonuria) is a metabolic disorder that can be effectively managed in its early stages through dietary adjustments.

Question 105

Which preventive measure includes actions taken to eliminate or reduce the conditions leading to the development of intellectual disability? a) Secondary Prevention. b) Tertiary Prevention. c) Quaternary Prevention. d) Primary Prevention.

Answer 105

d) Primary Prevention. Rationale: Primary prevention aims at taking actions that prevent or diminish the causes leading to the development of intellectual disability.

Question 106

Why is genetic counseling suggested for families with a history of genetic disorders? a) To prescribe medications. b) To provide psychological support. c) To reduce the incidence of intellectual disability in future generations. d) To educate about public health policies.

Answer 106

c) To reduce the incidence of intellectual disability in future generations. Rationale: Genetic counseling can provide insights and guidance to families with a history of genetic disorders, helping them make informed decisions and potentially reducing the risk of having children with the condition.

Question 107

Optimal maternal and child health care is a primary prevention step aimed at: a) Offering hormone therapies. b) Treating metabolic disorders. c) Minimizing the conditions causing intellectual disability. d) Addressing co-existing psychiatric disorders.

Answer 107

c) Minimizing the conditions causing intellectual disability. Rationale: By providing optimal maternal and child healthcare, the potential risks leading to intellectual disability can be minimized, making it a preventive measure.

Question 108

1. What is Language Disorder primarily associated with? A) Hearing impairment B) Visual impairment C) Difficulties in acquiring and using language D) Physical disabilities

Answer 108

C) Difficulties in acquiring and using language Rationale: Language Disorder is characterized by challenges in acquiring and using language across various modes, including both spoken and written forms. It does not primarily relate to hearing or visual impairments or physical disabilities.

Question 109

2. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of Language Disorder? A) Limited vocabulary range B) Difficulties in constructing grammatical sentences C) Challenges in holding a pencil D) Problems in linking sentences descriptively in conversations

Answer 109

C) Challenges in holding a pencil Rationale: Language Disorder is related to the acquisition and use of language. The ability to hold a pencil is a motor skill and not directly associated with language.

Question 110

3. What is the estimated prevalence of expressive language disturbance in children between 5 and 11 years of age? A) 2% B) 6% C) 10% D) 15%

Answer 110

B) 6% Rationale: The passage mentions that in children aged 5 to 11 years, expressive language disturbance can be as prevalent as 6%.

Question 111

4. Which gender is more likely to be affected by Language Disorder? A) Boys B) Girls C) Equally prevalent in both D) Depends on the region

Answer 111

A) Boys Rationale: The disorder is two to three times more common in boys than in girls.

Question 112

5. Language Disorder primarily affects which aspect of communication? A) Physical ability to speak B) Ability to see words C) Acquisition and use of language D) Ability to hear

Answer 112

C) Acquisition and use of language Rationale: Language Disorder is characterized by difficulties in the acquisition and use of language across multiple modes, such as spoken and written.

Question 113

6. What is a potential risk factor for a child to develop a Language Disorder? A) Having no siblings B) Living in urban areas C) Family history of communication disorders D) Attending public schools

Answer 113

C) Family history of communication disorders Rationale: The disorder is more common in children with family members who have a history of phonologic disorders or other communication-related challenges.

Question 114

7. Which age group has the highest prevalence of expressive language disturbance? A) 1-4 years B) 5-11 years C) 12-16 years D) 17-21 years

Answer 114

B) 5-11 years Rationale: The passage mentions that in children aged 5 to 11 years, expressive language disturbance can be as prevalent as 6%.

Question 115

Which of the following is suggested by MRI studies concerning language disorders? a) Increased brain symmetry b) Diminished left-right brain asymmetry in the perisylvian region c) Enlarged frontal lobe d) Overactivity in the brain's right hemisphere

Answer 115

b) Diminished left-right brain asymmetry in the perisylvian region Rationale: MRI studies have indicated a diminished left-right brain asymmetry, especially in the perisylvian and planum temporale regions, associated with language disorders.

Question 116

What have some MRI studies proposed about brain asymmetry in individuals with language disorders? a) Diminished left hemisphere b) Overactive right hemisphere c) Inversion of brain asymmetry (right > left) d) Balanced brain asymmetry

Answer 116

c) Inversion of brain asymmetry (right > left) Rationale: Some MRI studies suggest a possible inversion of brain asymmetry where the right is greater than the left in individuals with language disorders.

Question 117

Which handedness is more frequently associated with expressive language problems? a) Left-handedness b) Right-handedness c) Ambilaterality d) There's no known association with handedness

Answer 117

a) Left-handedness Rationale: Left-handedness or ambilaterality is associated more frequently with expressive language problems than right-handedness.

Question 118

Language disorders are more prevalent within: a) Families with a history of cardiovascular diseases b) Families with a history of phonologic disorder c) Families with a history of allergies d) Families with a history of diabetes

Answer 118

b) Families with a history of phonologic disorder Rationale: Evidence suggests that language disorders are more prevalent in families with a history of phonologic disorder or other communication disorders.

Question 119

Which of the following factors might contribute to developmental language disorders? a) Strict upbringing b) Childhood vaccinations c) Environmental and educational factors d) Exposure to certain types of music in early childhood

Answer 119

c) Environmental and educational factors Rationale: Both environmental and educational factors are postulated to play a role in the development of language disorders.

Question 120

Studies of twins and language disorders show: a) High concordance for dizygotic twins b) Low concordance for monozygotic twins c) Significant concordance for monozygotic twins d) No specific pattern of concordance

Answer 120

c) Significant concordance for monozygotic twins Rationale: Several studies involving twins show a significant concordance for monozygotic

Question 121

The specific causes of the expressive components of language disorder are: a) Solely environmental b) Solely genetic c) Multifactorial d) Solely educational

Answer 121

c) Multifactorial Rationale: The causes of expressive components of language disorder are believed to be multifactorial, involving a combination of genetic, environmental, and other factors.

Question 122

Which of the following is a primary indicator for diagnosing expressive language disorder? A) Poor motor skills B) Below-age-level verbal or sign language abilities C) High scores on standardized verbal tests D) Advanced social awareness

Answer 122

B) Below-age-level verbal or sign language abilities Rationale: Expressive language disorder is marked by deficits in language skills, particularly verbal or sign language abilities that are below the child's age level.

Question 123

The Carter Neurocognitive Assessment is particularly useful for assessing: A) Only auditory comprehension in older children B) Social awareness, visual attention, auditory comprehension, and vocal communication in young children C) Advanced mathematical skills D) Behavioral patterns in adolescent children

Answer 123

B) Social awareness, visual attention, auditory comprehension, and vocal communication in young children Rationale: The Carter Neurocognitive Assessment is designed to evaluate multiple domains in very young children, including social awareness and auditory comprehension, among others.

Question 124

To confirm a diagnosis of expressive language disorder, which tests are generally administered? A) Behavioral analysis B) Physical examinations C) Standardized expressive language and nonverbal intelligence tests D) Personality assessments

Answer 124

C) Standardized expressive language and nonverbal intelligence tests Rationale: Confirmation of the diagnosis involves administering specific standardized tests that measure expressive language abilities and nonverbal intelligence.

Question 125

Observations of children's verbal patterns during interactions with peers can help: A) Predict future academic performance B) Ascertain the severity and specific areas of impairment C) Determine their favorite hobbies D) Understand their dietary preferences

Answer 125

B) Ascertain the severity and specific areas of impairment Rationale: Observing children in various settings and during interactions helps professionals gauge the extent of the child's language impairment and identify specific areas that are affected.

Question 126

A family history of expressive language disorder can indicate: A) A recent head injury in the child B) The child's preferences for play C) A potential genetic link or familial tendency D) The child's extracurricular interests

Answer 126

C) A potential genetic link or familial tendency Rationale: A history of expressive language disorders among family members can point towards a genetic predisposition or a tendency within the family for such disorders.

Question 127

Expressive language disorder primarily affects which area? A) Motor abilities B) Mathematical abilities C) Language skills D) Memory retention

Answer 127

C) Language skills Rationale: Expressive language disorder is identified by deficits in language skills, whether in verbal or sign language, without affecting other cognitive functions.

Question 128

When assessing children with potential expressive language disorder, which setting is NOT commonly used for observations? A) Classroom B) Playroom C) School yard D) Swimming pool

Answer 128

D) Swimming pool Rationale: While classrooms, playrooms, and schoolyards offer naturalistic environments to observe children's verbal and interactional patterns, a swimming pool is not a typical setting for such evaluations.

Question 129

1. What is the essential feature of expressive deficits in language disorder? A. Limited vocabulary B. Use of complex sentence structures C. Severe delay in age-appropriate expressive language development D. Overuse of sign language

Answer 129

C. Severe delay in age-appropriate expressive language development Rationale: The essential characteristic of expressive deficits in a language disorder is a marked delay in the development of age-appropriate expressive language. Choices A, B, and D are not specifically mentioned as the core feature of expressive deficits.

Question 130

2. In the context of the provided information, what is NOT an objective of early childhood speech and language treatment? A. Guide children to use sign language B. Train parents to produce more meaningful language C. Improve communication strategies D. Enhance social interactions using words

Answer 130

A. Guide children to use sign language Rationale: The main objectives of early childhood speech and language treatment are guiding children and parents to produce more meaningful language, enhancing communication strategies, and improving social interactions using words. The use of sign language is not mentioned as a primary goal.

Question 131

3. Who directly interacts with the child in direct interventions? A. Parents B. Teachers C. Speech and language pathologist D. Psychologists

Answer 131

C. Speech and language pathologist Rationale: Direct interventions involve a speech and language pathologist working directly with the child, as mentioned in the text.

Question 132

4. What does a mediated intervention primarily involve? A. Direct interaction between a speech pathologist and the child B. Training parents and teachers to use therapeutic language techniques C. Focusing solely on vocabulary improvement D. Using only sign language as a medium

Answer 132

B. Training parents and teachers to use therapeutic language techniques Rationale: Mediated interventions involve a speech and language professional training a child's parent or teacher to employ therapeutic language techniques.

Question 133

5. Which component is NOT a part of the language therapy focus mentioned? A. Vocabulary practice B. Sound unit (phoneme) practice C. Use of complex sentence structures D. Behaviorally reinforced exercises

Answer 133

C. Use of complex sentence structures Rationale: Language therapy emphasizes vocabulary practice, practicing with sound units (phonemes), behaviorally reinforced exercises, and sentence formation, but not specifically the use of complex sentence structures.

Question 134

6. What is the purpose of using block-building methods in language therapy? A. To enhance non-verbal skills B. To reduce the reliance on sign language C. To improve sign language proficiency D. To increase the number of phrases

Answer 134

D. To increase the number of phrases Rationale: The goal of using block-building methods in language therapy is to boost the number of phrases, as mentioned in the text.

Question 135

7. Which intervention involves training a child's parent or teacher? A. Direct intervention B. Mediated intervention C. Behaviorally reinforced intervention D. Phoneme-focused intervention

Answer 135

B. Mediated intervention Rationale: Mediated interventions consist of a speech and language professional training a child's parent or teacher to apply therapeutic language techniques.

Question 136

1. Which term was Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) formerly known by? A) Neurodevelopmental Variation B) Special Needs Disorder C) Pervasive Developmental Disorders D) Behavioral Communication Disorder

Answer 136

C) Pervasive Developmental Disorders Rationale: The provided information states that Autism Spectrum Disorder was formerly known as pervasive developmental disorders.

Question 137

2. ASD is marked by which of the following characteristics? A) Impairments in social communication B) Enhanced memory skills C) Difficulty in motor skills D) Increased sensitivity to light

Answer 137

A) Impairments in social communication Rationale: The information provided emphasizes that one of the main characteristics of ASD is impairments in social communication.

Question 138

3. Which syndrome is NOT a former conceptualization of Autism Spectrum Disorder? A) Asperger’s disorder B) Rett syndrome C) Tourette syndrome D) Autistic disorder

Answer 138

C) Tourette syndrome Rationale: The text mentions autistic disorder, Asperger’s disorder, childhood disintegrative disorder, Rett syndrome, and pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified as former classifications under ASD. Tourette syndrome is not listed.

Question 139

4. Which gender is ASD diagnosed in more frequently? A) Girls B) Boys C) Equal in both genders D) Data is inconclusive

Answer 139

B) Boys Rationale: The information provided indicates that ASD is diagnosed four times more often in boys than in girls.

Question 140

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Autism Spectrum Disorder? A) Impairments in social communication B) Restricted and repetitive behaviors C) Phenotypically heterogeneous group of syndromes D) Impaired motor coordination

Answer 140

D) Impaired motor coordination Rationale: While ASD individuals can sometimes have motor coordination challenges, it's not specifically mentioned in the provided information as a defining feature of ASD.

Question 141

6. Rett syndrome was previously categorized under which umbrella term? A) Neurodevelopmental disorders B) Pervasive developmental disorders C) Autistic Spectrum Disorder D) Behavioral syndromes

Answer 141

B) Pervasive developmental disorders Rationale: The information provided states that Rett syndrome was originally conceptualized under the umbrella of pervasive developmental disorders.

Question 142

7. Who among the genders, when diagnosed with ASD, more often exhibits intellectual disability? A) Boys B) Girls C) Both exhibit equally D) None of the above

Answer 142

B) Girls Rationale: According to the provided details, girls with ASD often have intellectual disabilities more than boys.

Question 143

8. What is a possible explanation for the under-diagnosis of girls without intellectual disabilities in ASD? A) They show no symptoms. B) They are often misdiagnosed with another disorder. C) They may be less likely to be identified and referred clinically. D) Their parents are less likely to seek a diagnosis.

Answer 143

C) They may be less likely to be identified and referred clinically. Rationale: The information suggests that a potential reason girls without intellectual disabilities might be under-diagnosed is that they are less likely to be identified, referred clinically, and diagnosed with ASD.

Question 144

Which of the following is a criterion under social communication and interaction deficits for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)? a. Echolalia b. Needing the same food daily c. Abnormal social approach d. Indifference to pain

Answer 144

c. Abnormal social approach Rationale: An abnormal social approach is a manifestation of deficits in social-emotional reciprocity, which is a part of the social communication and interaction deficits criterion for ASD.

Question 145

Repetitive actions or speech in individuals with ASD is best exemplified by: a. Reduced sharing of interests b. Lining up toys c. Poor eye contact d. Inflexible adherence to routines

Answer 145

b. Lining up toys Rationale: Lining up toys is a stereotyped or repetitive motor movement, which is an example of the restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior criterion for ASD.

Question 146

An individual with ASD might demonstrate which of the following reactions to sensory input? a. Interest in social narratives b. Apparent indifference to pain c. Prefers routines in eating d. Abnormal social approach

Answer 146

b. Apparent indifference to pain Rationale: Indifference to pain is an example of hyper- or hyporeactivity to sensory input, which is one of the manifestations of restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior.

Question 147

The symptoms of ASD are typically noticeable in which period? a. Adolescence b. Early developmental c. Late adulthood d. Middle age

Answer 147

b. Early developmental Rationale: The DSM-5 specifies that symptoms of ASD should be present in the early developmental period.

Question 148

Which of the following does not belong to the "Specify if Associated with" category for ASD diagnosis? a. Intellectual impairment b. Abnormal eye contact c. Language impairment d. A known medical/genetic condition

Answer 148

b. Abnormal eye contact Rationale: Abnormal eye contact is a manifestation of deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviors for social interaction, not an associated specification.

Question 149

Which criteria emphasizes the significant difficulties caused by ASD symptoms in important life areas? a. Clinical Significance b. Repetitive Behavior Patterns c. Developmental Onset d. Distinct from Other Disorders

Answer 149

a. Clinical Significance Rationale: The clinical significance criterion emphasizes that ASD symptoms must cause significant impairments in areas like social interactions or work.

Question 150

A strong attachment to unusual objects is indicative of: a. Social communication impairment b. Repetitive speech c. Highly restricted, fixated interests d. Nonverbal communication deficits

Answer 150

c. Highly restricted, fixated interests Rationale: A strong attachment to unusual objects falls under the category of highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus.

Question 151

What is echolalia an example of? a. Nonverbal communication deficits b. Repetitive motor movements or speech c. Issues with social-emotional reciprocity d. Adherence to routines

Answer 151

b. Repetitive motor movements or speech Rationale: Echolalia is a form of repetitive speech, which is a manifestation of restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior in ASD.

Question 152

Which of the following is not a main criterion for ASD diagnosis? a. Repetitive Behavior Patterns b. Clinical Significance c. Intellectual Impairment d. Social Communication and Interaction Deficits

Answer 152

c. Intellectual Impairment Rationale: While intellectual impairment can co-exist with ASD, it is not a main criterion for its diagnosis.

Question 153

In the past, an individual diagnosed with Asperger's disorder should now be categorized under: a. Social (pragmatic) communication disorder b. Intellectual disability c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Developmental delay

Answer 153

c. Autism spectrum disorder Incidence: ASD: Approximately 1 percent of the population. Language Disorder: 5 out of 10,000 individuals.

Question 154

1. What is the incidence of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in the general population? a) 5 of 10,000 b) 4:1 c) <25 percent d) 1 percent

Answer 154

d) 1 percent Rationale: According to the given data, the incidence of ASD in the general population is approximately 1 percent.

Question 155

2. In which disorder is the male to female ratio almost equal? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 155

b) Language Disorder Sex ratio (Male: Female): ASD: 4:1 Language Disorder: Equal or almost equal sex ratio.

Question 156

3. Which disorder often has associated deafness as "not infrequent"? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 156

b) Language Disorder Associated deafness: ASD: Very infrequent. Language Disorder: Not infrequent.

Question 157

4. In which disorder are nonverbal communications, such as gestures, actively utilized? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 157

b) Language Disorder Nonverbal communication: ASD: Impaired (e.g., gestures might be limited or non-existent). Language Disorder: Actively utilized (i.e., gestures are often used to compensate for language difficulties).

Question 158

5. Echolalia and stereotyped phrases out of context are present in which disorder? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 158

a) ASD Language abnormalities: ASD: Present in a subset (e.g., echolalia, stereotyped phrases out of context). Language Disorder: Uncommon.

Question 159

6. Which disorder has frequent articulation problems? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 159

b) Language Disorder Articulation problems: ASD: Infrequent. Language Disorder: Frequent.

Question 160

7. Impaired social behaviors are present in: a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 160

a) ASD Impaired social behaviors: ASD: Present. Language Disorder: Absent or, if present, mild.

Question 161

8. Which disorder often shows lower verbal scores than performance scores in IQ tests? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 161

a) ASD Patterns of IQ tests: ASD: Typically lower on verbal scores than performance scores. Language Disorder: Often verbal scores are lower than performance scores.

Question 162

10. Which disorder has a subset in which intellectual level is impaired in about 30 percent of the cases? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 162

a) ASD Intellectual level: ASD: Impaired in a subset (about 30 percent). Language Disorder: Uncommon impairment; less frequently severe.

Question 163

16. In which condition is imaginative play usually intact? a) ASD b) Language Disorder c) Both ASD and Language Disorder d) None of the above

Answer 163

b) Language Disorder Imaginative play: ASD: Often impaired. Language Disorder: Usually intact

Question 164

What is one of the primary goals of treatment for children with autism spectrum disorder? a. Weight management b. Enhancing musical skills c. Improving social interactions d. Learning a new language

Answer 164

c. Improving social interactions Rationale: The primary goals of treatment for children with autism spectrum disorder focus on core behaviors such as enhancing their social interactions and communication.

Question 165

Psychosocial treatment interventions for children with autism spectrum disorder aim to: a. Increase socially acceptable behaviors. b. Improve mathematics skills. c. Enhance physical agility. d. Boost culinary skills.

Answer 165

a. Increase socially acceptable behaviors. Rationale: Psychosocial treatment interventions focus on promoting socially acceptable and prosocial behavior among children with autism spectrum disorder.

Question 166

What is one of the objectives of psychosocial treatment interventions? a. Training in sports b. Development of fashion sense c. Learning to play musical instruments d. Developing skills in social conventions Answer: d. Developing skills in social conventions

Answer 166

d. Developing skills in social conventions Rationale: Psychosocial treatments primarily aim to help children with autism develop skills in social conventions.

Question 167

Treatment for children with autism spectrum disorder often includes support in which area? a. Athletic training b. Language and academics c. Culinary classes d. Music composition

Answer 167

b. Language and academics Rationale: Many children with autism require language and academic remediation as a part of their treatment.

Question 168

Which behavioral concern is often addressed during the treatment of children with autism spectrum disorder? a. Shyness b. Overenthusiasm c. Irritable and disruptive behaviors d. Laziness

Answer 168

c. Irritable and disruptive behaviors Rationale: The treatment goals generally aim to reduce irritable and disruptive behaviors that might emerge in school, at home, or during transitions.

Question 169

What is the focus of psychosocial treatment interventions in autism? a. Enhancing physical strength b. Reducing odd behavioral symptoms c. Learning new dance forms d. Improving culinary skills

Answer 169

b. Reducing odd behavioral symptoms Rationale: Psychosocial treatments aim to decrease odd behavioral symptoms in children with autism spectrum disorder.

Question 170

Which of the following medications is FDA approved for treating irritability in individuals with autism spectrum disorder? a. Acetaminophen b. Risperidone c. Aspirin d. Ibuprofen

Answer 170

b. Risperidone Rationale: Risperidone is one of the two second-generation antipsychotics approved by the FDA for treating irritability in those with autism spectrum disorder.

Question 171

Which agency in the United States approved risperidone and aripiprazole for the treatment of irritability in autism spectrum disorder? a. CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) b. WHO (World Health Organization) c. UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund) d. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

Answer 171

d. FDA (Food and Drug Administration) Rationale: The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) in the United States has approved risperidone and aripiprazole for treating irritability in those with autism spectrum disorder.

Question 172

2. Which part of the brain is notably associated with ADHD due to its dopamine use and connections? a) Amygdala b) Prefrontal cortex c) Hippocampus d) Cerebellum

Answer 172

b) Prefrontal cortex Rationale: The prefrontal cortex has connections with attention-related brain regions and its high utilization of dopamine is noted in relation to ADHD.

Question 173

3. What percentage of school-aged children is affected by ADHD? a) 1-3% b) 5-8% c) 10-15% d) 20-25%

Answer 173

b) 5-8% Rationale: The statistics provided indicate that 5-8% of school-aged children have ADHD.

Question 174

4. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of inattention in ADHD? a) Easily distracted b) Excessive talking c) Difficulty sustaining attention d) Forgetful in daily activities

Answer 174

b) Excessive talking Rationale: Excessive talking is a symptom related to hyperactivity and impulsivity, not inattention.

Question 175

5. For adolescents and adults aged 17 and older, how many symptoms of inattention are required for an ADHD diagnosis? a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven

Answer 175

b) Five Rationale: The criteria specify that for older adolescents and adults (age 17 and older), at least five symptoms are required for inattention.

Question 176

6. A person with ADHD who frequently interrupts others is displaying a symptom of: a) Inattention b) Hyperactivity c) Impulsivity d) Oppositional behavior

Answer 176

c) Impulsivity Rationale: Interrupting or intruding on others is a symptom of impulsivity as per the DSM-5 criteria.

Question 177

7. Which presentation type of ADHD is characterized by meeting the criteria for both inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity? a) Predominantly Inattentive b) Predominantly Hyperactive/Impulsive c) Combined d) In Partial Remission

Answer 177

c) Combined Rationale: The "Combined" presentation type meets criteria for both inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity.

Question 178

8. ADHD symptoms must have appeared before which age for a diagnosis? a) 6 b) 10 c) 12 d) 15

Answer 178

c) 12 Rationale: The criteria state that the symptoms must have been present prior to age 12.

Question 179

9. In which setting(s) must ADHD symptoms be evident? a) Only at school b) Only at home c) Only at work d) Two or more settings

Answer 179

d) Two or more settings Rationale: The criteria state that symptoms must be present in two or more settings, e.g., home, school, work.

Question 180

10. For a diagnosis of ADHD, which other disorders or conditions should NOT explain the symptoms? a) Anxiety disorder b) Mood disorder c) Personality disorder d) All of the above

Answer 180

d) All of the above Rationale: The symptoms should not be explained by other disorders or conditions including anxiety, mood, and personality disorders.

Question 181

11. Which symptom is associated with hyperactivity in ADHD? a) Avoids mentally demanding tasks b) Fidgets or squirms c) Often loses essential items d) Appears not to listen

Answer 181

b) Fidgets or squirms Rationale: Fidgeting or squirming is a symptom of hyperactivity.

Question 182

12. What is the term for when full ADHD criteria were previously met, but now only some criteria are met? a) Mild b) Moderate c) In Partial Remission d) Severe

Answer 182

c) In Partial Remission Rationale: "In Partial Remission" describes when full criteria were previously met, but currently, only some criteria are being met.

Question 183

13. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperactivity and impulsivity in ADHD? a) Often runs or climbs inappropriately b) Easily distracted by extraneous stimuli c) Cannot stay seated d) Talks excessively

Answer 183

b) Easily distracted by extraneous stimuli Rationale: Being easily distracted by extraneous stimuli is a symptom of inattention, not hyperactivity and impulsivity.

Question 184

14. What percentage of children diagnosed with ADHD continues to show symptoms into adulthood? a) Up to 40% b) Up to 50% c) Up to 60% d) Up to 70%

Answer 184

c) Up to 60% Rationale: The data suggests up to 60% of those diagnosed as children continue to be symptomatic into adulthood.

Question 185

15. ADHD can lead to significant impairments in which of the following areas? a) Academic functioning b) Social situations c) Interpersonal relationships d) All of the above

Answer 185

d) All of the above Rationale: ADHD can cause significant academic, social, and interpersonal impairments as noted in the provided data.

Question 186

1. Which severity of ADHD describes a situation where the symptoms result in no more than minor impairments in social or occupational functioning? a) Mild b) Moderate c) Severe d) In Partial Remission

Answer 186

a) Mild Rationale: The "Mild" severity specifies few symptoms and those present lead to only minor impairments in functioning.

Question 187

2. In which severity level of ADHD are there many symptoms in excess of those required for diagnosis, or are the symptoms particularly severe? a) Mild b) Moderate c) Severe d) In Partial Remission

Answer 187

c) Severe Rationale: The "Severe" severity indicates the presence of many symptoms beyond the required number for diagnosis or that the symptoms are extremely severe.

Question 188

3. Which severity category for ADHD is described by the presence of symptoms or functional impairments that fall between "mild" and "severe"? a) Mild b) Moderate c) Severe d) In Partial Remission

Answer 188

b) Moderate Rationale: The "Moderate" severity suggests the presence of symptoms or functional impairments that are between the levels of "mild" and "severe."

Question 189

4. If a person previously met the full criteria for ADHD but now has fewer symptoms that still cause impairment, they are in what stage? a) Mild b) Moderate c) Severe d) In Partial Remission

Answer 189

d) In Partial Remission Rationale: The "In Partial Remission" severity is when full criteria were previously met, but currently, fewer than the full criteria are met, and the symptoms still result in some level of impairment.

Question 190

6. What is the male to female ratio for ADHD prevalence? a) 1:1 b) 2:1 to 9:1 c) 3:2 d) 1:2

Answer 190

b) 2:1 to 9:1 Rationale: ADHD is more prevalent in boys than in girls, with the ratio ranging from 2:1 to as high as 9:1.

Question 191

5. Which of the following has been suggested as a potential factor contributing to ADHD? a) Postnatal toxic exposures b) Overexposure to digital screens c) Prenatal mechanical harm to the fetal nervous system d) Consumption of spicy food during pregnancy

Answer 191

c) Prenatal mechanical harm to the fetal nervous system Rationale: The text notes that prenatal mechanical insult to the fetal nervous system can be a contributory factor for ADHD.

Question 192

4. The symptoms of ADHD are believed to result from interactions between which systems? a) Cardiovascular and respiratory systems b) Digestive and endocrine systems c) Neuroanatomical and neurochemical systems d) Muscular and skeletal systems

Answer 192

c) Neuroanatomical and neurochemical systems Rationale: The provided information mentions that ADHD symptoms arise from the complex interactions of neuroanatomical and neurochemical systems.

Question 193

3. Which group has a 2-8 times higher rate of ADHD than the general population? a) Teachers of ADHD children b) Peers of ADHD children c) Parents and siblings of ADHD children d) Neighbors of ADHD children

Answer 193

c) Parents and siblings of ADHD children Rationale: The information states that parents and siblings of children with ADHD have a rate of ADHD that is 2 to 8 times greater than in the general population.

Question 194

2. In terms of heritability, approximately what percentage is ADHD considered to be genetic in origin? a) 50% b) 65% c) 75% d) 90%

Answer 194

c) 75% Rationale: The provided data suggests that the etiology of ADHD is largely genetic, with a heritability of approximately 75%.

Question 195

1. What percentage of prepubertal elementary school children is reported to have ADHD? a) 5% b) 7-8% c) 10% d) 15%

Answer 195

b) 7-8% Rationale: The text mentions that 7-8% of prepubertal elementary school children are reported to have ADHD.

Question 196

1. Which is considered the first line of treatment for ADHD? a) Behavioral therapy b) Yoga and meditation c) Pharmacologic treatment d) Physical exercises

Answer 196

c) Pharmacologic treatment Rationale: The text states that pharmacologic treatment is the first line of treatment for ADHD.

Question 197

2. Central nervous system stimulants for ADHD are known for: a) Limited efficacy b) Severe side effects c) High efficacy with generally mild side effects d) Being the second choice of agents

Answer 197

c) High efficacy with generally mild side effects Rationale: Central nervous system stimulants are noted to have high efficacy with generally mild and tolerable side effects.

Question 198

3. Which group should avoid taking stimulants for ADHD treatment? a) Elderly individuals b) Individuals with gastrointestinal issues c) Individuals with known cardiac risks d) Individuals with respiratory issues

Answer 198

c) Individuals with known cardiac risks Rationale: Stimulants are contraindicated for individuals with known cardiac risks and abnormalities.

Question 199

4. Which of the following is a sustained-release preparation of methylphenidate? a) Adderall b) Vyvanse c) Ritalin-SR d) Dexedrine

Answer 199

c) Ritalin-SR Rationale: The list provided specifies Ritalin-SR as a sustained-release preparation of methylphenidate.

Question 200

5. Which drug functions as a norepinephrine uptake inhibitor in ADHD treatment? a) Vyvanse b) Strattera c) Adderall d) Dexedrine

Answer 200

b) Strattera Rationale: Atomoxetine HCl, marketed as Strattera, is a norepinephrine uptake inhibitor approved for ADHD treatment.

Question 201

6. Which of the following is not a form of dextroamphetamine? a) Dexedrine b) Vyvanse c) Concerta d) Dexedrine spansules

Answer 201

c) Concerta Rationale: The list mentions Dexedrine, Vyvanse, and Dexedrine spansules as forms of dextroamphetamine, but Concerta is a form of methylphenidate.

Question 202

7. Atomoxetine HCl (Strattera) is FDA-approved for treating ADHD in children starting from what age? a) 3 years b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years

Answer 202

d) 6 years Rationale: The text mentions that Atomoxetine HCl (Strattera) is approved for the treatment of ADHD in children age 6 years and older.

Question 203

8. Which combination medication is used for ADHD treatment? a) Ritalin b) Adderall XR c) Dexedrine d) Strattera

Answer 203

b) Adderall XR Rationale: Among the options, Adderall XR is a combination of dextroamphetamine and amphetamine salts used for ADHD treatment.