neurobiology and behaviour Flashcards

1
Q

3 main regions of the brain

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the brain surrounded by

A

three membranes (the meninges)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what happens if the meninges are inflames

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

purpose of the membranes

A

for protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do ventricles provide

A

protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are ventricles

A

spaces filled with cerebrospinal fluid that supply the neurones with oxygen and glucose (for respiration) also remove toxines (waste products- CO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

purpose of skull

A

protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what structures are in the forebrain

A

cerebrum, (cerebral cortex)
thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus
(limbic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

structures in the midbrain

A

nerve fibres connecting hind and forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hindbrain

A

containing medulla oblongata and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

function: medulla oblongata

A

controls HR, ventilation and blood pressure, contains important centres of the autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does autonomic mean

A

don’t have to think about it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of cerebellum

A

maintenance of posture and co-ordination of voluntary muscular activity e.g. writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

function of cerebrum

A

responsible for voluntary behaviour, learning, reasoning, personality and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

function of hypothalamus

A

regulation of body temperature, blood solute concentration, thirst, hunger and sleep. it is the main controlling region of the ANS and links the brain and endocrine system via the pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

function of the thalamus

A

a relay centre sending information to and from the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

function of the hippocampus

A

interacts with other areas of the cortex, involved with learning, reasoning, personality and consolidating memories into a permanent store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does ANS stand for

A

autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does the ANS control

A

automatic processes (e.g. heart rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

explain the relationship between the two branches of the ANS

A

the two branches of the ANS work antagonistically to maintain appropriate levels of activity, e.g. heart rate speeds up or slows down depending on the level of activity undertaken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what forms the limbic system

A

the hypothalamus and thalamus connect with other areas of the brain, including the hippocampus. the limbic system is involved in emotion, learning and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

two brances of the nervous system

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

explain the sympathetic system

A

is ‘fight or flight’, has an excitatory affect (increasing HR)
it uses noradrenaline as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

difference between sympathetic and parasympathetic (simply put)

A

S: noradrenaline- speeds things up
P: acetylcholine- slows things down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

explain parasympathetic system

A

‘rest and digest’ and has an inhibitory effect on the body. it uses acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

parasympathetic/sympathetic system
what they do in the body

A

P: constrict pupils/ S: dilates pupils
P:stimulates salivation/S: inhibits salivation
P: slows heart rate/S: increases hear rate
P: stimulates digestion/S: inhibits digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how is HR increased

A

when you excerice the concentration of CO2 in the blood increase. the increase causes a decrease in pH of the blood. the drop in pH causes the cardiovascular centre of the medulla oblongate to send signals to the Sino Atrial node along the sympathetic nerves. Noradrenaline binds to receptors causes HR to increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why does a higher concentration of CO2 in the blood cause a decrease in pH

A

(CO2 dissolves to form cabonic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how is HR decreased

A

when you rest, the concentration of CO2 in the blood decreases. this causes an increase of pH in the blood. the rise in pH causes the cardiovascular centre of the medulla oblongata to send signals to the sinoatrial node along the parasympathetic nerves (vagus nerve) acetylcholine binds to the receptor causing HR to decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the outer area of the cerebrum

A

grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inner area of the cerebrum

A

white matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the white matter

A

contains myelinated axons of neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does the cerebrum consist of

A

2 hemispheres linked by the corpus callosum (semetrical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the cerebral cortex (adaptations)

A

outer layer of the cerebrum and is highly folded to increase the SA for processing.
composed of millions of neurones and is grey matter with many cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the cerebral cortex responsible for

A

most conscious thoughts and actions. the inner part of the cerebrum is myelianted white matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what can each hemisphere be split into

A

4 lobes
frontal, temporal, occipital, parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

functions of frontal lobe

A

reasoning, planning, motor, speech and movement, emotions and problem solving
(broca’s area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

functions of parietal lobe

A

sensory functions and taste (temperature detection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

functions of temporal lobe

A

language learning and memory
(interpretation, Wenickes area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

functions of occipital lobe

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where is the somatosensory cortex found

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

where is the somatomotor cortex found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

3 areas of the cerebral cortex

A

somatosensory cortex
somatomotor cortex
association areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the function of the somatosensory cortex

A

receives nerve impules from receptors (in the body via the thalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

function of the somatomotor cortex

A

send nerve impulses to the effectors (via motor neurone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

function of Association areas

A

form most of the cerebral cortex. they receive impulses from sensory areas and associate it with previously stored information from memory so it can be interpreted and given meaning to initiate appropriate responses (within the motor area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how are things communicated between the two sides of the brain

A

nerve fibres from the motor area cross in the medulla oblongata so the left hemisphere controls the right side of the brain and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what area of the brain is responsible for speech and language

A

left cerebral hemisphere
Wernicke and Broca’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are Broca and Wernickes area conncected by

A

a bundle of nerve fibres known as the arcuate fassiculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the acruate fassiculus

A

a bundle of nerve fibres that connect Broca and Wernickes area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where is the Broca area located

A

in the frontal lobe just above the temporal lobe in the let hemisphere only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

explain Broca’s area in terms of speech and language

A

motor neurones from here innervate the muscles involved with producing speech (larynx, mouth and intercostals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what happens if Broca’s area is damaged

A

speech can still be understood but speaking is in short sentences, lacking fluency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

where is Wernicke’s area found

A

it spans the upper part of the temporal lobe and the lowere part of the parietal in the left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

fucntion of Wernicke’s area

A

responsible for interpreting written and spoken language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what happens in Wernicke’s area is damaged

A

speech cannot be understood but fluency is unaffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a stroke

A

an interruption of blood flow in the brain. neurones in the affected region do not receive enough oxygen so they die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is aphasia

A

Aphasia is an impairment of language, affecting the production or comprehension of speech and the ability to read or write. Aphasia is always due to injury to the brain-most commonly from a stroke, particularly in older individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

2 types of homunculi

A

sensory and motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what do homuculi show

A

the relative proportions of the sensory and motor areas of the body, sensitive areas with many sensory neurones are large like tongue, lips and fingertips.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what can areas with many motor neurones do

A

performs intricate movements, like hands and face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

explain sensory homunculi

A

Regions which contain fewer sensory receptors take up less space in the homunculus.
As a result, a small proportion of the sensory areas/cortex of the brain are involved with receiving impulses from these parts of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the methods of brain imaging

A

EEG
CT
MRI
fMRI
PET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

method: EEG

A

Scalp electrodes detect voltage fluctuations and record electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what does EEG stand for

A

electroencephalography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

advanatges/disadvantages of EEG

A

A: Silent, non-invasive, no ionising radiation, no claustrophobia, no radioactivity or magnetic fields

D: only detects activity in the cerebral cortex. not looking at synaptic transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

some uses of EEG

A

diagnosis of epilepsy

68
Q

what does CT stand for

A

computerised tomography

69
Q

method of CT

A

x-rays from different angles
show internal structure in slices

70
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of CT

A

A: high resolution of bone, soft tissues and blood vessels at the same time. fast results for the whole body. can look from different angles
D: uses x-rays, images not as clear as MRI, only shows structural features

71
Q

what does MRI stand for

A

magnetic resonance imaging

72
Q

method of MRI

A

strong magnetic fields and a radio wave pulse. protons in water give coloured 3D map of cortex

73
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of mri

A

A: detailed anatomical image without using ionising radiation. more sensitive than CT
D: claustrophobic and noisy, patients need to be totally still. not for people with pacemakers or cochlear implants

74
Q

method of fmri

A

strong magnetic fields and radio waves to measure oxygen demand

75
Q

advantantage/disadvantage of fMRI

A

A: show flow of oxygenated blood. shows what regions of the brain are most active, therefore functioning. can produce detailed images over time, can show differences. (structure and functioning)
D: difficult for people with claustrophobia

76
Q

what does fMRI stand for

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

77
Q

what does PET stand for

A

position emission tomography

78
Q

method of PET

A

shows radioactive glucose use injection of radioactive isotope

79
Q

advantages/disadvantages of PET

A

A:detects biochemical changes in brain, shows functioning areas of the brain
D: uses gamma radiation

80
Q

uses of PET scans

A

imaging tumours

81
Q

uses of fmri scans

A

study brain functions in real time

82
Q

uses of mri scans

A

identifying structures e.g. brain tumours, demyelinating nerve fibres, aneurysm

83
Q

uses of CT scans

A

detection of brain injuries and skull fractures

84
Q

what is neuroplasticity

A

describes the brains ability to form new connections between neurons in response to new information, sensory stimulation, development or damage. it allows the brain to change and adapt throughout life

85
Q

what is developmental plasticity

A

young brains rapidly form branches and connections between neurons. during this critical period, sensory input is required for proper development

86
Q

what does neuroplasticity happen as a result of

A

Input of sensory information

Normal brain development

Brain damage (e.g. stroke).

87
Q

what is required for proper development

A

sensory input

88
Q

what is synaptic pruning

A

as development continues, unused connections are lost

89
Q

when does most pruning take place

A

in adolescence

90
Q

what does too much synaptic pruning lead to

A

schizophrenia

91
Q

what does not enough synaptic pruning lead to

A

ASD, epilepsy

92
Q

what is essential for producing and decoding speech sounds during childhood

A

hearing and practising language

93
Q

what happens to language acquisition after a critical period

A

may be permanently impaired.

94
Q

what do feral children lack

A

lack stimulus in the critical period, only develop basic communication skills

95
Q

what do congenitally deaf children show

A

deficits in vocalisations and may fail to develop language unless taught alternative means of communication, like sign language

96
Q

what happens to the number of connections maintained after a critical period

A

large drop in the number. the ones that remain are the ones that have been strengthened

97
Q

what can gene expression affect

A

brain development and this may impact on an individuals behaviour

98
Q

what can altered gene expression in childhood lead to

A

could predispose adults to an increased risk of mental illness

99
Q

explain cortisol levels and mental illness

A

the average level of cortisol is higher in individuals that were subjected to childhood abuse. it is though that high levels of cortisol predispose adults to mental illness as they have higher background stress levels.

100
Q

what is cortisol released controlled by

A

negative feedback- the release of cortisol into the bloodstream results in the decline of cortisol production;stops us from being constantly overstressed

101
Q

where is cortisol released from

A

from the adrenal glands (above the kidney)

102
Q

what do chemical reactions do as an organism grows and develops

A

they activate and deactivate parts of the genome at strategic times and in specific locations.

103
Q

what is epigenetics

A

describes the influence of chemicals like methyl and acetyl on gene expressions

104
Q

what are epigenetic changes linked to

A

involved in brain conditions such as mental illness and addiction

105
Q

what is an aces

A

adverse childhood experience

106
Q

what are abused children more likely to do

A

at least 50% more likely than the general population to suffer from serious depression as adults. also harder for them to recover from this illness

107
Q

what are adults who were subjected to childhood abuse and neglect at a higher risk of

A

schizophrenia, eating disorders, personality disorders, bipolar disease and anxiety. also more likely to abuse drugs or alcohol

108
Q

what is one hypothesis for traumatic experiences in childhood

A

that those with these experiences change physical aspects of the brain at key development periods- this may have epigenetic component that causes alteration in gene expression, predisposing adults to an increased risk of mental illness

109
Q

what can stress cause
(cortisol release)

A

the hippocampus to send nerve impulses to the hypothalamus

110
Q

what does the hypothalamus do
(cortisol release)

A

releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

111
Q

what does ACTH do

A

circulates in the bloodstream and links to receptors on the cortex of the adrenal gland (effector) which releases cortisol as a response

112
Q

what does increased cortisol in the blood do
(cortisol release)

A

increased cortisol in the blood inhibits the hippocampus, preventing an individual from being continually stressed

113
Q

what do adults subjected to abuse have
(cortisol release)

A

higher levels of CRH and therefore cortisol. the feedback loop is faulty and they are continuallu over-stressed

114
Q

how do the hippocampus/hypothalamus respond to higher levels of cortisol

A

they do not respond appropriately

115
Q

what does innate mean

A

behaviours are inherited and instinctive (born with)

116
Q

3 types of innate behaviour

A

taxes
kineses
reflex

117
Q

what is a reflex

A

a rapid automatic response to a stimulus with a protective function that enhances survival

118
Q

example of a reflex

A

withdrawing your hand from heat

119
Q

what is kineses

A

non-directional, random movements of a whole organism. in unfavourable conditions the whole organism moves quickly with few turns. in favourable conditions slowly with more turns

120
Q

example of kineses

A

woodlice move more when the air is drier. increasing their chance of encountering humid air so they don’t become dehydrated

121
Q

what is taxes

A

are directional responses by the whole organism moving towards (positive) or away from (negative) a stimulus

122
Q

example of a taxes

A

earthworms are negatively phototaxic, moving away from the light increases their chance of survival

123
Q

explain Kohlers research

A

put bananas out of a chimp’s reach- the only way to get them was to join two sticks together. once the chimp had worked it out it did it evvery time

124
Q

what is Kohler’s research an example of

A

insight learning

125
Q

how are innate behaviours studies

A

are studied using choice chambers- different conditions are supplied in each section and movement of animals tracked

126
Q

what are learned behaviours

A

are behaviours based on past experiences and can be modified

127
Q

what are the different learned behaviours

A

imitation
habituation
insight learning
latent
operant conditioning
classical conditioning
imprinting

128
Q

what is imitation

A

where animals learn by observing others e.g. the spread of tool used in chimpanzees (usually the same species)

129
Q

what is habituation

A

learning to ignore a stimulus as it brings neither reward or punishment (prevents wasting energy)

130
Q

what is insight learning

A

where a solution to a problem is found by accident but is immediately applied in the future

131
Q

what is latent learning

A

is exploratory learning. animals explore new surroundings and learn- this enhances survival. no reward straight away eventually (survival)

132
Q

what is operant conditioning

A

is the association of particular behaviours with reward or punishment

133
Q

example of operant conditioning

A

skinner studies rats, they were rewarded for pressing a lever with a food pellet

134
Q

what is classical conditioning

A

in an artificial stimulus associated with a natural stimulus provoking the same response. association of 2 events that occur at the same time (in natural conditions)

135
Q

example of classical conditioning

A

pavlov trained dogs to associate a bell with food, so they responded to the sound of the bell with salivation

136
Q

what is imprinting

A

happens early in young animals, where they became attached to the first larger moving object they detect. this is reinforced by gaining food/warmth (mainly birds and animals)

137
Q

example of imprinting

A

Konrad Lorenz worked on imprinting and famously inprinted young geese, he became their ‘mother’ and taught them to fly

138
Q

what does social behaviour describe

A

interactions between members of the same behaviour

139
Q

advantages of living in social groups

A

protection from predators, food sharing and mate availability.

140
Q

disadvantages of living in social groups

A

increased competition for mates and food, increased spread of diseases and higher visibility for predators

141
Q

what are interactions within a social group usually

A

fixed action patter (FAP).

142
Q

what does a sign stimulus lead to

A

a fixed response

143
Q

what did Tindbergen

A

investigated FAP in herring gulls. the sign stimulus is the red spot on the parent beak. the response is to peck at the spot until the adult regurgitates food. gull chicks will peck an artificial beak-fixed action to the sign

144
Q

what does a response depend on

A

motivation e.g. a cheetah will only display stalking behaviour if it is hungry

145
Q

example of dominance hierarchy

A

only vertebrates

146
Q

what is dominance hierarchy

A

where the members of a group are ranked from high to low; higher ranked animals dominate over lower ranked ones in a linear fashion; no two animals are at the same rank

147
Q

advantages of dominance hierarchy

A

reduction in aggression and sharing food and fighting ensures the ‘fittest survive’

148
Q

how does a dominance hierarchy work

A

once established, dominance hierarchies are stable and fighting for position is a last result. fighting follows a fixed action pattern in response to sign stimuli with the winner taking the higher rank

149
Q

what social groups do bees work

A

have a caste structure that gives roles specialisation.

150
Q

what do a single queen in a colony produce

A

sterile female working bees and fertile male drones

151
Q

how do queens communicate with the colonies

A

using pheromones and touch.

152
Q

how do bees communicate about a food dance

A

a waggle dance. the angle of the dance relates to the angle of the sun and the length of the waggle relates to the distance, a round dance is used when the food source is close by- gives not info about distance

153
Q

role of the workers (one caste)

A

find food, care for young and defend the colony.

154
Q

what do the few members of the other cast do (+ queen)

A

involved with reproduction

155
Q

what does courtship behaviour ensure

A

species and gender recognition, receptiveness to mating and maintains pair bonds for care of the young, enhancing their survival

156
Q

what type of behaviours are courtship behaviours

A

innate and often follow a fixed action pattern

157
Q

what is sexual dimorphism

A

where genders have different appearances (same species)

158
Q

what is intra-sexual selection

A

involves male-to-male combat e.g. male elephant seals fight for mating rights, larger, more aggressive males are selected

159
Q

what is inter-sexual selection

A

where the female chooses the ‘fittest’ male

160
Q

what does sexual selection do to males

A

makes them more conspicuous (and vulnerable to predators)

161
Q

what does natural selection favour

A

camouflage
makes characteristics less conspicuous

162
Q

what is teritory

A

an area consistently defended against members of the same species. it allows efficient exploitation of resources.

163
Q

what does territory do

A

enhances reproductive success

164
Q

advantages of living in a colony

A

increased efficiency within the colony, they work together for food reproduction etc. no fighting, division of labour

165
Q

what sexual selection occurs between two members of the same species

A

intrasexual selection, males are much bigger than female seals, they fight for sexual access to females.

166
Q

consequences of intrasexual selection

A

only the stronger males will be selected that only stronger males will be selected for, decreasing variation. weaker males die off