Neurobiology Flashcards

1
Q

A strong mitogen
A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo n e g ro w th facto rs (A) are strong m itogens and act on di erentiated m esenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage. Re c o m b i n a n t h u m a n b o n e morphogenic proteins (B) are potent inducers of bone cell di erentiation and may act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells. Both bone growth factors (A) and bone morphogenic proteins (B) are polypeptides. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A potent inducer of bone cell di erentiation
A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo n e g ro w th facto rs (A) are strong m itogens and act on di erentiated m esenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage. Re c o m b i n a n t h u m a n b o n e morphogenic proteins (B) are potent inducers of bone cell di erentiation and may act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells. Both bone growth factors (A) and bone morphogenic proteins (B) are polypeptides. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Act on di erentiated mesenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage
A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo n e g ro w th facto rs (A) are strong m itogens and act on di erentiated m esenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage. Re c o m b i n a n t h u m a n b o n e morphogenic proteins (B) are potent inducers of bone cell di erentiation and may act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells. Both bone growth factors (A) and bone morphogenic proteins (B) are polypeptides. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells
A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo n e g ro w th facto rs (A) are strong m itogens and act on di erentiated m esenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage. Re c o m b i n a n t h u m a n b o n e morphogenic proteins (B) are potent inducers of bone cell di erentiation and may act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells. Both bone growth factors (A) and bone morphogenic proteins (B) are polypeptides. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Polypeptides
A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Bone growth factors
B. Recombinant human bone morphogenic proteins
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo n e g ro w th facto rs (A) are strong m itogens and act on di erentiated m esenchymal cells of the chondro-osseous lineage. Re c o m b i n a n t h u m a n b o n e morphogenic proteins (B) are potent inducers of bone cell di erentiation and may act on undi erentiated mesenchymal cells. Both bone growth factors (A) and bone morphogenic proteins (B) are polypeptides. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is the correct representation of the subunits of the acetylcholine (ACh) receptor at the neurom uscular junction?
A. abgd
B. a 2bgd
C. ab2gd
D. abg2d
E. abgd2

A

A. abgd
B. a 2bgd
C. ab2gd
D. abg2d
E. abgd2

Ace t y lch o lin e r e ce p t o r s c a n b e d iv id e d in t o m u s c a r in ic a n d n ico t in ic t y p e s . Th e m u scar in ic acet ylch olin e re ce p t or s a re p r ese n t in all p ost ga n glion ic p a r asympathetic terminals and in the postganglionic sympathetic terminals innervating sweat glands. The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is a G-proteincoupled receptor and therefore transm its its signals via a second m essenger system. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors function as cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are present at the neurom uscular junction and at the preganglionic term inals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Autonomic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors consist of a and b subunits only, i.e., a 2b 2 or a 3b 3. How ever, t h e n icot in ic acet ylch olin e recep tor at the neuromuscular junction is a pentamer consisting of two a , on e b, one γ, and one δ subunit, i.e., a 2bgd (B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is true of the a subunit of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?
A. It contains four hydrophobic transmembrane portions.
B. The binding site is not located on the a subun it .
C. The cytoplasmic loop is the most highly conserved portion of the subunit.
D. The N terminal is extracellular, and the C terminal is intracellular.
E. The transmembrane portion is the least conserved segment.

A

A. It contains four hydrophobic transmembrane portions.
B. The binding site is not located on the a subun it .
C. The cytoplasmic loop is the most highly conserved portion of the subunit.
D. The N terminal is extracellular, and the C terminal is intracellular.
E. The transmembrane portion is the least conserved segment.

Th e liga n d b in d in g sit e is locat e d on t h e a su bu n it (B is false), t h e t ran sm em brane segment is the most highly conserved (E is false), an d th e cytop lasm ic loop connecting M3 and M4 is the least highly conserved (C is false). Both t h e N and the C term inals are extracellular (D is false). Resp on se A is correct . 2,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The number of binding sites on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Each n icot in ic a cet ylch olin e re ce p t or com p lex h a s two extracellular acetylcholine binding sites (B) that are primarily composed of six amino acids located on the a subunits. 2,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Binds g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
A. a subun it of GABAA
receptor
B. b su bun it of GABAA
receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. a subun it of GABAA
receptor
B. b su bun it of GABAA
receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

Th e GABAA receptor functions as a chloride ion channel and is activated by multiple ligands including benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and zolpidem. The binding site for GABA on the GABAA receptor is located between the a and b subunits (C). Th e bin d ing site for ben zod iazep in es is located bet w een th e a and gamma subunits (A). 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Binds benzodiazepines
A. a subun it of GABAA
receptor
B. b su bun it of GABAA
receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. a subun it of GABAA
receptor

B. b su bun it of GABAA
receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

Th e GABAA receptor functions as a chloride ion channel and is activated by multiple ligands including benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and zolpidem. The binding site for GABA on the GABAA receptor is located between the a and b subunits (C). Th e bin d ing site for ben zod iazep in es is located bet w een th e a and gamma subunits (A). 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most closely linked with synaptic plasticity and cell death
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GABA and this receptor are permeable to chloride ions
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Binds strychnine
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Binds benzodiazepine
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

One type of this receptor is both ligand and voltage regulated
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

One type of this receptor is blocked by magnesium ions
A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

A

A. GABA receptor
B. Glutamate receptor
C. Glycine receptor
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor
E. Serotonin (5-HT) receptor

GABA re c e p t o r s (A) have been characterized as the site of action of benzodiazepines. Ligand-gated glutamate receptors (B) can be divided into NMDA and non-NMDA receptors. The N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor is voltage regulated in that the open channel is occluded at norm al resting potential by Mg 21 . Dep olarizat ion d rives Mg 21 ou t of t h e cell, a llow in g ot h e r ion s to pass. High concentrations of glutamate may induce neuronal cell death via activation of NMDA and AMPA (a non-NMDA glutamate receptor [B]), allowing calcium in ux into the cell. Glycine receptors share many features of the GABAA receptor. Both function as ligand-gated chloride ion channels and are present throughout the brainstem and spinal cord. The glycine receptor (C) is a n t agon ize d by st r ych n in e . Nicot in ic a cet ylch o lin e re ce p t or s fu n ct io n a s cation-selective ion channels. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (D) a r e p r e sent at the neuromuscular junction and at the preganglionic terminals of sympathetic and parasympathetic bers. Se ro to n in re ce pto rs (E) can be fou n d at multiple sites and are prominent in the dorsal raphe nucleus. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Signi cantly permeable to calcium ions
A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

A

A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

Th e ligan d - gat e d glu t a m at e re ce p t or s ca n b e grou p e d in t o N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptors (B) and non-NMDA receptors, all of which increase cation conductance when activated. The non-NMDA receptors include the a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid (AMPA) receptor (C) an d t h e kainic acid (A) receptor. Th e NMDA receptor (B) can be blocked by magnesium at resting membrane potentials and is therefore both ligand and voltage gated. NMDA receptors (B) are particularly permeable to calcium ions, participate in long-term potentiation, and are thought to be im portant for neuronal plasticity, learning, and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Permeable to monovalent cations
A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

A

A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

Th e ligan d - gat e d glu t a m at e re ce p t or s ca n b e grou p e d in t o N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptors (B) and non-NMDA receptors, all of which increase cation conductance when activated. The non-NMDA receptors include the a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid (AMPA) receptor (C) an d t h e kainic acid (A) receptor. Th e NMDA receptor (B) can be blocked by magnesium at resting membrane potentials and is therefore both ligand and voltage gated. NMDA receptors (B) are particularly permeable to calcium ions, participate in long-term potentiation, and are thought to be im portant for neuronal plasticity, learning, and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ligand-gated
A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

A

A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

Th e ligan d - gat e d glu t a m at e re ce p t or s ca n b e grou p e d in t o N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptors (B) and non-NMDA receptors, all of which increase cation conductance when activated. The non-NMDA receptors include the a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid (AMPA) receptor (C) an d t h e kainic acid (A) receptor. Th e NMDA receptor (B) can be blocked by magnesium at resting membrane potentials and is therefore both ligand and voltage gated. NMDA receptors (B) are particularly permeable to calcium ions, participate in long-term potentiation, and are thought to be im portant for neuronal plasticity, learning, and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Voltage-gated
A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

A

A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

Th e ligan d - gat e d glu t a m at e re ce p t or s ca n b e grou p e d in t o N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptors (B) and non-NMDA receptors, all of which increase cation conductance when activated. The non-NMDA receptors include the a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid (AMPA) receptor (C) an d t h e kainic acid (A) receptor. Th e NMDA receptor (B) can be blocked by magnesium at resting membrane potentials and is therefore both ligand and voltage gated. NMDA receptors (B) are particularly permeable to calcium ions, participate in long-term potentiation, and are thought to be im portant for neuronal plasticity, learning, and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blocked by magnesium ions
A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

A

A. Kainate receptor only
B. N-methyl-d -aspartate (NMDA) receptor only
C. Quisqualate/a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid
(AMPA) receptor on ly
D. A an d B
E. A, B, an d C

Th e ligan d - gat e d glu t a m at e re ce p t or s ca n b e grou p e d in t o N-methyl-d aspartate (NMDA) receptors (B) and non-NMDA receptors, all of which increase cation conductance when activated. The non-NMDA receptors include the a -amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazoleproprionic acid (AMPA) receptor (C) an d t h e kainic acid (A) receptor. Th e NMDA receptor (B) can be blocked by magnesium at resting membrane potentials and is therefore both ligand and voltage gated. NMDA receptors (B) are particularly permeable to calcium ions, participate in long-term potentiation, and are thought to be im portant for neuronal plasticity, learning, and memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is true of acetylcholine (ACh) release from the neuromuscular junction?
A. One molecule of ACh equals 10,000 quanta
B. One quanta contains 10,000 molecules of ACh
C. One quanta equals 1 molecule of ACh
D. One vesicle contains 10,000 quanta
E. One vesicle contains 10 molecules

A

A. One molecule of ACh equals 10,000 quanta
B. One quanta contains 10,000 molecules of ACh
C. One quanta equals 1 molecule of ACh
D. One vesicle contains 10,000 quanta
E. One vesicle contains 10 molecules

Qu an t a refers to th e acet ych olin e qu an t it y of on e syn apt ic vesicle an d h as been estimated in the range of 1,000 to 50,000 molecules of Ach per vesicle (per quanta). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pro-opiomelanocortin is a precursor of
I. Ad ren ocor t icot rop ic h or m on e (ACTH)
II. a -melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
III. b -endorphin
IV. b -lipotropin

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Pre-proopiom elanocortin (POMC) is an opioid precursor peptide along w ith pre-proenkephalin and pre-prodynorphin. The major opioid peptide derived from POMC is b -endorphin. POMC is also conver ted in to t h e n on op ioid peptides adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), melanocyte-stimulating hormone (a -MSH), an d b -lipotropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Removal of calcium ions from the cytosol in a presynaptic nerve terminal
follow in g an act ion p oten t ial is t h ough t to occu r by
I. Act ive t ran sp or t
II. Bin d in g to cytosolic p rotein s
III. Tran sp or t in to in t racellu lar calciu m storage vesicles
IV. Reversal of ow th rough voltage-gated calcium ch an n els

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Re m o va l o f c a lc iu m io n s fr o m t h e c y t o s o l in a p r e s y n a p t ic n e r ve t e r m in a l follow in g an act ion p oten t ial is t h ough t to occu r by active transport, binding to cytosolic proteins, and transport into intracellular calcium storage vesicles. Reversal of ow t h rough volt age-gated ch an n els is n ot a m ech an ism of removal of Ca 21 from the cytosol. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Each of the following occurs in phototransduction except
A. Activated rhodopsin activates a G protein.
B. Activation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) phosphodiesterase increases hydrolysis of cGMP to 59-GMP.
C. Current through a cGMP-activated sodium channel decreases.
D. Rhodopsin is activated when light converts bound 11-cis-retinal to alltrans-retinal.
E. The decreased concentration of cGMP results in depolarization of the plasma membrane.

A

A. Activated rhodopsin activates a G protein.
B. Activation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) phosphodiesterase increases hydrolysis of cGMP to 59-GMP.
C. Current through a cGMP-activated sodium channel decreases.
D. Rhodopsin is activated when light converts bound 11-cis-retinal to alltrans-retinal.
E. The decreased concentration of cGMP results in depolarization of the plasma membrane.

In p h otot ran sd u ct ion , a p h oton of ligh t lead s to t h e isomerization of 11-cisretinal to an all-trans form , activating rhodopsin (D). Ac t ivat e d rh o d o p s i n then stimulates a G-protein-coupled receptor, transducin (A), activating a cyclic GMP-speci c phosphodiesterase (PDE [B]). Th e d ecreased cGMP level (caused by increased cGMP PDE) leads to a decreased Na conductance by cGMP-gated ion channels (C) lead in g to hyp er p olar izat ion of t h e m em bran e. In su m m ar y, light leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (E is false). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Each of the following is true of G proteins except
A. Each G protein is regulated by only one type of receptor.
B. Each G protein may regulate multiple e ectors.
C. The a subun it bin ds guan osin e t riph osph ate (GTP).
D. The b an d g su bun its h elp an ch or th e a subu n it to th e plasm a m em bran e.
E. The b and g subunits modulate guanosine diphosphate (GDP)/GTP
exchange.

A

A. Each G protein is regulated by only one type of receptor.
B. Each G protein may regulate multiple e ectors.
C. The a subun it bin ds guan osin e t riph osph ate (GTP).
D. The b an d g su bun its h elp an ch or th e a subu n it to th e plasm a m em bran e.
E. The b and g subunits modulate guanosine diphosphate (GDP)/GTP
exchange.

G p rotein s bin d to t h e cytop lasm ic face of a given receptor; each G protein may be regulated by separate receptors (A is false). Agon ist s p rom ote th e binding of GTP to the a subunit (C), w h ich can t h en act ivate a variety of e ector proteins (B). Th e G p rotein rem ain s act ive u n t il GTP is hyd rolyzed to GDP. The b an d γ su bu n it s h elp to anchor the G protein to the membrane (D), participate in modulation of GDP/GTP exchange (E), an d con fer localization via myristolization. 2,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

D1 receptors act by this second messenger
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Increased by nitric oxide
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Generated by the action of phospholipase C
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

synergistically activates protein kinase C with calcium
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Binds to calmodulin
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Photoreception utilizes this second messenger
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Opens a calcium channel in the endoplasmic reticulum, releasing free calcium into the cytosol
A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

A

A. Calcium
B. 1,2-Diacylglycerol (DAG)
C. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D. Cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
E. Inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)
F. B an d E

Cyt o s o lic calcium (A) levels are regu lated by several di eren t factors, an d calcium (A) m ay e xe r t it s in u e n ce via m u lt ip le m e ch a n ism s—ca lciu m is t h e o n ly choice listed, however, that binds to calm odulin. Gq activates phospholipase C w h ich h yd r o lyz e s p h o s p h a t id ylin o s it o l- 4 ,5 - b is p h o s p h a t e t o inositol-1,4,5trisphosphate (IP3 [E]) and diacylglycerol (DAG [B]). IP3 (E) binds to receptors on the endoplasmic reticulum that cause a transient increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. DAG (B) binds protein kinase C (PKC), lowering PKC’s requirement for activation by calcium. Cy c l i c AMP ( c AMP [ C] ) is generated by adenylyl cyclase, stimulated by Gs , an d in h ibited by Gi . D1 receptors are an example of a receptor that uses cAMP (C) as a second m essenger. Nitric oxide generates cyclic GMP (cGMP [D]) via activation of soluble guanylyl cyclase. Ph otorecept ion ut ilizes cGMP (D) a s a s e co n d m e ss e n ge r. Re ca ll t h a t ligh t le a d s to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane via reduced levels of cGMP (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Each of the following is true of the Na 1 /K 1 pum p except th at it
A. Contributes to the resting potential of the cell
B. Hyperpolarizes the membrane
C. Is electrogenic
D. Transports three Na 1 ion s out for t w o K 1 ion s in
E. Utilizes two molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for every three Na 1 ions transported

A

A. Contributes to the resting potential of the cell
B. Hyperpolarizes the membrane
C. Is electrogenic
D. Transports three Na 1 ion s out for t w o K 1 ion s in
E. Utilizes two molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for every three Na 1 ions transported

Th e sod iu m p ot a ssiu m ATPase con t r ib u t es t o t h e resting potential of the cell (A); hyperpolarizing the membrane (B) by p u m p in g three Na 1 ions into the cell for every two K 1 ions it transports out of the cell (D). Th is act ion gen erates both a chemical and an electrical gradient (C) across t h e cell m e m bran e. Th e Na 1 /K 1 pump uses one molecule of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for every three Na 1 ions transported (E is false). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Each of the following is true of events occurring during the action potential except
A. A sudden increase in conductance of Na results in depolarization.
B. Chloride permeability increases during depolarization.
C. During hyperpolarization, the conductance of Na is lower than normal, and the conductance of K is higher than normal.
D. The decrease in Na permeability, occurring as the action potential reaches a peak, results from inactivation of Na channels.
E. The presence of voltage-dependent K channels is to allow faster repolarization.

A

A. A sudden increase in conductance of Na results in depolarization.
B. Chloride permeability increases during depolarization.
C. During hyperpolarization, the conductance of Na is lower than normal, and the conductance of K is higher than normal.
D. The decrease in Na permeability, occurring as the action potential reaches a peak, results from inactivation of Na channels.
E. The presence of voltage-dependent K channels is to allow faster repolarization.

An a c t io n p o t e n t ia l co n s is t s o f t w o p h a s e s , t h e r s t o f w h ich is d u e t o a n increased perm eability to Na caused by the opening of voltage-gated Na channels (A). Th u s th ere is rap id d ep olarizat ion of th e cell d u e to sod iu m in ux. The second phase is due to fast activation of Na channels (D) and delayed opening of K channels that allow K to leave the cell and terminate depolarization (C, E). Ch lorid e p erm eabilit y d oes n ot ch ange d u ring t h e action potential (B is false). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The velocity of an action potential increases with a
A. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
B. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance
C. Low transmembrane resistance, high internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
D. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
E. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance

A

A. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
B. High transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance
C. Low transmembrane resistance, high internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
D. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and high membrane capacitance
E. Low transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance

Th e velocit y of an a ct ion p ot e n t ial in crea ses w it h high transmembrane resistance, low internal resistance, and low membrane capacitance (B). Th e conduction velocity is dependent on the diam eter of the axon and myelination status. Increased axonal diameter leads to lower internal resistance and higher conduction velocities. Myelination leads to increased velocities via increased transm em brane resistance and decreased m em brane capacitance, and therefore higher conduction velocities. 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is true of myelination?
A. It has no e ect on transmembrane resistance but increases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e .
B. It decreases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.
C. It decreases transmembrane resistance and increases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e .
D. It increases transmembrane resistance and decreases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e .
E. It increases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.

A

A. It has no e ect on transmembrane resistance but increases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e .
B. It decreases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.
C. It decreases transmembrane resistance and increases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e .
**D. It increases transmembrane resistance and decreases membrane c a p a c i t a n c e . **
E. It increases both transmembrane resistance and membrane capacitance.

Myelination increases transm em brane resistance and decreases m em brane capacitance, leading to increased conduction velocities. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Usually depolarizes muscle cells past threshold
A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

En d - p l at e p o t e n t ia l (A) refers to the depolarizing process that occurs at the neuromuscular junction, triggering a muscle action potential, and therefore leading to m uscle contraction. Miniature end-plate potentials (B) result from random release of quanta of acet ylcholine causing m inor regional m em brane depolarizations (excitatory end-plate potentials) but do not reach the threshold necessary to produce an action potential. Action potentials are an all-or-nothing phenomenon (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Occurs in unstimulated cells
A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

En d - p l at e p o t e n t ia l (A) refers to the depolarizing process that occurs at the neuromuscular junction, triggering a muscle action potential, and therefore leading to m uscle contraction. Miniature end-plate potentials (B) result from random release of quanta of acet ylcholine causing m inor regional m em brane depolarizations (excitatory end-plate potentials) but do not reach the threshold necessary to produce an action potential. Action potentials are an all-or-nothing phenomenon (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Produces a miniature action potential
A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. End-plate potential
B. Miniature end-plate potential
C. Both
D. Neither

En d - p l at e p o t e n t ia l (A) refers to the depolarizing process that occurs at the neuromuscular junction, triggering a muscle action potential, and therefore leading to m uscle contraction. Miniature end-plate potentials (B) result from random release of quanta of acet ylcholine causing m inor regional m em brane depolarizations (excitatory end-plate potentials) but do not reach the threshold necessary to produce an action potential. Action potentials are an all-or-nothing phenomenon (D). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are produced when a transmitter opens channels permeable to
A. Cl 2 only
B. Cl 2 or K 1
C. Na 1 on ly
D. Na 1 or Cl 2
E. Na 1 or K 1

A

A. Cl 2 only
B. Cl 2 or K 1
C. Na 1 on ly
D. Na 1 or Cl 2
E. Na 1 or K 1

Lo c a l i z e d d e p o l a r i z a t i o n s o f t h e c e l l m e m b r a n e a r e u s u a l ly d u e t o i n c r e a s e d Na 1 permeability (C) and are called excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs). The sum m ation of m ultiple EPSPs can cause an action potential to occur if the depolarization reaches threshold. This e ect can be blocked by inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) that represent regional hyperpolarization m ediated by increased perm eability to Cl 2 or K 1 ions (B). 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is true of axonal transport?
A. Dynamin does not use ATP.
B. Dynein is the motor for anterograde fast axonal transport.
C. Fast axonal transport occurs primarily along neuro laments.
D. Kinesin is the motor for retrograde fast axonal transport.
E. Slow axonal transport occurs at 200 to 400 mm/day.

A

A. Dynamin does not use ATP.
B. Dynein is the motor for anterograde fast axonal transport.
C. Fast axonal transport occurs primarily along neuro laments.
D. Kinesin is the motor for retrograde fast axonal transport.
E. Slow axonal transport occurs at 200 to 400 mm/day.

Dynam in uses GTP a s a n e n e r g y s o u rc e (A) . Dyn ein is t h e m otor p rotein for retrograde fast axonal transport (B and E are false). Slow a xon al t ran sp or t occurs at several millimeters per day (E is false); fast axonal transport occurs at 200 to 400 mm/day and utilizes microtubules (C is false). 2,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Discharge increases with passive stretch
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Discharge increases with active contraction
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In series with extrafusal bers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In parallel with extrafusal bers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sensitive to muscle tension
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Sensitive to muscle length and velocity of length change
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Innervated by group I (large myelinated) fibers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Innervated by group II (small myelinated) bers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Conduction velocity of a erent bers is . 120 m /s.
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Contains dynamic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers
A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Golgi tendon organ
B. Muscle spindle
C. Both
D. Neither

Bo t h Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) and muscle spindles (B) are proprioceptive receptors that are activated by passive stretch and are innervated by group I (large myelinated) bers. Go l g i t e n d o n o rg a n s (A) are ar ran ge d in se r ies w it h the muscle in the tendon and are activated maximally by muscle contraction. Muscle spindles (B) are arranged in parallel w ith the m uscle bers and consist of a dynam ic nuclear bag, static nuclear bag, and nuclear chain bers. Muscle spindles are sensitive to muscle stretch and length. Motor innervation to the muscle spindle via gamma motor neurons allows for the length of the muscle spindle to change its sensitivity to length and velocity of length change. 6,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Each of the following is true of decerebrate rigidity except
A. It results from tonic activity in the vestibulospinal and pontine reticulospinal neurons.
B. It is reduced by cutting dorsal roots.
C. It is reduced by destruction of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum.
D. It occurs with transection between the colliculi.
E. There is increased gamma motor neuron activity.

A

A. It results from tonic activity in the vestibulospinal and pontine reticulospinal neurons.
B. It is reduced by cutting dorsal roots.
C. It is reduced by destruction of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum.
D. It occurs with transection between the colliculi.
E. There is increased gamma motor neuron activity.

Decerebrate rigidit y, or exten sor post uring, result s from ton ic act ivit y of th e lateral vestibular and pontine reticular nuclei (A) promoting unopposed extensor tone of the upper and lower extremities, and may be induced by transection between the colliculi (D). Decerebrate r igid it y is associated with increased gamma motor neuron activity (E) and may be reduced by sectioning of the dorsal roots (B). Dest r u ct ion of t h e an ter ior lobe of t h e cerebellum releases the cells of origin of the lateral vestibular tract from inhibition by Purkinje’s cells, thereby facilitating extensor motor neurons (C is false). 3,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

An antidromic wave in motor bers traveling to anterior horn cells
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Has phasic and tonic components
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion re ex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A protective re ex involving polysynaptic reflex pathways
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion re ex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The electrical equivalent of the tendon reflex
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion re ex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The direct motor response obtained by stimulating a mixed motor sensory nerve
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion re ex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A length-dependent change in muscle force when the limb is passively moved
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion reflex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

A

A. Clasp-knife response
B. Flexion re ex
C. F response
D. H response
E. M response
F. Stretch reflex

Th e H re ex (Ho m an’s [D]) is the electrical equivalent of the tendon re ex circuit and represents the activation of a m uscle contraction w ith subm aximal stimulation insu cient to illicit a direct motor response—the response is m ediated by the activation of m uscle spindles and involves both the dorsal and ventral horns. The H re ex (D) is particularly useful in the diagnosis of S1 rad icu lop at hy. Th e F w ave (C) is evoked by supramaximal stimulus of a mixed motor-sensory nerve and consists of a small muscle action potential recorded after the direct motor response. The F w ave resu lt s from an t id rom ic impulses traveling up the m otor nerve to the anterior horn causing an orthodromic response recorded in distal muscle. A normal F w ave and absent H re ex occur in diseases of sensory nerves and roots. The M w ave (E) is the direct motor response caused by stimulation of a motor nerve. A clasp-knife response consists of the following: if muscles are briskly stretched, the limb moves freely for a short distance followed by rapid resistance—with increasing passive stretch, the resistance disappears. The spinal exion (B) re exes result in exion across multiple joints to withdraw from painful stimuli and may be exaggerated in states of spasticity. The stretch re ex (F) is the fam iliar m yot act ic re ex (ten d on jerk) as occu rs w it h t ap p ing on t h e kn ee with a hammer. The stretch re ex occurs due to th e activation of th e m u scle spindle and nuclear bag bers causing re ex contraction of skeletal m uscle bers via a monosynaptic pathway—the stretch re ex has both a phasic and tonic component. 3,8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ontraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder is achieved through activation of
A. Parasympathetic bers from T9 to L1
B. Parasympathetic bers from S2 to S4
C. Sympathetic bers from T9 to L1
D. Sympathetic bers from S2 to S4
E. Pudendal nerves

A

A. Parasympathetic bers from T9 to L1
B. Parasympathetic bers from S2 to S4
C. Sympathetic bers from T9 to L1
D. Sympathetic bers from S2 to S4
E. Pudendal nerves

Th e d et r u sor m u scle of t h e b la d d e r is in n e r vat e d by parasympathetic bers from the S2-S4 (B) n er ve roots. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which is true of events occurring after a typical axon is severed?
A. Chromatolysis is always associated with decreased protein synthesis.
B. Retraction bulbs form only at the proximal end of the cut nerve.
C. Terminal degeneration leads to the loss of presynaptic terminals.
D. Wallerian degeneration occurs before terminal degeneration.
E. Wallerian degeneration leads to loss of the proximal axon segment.

A

A. Chromatolysis is always associated with decreased protein synthesis.
B. Retraction bulbs form only at the proximal end of the cut nerve.
C. Terminal degeneration leads to the loss of presynaptic terminals.
D. Wallerian degeneration occurs before terminal degeneration.
E. Wallerian degeneration leads to loss of the proximal axon segment.

Ch r o m a t o lys is is a s s o c ia t e d w it h increased protein synthesis (A is false). Re t r a c t io n b u lb s , fr o m t h e b u ild u p o f t r a n s p o r t e d m a t e r ia ls , o cc u r a t both the proximal and the distal ends of the cut nerve (B is false). Waller ian degeneration begins in the distal end of the axon 1 week after initial degenerative changes begin in the axon terminal (D and E are false). Te r m i n a l d e g e n e r a t i o n d o e s l e a d t o t h e loss of presynaptic terminals (C). 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Agents that increase the formation of cerebrospinal uid (CSF) include
I. Carbon d ioxid e
II. Norep in ep h r in e
III. Volat ile an est h et ic agen t s
IV. Carbon ic an hydrase in h ibitors

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Ca rb o n d i o x i d e and volatile anesthetic agents increase cerebrospinal uid (CSF) production, whereas carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and norepinephrine in h ibit CSF production . 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The main neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell is thought to be
A. Acetylcholine
B. GABA
C. Glutamate
D. Glycine
E. Histamine

A

A. Acetylcholine
B. GABA
C. Glutamate
D. Glycine
E. Histamine

Re n s h a w ce lls a r e in h ib it o r y in t e r n e u r o n s lo c a t e d in t h e ve n t r a l h o r n a n d are responsible for a negative feedback re ex called recurrent inhibition. Re n s h a w ce lls u s e g lyc in e a s t h e ir p r in c ip le n e u r o t r a n s m it t e r. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Auditory nerve
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

A

A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

St im u la t io n o f t h e co ch le a r n e r ve b y click s d elive r e d t o t h e e a r ca u s e s t h e appearance of seven waves as recorded by scalp electrodes—brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAERs). Wave I represents activation of the auditory nerve. Wave II represents activation of the cochlear nucleus. Wave III represents activation of the superior olivary nucleus. Wave IV represents activation of the lateral lem niscus. Wave V represents activation of the inferior colliculus. Wave VI corresponds to the medial geniculate nucleus. Wave VII corresponds to the auditory radiations. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cochlear nuclei
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

A

A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

St im u la t io n o f t h e co ch le a r n e r ve b y click s d elive r e d t o t h e e a r ca u s e s t h e appearance of seven waves as recorded by scalp electrodes—brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAERs). Wave I represents activation of the auditory nerve. Wave II represents activation of the cochlear nucleus. Wave III represents activation of the superior olivary nucleus. Wave IV represents activation of the lateral lem niscus. Wave V represents activation of the inferior colliculus. Wave VI corresponds to the medial geniculate nucleus. Wave VII corresponds to the auditory radiations. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Inferior colliculus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

A

A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

St im u la t io n o f t h e co ch le a r n e r ve b y click s d elive r e d t o t h e e a r ca u s e s t h e appearance of seven waves as recorded by scalp electrodes—brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAERs). Wave I represents activation of the auditory nerve. Wave II represents activation of the cochlear nucleus. Wave III represents activation of the superior olivary nucleus. Wave IV represents activation of the lateral lem niscus. Wave V represents activation of the inferior colliculus. Wave VI corresponds to the medial geniculate nucleus. Wave VII corresponds to the auditory radiations. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Lateral lemniscus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

A

A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

St im u la t io n o f t h e co ch le a r n e r ve b y click s d elive r e d t o t h e e a r ca u s e s t h e appearance of seven waves as recorded by scalp electrodes—brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAERs). Wave I represents activation of the auditory nerve. Wave II represents activation of the cochlear nucleus. Wave III represents activation of the superior olivary nucleus. Wave IV represents activation of the lateral lem niscus. Wave V represents activation of the inferior colliculus. Wave VI corresponds to the medial geniculate nucleus. Wave VII corresponds to the auditory radiations. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Superior olivary nucleus
A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

A

A. Wave I
B. Wave II
C. Wave III
D. Wave IV
E. Wave V

St im u la t io n o f t h e co ch le a r n e r ve b y click s d elive r e d t o t h e e a r ca u s e s t h e appearance of seven waves as recorded by scalp electrodes—brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAERs). Wave I represents activation of the auditory nerve. Wave II represents activation of the cochlear nucleus. Wave III represents activation of the superior olivary nucleus. Wave IV represents activation of the lateral lem niscus. Wave V represents activation of the inferior colliculus. Wave VI corresponds to the medial geniculate nucleus. Wave VII corresponds to the auditory radiations. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Absence or delay implies cervical cord disease
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

A

A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

Som at ose n sor y evoke d p ot e n t ia ls (SSEPs) in volve t h e a p p licat ion of 5 - p e r second transcutaneous stimuli to the median, peroneal, and tibial nerves, and recording the evoked potentials as they pass the brachial plexus 2–3 cm above the clavicle (Erb’s point [A]), over the C2 vertebra, and over the contralateral parietal cortex. A delay between the peripheral stimulus and Erb ’s p o i n t (A) suggests a peripheral lesion. Absence or delay in N11 (B) im p lies cer vical cord disease. The summated wave that is recorded at the cervicomedullary junction is N13/P13 (C). Th e cor t ical p oten t ial record ed at th e cor tex from m ed ian nerve stimulation is N19/P22 (D and E). Th e cor t ical w ave after t ibial or p ero neal stimulation is N/P 37. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Absence or delay implies peripheral nerve disease
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

A

A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

Som at ose n sor y evoke d p ot e n t ia ls (SSEPs) in volve t h e a p p licat ion of 5 - p e r second transcutaneous stimuli to the median, peroneal, and tibial nerves, and recording the evoked potentials as they pass the brachial plexus 2–3 cm above the clavicle (Erb’s point [A]), over the C2 vertebra, and over the contralateral parietal cortex. A delay between the peripheral stimulus and Erb ’s p o i n t (A) suggests a peripheral lesion. Absence or delay in N11 (B) im p lies cer vical cord disease. The summated wave that is recorded at the cervicomedullary junction is N13/P13 (C). Th e cor t ical p oten t ial record ed at th e cor tex from m ed ian nerve stimulation is N19/P22 (D and E). Th e cor t ical w ave after t ibial or p ero neal stimulation is N/P 37. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Absence or delay implies a lesion in the lower medulla
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

A

A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

Som at ose n sor y evoke d p ot e n t ia ls (SSEPs) in volve t h e a p p licat ion of 5 - p e r second transcutaneous stimuli to the median, peroneal, and tibial nerves, and recording the evoked potentials as they pass the brachial plexus 2–3 cm above the clavicle (Erb’s point [A]), over the C2 vertebra, and over the contralateral parietal cortex. A delay between the peripheral stimulus and Erb ’s p o i n t (A) suggests a peripheral lesion. Absence or delay in N11 (B) im p lies cer vical cord disease. The summated wave that is recorded at the cervicomedullary junction is N13/P13 (C). Th e cor t ical p oten t ial record ed at th e cor tex from m ed ian nerve stimulation is N19/P22 (D and E). Th e cor t ical w ave after t ibial or p ero neal stimulation is N/P 37. 9

72
Q

Is found at the shoulder
A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

A

A. Erb’s point
B. N11
C. N13/P13
D. N19
E. P22

Som at ose n sor y evoke d p ot e n t ia ls (SSEPs) in volve t h e a p p licat ion of 5 - p e r second transcutaneous stimuli to the median, peroneal, and tibial nerves, and recording the evoked potentials as they pass the brachial plexus 2–3 cm above the clavicle (Erb’s point [A]), over the C2 vertebra, and over the contralateral parietal cortex. A delay between the peripheral stimulus and Erb ’s p o i n t (A) suggests a peripheral lesion. Absence or delay in N11 (B) im p lies cer vical cord disease. The summated wave that is recorded at the cervicomedullary junction is N13/P13 (C). Th e cor t ical p oten t ial record ed at th e cor tex from m ed ian nerve stimulation is N19/P22 (D and E). Th e cor t ical w ave after t ibial or p ero neal stimulation is N/P 37. 9

73
Q

Critical threshold below which functional impairment occurs
A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

A

A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

Norm al cerebral blood ow is 55 mL/100 g/min (B). Flow red u ct ion below 8–10 mL/100 g/min (E) results in irreversible cerebral infarction. Functional impairm ent occurs at a cerebral blood ow of 23 mL/100 g/min (C). Th e bio chem ical abnorm alities, including depletion of ATP and creatine phosphate and increase of K 1 level (from inju red cells), can be reversed if ad equ ate blood ow is restored in a timely fashion. 9

74
Q

Irreversible infarction occurs below this ow rate
A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

A

A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

Norm al cerebral blood ow is 55 mL/100 g/min (B). Flow red u ct ion below 8–10 mL/100 g/min (E) results in irreversible cerebral infarction. Functional impairm ent occurs at a cerebral blood ow of 23 mL/100 g/min (C). Th e bio chem ical abnorm alities, including depletion of ATP and creatine phosphate and increase of K 1 level (from inju red cells), can be reversed if ad equ ate blood ow is restored in a timely fashion. 9

75
Q

Normal cerebral blood flow
A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

A

A. 75 mL/100 g/min
B. 55 mL/100 g/min
C. 23 mL/100 g/min
D. 17 mL/100 g/min
E. 8 mL/100 g/min

Norm al cerebral blood ow is 55 mL/100 g/min (B). Flow red u ct ion below 8–10 mL/100 g/min (E) results in irreversible cerebral infarction. Functional impairm ent occurs at a cerebral blood ow of 23 mL/100 g/min (C). Th e bio chem ical abnorm alities, including depletion of ATP and creatine phosphate and increase of K 1 level (from inju red cells), can be reversed if ad equ ate blood ow is restored in a timely fashion. 9

76
Q

Axons of these cells mainly compose the molecular layer
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

77
Q

Reside in the granular layer together with granule cells
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

78
Q

Excitatory
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

79
Q

Mossy bers synapse here
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

80
Q

Climbing bers synapse here
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

81
Q

The only cerebellar cortical output
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

82
Q

Directly inhibit Purkinje cells together with stellate cells
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

83
Q

Utilize glutamate
A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

A

A. Basket cells
B. Golgi cells
C. Granule cells
D. Purkinje cells
E. Stellate cells

Th e ce reb ellar cor t ex con sist s of t h re e laye r s t h at con t a in ve cell t yp es. Th e molecular layer (outermost) is composed of the axons of the granule cells (C) (parallel bers), stellate (E) and basket cells (A) (interneurons), and dendrites of the underlying Purkinje cells (D). Th e Pu rkinje cell layer (m id d le) contains the cell bodies of the Purkinje neurons. They are the sole output of the cerebellar cortex and are inhibitory. The granular (innermost) layer contains num erous granule cells (C, excitatory; utilize glutamate), a few Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d glom er u li (w h ere cells in t h e gran u lar layer form com p lex synaptic contacts with the incoming mossy bers). A erents to the cortex terminate either in the granule cell layer as mossy bers or on the dendrites of Purkinje cells as climbing bers. Both mossy and climbing ber inputs are excitatory to both the deep cerebellar nuclei and the cortex. Stellate (E) and basket cells (A) directly inhibit Purkinje (D) and Go l g i c e l l s ( B) , an d Golgi cells inhibit granule cells (C). 8

84
Q

Which is true of the macule of the utricle and saccule when the head is held erect?
A. The utricular macule is oriented horizontally, and the saccular macule is oriented vertically.
B. The utricular macule is oriented vertically, and the saccular macule is oriented horizontally.
C. They are both oriented horizontally.
D. They are both oriented vertically.
E. None of the above is true.

A

**A. The utricular macule is oriented horizontally, and the saccular macule is oriented vertically. **
B. The utricular macule is oriented vertically, and the saccular macule is oriented horizontally.
C. They are both oriented horizontally.
D. They are both oriented vertically.
E. None of the above is true.

When the head is upright, the utricular macule is oriented in the horizontal plane and can be activated by linear forces in the horizontal plane. The saccular macule is oriented in the vertical plane and can be stimulated by linear forces in the vertical plane (A is correct). 7

85
Q

The sensation of sharp, pricking pain is mediated by
A. Aa fibers
B. Ab fibers
C. Ag fibers
D. Ad fibers
E. C fibers

A

A. Aa fibers
B. Ab fibers
C. Ag fibers
D. Ad fibers
E. C fibers

Nociception is m ediated prim arily by lightly m yelinated free ner ve endings of type Ad bers (D) or unmyelinated C b e r s ( E) . Th e sen sat ion of sh ar p pain is mediated by Ad bers (D). C b e r s ( E) relay information regarding mechanical, thermal, or chemical stimuli. 7

86
Q

Which is true of synaptic transmission in automatic ganglia?
A. Neuronal ACh receptors contain four types of subunits.
B. The slow excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is produced by muscarinic receptors closing Na 1 an d Ca 21 ch an n els w h ile open ing K 1 ch an n els.
C. The slow inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by activation of muscarinic receptors that close K 1 ch an n els.
D. The fast EPSP is mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors.
E. Peptides are never co-released with ACh.

A

A. Neuronal ACh receptors contain four types of subunits.
B. The slow excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is produced by muscarinic receptors closing Na 1 an d Ca 21 ch an n els w h ile open ing K 1 ch an n els.
C. The slow inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by activation of muscarinic receptors that close K 1 ch an n els.
D. The fast EPSP is mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors.
E. Peptides are never co-released with ACh.

Un like t h e ACh re ce p t or s at t h e n e u rom u scu lar ju n ct ion , t h e ACh re ce p tor s in autonomic ganglia contain only two types of subunits (A is false). Th e fast excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is m ediated by nicotinic ACh receptors (D is true), t h e slow EPSP is m ed iated by m u scar in ic receptors op en in g Na 1 and Ca 21 ch a n n els a n d closin g K 1 ch a n n els (B is false), an d t h e slow in h ibitor y postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is mediated by muscarinic receptors that open K 1 ch an n els (C is false). A variet y of p ept id es t h at ap p ear to be m od u lator y in action may be co-released with Ach (E is false). 8

87
Q

Each of the following is true of the neural innervation of the bladder except
A. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in bladder wall contraction.
B. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in a -adrenergic inhibition of parasympathetics in the pelvic ganglion.
C. Motor neurons in the ventral horn of the sacral spinal cord innervate the external sphincter.
D. Parasympathetic activity promotes bladder emptying.
E. The internal sphincter is innervated by sympathetic bers.

A

A. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in bladder wall contraction.
B. Increased postganglionic sympathetic activity results in a -adrenergic inhibition of parasympathetics in the pelvic ganglion.
C. Motor neurons in the ventral horn of the sacral spinal cord innervate the external sphincter.
D. Parasympathetic activity promotes bladder emptying.
E. The internal sphincter is innervated by sympathetic bers.

In creased sym p at h et ic act ivit y resu lt s in blad d er w all rela xat ion (A is false). Th e ot h e r resp on ses a re t r u e re ga rd in g in n e r vat ion of t h e u r in a r y syst e m . In creased p ost gan glion ic sym p at h et ic act ivit y resu lt s in a -adrenergic inhibition of parasympathetics in the pelvic ganglion (B), m otor n eu ron s in t h e ventral horn of the sacral spinal cord innervate the external sphincter (C), parasympathetic activity promotes bladder emptying (D), an d t h e in ter n al sphincter is innervated by sympathetic bers (E). 7

88
Q

Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus synapse in the
I. Pter ygop alat in e gan glion
II. Gen icu late gan glion
III. Su bm an d ibu lar gan glion
IV. Trigem in al ganglion
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Fib e r s fr o m t h e su p e r io r sa livat o r y n u cle u s t r avel w it h t h e fa cia l n e r ve reaching either the pterygopalatine ganglion via the GSPN and vidian nerve or the submandibular ganglion via the chorda tympani nerve. The geniculate ganglion contains the cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurons carrying a erent inform ation in the facial nerve. The trigem inal ganglion houses the cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurons carrying a erent information in the trigeminal nerve. 7

89
Q

Ipsilateral cortico-cortical association bers arise from cells in cortical layers
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and V
E. V and VI

A

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and V
E. V and VI

Ip silat eral cor t ico -cor t ical associat ion bers ar ise from cells in cor t ical layers II and III. Cells that give rise to commissural bers that interconnect homologous cortical areas via the corpus callosum are found in layer III of the cerebral cortex (the external pyramidal layer). La y e r I is the plexiform molecular layer and consists mainly of nerve cell processes. La y e r II is the external granular layer comprised mostly of small granule cells and projects primarily to local or distant cortical areas as association bers. La y e r IV, t h e internal granular layer, is important for a erent signaling and is thicker in the primary sensory area. La y e r V, t h e in ter n al pyram id al layer, is t h e sou rce of the majority of output bers for the cerebral cortex. La y e r VI is the fusiform layer and lies adjacent to underlying w hite m atter and consists prim arily of association neurons. 7

90
Q

As the membrane of a motor neuron becomes increasingly depolarized,
A. Both EPSP and IPSP decrease
B. Both EPSP and IPSP increase
C. EPSP decreases and IPSP increases
D. EPSP increases and IPSP decreases
E. There is no change in IPSP, but EPSP increases

A

A. Both EPSP and IPSP decrease
B. Both EPSP and IPSP increase
C. EPSP decreases and IPSP increases
D. EPSP increases and IPSP decreases
E. There is no change in IPSP, but EPSP increases

As t h e m e m b r a n e o f a m ot o r n e u r o n b e co m e s in cr e a s in gly d e p o la r ize d , excitatory postsynaptic potentials decrease while inhibitory postsynaptic potentials increase. Ch o i c e C is correct. 8

91
Q

Each of the following is true of Renshaw cells except th at
A. They are part of a negative feedback loop to the motor neurons.
B. They facilitate Ia inhibitory interneurons that act on antagonist motor neurons.
C. They inhibit motor neurons that innervate synergist muscles.
D. They make divergent connections to motor neurons.
E. They receive input from descending pathways.

A

A. They are part of a negative feedback loop to the motor neurons.
B. They facilitate Ia inhibitory interneurons that act on antagonist motor neurons.
C. They inhibit motor neurons that innervate synergist muscles.
D. They make divergent connections to motor neurons.
E. They receive input from descending pathways.

Re n s h a w ce lls a r e lo c a t e d in t h e a n t e r io r h o r n a n d p a r t ic ip a t e in a n e ga t ive feed back loop to t h e m otor n eu ron s (A). They receive input from descending pathways (E), m ake d ivergen t con n ect ion s to m otor n eu ron s (D), an d in h ibit motor neurons that inhibit synergistic muscles (C). Du ring d evelop m en t , Re n s h a w ce lls r e ce ive in p u t fr o m Ia a e r e n t s , b u t t h e y p r o je c t t o a motor neurons (B is false). 3,6,8

92
Q

Involved in the control of posture
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

A

A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

Par t of th e lateral vestibulospinal nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus [B]) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus (B) is interrupted because of removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract (B) has a facilitatory e ect on both a and γ neurons that innervate m uscles in the lim bs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the exors of the arm helps in the maintenance of posture. The superior and medial vestibular nuclei (D) receive sensory input from the sem icircular canals via the vestibular nerve and project to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and medial vestibulospinal tract to mediate re exes of both ocular and head movements in response to vestibular stimuli. Th e inferior vestibular nucleus (A) receives a erents from the sem icircular canals and utricle and sends its projections to the reticular form ation and cerebellum , acting as an integration center for the vestibular labyrinth and cerebellum

93
Q

This nucleus and the medial vestibular nucleus are involved in mediating v e s t i b u l o - o c u l a r r e e x e s
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

A

A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

Par t of th e lateral vestibulospinal nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus [B]) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus (B) is interrupted because of removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract (B) has a facilitatory e ect on both a and γ neurons that innervate m uscles in the lim bs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the exors of the arm helps in the maintenance of posture. The superior and medial vestibular nuclei (D) receive sensory input from the sem icircular canals via the vestibular nerve and project to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and medial vestibulospinal tract to mediate re exes of both ocular and head movements in response to vestibular stimuli. Th e inferior vestibular nucleus (A) receives a erents from the sem icircular canals and utricle and sends its projections to the reticular form ation and cerebellum , acting as an integration center for the vestibular labyrinth and cerebellum

94
Q

Also known as Deiters’ nucleus
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

A

A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

Par t of th e lateral vestibulospinal nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus [B]) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus (B) is interrupted because of removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract (B) has a facilitatory e ect on both a and γ neurons that innervate m uscles in the lim bs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the exors of the arm helps in the maintenance of posture. The superior and medial vestibular nuclei (D) receive sensory input from the sem icircular canals via the vestibular nerve and project to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and medial vestibulospinal tract to mediate re exes of both ocular and head movements in response to vestibular stimuli. Th e inferior vestibular nucleus (A) receives a erents from the sem icircular canals and utricle and sends its projections to the reticular form ation and cerebellum , acting as an integration center for the vestibular labyrinth and cerebellum

95
Q

Integrates input from the vestibular labyrinth and the cerebellum
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

A

A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

Par t of th e lateral vestibulospinal nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus [B]) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus (B) is interrupted because of removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract (B) has a facilitatory e ect on both a and γ neurons that innervate m uscles in the lim bs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the exors of the arm helps in the maintenance of posture. The superior and medial vestibular nuclei (D) receive sensory input from the sem icircular canals via the vestibular nerve and project to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and medial vestibulospinal tract to mediate re exes of both ocular and head movements in response to vestibular stimuli. Th e inferior vestibular nucleus (A) receives a erents from the sem icircular canals and utricle and sends its projections to the reticular form ation and cerebellum , acting as an integration center for the vestibular labyrinth and cerebellum

96
Q

Decerebrate rigidity is due to the unopposed excitatory e ect of the reticulospinal tract and the tract originating from this nucleus
A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

A

A. Inferior vestibular nucleus
B. Lateral vestibular nucleus
C. Medial vestibular nucleus
D. Superior vestibular nucleus
E. None of the above

Par t of th e lateral vestibulospinal nucleus (Deiters’ nucleus [B]) receives direct inhibitory input from Purkinje cells in the cerebellar vermis. Decerebrate rigidity is exacerbated if the portion of the cerebellum connected to Deiters’ nucleus (B) is interrupted because of removal of this inhibitory action. The lateral vestibulospinal tract (B) has a facilitatory e ect on both a and γ neurons that innervate m uscles in the lim bs; this tonic excitation of the extensors of the leg and the exors of the arm helps in the maintenance of posture. The superior and medial vestibular nuclei (D) receive sensory input from the sem icircular canals via the vestibular nerve and project to the medial longitudinal fasciculus and medial vestibulospinal tract to mediate re exes of both ocular and head movements in response to vestibular stimuli. Th e inferior vestibular nucleus (A) receives a erents from the sem icircular canals and utricle and sends its projections to the reticular form ation and cerebellum , acting as an integration center for the vestibular labyrinth and cerebellum

97
Q

Which of the following modi cations of proteins does not occur in the Golgi com plex?
A. Attachment of fatty acids
B. Formation of O-linked sugars
C. Initiation of N-linked glycosylation
D. Sugar phosphorylation
E. Sulfation of tyrosine residues

A

A. Attachment of fatty acids
B. Formation of O-linked sugars
C. Initiation of N-linked glycosylation
D. Sugar phosphorylation
E. Sulfation of tyrosine residues

Th e Golgi a p p a r at u s se r ves t w o m ajor fu n ct ion s for t h e p rocessin g of m e m brane proteins: sorting and targeting of proteins, and post-translational modi cations—particularly of oligosaccharide chains that have already been added in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. (The initial steps of N-linked glycosylation take place in the endoplasmic reticulum; C is false.) The other choices listed take place in the Golgi apparatus: attachment of fatty acids (A), form ation of O-linked sugars (B), sugar phosphorylation (D), an d sulfation of tyrosine residues (E). 2,6

98
Q

a -bungarotoxin
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

**A. Binds to the ACh receptor **
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

99
Q

Botulinum
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

100
Q

Cholera
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
**F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis **
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

101
Q

Cocaine
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

102
Q

Reserpine
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

103
Q

Tetraethylammonium (TEA)
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a n e u rotoxin fou n d in sn ake ve n om t h at is sele ct ive for the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Bo tu lin u m toxin (G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynaptic membrane. Ch o l e ra t o x i n ( F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive activity of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Co c a i n e ( B) acts on the dopamine transporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Re s e rp i n e (E) interacts w ith adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate and store norepinephrine and dopam ine. Te t r a e t h y l a m m o n i u m ( C) is an am m onium salt sim ilar to hexam ethonium that functions as a “nicotine paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated K 1 ch a n n els. Te t r o d o t o x i n ( D ) is a sh t oxin t h at b locks Na 1 ch a n n els in e xcit able cells. 2,5,8

104
Q

Tetrodotoxin
A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 ch an n els
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

A

A. Binds to the ACh receptor
B. Blocks reuptake of dopamine
C. Blocks voltage-gated K 1 ch an n els
D. Blocks voltage-gated Na 1 channels
E. Depletes norepinephrine (NE) from vesicles
F. Inhibits GTP hydrolysis
G. Prevents presynaptic release of quanta of ACh

a -Bungarotoxin (A) is a neurotoxin found in snake venom that is select ive for
the nicot inic acetylcholine receptor at the muscle end-plate. Botulinum toxin
(G) blocks the release of acetylcholine quanta at the presynapt ic m embrane.
Cholera toxin (F) inhibits GTP hydrolysis leading to constitutive act ivity of
adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Cocaine (B) acts on
the dopamine t ransporter (DAT) inhibiting dopamine reuptake. Reserpine (E)
interacts with adrenergic storage vesicles and inhibits their capacity to concentrate
and store norepinephrine and dopamine. Tetraethylammonium (C)
is an ammonium salt similar to hexamethonium that funct ions as a “nicot ine
paralyzing” ganglion blocker, acting primarily via blockade of voltage-gated
K1 channels. Tetrodotoxin (D) is a sh toxin that blocks Na1 channels in excitable
cells.2

105
Q

At the equilibrium potential of potassium,
A. The electrical force equals the chemical force
B. The net electrical force is zero
C. The net chemical force is zero
D. There is no movement of K ion s across th e m em bran e
E. None of the above

A

A. The electrical force equals the chemical force
B. The net electrical force is zero
C. The net chemical force is zero
D. There is no movement of K ion s across th e m em bran e
E. None of the above

At the equilibrium potent ial, the chemical and electrical forces are equal, but
opposite (A). There is no net m ovement of K ions across the m embrane (D is
false). Neither the net chemical nor the net elect rical force equal zero at the
equilibrium potential of potassium (B and C are false).2,11

106
Q

Each of the following is true of G protein activation and deactivation except
A. Activation of any G protein will inhibit the activation of other G proteins in the membrane
B. Hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP inactivates a G protein
C. The bg su bun it stabilizes th e bin ding of GDP
D. The bg su bun it stabilizes th e bin ding of GTP
E. When activated, the a subun it’s a n it y for th e bg subun it decreases

A

A. Activation of any G protein will inhibit the activation of other G proteins in the membrane
B. Hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP inactivates a G protein
C. The bg su bun it stabilizes th e bin ding of GDP
D. The bg su bun it stabilizes th e bin ding of GTP
E. When activated, the a subun it’s a n it y for th e bg subun it decreases

Upon binding of a ligand to a G-protein-coupled receptor, GDP on the a subunit
is converted to GTP and the G protein dissociates from the receptor. The a
and bg subunits then dissociate (the a subunit’s a nity for the b g subunit
decreases [E]). Both subunits are then free to exert their e ects on downstream
e ectors, including the inhibit ion of other G proteins in the membrane
(A). The a subunit then catalyzes hydrolysis of GTP to GDP, promot ing
reassembly of the trimer and receptor inactivation (B). At rest , the bg subunit
inhibits activat ion by both stabilizing the binding of GDP (C) and inhibit ing
the binding of GTP (D is false).

107
Q

The e ect of succinylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is
A. Ampli ed by increased muscle temperature
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Not reversed by anticholinesterase agents
D. Not similar to that of decamethonium
E. Similar to that of D-tubocurarine

A

A. Ampli ed by increased muscle temperature
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Not reversed by anticholinesterase agents
D. Not similar to that of decamethonium
E. Similar to that of D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine and decamethonium cause depolarizing neuromuscular
blockade (B and D are false). The e ect is not reversed by ant icholinesterase
agents (C) and is ampli ed by decreased muscle temperature (A is false).
Succinylcholine is resistant to the act ion of acet ylcholinesterase (C is true)

108
Q

Muscle stretch receptors in deep tissue
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

A

A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

109
Q

Pressure and joint position in deep tissue
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

A

A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

110
Q

Slowly and rapidly adapting receptors in the skin
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

A

A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

111
Q

Rapidly adapting receptors in the skin
A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

A

A. Area 1
B. Area 2
C. Area 3a
D. Area 3b

The primary somatosensory area consists of Brodmann’s areas 1, 2, and 3.
Area 1 (A) receives input from rapidly adapting receptors in the skin. Area 2
(B) deals w ith pressure and joint position in deep tissues. Area 3a (C) receives
muscle, tendon, and joint stretch receptors. Area 3b (D) receives input from
both slowly and rapidly adapting receptors in the skin

112
Q

Each of the following is true of the dorsal column medial lemniscal system except
A. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the dorsal columns
B. Second-order neurons cross the midline in the medial lemniscus
C. Thalamic neurons project to the primary somatic sensory cortex (SI)
D. Thalamic neurons project to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII)
E. Touch and vibration sense from the arm is relayed in the dorsal columns

A

A. Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the dorsal columns
B. Second-order neurons cross the midline in the medial lemniscus
C. Thalamic neurons project to the primary somatic sensory cortex (SI)
D. Thalamic neurons project to the secondary somatic sensory cortex (SII)
E. Touch and vibration sense from the arm is relayed in the dorsal columns

Proprioception from the leg is relayed in the lateral column by axons of neurons
in Clarke’s column (A is false). The other responses regarding the dorsal
column medial lemniscal system are true. In addition to sending axons to the
primary somatic sensory cortex (SI [C]), thalamic neurons send a sparse project
ion to the secondary somat ic sensory cortex (SII [D]). Touch and vibration
sense from the arm are relayed in the dorsal columns (E). Second-order neurons
cross the midline in the medial lemniscus (B).

113
Q

Truncal ataxia
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

114
Q

Appendicular ataxia
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

115
Q

Terminal tremor
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

116
Q

Nystagmus
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

117
Q

Scanning speech
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

118
Q

Hypertonia
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

119
Q

Hypotonia is seen in lesions of the interposed nuclei or of this portion
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

120
Q

Decomposition of multijoint movements
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

121
Q

Delay in initiating movements
A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

A

A. Cerebellar hemisphere, intermediate part (interposed nuclei)
B. Cerebellar hemisphere, lateral part (dentate nuclei)
C. Flocculonodular (lateral vestibular nucleus)
D. Vermis (fastigial nucleus)
E. None of the above

The cells of the interposed nuclei are associated with the paravermal cortex
and spinocerebellum, which cont ributes to posture, muscle tone, and muscle
activity of the trunk and limbs during stereotyped act ivit ies—injuries to the
interposed nuclei and associated cortex (A) m ay lead to appendicular ataxia.
The cells of the dentate nucleus are associated with the lateral cerebellar cortex
and cerebrocerebellum, which participate in planning and coordination of
skilled movement . Lesions to the dentate nucleus and associated cortex (B)
can result in terminal tremor, decomposition of multijoint movements, and
delay in initiating movements. Lesions to the occulonodular lobe and lateral
vestibular nucleus (C) may lead to nystagmus; generally, the occulonodular
lobe is involved in balance, posture, and the coordinat ion of head and
neck movements via its reciprocal connections with the vestibular system.
The vermis is part of the spinocerebellum and is largely responsible for the
maintenance and coordination of axial and girdle musculature and the fast igial
nucleus is associated with the vestibulocerebellum. Injuries to the vermis
and fastigial nucleus (D) may lead to truncal ataxia, scanning speech, and
hypotonia. Lesions to the cerebellum are not known to cause hypertonia (E)

122
Q

In the formation of nitric oxide, nitric oxide synthetase acts on the substrate
A. Arginine
B. Citrulline
C. Lysine
D. Ornithine
E. Tyrosine

A

A. Arginine
B. Citrulline
C. Lysine
D. Ornithine
E. Tyrosine

Nitric oxide production in neurons is from l -arginine (A) and molecular
oxygen by nit ric oxide synthetase acting in conjunction with the cofactor,
reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH), and Ca21
ions. The arginine (A) is converted to citrulline (B).

123
Q

The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Histidine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Serotonin

A

A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Histidine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Serotonin

The pineal gland synthesizes melatonin from serotonin (E) by the action of
two enzymes sensit ive to variat ions of diurnal light. The rhythmic uctuations
in melatonin synthesis are directly related to the daily light cycle.10

124
Q

Binds ACh
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

125
Q

Found in skeletal muscle
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

126
Q

Found in sympathetic neurons
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

127
Q

Blocked by hexamethonium
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

128
Q

Activates a second messenger system via G proteins
A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Muscarinic receptor
B. Nicotinic receptor
C. Both
D. Neither

The nicotinic and muscarinic receptors both (C) bind acetylcholine and are
found in sympathetic neurons, whereas the directly gated receptors in skeletal
muscle are nicotinic (B). Hexamethonium selectively blocks nicotinic ACh
receptors (B). Muscarinic receptors (A) activate second m essenger systems
via G proteins, whereas nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels.

129
Q

The EPSP in spinal motor neurons results from the opening of
A. Cl 2 ch an n els on ly
B. Cl 2 an d Na 1 ch an n els
C. K 1 ch an n els on ly
D. Na 1 an d K 1 channels
E. Na 1 an d Cl 2 ch an n els

A

A. Cl 2 ch an n els on ly
B. Cl 2 an d Na 1 ch an n els
C. K 1 ch an n els on ly
D. Na 1 an d K 1 channels
E. Na 1 an d Cl 2 ch an n els

The excitatory postsynaptic potential in spinal motor neurons is mediated by
the action of acetylcholine on the acetylcholine receptor (a nonselective cation
channel), which increases membrane permeability to both Na1 and K1 (D)

130
Q

The response of the carotid sinus to an increase in blood pressure is a
I. Decrease in p er ip h eral resist an ce
II. Decrease in h ear t rate
III. Decrease in force of con t ract ion
IV. Decrease in blood pressu re

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Increased mean arterial pressure leads to increased stretch across the baroreceptors
located in the carotid sinus (carried to the brainstem w ith the glossopharyngeal
nerve) leading to re ex vasodilation and bradycardia. These e ects
are mediated by decreased sympathetic tone and increased vagal tone, which
leads to a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility, as well as systemic
vasodilation, lowering systemic vascular resistance as well as blood pressure

131
Q

Contains actin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

132
Q

Contains myosin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

133
Q

Contains tropomyosin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

134
Q

Contains troponin
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

135
Q

Binds ADP during rest
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

136
Q

Sarcomeres contain them
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

137
Q

Attached to the Z disks
A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Thick filaments
B. Thin filaments
C. Both
D. Neither

Thin laments (B) consist of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin and are
at tached to the Z disks. Thick laments (A) are composed of multiple myosin
molecules and bind ADP during rest. A sarcomere is the building block of a
myo bril and extends from one Z disk to the next. A sarcomere is composed
of both (C) thick and thin laments

138
Q

Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle contraction?
A. Calcium binds to tropomyosin.
B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin laments toward the center of the sarcomere
C. The detachment of cross bridges does not require ATP.
D. The dissociation of actin from myosin uses energy from the hydrolysis of GTP.
E. When muscle relaxes, calcium di uses into the sarcoplasmic reticulum from the intracellular space.

A

A. Calcium binds to tropomyosin.
B. Rotation of myosin heads pulls thin laments toward the center of the sarcomere
C. The detachment of cross bridges does not require ATP.
D. The dissociation of actin from myosin uses energy from the hydrolysis of GTP.
E. When muscle relaxes, calcium di uses into the sarcoplasmic reticulum from the intracellular space.

During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium binds to troponin (A is false).
Both the associat ion and detachment of cross bridges require ATP (not GTP;
C and D are false). During relaxation, Ca21 is actively pumped out of the intracellular
space and back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (E is false)

139
Q

The resting potential of a neuron is approximately
A. 2 90 mV
B. 2 65 mV
C. 2 50 mV
D. 1 50 mV
E. 1 65 mV

A

A. 2 90 mV
B. 2 65 mV
C. 2 50 mV
D. 1 50 mV
E. 1 65 mV

The rest ing potential of a neuron is approximately 2 65 mV (B). The other
responses are incorrect

140
Q

Each of the following agents or states promotes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release except
A. Alcohol
B. Angiotensin II
C. Decreased blood volume
D. Vomiting
E. Increased plasma osmolality

A

A. Alcohol
B. Angiotensin II
C. Decreased blood volume
D. Vomiting
E. Increased plasma osmolality

Antidiuretic hormone, or arginine vasopressin, is secreted by the posterior
pituitary gland and inhibits renal excretion of free water. Increased plasma
osmolality (E) stimulates osmoreceptor cells in the hypothalamus, w hich leads
to the release of ADH. Volume contraction, or decreased blood volume (C),
promotes ADH release via three mechanisms: (1) At a xed osmolality, volume
contraction increases the rate of ADH release—during a low-volume state, a
low plasma osmolality that would normally inhibit the release of ADH would
allow ADH secretion to continue. (2) Low left atrial pressure decreases the ring
of vagal a erents, leading to increased ADH secretion. (3) Low circulating
blood volume leads to renin production by the juxtaglomerular apparatus in
the kidneys. Renin is converted to angiotensin II (B), which acts on the subfornical
organ and organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis to stimulate
ADH release. Pain and nausea (D) tend to promote ADH secretion. Alcohol (A)
inhibits the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland.

141
Q

Each of the following is a criterion that a chemical messenger should ful ll to be considered a transm itter except
A. A speci c mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action
B. It is present in the presynaptic terminal and is released in amounts suf cient to exert its action on the postsynaptic neuron or e ector organ
C. It is synthesized in the neuron
D. The enzymes that catalyze the steps in its synthesis are cytoplasmic
E. The exogenously applied substance should mimic the action of the endogenously released transmitter

A

A. A speci c mechanism exists for removing it from its site of action
B. It is present in the presynaptic terminal and is released in amounts suf cient to exert its action on the postsynaptic neuron or e ector organ
C. It is synthesized in the neuron
D. The enzymes that catalyze the steps in its synthesis are cytoplasmic
E. The exogenously applied substance should mimic the action of the endogenously released transmitter

The enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the low-molecular-weight transmit
ters are usually cytoplasmic (dopamine-b-hydroxylase is an except ion),
but this is not a criterion that must be ful lled for a chemical to be considered
a transmit ter (D is false).

142
Q

Each of the following is considered a neurotransmitter except
A. Epinephrine
B. Glycine
C. Histamine
D. Serotonin
E. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

A

A. Epinephrine
B. Glycine
C. Histamine
D. Serotonin
E. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

VIP (E) is considered a neuroactive peptide, not a neurotransmitter. The
other choices listed are considered to be neurotransmit ters: epinephrine (A),
glycine (B), histamine (C), and serotonin (D).

143
Q

Each of the following organs is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems except th e
A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Heart
C. Lungs and bronchi
D. Salivary glands
E. Sweat glands

A

A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Heart
C. Lungs and bronchi
D. Salivary glands
E. Sweat glands

In general, postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine.
Sweat glands (E) are an except ion to this rule, however. Sweat glands are
innervated by sympathet ic neurons that release acetylcholine and act via
muscarinic receptors. The sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic
system only

144
Q

Each of the following is true of gamma motor neurons except
A. Their activation during active muscle contraction allows muscle spindles to sense changes in length
B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum
C. They innervate intrafusal fibers
D. Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate dynamic nuclear bag bers only
E. Static gamma motor neurons innervate nuclear chain bers and static nuclear bag bers

A

A. Their activation during active muscle contraction allows muscle spindles to sense changes in length
B. Their activity is increased after lesions of the spinocerebellum
C. They innervate intrafusal fibers
D. Dynamic gamma motor neurons innervate dynamic nuclear bag bers only
E. Static gamma motor neurons innervate nuclear chain bers and static nuclear bag bers

Upon st imulation of extrafusal muscle bers innervated by a m otor neurons,
the muscle spindles (intrafusal bers) would have a tendency to go slack,
which would make them insensitive to further changes in length. g motor
neurons innervate intrafusal bers (C), causing intrafusal bers to contract
to sense ongoing changes in length of the muscle (A). The activit y of g m otor
neurons is profoundly reduced by lesions in the cerebellum (B is false).

145
Q

Neurotransmitters that are found in major descending pain pathways from the pons and medulla are
I. Dop am in e
II. Norep in ep h r in e
III. Acet ylch olin e
IV. Seroton in

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Descending serotonergic pathways (from rost roventral medullary neurons)
and noradrenergic pathways (from the pons) are important links in the
supraspinal modulat ion of nociceptive t ransmission

146
Q

Cell groups that have concentric receptive elds include
I. Ret in al gan glion cells
II. Sim p le cells of t h e p r im ar y visu al cor tex
III. Lateral gen icu lat e cells
IV. Com plex cells of th e prim ar y visual cor tex

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Cells of the retina and lateral geniculate nucleus have concentric recept ive
elds that fall into two classes: on-center or o -center. Simple cells of the visual
cortex have rectangular recept ive elds. The recept ive eld of a complex
cell in the primary visual cortex has no clearly dist inct excitatory or inhibitory
zones. Orientation but not posit ion of the light stimulus is important.

147
Q

A subcutaneous, slowly adapting receptor
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

148
Q

A rapidly adapting receptor found in the dermal papillae
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

149
Q

A receptor subserving pressure and with a small receptive eld
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

150
Q

A rapidly adapting receptor more sensitive to high-frequency stimulation than low -frequency stimulation
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

151
Q

A nociceptor
A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

A. Free nerve endings
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Merkel’s receptors
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Ruffini’s corpuscles

Meissner’s corpuscles (B) and Merkel’s receptors (C) are both found super -
cially in the dermal papillae and have small recept ive elds. Pacinian (D) and
Ru ni’s (E) corpuscles are found in the deeper subcutaneous tissue and have
large receptive elds. Both Merkel’s receptors (C) and Ru ni’s corpuscles
(E) are slowly adapt ing and subserve pressure sensation. Pacinian corpuscles
(D) are m ore sensitive to low- than high-frequency stimuli and transmit utter.
Pain sensation is transmitted by free nerve endings (A).

152
Q

A man in his early 40s presents with the insidious onset of persistent spasms of the proximal lower limbs and lumbar spinal muscles that initially caused di culty walking, but now have left him bed bound with the legs locked in an extended position. His spasticity abates during sleep and during general anestehsia. His EMG is normal. He has no history, signs, or symptoms of cancer. What is the m ost likely autoantibody responsible?
A. Anti-amphiphysin
B. Anti-gephyrin
C. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
D. Anti-Yo
E. Anti-Ri

A

A. Anti-amphiphysin
B. Anti-gephyrin
C. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
D. Anti-Yo
E. Anti-Ri

The diagnosis in the case is “sti -man” or “sti -person” syndrome. Most cases
of this disorder show circulating autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase
(C), which is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing GABA. The st i -
person syndrome can occur rarely as a paraneoplastic syndrome in associat ion
with breast cancer; in those cases, it is associated with an anti-amphiphysin
(A) or an anti-gephyrin (B) autoantibody. The anti-Yo (D) antibody occurs
with ovarian, lung, and Hodgkin tumors and causes cerebellar degeneration.
The anti-Ri (E) antibody is responsible for the opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia
seen with some breast and small-cell lung cancers

153
Q

A 3-year-old child presents with abnormal eye movements and is diagnosed with an optic tract glioma. What other nding might you expect in this patient?
A. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
B. Gain of function mutation in a tumor promoter
C. Mutation associated with chromosome 22
D. Mutation a ecting the RAS signal-transduction pathway
E. Mutation of the hamartin gene locus on chromosome 9

A

A. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
B. Gain of function mutation in a tumor promoter
C. Mutation associated with chromosome 22
D. Mutation a ecting the RAS signal-transduction pathway
E. Mutation of the hamartin gene locus on chromosome 9

This young pat ient presenting with an opt ic tract glioma may carry a diagnosis
of neuro bromatosis type 1 (NF1). NF1 is associated with neuro bromas,
optic nerve and tract gliomas, pigmented nodules of the iris, and hyperpigmented
cutaneous macules. The NF1 gene is located on chromosome 17 and
encodes the protein neuro bromin. Neuro bromin is thought to be a tumor
suppressor gene (B is false) that has some structural homology to the RAS
superfamily of GTPases. Therefore, choice D is correct. Neuro bromatosis
type 2 is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas (A) and is caused
by a mutation on chromosome 22 (C). Tuberous sclerosis is associated with
mutations of the hamartin gene on chromosome 9 (E).12

154
Q

Which of the following cell cycle transitions represents the “point of no return” in the cell cycle?
A. G0 /G1
B. G1 /S
C. G1 /G0
D. G2 /M
E. S/G

A

A. G0 /G1
B. G1 /S
C. G1 /G0
D. G2 /M
E. S/G

The G1/S transition (B) represents the point of no return in the cell cycle. At
this point, DNA is checked for accuracy prior to entering the S phase. If DNA
repair is not possible, apoptot ic mechanisms are activated. Another checkpoint
exists at the G2/M transition (D), which is particularly important for
cells exposed to ionizing radiat ion.12

155
Q

The main advantage of Ki -67 or MIB1 labeling over traditional hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining is
A. MIB1 labeling index allows for the more accurate diagnosis of glioblastoma
B. MIB1 labeling index does not provide any advantage over H&E staining
C. MIB1 labels cells proliferating in multiple stages of the cell cycle
D. Mitoses are more obvious with MIB1 staining
E. World Health Organization (WHO) grading of brillary astrocytomas depends on MIB1 labeling index

A

A. MIB1 labeling index allows for the more accurate diagnosis of glioblastoma
B. MIB1 labeling index does not provide any advantage over H&E staining
C. MIB1 labels cells proliferating in multiple stages of the cell cycle
D. Mitoses are more obvious with MIB1 staining
E. World Health Organization (WHO) grading of brillary astrocytomas depends on MIB1 labeling index

Traditional H&E staining techniques rely on the ident i cat ion of mitoses for
the detect ion of proliferating cells. The key advantage of MIB1 labeling is the
ability to detect proliferating cells in multiple stages of the cell cycle (C),
even those not currently in the M phase of the cell cycle. MIB1 labeling does
add data that standard techniques cannot provide, so choice B is incorrect.
Mitoses are typically counted on the H&E preparat ion, and while cells
undergoing mitosis are posit ive for MIB1, choice D is not the best answer.
While MIB1 labeling may be useful in determining the proliferat ive index of
a tumor, it is not a part of the WHO criteria for the grading of brillary
astrocytomas (A and E)

156
Q

Beta-2 transferrin
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

157
Q

Calcium
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

158
Q

Chloride
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

159
Q

Glucose
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

160
Q

Osmolality
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

161
Q

Potassium
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

162
Q

Sodium
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

163
Q

Uric acid
A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

A

A. Value is higher in CSF than plasma.
B. Value is higher in plasma than CSF.
C. Value is equal in plasma and CSF.

CSF contains a higher concentrat ion of chloride than the blood plasma. Beta-2
transferrin is a component that is unique to CSF and can be helpful in the
diagnosis of CSF leak (A). Osmolalit y and sodium concentration are equal
between CSF and plasma (C). The concentrat ions of potassium, calcium, uric
acid, and glucose are lower in CSF than in plasma (B).

164
Q

Huntington’s disease is associated with all of the following except
A. Caudate atrophy
B. Genetic abnormality localizes to chromosome 4
C. Increased acetylcholine transferase activity
D. Progressive choreoathetosis
E. Trinucleotide CAG repeat

A

A. Caudate atrophy
B. Genetic abnormality localizes to chromosome 4
C. Increased acetylcholine transferase activity
D. Progressive choreoathetosis
E. Trinucleotide CAG repeat

Hunt ington’s disease is a fatal, autosomal dominant, progressive choreoathetosis
(D) that involves a trinucleotide CAG (E) repeat on chromosome 4 (B).
Brain imaging reveals atrophy of the caudate heads (A) w ith a characterist ic
appearance of hydrocephalus ex vacuo. While the pathophysiology is not
well understood, there is believed to be decreased acetylcholine transferase
activity in pat ients with Huntington’s disease (C is false).

165
Q

What is the equilibrium potential for sodium?
A. 2 94 mV
B. 2 90 mV
C. 2 86 mV
D. 1 61 mV
E. 1 267 mV

A

A. 2 94 mV
B. 2 90 mV
C. 2 86 mV
D. 1 61 mV
E. 1 267 mV

The equilibrium potential is the membrane potential at which no net di usion
of an ion occurs because of balanced elect rical and chemical gradients.
The resting membrane potent ial for sodium is 1 61 mV (D), potassium is
2 94 mV (A), chloride is 2 86 mV (C), and calcium is 1 267 mV (E). The rest ing
membrane potential of large, myelinated peripheral nerves is approximately
2 90 mV (B). The resting membrane potential is determined largely by the
equilibrium potent ial of potassium (2 94 mV) because potassium is 100 times
more permeable than sodium.

166
Q

All of the following statements regarding the O 6 -methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) gene in glioblastom a are true except
A. Methylation of the MGMT gene’s prom oter region upregulates MGMT gene
expression
B. MGMT m ethylation predicts im proved sur vival
C. MGMT m ethylation predicts im proved ben e t from tem ozolom ide
D. The MGMT gen e en codes a DNA repair protein
E. The MGMT gen e prom otes ch em oth erapy resistan ce

A

A. Methylation of the MGMT gene’s prom oter region upregulates MGMT gene
expression

B. MGMT m ethylation predicts im proved sur vival
C. MGMT m ethylation predicts im proved ben e t from tem ozolom ide
D. The MGMT gen e en codes a DNA repair protein
E. The MGMT gen e prom otes ch em oth erapy resistan ce

The O6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) gene codes for a DNA
repair protein (D) that represents an important mechanism for chemotherapy
resistance (E) in glioblastoma. Methylation of the gene’s promoter
region leads to silencing of the MGMT gene (A is false). MGMT m ethylation
is an independent predictor of improved survival (B) as well as a predictor
of survival bene t from temozolomide (C) in pat ients with glioblastoma

167
Q

0 mL/100 g/min
A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

A

A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

168
Q

10 mL/100 g/min
A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

A

A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

169
Q

15 mL/100 g/min
A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

A

A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

170
Q

A. 4 m in utes

18 mL/100 g/min
A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

A

A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

171
Q

55 mL/100 g/min
A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

A

A. 4 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 80 minutes
E. Infnite

Normal cerebral blood ow (CBF) is 50–55 mL/100 g/min (E). Cells can compensate
at a CBF of 18 mL/100 g/min indefinitely (E). CBF in the ischemic
penumbra is thought to be 8–23 mL/100 g/min. At less than 8 mL/100 g/min,
there is rapid cell death from ion pump failure (A). At 10 mL/100 g/min, cell
death occurs after approximately 40 minutes (C). At 15 mL/100 g/min cell
death occurs after 80 minute (D).

172
Q

Associated with limbic encephalitis
A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

A

A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

173
Q

Cerebellar degeneration, associated with ovarian and breast cancer
A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

A

A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

174
Q

Sensory neuropathy, encephalitis, and cerebellar degeneration, associated with pulmonary carcinoma and lymphoma
A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

A

A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

175
Q

Opsoclonus, associated with breast cancer
A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

A

A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

176
Q

Stiff-man syndrome
A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

A

A. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Ma
D. Anti-Ri
E. Anti-Yo

Limbic encephalitis is a subacute encephalitis that t ypically involves the mesial
temporal lobes, cingulate gyri, and insula. Limbic encephalitis is associated
with testicular cancer, lung cancer, and anti-Ma (C) antibodies. Anti-Yo (E)
ant ibodies are associated with ovarian and breast cancer and lead to cerebellar
degenerat ion. Anti-Hu (B) ant ibodies are associated w ith oat cell pulmonary
carcinoma and lymphoma and are associated with sensory neuropathy,
encephalit is, and cerebellar degenerat ion. Anti-Ri (D) antibodies are associated
with breast cancer and lead to opsoclonus. Sti -man syndrome is associated
with antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (A) in . 60% of cases.