Clinical Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

A common sign of multiple sclerosis

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most often associated with large destructive lesions of the pons

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Seen exclusively in infants

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Associated with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Associated with lesions of the parasellar region

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Associated with lesions of the parietal lobe

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Associated with lesions of the pineal region

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

A

A. Convergence nystagmus
B. Dissociated nystagmus (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
C. Downbeat nystagmus
D. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus
E. Ocular bobbing
F. Seesaw nystagmus
G. Spasmus mutans

Convergence nystagmus (A) is a “rhythmic oscillation in w hich a slow abduction
of the eyes with respect to each other is followed by a quick movement
of adduction,” and may be accompanied by other signs of Parinaud’s phenomenon,
suggesting a lesion of the pineal region or midbrain tegmentum.
Dissociated nystagmus (B) is horizontal nystagmus that occurs only in the
abducting eye—this is a sign of internuclear ophthalmoplegia and is associated
with multiple sclerosis. Downbeat nystagmus (C) has been associated
with lesions of the cervicomedullary junction including Chiari malformation,
syrinx, and basilar invaginat ion. Impairment of optokinetic nystagmus (D)
is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe—“the slow pursuit phase of the
OKN may be lost . . . when a moving st imulus . . . is rotated toward the side of
the lesion.” Ocular bobbing (E) involves a “spontaneous fast downward jerk
of the eyes followed by a slow upward drift to midposition,” and has been associated
with large destruct ive lesions of the pons. Seesaw nystagmus (F) is
a “torsional-vertical oscillation in which the intorting eye moves up and the
opposite (extort ing) eye moves down, then both move in the reverse direction.”
Seesaw nystagmus (F) has been associated w ith chiasmatic bitemporal
hemianopsia due to lesions of the parasellar region. Spasmus mutans (G) is
a pendular nystagmus of infancy that is typically idiopathic and self-limited.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is false of seizure foci?

A. Epileptic foci are slower in binding and removing acetylcholine than normal
cortex.
B. Firing of neurons in the focus is re ected by periodic spike discharges in the
electroencephalogram (EEG).
C. If unchecked, cortical excitation may spread to the subcortical nuclei.
D. Neurons surrounding the focus are initially hyperpolarized and are
GABAergic.
E. The change in seizure discharge from the tonic phase to the clonic phase
results from inhibition from the neurons surrounding the focus.

A

A. Epileptic foci are slower in binding and removing acetylcholine than normal
cortex.
B. Firing of neurons in the focus is re ected by periodic spike discharges in the
electroencephalogram (EEG).
C. If unchecked, cortical excitation may spread to the subcortical nuclei.
D. Neurons surrounding the focus are initially hyperpolarized and are
GABAergic.
E. The change in seizure discharge from the tonic phase to the clonic phase
results from inhibition from the neurons surrounding the focus.

The change from the tonic to the clonic phase results from diencephalic
inhibition of the ring cortex, not from inhibit ion of the neurons surrounding
the focus as described in (E). The other statements are true: Epileptic foci
are slower in binding and removing acetylcholine than normal cortex (A);
ring of neurons in the focus is re ected by periodic spike discharges in the
electroencephalogram (B); if unchecked, cortical excitation may spread to
the subcort ical nuclei (C); and neurons surrounding the focus are initially
hyperpolarized and are GABAergic (D).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An abnormal optokinetic response is more likely to be obtained by rotating the
optokinetic nystagmus drum

A. Away from an occipital lobe lesion
B. Away from a parietal lobe lesion
C. Toward an occipital lobe lesion
D. Toward a parietal lobe lesion
E. Toward a temporal lobe lesion

A

A. Away from an occipital lobe lesion
B. Away from a parietal lobe lesion
C. Toward an occipital lobe lesion
D. Toward a parietal lobe lesion
E. Toward a temporal lobe lesion

An abnormal optokinetic response (loss of the slow pursuit phase) is more
likely to be obtained by rotating the optokinetic nystagmus drum toward a
parietal lobe lesion (D).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 to 7 Hz

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

A

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normally may be present over the temporal lobes of the elderly

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

A

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recorded from the frontal lobes symmetrically

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

A

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Associated with absence seizures

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

A

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Attenuated or abolished with eye opening or mental activity

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

A

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
E. 3-per-second spike and wave

Alpha waves (A) are 8–12 Hz waves that are present in the occipital and parietal
region and are at tenuated or abolished with eye opening or mental
activity. Beta waves (B) are of faster frequency (. 12 Hz) and lower amplitude
than a waves and are recorded from the frontal areas symmetrically.
Theta waves (D) are 4–7 Hz, and m ay be present over the temporal regions—
especially in the elderly. Delta waves (C) are 1–3 Hz and are not present in
the normal waking adult. A 3-per-second spike and wave (E) EEG pat tern is
associated with absence seizures.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following drugs is least e ective in the treatment of trigeminal
neuralgia?

A. Baclofen
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenytoin
E. Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol)

A

A. Baclofen
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenytoin
E. Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol)

Of the options listed, ketorolac (Toradol [E]), a nonsteroidal ant i-in ammatory
drug (NSAID), is the least e ect ive in relieving the pain of trigeminal
neuralgia. Anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine (B), clonazepam (C), and
phenytoin (D) are often useful. Baclofen (A) is m ost helpful as an adjunct to
one of the ant iconvulsant drugs.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is true of papilledema?

A. Absence of venous pulsations is a reliable indicator of papilledema.
B. Pupillary light re exes remain normal.
C. The congested capillaries derive from the central retinal vein.
D. Unilateral edema of the optic disk is never seen.
E. Visual acuity usually decreases.

A

A. Absence of venous pulsations is a reliable indicator of papilledema.
B. Pupillary light re exes remain normal.
C. The congested capillaries derive from the central retinal vein.
D. Unilateral edema of the optic disk is never seen.
E. Visual acuity usually decreases.

Venous pulsations are absent in 10 to 15% of normal individuals (A is
incorrect). The congested capillaries are derived from the short ciliary arteries
(C is incorrect). Unilateral edema can occur with optic nerve tumors
(D is incorrect). Visual acuity is usually normal in papilledema (E is incorrect).
Pupillary light re exes typically remain normal in papilledema (B).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following can occur in glossopharyngeal neuralgia?
I. Pain in the throat
II. Syncope
III. Pain in the ear
IV. Bradycardia

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Glossopharyngeal neuralgia is less common than t rigeminal neuralgia and
is characterized by pain in the throat (I) that is often exacerbated by swallowing,
talking, or yawning. Pain may also radiate to the ear (III). Abnormal
a erent inputs to cardioregulatory centers may trigger syncope (II) or
bradycardia (IV), which are not associated with trigeminal neuralgia or hemifacial
spasm.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Features of trisomy 13 (Patau’s syndrome) include
I. Microcephaly
II. Hypertonia
III. Cleft lip and palate
IV. Dextrocardia

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Trisomy 13, or Patau’s syndrome, is characterized by microcephaly (I),
hypertonia (II), cleft lip and palate (III), and dextrocardia (IV). Other features
of this dysgenetic syndrome include corneal opacities, polydactyly, impaired
hearing, and severe mental retardat ion. Death usually occurs in early childhood.
Trisomy 18, Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by low-set ears,
micrognathia, mental retardation, and rocker-bot tom feet.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Parinaud’s syndrome?

A. Dissociated light–near response
B. Lid retraction
C. Nystagmus retractorius
D. Paralysis of upgaze
E. Third nerve palsy

A

A. Dissociated light–near response
B. Lid retraction
C. Nystagmus retractorius
D. Paralysis of upgaze
E. Third nerve palsy

Parinaud’s syndrome (dorsal midbrain syndrome) is a constellat ion of symptoms
that include paralysis of upgaze (D), mydriasis and lid retraction (B),
nystagmus retractorius (C), and a dissociated light-near response (A).
Third nerve palsy (E) is not associated w ith Parinaud’s syndrome.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is true of tuberculous meningitis?

A. Headache is usually absent.
B. If untreated, the clinical course is self-limited.
C. The in ammatory exudate is con ned to the subarachnoid space.
D. The in ammatory exudate is found mainly at the convexities.
E. The protein content of the cerebrospinal uid (CSF) is almost always
elevated

A

A. Headache is usually absent.
B. If untreated, the clinical course is self-limited.
C. The in ammatory exudate is con ned to the subarachnoid space.
D. The in ammatory exudate is found mainly at the convexities.
E. The protein content of the cerebrospinal uid (CSF) is almost always
elevated

Headache occurs in more than half of cases (A is incorrect). Confusion, coma,
and death usually result if the patient is unt reated (B is incorrect). The inammatory
exudate occurs mainly in the basal meninges and frequently invades
the underlying brain by spreading via pial vessels (C is incorrect). The
CSF protein is always elevated to 100 to 200 mg/dL or higher (E).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following CSF ndings is least suggest ive of acute multiple sclerosis?

A. An IgG index greater than 1.7
B. Increased myelin basic protein
C. Increased protein to 200 mg/dL
D. Presence of oligoclonal bands
E. Slight to moderate monocytic pleocytosis

A

A. An IgG index greater than 1.7
B. Increased myelin basic protein
C. Increased protein to 200 mg/dL
D. Presence of oligoclonal bands
E. Slight to moderate monocytic pleocytosis

The CSF protein is slightly increased in 40% of pat ients with multiple
sclerosis (MS). A concent rat ion of . 100 mg/dL is rare (C). If the ratio of
CSF IgG/serum IgG to CSF albumin/serum albumin is more than 1.7, the
diagnosis of MS is probable (A). This ratio is known as the IgG index. Testing
for oligoclonal bands (D) in CSF is the most widely used test for MS. Increased
CSF myelin basic protein (B) can be present in acute MS exacerbations
and is therefore consistent with a diagnosis of MS; however, increased
MBP may be present in any process where myelin is destroyed. A slight to
moderate monocytic pleocytosis (E) is present in approximately one-third
of MS patients.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of myasthenia gravis except

A. A decrementing response to peripheral nerve stimulation is typical.
B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics may worsen the symptoms.
C. Females are more frequently a ected in the , 40 age group.
D. Females predominate in the subset of patients with a thymoma.
E. Ten to 15% of patients have no antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor.

A

A. A decrementing response to peripheral nerve stimulation is typical.
B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics may worsen the symptoms.
C. Females are more frequently a ected in the , 40 age group.
D. Females predominate in the subset of patients with a thymoma.
E. Ten to 15% of patients have no antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor.

The majorit y of patients with myasthenia gravis harboring a thymoma are
older (50–60 years) and male (D is false). The disease is two to three times
more common in women than men in patients , 40 years of age (C is true).
A decrease in muscle action potential with nerve st imulation at 3 Hz (a decrement
ing response) is seen (A is true). Certain aminoglycoside ant ibiot ics
can impair transmit ter release by inhibit ing calcium ion uxes at the neuromuscular
junction (B is true). Ten to 15% of patients have no ant ibodies to the
acetylcholine receptor (E is true)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. A defect in mitochondrial DNA is found in each of the following disorders except

A. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
B. Leber’s hereditary optic atrophy
C. Leigh’s subacute necrotizing encephalopathy
D. Mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke
(MELAS)
E. Menkes’ syndrome

A

A. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
B. Leber’s hereditary optic atrophy
C. Leigh’s subacute necrotizing encephalopathy
D. Mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke
(MELAS)
E. Menkes’ syndrome

Menkes’ (kinky hair) syndrome (E) is a rare sex-linked recessive disease characterized
by severe copper de ciency due to failure of intest inal absorption of
copper. The other disorders (Kearns-Sayre syndrome [A], Leber’s hereditary
optic atrophy [B], Leigh’s subacute necrotizing encephalopathy [C], and
mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke
[MELAS; D]) have point m utations or deletions of m itochondrial DNA as part
of their pathogenesis.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of spontaneous carotid artery dissection include
I. Dysgeusia
II. Eye pain
III. Tongue weakness
IV. Horner’s syndrome

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Symptoms of spontaneous carot id arter y dissection may include eye pain (II)
or unilateral headache as well as the presence of a Horner’s syndrome (IV)
that is due to the disruption of sympathet ic nerves running along the carot id
artery. Signs of ischemia in the territory of the a ected internal carotid artery
may be present. Small branches o of the carot id artery may supply the cranial
nerves extracranially; ischemia to these branches may lead to cranial nerve
dysfunction such as dysgeusia (impaired taste, I) or tongue weakness (III).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Memory impairment is caused by discrete bilateral lesions of which of the
following st ructures?
I. Amygdala
II. Hippocampal formation
III. Mammillary bodies
IV. Dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Discrete, bilateral lesions in the hippocampus (II) and dorsomedial
thalamus (IV) impair memory and learning out of proportion to other
cognitive functions. Stereotactic lesions of the amygdala (I) and mammillary
bodies (III) have failed to produce these symptoms.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Genes responsible for cavernous malformations have been mapped to
chromosomes
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 5
C. 3 and 7
D. 4 and 5
E. 5 and 7

A

A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 5
C. 3 and 7
D. 4 and 5
E. 5 and 7

The gene (CCM1) responsible for familial cavernous malformations has been
mapped to 7q11.2–q21. In addition, CCM2 (7p13–15) and CCM3 (3q25.2–27)
have been identi ed in pat ients with cavernous malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Each of the following is characteristic of a diabetic third nerve palsy except
A. It develops over a few hours
B. It spares the pupil
C. It is usually painless
D. The lesion involves the center of the nerve
E. The prognosis for recovery is good

A

A. It develops over a few hours
B. It spares the pupil
C. It is usually painless
D. The lesion involves the center of the nerve
E. The prognosis for recovery is good

Diabet ic third nerve palsy develops over a few hours (A), and tends to be
pupil-sparing (B) because it involves infarction of the center of the nerve (D).
Recovery is typical (E) but may take months. Diabetic third nerve palsy is
usually painful (C is false).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Transverse white lines in the ngernails

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Black lines at the gingival margins

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Later symptoms resemble those of Parkinson’s disease

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Treated with atropine
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Penicillamine is the treatment of choice in the chronic form
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Characterized by mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Treated with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL)
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Increased excretion of urinary coproporphyrin
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Diagnosis can be made by the examination of hair samples
    A. Arsenic poisoning
    B. Lead poisoning
    C. Manganese poisoning
    D. Mercury poisoning
    E. Phosphorus poisoning
A

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Manganese poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning
E. Phosphorus poisoning

Arsenic poisoning (A) may be due to pesticide exposure, may cause
transverse white lines in the ngernails, and may be diagnosed based
on examination of the hair or urine. Lead poisoning (B) is less common
in adults than in children and may present with anemia or peripheral neuropathy.
Lead poisoning (B) m ay cause black lines at the gingival margins,
increased urinary excretion of coproporphyrin, and may be treated with
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and dimercaprol (BAL). Chronic
manganese poisoning (C) m ay result in extrapyramidal symptoms reminiscent
of dystonia or parkinsonism. Mercury poisoning (D) m ay present w ith
mood changes, tremors, and a cerebellar syndrome and is treated with
penicillamine. Phosphorous poisoning (E) is typically due to exposure to
organophosphate insecticides and is manifested by anti cholinesterase e ects
in the acute set t ing. Symptoms of phosphorous poisoning (E) can be t reated
with atropine and pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characterist ic of Adie’s syndrome?

A. Degeneration of the ciliary ganglia and postganglionic parasympathetics
B. More common in women than in men
C. No reaction to 0.1% pilocarpine solution
D. Paralysis of segments of the pupillary sphincter
E. Pupil responds better to near than to light

A

A. Degeneration of the ciliary ganglia and postganglionic parasympathetics
B. More common in women than in men
C. No reaction to 0.1% pilocarpine solution
D. Paralysis of segments of the pupillary sphincter
E. Pupil responds better to near than to light

Adie’s syndrome or Adie’s tonic pupil results from degeneration of the ciliary
ganglia and postganglionic parasympathetics (A) that are responsible for
pupillary constriction. Adie’s pupil responds better to near (accommodation)
than to light (E). The condit ion is more common in women (B) and
involves paralysis of segments of the pupillary sphincter (D). An Adie’s
pupil will respond to 0.1% pilocarpine, whereas a normal pupil would not
(denervat ion hypersensit ivity). C is false.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Characteristics of infantile seizures include
I. Lip smacking
II. Hypsarrhythmia
III. Generalized tonic-clonic activit y
IV. Myoclonic head jerks

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Infantile seizures or spasms (West’s syndrome) usually begin before 6 months
of age and are characterized by sudden exor or extensor spasms of the
head, trunk, and limbs and an electroencephalogram (EEG) picture of
bilateral high-voltage, slow-wave activity (hypsarrhythmia). Lip smacking
and generalized tonic-clonic activity are not features.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Muscles of the trunk and lower extremities are more frequently involved than
the extraocular muscles

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

In Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome (B), muscles of the trunk and
lower extremities are most frequently involved, there is an incrementing
response to stimuli, and there is a poor response to ant icholinesterase
drugs. Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) is associated with antibodies to the
presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel. These are all features of
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) and stand in contrast to the features of classic
myasthenia gravis (A).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Poor response to anticholinesterase drugs

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

In Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome (B), muscles of the trunk and
lower extremities are most frequently involved, there is an incrementing
response to stimuli, and there is a poor response to ant icholinesterase
drugs. Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) is associated with antibodies to the
presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel. These are all features of
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) and stand in contrast to the features of classic
myasthenia gravis (A).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An incrementing response (marked increase in the amplitude of the action
potential with fast rates of nerve st imulation) is typical

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

In Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome (B), muscles of the trunk and
lower extremities are most frequently involved, there is an incrementing
response to stimuli, and there is a poor response to ant icholinesterase
drugs. Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) is associated with antibodies to the
presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel. These are all features of
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) and stand in contrast to the features of classic
myasthenia gravis (A).1

A

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

In Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome (B), muscles of the trunk and
lower extremities are most frequently involved, there is an incrementing
response to stimuli, and there is a poor response to ant icholinesterase
drugs. Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) is associated with antibodies to the
presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel. These are all features of
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) and stand in contrast to the features of classic
myasthenia gravis (A).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Associated with antibodies to the presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

In Eaton-Lambert myasthenic syndrome (B), muscles of the trunk and
lower extremities are most frequently involved, there is an incrementing
response to stimuli, and there is a poor response to ant icholinesterase
drugs. Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) is associated with antibodies to the
presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channel. These are all features of
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) and stand in contrast to the features of classic
myasthenia gravis (A).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The dorsal scapular nerve innervates the
I. Supraspinatus
II. Rhomboids
III. Subscapularis
IV. Levator scapulae

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

The dorsal scapular nerve arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and pierces the
middle scalene to innervate the rhomboid muscles (II) and levator scapulae
muscle (IV). The supraspinatus muscle (I) is innervated by the suprascapular
nerve, which arises from the superior t runk of the brachial plexus and receives
cont ribut ions from C5, C6, and C4. The subscapularis muscle (III) is
innervated by the upper and lower subscapular nerves that are branches of
the posterior cord receiving bers from C5 and C6, respect ively.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Teres major

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Teres minor

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Subscapularis

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Levator scapulae

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Supraspinatus

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Infraspinatus

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Rhomboids

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

A

A. Axillary nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve
E. None of the above

The axillary nerve (A) is one of the two terminal branches of the posterior
cord and innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles. The dorsal
scapular nerve (B) arises from the anterior ramus of C5 and innervates the
levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles. The subscapular nerve (C) has
upper and lower components that come o the posterior cord to innervate
the teres major and subscapularis muscles. The suprascapular nerve (D)
arises from the superior trunk to innervate the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. The motor unit potential in myopathy is of

A. Decreased voltage and decreased duration
B. Decreased voltage and increased duration
C. Decreased voltage and normal duration
D. Normal voltage and decreased duration
E. Normal voltage and increased duration

A

A. Decreased voltage and decreased duration
B. Decreased voltage and increased duration
C. Decreased voltage and normal duration
D. Normal voltage and decreased duration
E. Normal voltage and increased duration

The motor unit potential of myopathy tends to be of decreased voltage and
decreased duration because in these conditions there is a reduced number of
motor bers per motor unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which is true of myotonic dystrophy?

A. Frontal balding occurs only in men.
B. Lens abnormalities are rare.
C. The congenital form is inherited only from the maternal line.
D. The inheritance is autosomal recessive.
E. Weakness always predates the myotonia.

A

A. Frontal balding occurs only in men.
B. Lens abnormalities are rare.
C. The congenital form is inherited only from the maternal line.
D. The inheritance is autosomal recessive.
E. Weakness always predates the myotonia.

Frontal balding occurs in both men and women a icted with myotonic
dystrophy (A is false). Lens opacities are found by slit lamp in 90% of patients
(B is false). The inheritance is autosomal dominant, and the defective gene
segregates on chromosome 19 (D is false). Myotonia may precede weakness
by several years (E is false). Answer C is correct: In the congenital (neonatal)
form of myotonic dyst rophy, the a ected parent is always the mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is caused by a de ciency of

A. Cobalamin
B. Folic acid
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Thiamine

A

A. Cobalamin
B. Folic acid
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Pyridoxine
E. Thiamine

Subacute combined de ciency of the cord occurs from failure to t ransfer
cobalamin (vitamin B12) across the interstit ial mucosa because of lack of
int rinsic factor. Folic acid de ciency typically causes hematologic e ects,
and while folic acid is involved in B12 metabolism, it is rarely implicated in
neurologic disease states (B is incorrect). Nicot inic acid de ciency has been
associated with encephalopathy (C is incorrect). Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
de ciency is associated with isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis and causes
polyneuropathy (D is incorrect). Thiamine de ciency is associated with the
Wernicke-Korsako syndrome seen in chronic alcoholism (E is incorrect).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The marker linked to the Huntington gene is localized to the short arm of
chromosome

A. 4
B. 11
C. 17
D. 22
E. None of the above

A

A. 4
B. 11
C. 17
D. 22
E. None of the above

The marker linked to the Hunt ington gene is localized to the short arm of
chromosome 4 (A). Neuro bromatosis t ype I is linked to chromosome 17
(C is incorrect). Neuro bromatosis t ype II is linked to chromosome 22 (D is
incorrect).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Alexia without agraphia is most likely to occur with a lesion involving the

A. Left geniculocalcarine tract and corpus callosum
B. Left geniculocalcarine tract and Wernicke’s area
C. Left geniculocalcarine tract, corpus callosum, and Wernicke’s area
D. Right geniculocalcarine tract and corpus callosum
E. Right geniculocalcarine tract and Wernicke’s area

A

A. Left geniculocalcarine tract and corpus callosum
B. Left geniculocalcarine tract and Wernicke’s area
C. Left geniculocalcarine tract, corpus callosum, and Wernicke’s area
D. Right geniculocalcarine tract and corpus callosum
E. Right geniculocalcarine tract and Wernicke’s area

The lesion described in A would render the patient blind in the right half of
the visual eld. Visual information reaches only the right occipital lobe but
cannot be transferred to Wernicke’s area across the callosum. Thus the ability
to read aloud and to understand the writ ten word is lost, but the ability to understand
the spoken language, speak, write, dictate, and converse is retained.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Deviation of the eyes to the right is most likely to occur with occlusion of the

A. Calcarine artery bilaterally
B. Calcarine artery on the contralateral side
C. Contralateral paramedian branch of the basilar artery
D. Ipsilateral superior cerebellar artery
E. Superior division of the contralateral middle cerebral artery

A

A. Calcarine artery bilaterally
B. Calcarine artery on the contralateral side
C. Contralateral paramedian branch of the basilar artery
D. Ipsilateral superior cerebellar artery
E. Superior division of the contralateral middle cerebral artery

Deviation of the eyes away from the lesion occurs in brainstem syndromes, for
example, the medial midpontine syndrome (occlusion of the paramedian
branch of the midbasilar artery [C]). Answers B, D, and E would cause deviation
of the eyes to the left .1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following antiepileptic drugs has the shortest half-life?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Ethosuximide
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproate

A

A. Carbamazepine
B. Ethosuximide
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproate

Of the antiepileptic drugs listed, phenobarbital (C) has the longest half-life of
96 6 12 hours, followed by ethosuximide (B), 40 6 6 hours; phenytoin (D),
24 6 12 hours; carbamazepine (A), 12 6 4 hours; and valproate (E), 8 6 2 hours.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Weakness and atrophy of the hands

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

Despite the at rophy of the hands and forearms in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(ALS), di use hyperre exia is seen, with absence of sensory change.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hypo- or are exia

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

Despite the at rophy of the hands and forearms in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(ALS), di use hyperre exia is seen, with absence of sensory change.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Absence of sensory changes

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Syringomyelia
C. Both
D. Neither

Despite the at rophy of the hands and forearms in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(ALS), di use hyperre exia is seen, with absence of sensory change.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Biochemical studies of neurons from a seizure focus have shown all of the
following except

A. Increased levels of extracellular potassium in glial scars near seizure foci
B. Decreased rate of binding and removing acetylcholine in the foci
C. De ciency of -aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Decreased glycine levels
E. Decreased taurine levels

A

A. Increased levels of extracellular potassium in glial scars near seizure foci
B. Decreased rate of binding and removing acetylcholine in the foci
C. De ciency of -aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Decreased glycine levels
E. Decreased taurine levels

Increased glycine levels have been found in neurons in seizure foci (D is false).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. The most reliable indicator of an intracellular cobalamin (vitamin B12) de ciency is

A. Low vitamin B12 on a m icrobiologic assay
B. Low vitamin B12 on a radioisotope dilution assay
C. Low vitamin B12 on a Schilling test
D. The nding of hypersegmented polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes
(PMN) in bone marrow smears
E. The finding of increased serum concentration of methylmalonic acid and
homocysteine

A

A. Low vitamin B12 on a m icrobiologic assay
B. Low vitamin B12 on a radioisotope dilution assay
C. Low vitamin B12 on a Schilling test
D. The nding of hypersegmented polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes
(PMN) in bone marrow smears
E. The finding of increased serum concentration of methylmalonic acid and
homocysteine

Although microbiologic assay (A) is the most accurate way to measure
serum cobalamin (B12) levels, the serum level is not a measure of total body
cobalamin (B12). High serum concentrations of cobalamin (B12) metabolites
(methylmalonic acid and homocysteine [E]) are the m ost reliable indicators
of an intracellular cobalamin de ciency.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Each of the following is true of radiation myelopathy (delayed progressive type)
except

A. Absence of pain is typical early in the course
B. It occurs 12 to 15 months after radiation
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows abnormal signal intensity;
decreased on T1 and increased on T2
D. Sensory changes usually develop after motor changes
E. The most severe parenchymal changes are typical of infarction

A

A. Absence of pain is typical early in the course
B. It occurs 12 to 15 months after radiation
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows abnormal signal intensity;
decreased on T1 and increased on T2
D. Sensory changes usually develop after motor changes
E. The most severe parenchymal changes are typical of infarction

In radiation myelopathy, sensory changes usually precede the weakness
(D is false). The other responses are characteristics of radiation myelopathy
(delayed progressive type).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Fasciculation potentials indicate

A. Motor nerve fiber irritability
B. Motor nerve ber destruction
C. Motor unit denervation
D. Muscle atrophy
E. Reinnervation of muscle units

A

A. Motor nerve fiber irritability
B. Motor nerve ber destruction
C. Motor unit denervation
D. Muscle atrophy
E. Reinnervation of muscle units

Fasciculation potent ials are a sign of motor nerve fiber irritability (A).
Fibrillation potentials are associated with motor nerve ber destruction (B).
Insertional act ivit y is t ypically seen with denervating processes (C). Muscle
atrophy (D) results in motor unit potentials of lower voltage and shorter duration.
Reinnervation of muscle units (E) may result in “giant” motor unit
potentials of unusually high amplitude.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Di- or triphasic pattern

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

5 to 15 milliseconds in duration

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

May take the form of positive sharp waves

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Seen in poliomyelitis

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Usually develops 24 to 36 hours after the death of an axon

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. May be visible through the skin

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Fasciculation potential
B. Fibrillation potential
C. Both
D. Neither

Fibrillation potentials last from 1 to 5 milliseconds, may take the form of positive
sharp waves, and are seen 10 to 25 days after the death of an axon. Fasciculation
potentials have three to ve phases. Both can be seen in poliomyelitis.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. What characteristics of motor unit potentials are typical soon after reinnervation?

A. Prolonged, high amplitude, and polyphasic
B. Prolonged, low amplitude, and polyphasic
C. Shortened, high amplitude, and polyphasic
D. Shortened, low amplitude, and polyphasic
E. None of the above

A

A. Prolonged, high amplitude, and polyphasic
B. Prolonged, low amplitude, and polyphasic
C. Shortened, high amplitude, and polyphasic
D. Shortened, low amplitude, and polyphasic
E. None of the above

In early denervation, motor unit potentials may increase in size and amplitude
and become longer in duration and polyphasic (A). These so-called “giant”
potentials are a result of motor units containing more than the usual number
of motor bers. In early reinnervation the motor units are low in amplitude,
prolonged, and polyphasic (B), representing a transit ional con gurat ion.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. Which of the following ocular findings is not seen in myasthenia gravis?

A. Abnormal pupillary response to accommodation
B. Normal pupillary response to light
C. Weakness of extraocular muscles
D. Weakness of eye closure
E. Weakness of eye opening

A

A. Abnormal pupillary response to accommodation
B. Normal pupillary response to light
C. Weakness of extraocular muscles
D. Weakness of eye closure
E. Weakness of eye opening

Normal pupillary response to light and accommodation (A is false, B is true),
together with ext raocular (C) and orbicularis oculi (D) muscle weakness, is
highly suggestive of myasthenia gravis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Risk factors for carpal tunnel syndrome include
I. Acromegaly
II. Amyloidosis
III. Hypothyroidism
IV. Pregnancy

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Acromegaly (I), amyloidosis (II), hypothyroidism (III), and pregnancy (IV) are
all risk factors for the carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve entrapment
neuropathy at the wrist).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of neurological findings in sarcoidosis?

A. Cranial nerve VI is most frequently involved.
B. Sarcoidosis occurs in 25% of cases of sarcoid.
C. Polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence, and obesity are common features.
D. The granulomatous in ltration is most prominent over the hemispheres.
E. Visual disturbances are usually secondary to lesions in the occipital cortex.

A

A. Cranial nerve VI is most frequently involved.
B. Sarcoidosis occurs in 25% of cases of sarcoid.
C. Polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence, and obesity are common features.
D. The granulomatous in ltration is most prominent over the hemispheres.
E. Visual disturbances are usually secondary to lesions in the occipital cortex.

Neurologic involvement in sarcoidosis occurs in 5% of cases (B is false). A
granulomatous in ammator y response most prevalent at the base of the
brain is seen (D is false). Visual disturbances (due to lesions in and around the
optic nerves and chiasm [E is false]) and polydipsia, polyuria, somnolence,
or obesity (due to involvement of the pituitary and hypothalamus) are the
usual features (C is true). The facial nerve is the most common cranial nerve
involved (A is false).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with narcolepsy except

A. Increased total number of hours per day spent sleeping
B. Cataplexy
C. Hypnagogic hallucinations
D. Sleep paralysis
E. Sleep patterns beginning with the rapid eye movements (REM) stage

A

A. Increased total number of hours per day spent sleeping
B. Cataplexy
C. Hypnagogic hallucinations
D. Sleep paralysis
E. Sleep patterns beginning with the rapid eye movements (REM) stage

The nocturnal sleep of a narcolept ic is often reduced, but frequent naps are
taken during the day; hence, the total number of hours spent sleeping is
similar to a normal individual (A is false). The other responses are associated
with narcolepsy.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms occurring in a young person is the
most suggestive of multiple sclerosis?

A. Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
B. Gait ataxia
C. Lhermitte’s sign
D. Optic neuritis
E. Vertigo

A

A. Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
B. Gait ataxia
C. Lhermitte’s sign
D. Optic neuritis
E. Vertigo

The init ial manifestat ion of MS in 25% of all pat ients is optic neuritis (D), and
50% of patients who present with optic neuritis will eventually develop MS.
Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia occurring in a young person (A),
however, is virtually diagnost ic of MS.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. The muscles most often involved in thyroid ophthalmopathy are the

A. Inferior, superior, and medial recti
B. Inferior rectus and superior oblique
C. Lateral and superior recti
D. Lateral rectus and superior oblique
E. Medial rectus and inferior oblique

A

A. Inferior, superior, and medial recti
B. Inferior rectus and superior oblique
C. Lateral and superior recti
D. Lateral rectus and superior oblique
E. Medial rectus and inferior oblique

Upgaze or downgaze is usually more limited than lateral gaze. These de cits
are caused by an in ammatory in ltrat ion of the inferior and medial rect i,
leading to contractures of these muscles.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Most cases of “idiopathic” hemifacial spasm are thought to result from

A. Ephaptic transmission
B. Hypersensitivity of facial muscles
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Psychiatric disorders
E. Recurrence of latent viral infection

A

A. Ephaptic transmission
B. Hypersensitivity of facial muscles
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Psychiatric disorders
E. Recurrence of latent viral infection

The spasm is thought to be caused by nerve root compression and segmental
demyelination, which leads to impulses conducted in one motor ber being
transmit ted to neighboring bers (ephapt ic t ransmission [A]).1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The diagnosis of neurosarcoidosis is based on

A. Biopsy evidence of sarcoid granulomas in non–central nervous system
(CNS) tissue and neurologic findings
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan showing meningeal involvement
C. Increased sedimentation rate and hyperglobulinemia
D. Increased serum levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme
E. MRI ndings of periventricular and white matter changes

A

A. Biopsy evidence of sarcoid granulomas in non–central nervous system
(CNS) tissue and neurologic findings

B. Computed tomography (CT) scan showing meningeal involvement
C. Increased sedimentation rate and hyperglobulinemia
D. Increased serum levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme
E. MRI ndings of periventricular and white matter changes

Although all of the options are seen in act ive neurosarcoidosis, the diagnosis
is made on the basis of answer A.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. Seen most often in children with neuroblastoma

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

A

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) (associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltagegated
calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome (C) is characterized
by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of pat ients
have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are
often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy (E) are associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lymphoma, and an antinuclear
antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic
opsoclonus (D) in adults is associated w ith breast cancer and an antineuronal
ant ibody (anti-Ri).4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. Anti-Hu antibodies

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

A

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) (associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltagegated
calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome (C) is characterized
by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of pat ients
have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are
often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy (E) are associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lymphoma, and an antinuclear
antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic
opsoclonus (D) in adults is associated w ith breast cancer and an antineuronal
ant ibody (anti-Ri).4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. Anti-Ri antibodies

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

A

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) (associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltagegated
calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome (C) is characterized
by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of pat ients
have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are
often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy (E) are associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lymphoma, and an antinuclear
antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic
opsoclonus (D) in adults is associated w ith breast cancer and an antineuronal
ant ibody (anti-Ri).4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

A

A. Limbic encephalitis
**B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
**C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) (associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltagegated
calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome (C) is characterized
by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of pat ients
have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are
often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy (E) are associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lymphoma, and an antinuclear
antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic
opsoclonus (D) in adults is associated w ith breast cancer and an antineuronal
ant ibody (anti-Ri).4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. Autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

A

A. Limbic encephalitis
B. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
**C. Moersch-Woltman (stiff -man) syndrome
**D. Opsoclonus-myoclonus
E. Sensory neuropathy

The IgG antibody in patients with Eaton-Lambert syndrome (B) (associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung) reacts with presynaptic voltagegated
calcium channels. The Moersch-Woltman syndrome (C) is characterized
by involuntary muscle rigidity and spasms, and 60% of pat ients
have autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase. Underlying tumors are
often found. Most cases of paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy (E) are associated
with small-cell carcinoma of the lung or lymphoma, and an antinuclear
antibody (anti-Hu) is found in 70% of these patients. Paraneoplastic
opsoclonus (D) in adults is associated w ith breast cancer and an antineuronal
ant ibody (anti-Ri).4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis sparing the face, contralateral loss of position and
vibrat ion sense, ipsilateral paralysis, and atrophy of the tongue
A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

A

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
**D. Medial medullary occlusion
**E. None of the above

Medial medullary occlusion (D) is associated w ith contralateral hemiparesis
sparing the face, cont ralateral loss of posit ion and vibration sense, ipsilateral
paralysis, and at rophy of the tongue. Lateral medullary syndrome (VA or PICA
occlusion [B]) is associated w ith contralateral pain and temperature loss in
the body, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis
of the palate and vocal cords, and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face.
Lateral superior pontine syndrome (SCA occlusion [C]) is associated with
ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the
body, partial deafness, and nausea and vomiting. Basilar syndrome (A) is associated
with bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar
ataxia, and diplopia.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Contralateral pain and temperature loss in the body, ipsilateral Horner’s
syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis of the palate and vocal cords,
and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

A

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

Medial medullary occlusion (D) is associated w ith contralateral hemiparesis
sparing the face, cont ralateral loss of posit ion and vibration sense, ipsilateral
paralysis, and at rophy of the tongue. Lateral medullary syndrome (VA or PICA
occlusion [B]) is associated w ith contralateral pain and temperature loss in
the body, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis
of the palate and vocal cords, and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face.
Lateral superior pontine syndrome (SCA occlusion [C]) is associated with
ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the
body, partial deafness, and nausea and vomiting. Basilar syndrome (A) is associated
with bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar
ataxia, and diplopia.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the
body, part ial deafness, and nausea and vomiting

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

A

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)

D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

Medial medullary occlusion (D) is associated w ith contralateral hemiparesis
sparing the face, cont ralateral loss of posit ion and vibration sense, ipsilateral
paralysis, and at rophy of the tongue. Lateral medullary syndrome (VA or PICA
occlusion [B]) is associated w ith contralateral pain and temperature loss in
the body, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis
of the palate and vocal cords, and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face.
Lateral superior pontine syndrome (SCA occlusion [C]) is associated with
ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the
body, partial deafness, and nausea and vomiting. Basilar syndrome (A) is associated
with bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar
ataxia, and diplopia.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar ataxia, and
diplopia

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

A

A. Basilar syndrome
B. Lateral medullary syndrome (vertebral artery [VA] or posteroinferior
cerebellar artery [PICA] occlusion)
C. Lateral superior pontine syndrome (superior cerebellar artery [SCA]
occlusion)
D. Medial medullary occlusion
E. None of the above

Medial medullary occlusion (D) is associated w ith contralateral hemiparesis
sparing the face, cont ralateral loss of posit ion and vibration sense, ipsilateral
paralysis, and at rophy of the tongue. Lateral medullary syndrome (VA or PICA
occlusion [B]) is associated w ith contralateral pain and temperature loss in
the body, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral paralysis
of the palate and vocal cords, and ipsilateral pain and numbness in the face.
Lateral superior pontine syndrome (SCA occlusion [C]) is associated with
ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the
body, partial deafness, and nausea and vomiting. Basilar syndrome (A) is associated
with bilateral motor weakness in all extremities, bilateral cerebellar
ataxia, and diplopia.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. The lesion in hemiballismus is localized to the contralateral

A. Brachium conjunctivum
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus
D. Substantia nigra
E. Subthalamic nucleus

A

A. Brachium conjunctivum
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus
D. Substantia nigra
E. Subthalamic nucleus

The lesion in hemiballismus is localized to the contralateral subthalamic
nucleus (E). Cerebellar incoordination and intent ion tremor are associated
with damage to the brachium conjunctivum (A). Huntington’s chorea is
associated with damage to the caudate nucleus (B). Dysfunct ion of the
substantia nigra (D) is involved in the pathogenesis of Parkinson’s disease.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. The long thoracic nerve innervates the

A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Levator scapulae
C. Rhomboids
D. Serratus anterior
E. Teres minor

A

A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Levator scapulae
C. Rhomboids
**D. Serratus anterior
**E. Teres minor

The long thoracic nerve arises from the posterior aspect of the anterior
rami of C5, C6, and C7 and innervates the serratus anterior muscle (D);
lesions to the long thoracic nerve result in winging of the scapula. The
levator scapulae (B) and rhomboids (C) are innervated by the dorsal scapular
nerve, which is a branch o the posterior aspect of the anterior ramus of
C5. The latissimus dorsi (A) is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve, a side
branch of the posterior cord. The teres minor (E) is innervated by the axillary
nerve along with the deltoid muscle.3

90
Q
  1. Which of the following is most consistent with Eaton-Lambert syndrome?

A. Abnormal presynaptic vesicles
B. Antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor
C. Decreased numbers of acetylcholine receptors
D. Defect in release of acetylcholine quanta
E. None of the above

A

A. Abnormal presynaptic vesicles
B. Antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor
C. Decreased numbers of acetylcholine receptors
D. Defect in release of acetylcholine quanta
E. None of the above

In Eaton-Lambert syndrome, the presynaptic vesicles are normal (A is false),
ant ibodies to the acetylcholine receptor are not present (B is false), and the
extent of receptor surface is actually increased (C is false). There is, however,
a defect in the release of acetylcholine quanta from the nerve terminals (D)

91
Q
  1. Von Hippel-Lindau disease has been associated with all of the following except

A. A defect on chromosome 3
B. Dominant inheritance
C. Iris hamartomas
D. Pancreatic cysts
E. Renal cell carcinoma

A

A. A defect on chromosome 3
B. Dominant inheritance
C. Iris hamartomas
D. Pancreatic cysts
E. Renal cell carcinoma

Von Hippel-Lindau disease is associated with a defect on chromosome
3 (A), dominant inheritance (B), pancreatic cysts (D), and renal cell
carcinomas (E). Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules [C]) are seen in neuro -
bromatosis type 1.1

92
Q
  1. Gerstmann’s syndrome classically involves a lesion in the

A. Dominant frontal lobe
B. Dominant parietal lobe
C. Dominant temporal lobe
D. Nondominant parietal lobe
E. Nondominant temporal lobe

A

A. Dominant frontal lobe
B. Dominant parietal lobe
C. Dominant temporal lobe
D. Nondominant parietal lobe
E. Nondominant temporal lobe

Gerstmann’s syndrome consists of nger agnosia, left–right confusion, acalculia,
and agraphia. It is associated with lesions of the dominant parietal lobe (B),
usually in the inferior parietal lobule, angular gyrus, or subjacent white matter.1

93
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of dopamine pharmacology except

A. Homovanillic acid is a metabolite.
B. It is derived from phenylalanine.
C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase (MAO).
D. The activation of the D2 receptor decreases the release of transmitter at
synaptic terminals.
E. The rate-limiting step in its synthesis is dopa decarboxylase.

A

A. Homovanillic acid is a metabolite.
B. It is derived from phenylalanine.
C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase (MAO).
D. The activation of the D2 receptor decreases the release of transmitter at
synaptic terminals.
E. The rate-limiting step in its synthesis is dopa decarboxylase.

The rate-limiting step in dopamine synthesis is t yrosine hydroxylase (converts
L-t yrosine to L-hydroxyphenylalanine [L-dopa]). The other responses regarding
dopamine pharmacology are true.1,5

94
Q
  1. Contains a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

A

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

Amantadine (A) is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal
neurons. Artane (trihexyphenidyl [B]) is an anticholinergic agent w ith side effects
that include dry mouth and blurred vision. Bromocriptine (C) is an ergot
derivative that agonizes D2 receptors. Eldepryl (selegiline [D]) is a m onoamine
oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet (carbidopalevodopa
[E]) combines L-dopa w ith a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.1

95
Q
  1. Slows progression of the disease in its early stages

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

A

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

Amantadine (A) is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal
neurons. Artane (trihexyphenidyl [B]) is an anticholinergic agent w ith side effects
that include dry mouth and blurred vision. Bromocriptine (C) is an ergot
derivative that agonizes D2 receptors. Eldepryl (selegiline [D]) is a m onoamine
oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet (carbidopalevodopa
[E]) combines L-dopa w ith a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.1

96
Q
  1. Stimulates D2 receptors

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

A

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
**C. Bromocriptine
**D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

Amantadine (A) is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal
neurons. Artane (trihexyphenidyl [B]) is an anticholinergic agent w ith side effects
that include dry mouth and blurred vision. Bromocriptine (C) is an ergot
derivative that agonizes D2 receptors. Eldepryl (selegiline [D]) is a m onoamine
oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet (carbidopalevodopa
[E]) combines L-dopa w ith a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.1

97
Q
  1. Dryness of the mouth and blurred vision are some of the side e ects

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

A

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

Amantadine (A) is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal
neurons. Artane (trihexyphenidyl [B]) is an anticholinergic agent w ith side effects
that include dry mouth and blurred vision. Bromocriptine (C) is an ergot
derivative that agonizes D2 receptors. Eldepryl (selegiline [D]) is a m onoamine
oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet (carbidopalevodopa
[E]) combines L-dopa w ith a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.1

98
Q
  1. Inhibits intracerebral metabolic degradation of dopamine

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

A

A. Amantadine
B. Artane (trihexyphenidyl)
C. Bromocriptine
**D. Eldepryl (selegiline)
**E. Sinemet (carbidopa-levodopa)

Amantadine (A) is an antiviral agent that may release dopamine from striatal
neurons. Artane (trihexyphenidyl [B]) is an anticholinergic agent w ith side effects
that include dry mouth and blurred vision. Bromocriptine (C) is an ergot
derivative that agonizes D2 receptors. Eldepryl (selegiline [D]) is a m onoamine
oxidase B inhibitor and slows progression of disability. Sinemet (carbidopalevodopa
[E]) combines L-dopa w ith a dopa decarboxylase inhibitor.1

99
Q
  1. Wernicke’s area corresponds most closely to Brodmann’s area(s)
    A. 17
    B. 19
    C. 22
    D. 41 and 42
    E. 44
A

A. 17
B. 19
C. 22
D. 41 and 42
E. 44

Wernicke’s area corresponds most closely to Brodmann’s area 22 (C).
Area 17 (A) corresponds to primary visual cortex located on the banks of the
calcarine ssure. Area 19 (B) represents tertiary visual function. Areas 41
and 42 (D) represent primary and secondary auditory cortex in Heschl’s gyri
and the superior temporal gyrus. Area 44 (E) corresponds to Broca’s area located
in the frontal operculum.1,6

100
Q

Complications of diabetes generally thought to be vascular in origin include
I. Ophthalmoplegia
II. Acute mononeuropathy
III. Mononeuritis multiplex
IV. Distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

The progressive sensorimotor polyneuropathy (IV) associated w ith diabetes
mellitus is generally (but not universally) thought to be metabolic in origin. The
pathophysiology of ophthalmoplegia (I), acute mononeuropathy (II), and
mononeuritis multiplex (III) are generally thought to be vascular in origin.1,4

101
Q

Each of the following is consistent with a cholinergic crisis in a patient with
myasthenia gravis being treated with pyridostigmine (Mestinon) except

A. Bradycardia
B. Diarrhea
C. Increased strength after the Tensilon test
D. Miosis
E. Sweating

A

A. Bradycardia
B. Diarrhea
**C. Increased strength after the Tensilon test
**D. Miosis
E. Sweating

In a myasthenic patient present ing with acutely worsening weakness and
respiratory failure, the di erential includes myasthenic crisis and cholinergic
crisis (due to anticholinesterase therapy). Muscarinic symptoms include
bradycardia (A), diarrhea (B), miosis (D), and sweating (E). Increased
strength following the administration of Tensilon (edrophonium [C])
does not support the diagnosis of cholinergic crisis. Edrophonium is an
ant icholinesterase drug, which would increase the availability of acetycholine
on administ ration. The weakness of a cholinergic crisis is una ected by
Tensilon (edrophonium).1

102
Q
  1. The genetic transmission of the MELAS syndrome is
    A. Autosomal dominant
    B. Autosomal recessive
    C. Maternal inheritance
    D. Sporadic
    E. X-linked recessive
A

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
**C. Maternal inheritance
**D. Sporadic
E. X-linked recessive

The MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lact ic acidosis,
and strokelike episodes) is a mitochondrial disease associated with a
maternal inheritance.1

103
Q
  1. Acute hyperextension

A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

A

A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

The anterior cord syndrome (A) is associated with hypesthesia and hypalgesia
due to injury of the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts and is
associated with hyper exion injuries. Posterior column function is generally
preserved. The Brown-Séquard syndrome (B) is associated with cont ralateral
pain and temperature loss, ipsilateral dorsal column dysfunct ion, and
ipsilateral hemiplegia. It is usually due to penet rat ing t rauma and has the
best prognosis of the incomplete syndromes. Central cord syndrome (C) is
thought to be due to hyperextension in the set t ing of cervical stenosis. Central
cord injuries cause decreased sensation over the upper limbs and shoulders
and decreased motor function that is worse in the upper extremit ies.2

104
Q
  1. Flexion injury

A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

A

**A. Anterior cord syndrome
**B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

The anterior cord syndrome (A) is associated with hypesthesia and hypalgesia
due to injury of the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts and is
associated with hyper exion injuries. Posterior column function is generally
preserved. The Brown-Séquard syndrome (B) is associated with cont ralateral
pain and temperature loss, ipsilateral dorsal column dysfunct ion, and
ipsilateral hemiplegia. It is usually due to penet rat ing t rauma and has the
best prognosis of the incomplete syndromes. Central cord syndrome (C) is
thought to be due to hyperextension in the set t ing of cervical stenosis. Central
cord injuries cause decreased sensation over the upper limbs and shoulders
and decreased motor function that is worse in the upper extremit ies.2

105
Q
  1. Dissociated sensory loss
    A. Anterior cord syndrome
    B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
    C. Central cord syndrome
    D. A and B
    E. None of the above
A

A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

The anterior cord syndrome (A) is associated with hypesthesia and hypalgesia
due to injury of the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts and is
associated with hyper exion injuries. Posterior column function is generally
preserved. The Brown-Séquard syndrome (B) is associated with cont ralateral
pain and temperature loss, ipsilateral dorsal column dysfunct ion, and
ipsilateral hemiplegia. It is usually due to penet rat ing t rauma and has the
best prognosis of the incomplete syndromes. Central cord syndrome (C) is
thought to be due to hyperextension in the set t ing of cervical stenosis. Central
cord injuries cause decreased sensation over the upper limbs and shoulders
and decreased motor function that is worse in the upper extremit ies.2

106
Q
  1. Among the incomplete syndromes, this has the best prognosis

A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

A

A. Anterior cord syndrome
**B. Brown-Séquard syndrome
**C. Central cord syndrome
D. A and B
E. None of the above

The anterior cord syndrome (A) is associated with hypesthesia and hypalgesia
due to injury of the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts and is
associated with hyper exion injuries. Posterior column function is generally
preserved. The Brown-Séquard syndrome (B) is associated with cont ralateral
pain and temperature loss, ipsilateral dorsal column dysfunct ion, and
ipsilateral hemiplegia. It is usually due to penet rat ing t rauma and has the
best prognosis of the incomplete syndromes. Central cord syndrome (C) is
thought to be due to hyperextension in the set t ing of cervical stenosis. Central
cord injuries cause decreased sensation over the upper limbs and shoulders
and decreased motor function that is worse in the upper extremit ies.2

107
Q

Dreaming

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

108
Q
  1. Adult somnambulism

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

109
Q
  1. Desynchronization of the EEG

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

110
Q

K complexes

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

111
Q

Sleep spindles
A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

112
Q

Glucose metabolism in the brain is increased in comparison to the waking state
A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. REM sleep
B. Non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
C. Both
D. Neither

113
Q

Myophosphorylase deficiency
A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
**B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
**C. Both
D. Neither

114
Q

Large amounts of glycogen are deposited in various organs

A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

A

**A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
**B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

Glycogen storage disease type II (A) results from acid maltase (a -1,4-glucosidase)
de ciency and has three forms: infantile (classic Pompe’s disease), juvenile,
and adult forms. Glycogen accumulates in lysosomes throughout the
body. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease [B]) results from myophosphorylase
de ciency. Glycogen cannot be converted to glucose-6-phosphate,
and the blood lactate does not rise after ischemic exercise. Both types are autosomal
recessive. Rarely, type V may be autosomal dominant.1

115
Q

Three clinical forms are noted
A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

Glycogen storage disease type II (A) results from acid maltase (a -1,4-glucosidase)
de ciency and has three forms: infantile (classic Pompe’s disease), juvenile,
and adult forms. Glycogen accumulates in lysosomes throughout the
body. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease [B]) results from myophosphorylase
de ciency. Glycogen cannot be converted to glucose-6-phosphate,
and the blood lactate does not rise after ischemic exercise. Both types are autosomal
recessive. Rarely, type V may be autosomal dominant.1

116
Q

X-linked recessive inheritance
A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Glycogen storage disease type II (acid maltase de ciency)
B. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease)
C. Both
D. Neither

Glycogen storage disease type II (A) results from acid maltase (a -1,4-glucosidase)
de ciency and has three forms: infantile (classic Pompe’s disease), juvenile,
and adult forms. Glycogen accumulates in lysosomes throughout the
body. Glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle’s disease [B]) results from myophosphorylase
de ciency. Glycogen cannot be converted to glucose-6-phosphate,
and the blood lactate does not rise after ischemic exercise. Both types are autosomal
recessive. Rarely, type V may be autosomal dominant.1

117
Q

Wilson’s disease is characterized by
I. High urinary copper excret ion
II. High serum copper
III. Low ceruloplasmin levels
IV. Hyperdensity of the globus pallidus and putamen on CT

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Wilson’s disease is characterized by an increased urinary copper excretion (I),
low serum copper levels (II is false), and low ceruloplasmin levels (III). The
computed tomography (CT) scan sometimes shows hypodense areas in the
lenticular nuclei (IV is false).1

118
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of central pontine myelinolysis except
    A. A marked in ammatory response with destruction of nerve cells in the
    pons is seen.
    B. It is associated with rapid correction of hyponatremia.
    C. It is associated with chronic alcoholism.
    D. Quadriplegia, pseudobulbar palsy, and a locked-in syndrome can occur.
    E. Some patients have no signs or symptoms referable to the pontine lesion.
A

A. A marked in ammatory response with destruction of nerve cells in the
pons is seen.

B. It is associated with rapid correction of hyponatremia.
C. It is associated with chronic alcoholism.
D. Quadriplegia, pseudobulbar palsy, and a locked-in syndrome can occur.
E. Some patients have no signs or symptoms referable to the pontine lesion.

Central pont ine myelinolysis (CPM) occurs in the set ting of rapid correction
of chronic hyponatremia (B), as is somet imes seen in chronic alcoholism (C).
Quadriplegia, pseudobulbar palsy, and locked-in syndrome (D) can occur
with CPM. Microscopically, destruct ion of the medullated sheaths with relative
sparing of the axis cylinders and preservation of nerve cells in the pons is
seen. An in ammatory response is absent (A is false).1

119
Q

Arachnodactyly
A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

Pat ients with homocystinuria (A) and those with Marfan’s syndrome (B)
have a tall, thin frame and arachnodactyly. Pat ients with homocyst inuria
(cystathione synthase de ciency) also show evidence of mental retardation
and are prone to strokes.1

120
Q

Mental retardation
A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

Pat ients with homocystinuria (A) and those with Marfan’s syndrome (B)
have a tall, thin frame and arachnodactyly. Pat ients with homocyst inuria
(cystathione synthase de ciency) also show evidence of mental retardation
and are prone to strokes.1

121
Q

Brain infarcts
A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Homocystinuria
B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Both
D. Neither

Pat ients with homocystinuria (A) and those with Marfan’s syndrome (B)
have a tall, thin frame and arachnodactyly. Pat ients with homocyst inuria
(cystathione synthase de ciency) also show evidence of mental retardation
and are prone to strokes.1

122
Q
  1. Dressing apraxia is associated with a lesion in the
    A. Dominant frontal lobe
    B. Dominant parietal lobe
    C. Nondominant frontal lobe
    D. Nondominant parietal lobe
    E. Nondominant temporal lobe
A

A. Dominant frontal lobe
B. Dominant parietal lobe
C. Nondominant frontal lobe
**D. Nondominant parietal lobe
**E. Nondominant temporal lobe

Dressing apraxia is a special type of anosognosia that is t ypically at t ributed to
dysfunction of the nondominant parietal lobe (D).1

123
Q

The axillary nerve innervates the
A. Coracobrachialis
B. Rhomboids
C. Supraspinatus
D. Teres major
E. Teres minor

A

A. Coracobrachialis
B. Rhomboids
C. Supraspinatus
D. Teres major
E. Teres minor

The axillary nerve innervates the teres minor (E) and deltoid muscles.
Coracobrachialis (A) is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. The
rhomboids (B) are innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve. The suprascapular
nerve innervates the supraspinatus (C) and infraspinatus muscles. The
subscapular nerves innervate the teres major (D) and subscapularis m uscles.3

124
Q

All of the following are seen in Sturge-Weber syndrome except

A. Calcified cortical vessels
B. Facial nevus contralateral to seizure activity
C. Hemisensory de cit contralateral to facial nevus
D. Meningeal venous angiomas
E. Tramline calci cations outlining the convolution of the parieto-occipital
cortex

A

A. Calcified cortical vessels
B. Facial nevus contralateral to seizure activity
C. Hemisensory de cit contralateral to facial nevus
D. Meningeal venous angiomas
E. Tramline calci cations outlining the convolution of the parieto-occipital
cortex

Sturge-Weber syndrome is characterized by a facial vascular nevus (B) that
is present at birth, with seizures, hemisensory de cit (C), and hemiparesis
contralateral to the side of the nevus. Meningeal venous angiomas (D)
are also present ipsilateral to the skin lesion. Skull lms may reveal tramline
calci cation is present in the parieto-occipital cortical substance (E), not
the vessels (A is false).1

125
Q

The normal sensory nerve conduction velocity in the median and ulnar nerves is
approximately
A. 10 meters per second (m/s)
B. 25 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 100 m/s
E. 150 m/s

A

A. 10 meters per second (m/s)
B. 25 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 100 m/s
E. 150 m/s

The normal sensory conduction velocit y in the median and ulnar nerves is
approximately 50 m/s (C). The other answer choices are incorrect.

126
Q

Each of these statements is true of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease except
A. Autosomal dominance is the usual mode of inheritance.
B. Distal muscle atrophy is prominent.
C. It can a ect the upper extremities.
D. Steroids have no e ect on disease progression.
E. The autonomic nervous system is usually involved.

A

A. Autosomal dominance is the usual mode of inheritance.
B. Distal muscle atrophy is prominent.
C. It can a ect the upper extremities.
D. Steroids have no e ect on disease progression.
E. The autonomic nervous system is usually involved.

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, or peroneal muscular atrophy, is a slowly progressive,
symmetric, inherited demyelinat ing condition of the peripheral nervous
system. The usual pat tern of inheritance is autosomal dominant (A), and
the disease may cause weakness, at rophy, and ataxia of both the upper and
lower extremities (C), part icularly of the distal muscle groups (B)—foot
drop is common. No speci c medical therapy is available at this time, and
steroids do not appear to have an e ect on disease progression (D). The
autonomic nervous system is usually not involved in Charcot-Marie-Tooth
disease (E is false).1

127
Q

Cranial nerves that may be a ected by a clival chordoma include
I. Cranial nerve XII
II. Cranial nerve V
III. Cranial nerve X
IV. Cranial nerve II

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Clival chordomas may cause palsies of multiple cranial nerves. All of the cranial
nerves listed could potent ially be a ected by a destruct ive lesion of the
skull base (II, V, X, and XII).1

128
Q

Which of the following CSF ndings is least consistent with tuberculous
meningitis?
A. Glucose of 30 mg/dL
B. Lymphocytic predomination after 1 week of illness
C. Opening pressure of 200 mm CSF
D. Protein of 35 mg/dL
E. White blood cell count (WBC) of 200 cells/mm3

A

A. Glucose of 30 mg/dL
B. Lymphocytic predomination after 1 week of illness
C. Opening pressure of 200 mm CSF
D. Protein of 35 mg/dL
E. White blood cell count (WBC) of 200 cells/mm3

Lumbar puncture and CSF ndings in tuberculous meningitis t ypically include
glucose less than 40 mg/dL (A), although glucose levels are typically not as low
as those found in pyogenic meningitis. CSF tends to be under increased pressure
(C), and a leukocytosis is usually present (E) w ith a predominance of
lymphocytes after several days of the illness (B). The protein level is elevated
in tuberculous meningitis and is usually 100 to 200 mg/dL (D is false).1

129
Q

The syndrome of PICA occlusion results in all of the following except
A. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome
B. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature over the body
C. Ipsilateral ataxia
D. Ipsilateral numbness of the limbs

A

A. Contralateral Horner’s syndrome
B. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature over the body
C. Ipsilateral ataxia
D. Ipsilateral numbness of the limbs

PICA occlusion may result in Wallenberg’s lateral medullary syndrome, which
is characterized by contralateral pain and temperature loss over the body
(due to disruption of spinothalamic bers [B]), ipsilateral numbness over
half of the face (due to descending tract and nucleus of the t rigeminal nerve),
ipsilateral ataxia (etiology uncertain [C]), ipsilateral numbness of the
limbs (due to injury to the cuneate and gracile nuclei [D]), ipsilateral paralysis
of the palate (E), and ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (due to injury
of descending sympathetic bers; A is incorrect).1

130
Q
  1. Stage 2 sleep is characterized by
    A. K complexes
    B. Delta waves
    C. Desynchronization of the EEG
    D. REM sleep
    E. Somnambulism
A

A. K complexes
B. Delta waves
C. Desynchronization of the EEG
D. REM sleep
E. Somnambulism

K complexes (A) are a characteristic of stage 2 sleep. Delta waves (B) are
prevalent in stage 3 and 4 sleep. Desynchronization of the EEG (C) occurs
in REM sleep (A), and somnambulism (E) occurs almost exclusively in
stage 4 sleep.1

131
Q

The protein dystrophin is absent

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

132
Q
  1. The protein dystrophin is structurally abnormal
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

133
Q
  1. The most common adult form of muscular dystrophy
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

134
Q
  1. Prominent pseudohypertrophy of the calves is seen in Becker’s and in this type
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
**B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
**C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

135
Q
  1. Contractures of the elbow exors and neck extensors occur early
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
**C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
**D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

136
Q
  1. Abnormal gene is on chromosome 4
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
**D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
**E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

137
Q
  1. Lens opacities are found in 90% of patients
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

138
Q
  1. Occasionally associated with congenital absence of an involved muscle
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
**D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
**E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

139
Q
  1. Masseter atrophy, ptosis, and frontal baldness are characteristic
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

140
Q
  1. Abnormal gene is on chromosome 19
A

A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
E. Myotonic dystrophy

Duchenne’s (B) and Becker’s (A) muscular dystrophies are X-linked recessive
disorders characterized by the absence of the gene product dyst rophin
in the former and the presence of a structurally abnormal form of the product
in the lat ter. Weakness and pseudo-hypertrophy of certain muscles (notably
the calf) occur. The onset is later and the course more benign in the
Becker’s type (A). Myotonic dystrophy (E) is the most common adult form of
muscular dystrophy and is characterized by an autosomal dominant inheritance,
with the defective gene localized to chromosome 19q. Features include
dystrophic changes in nonmuscular tissues (e.g., lens opacit ies) and a characteristic
facies. Landouzy-Dejerine dystrophy (D) is usually transmitted
by autosomal dominant inheritance, and the abnormal gene has been localized
to chromosome 4. Congenital absence of a pectoral, brachioradialis, or
biceps femoris muscle occasionally occurs. Characteristics of Emery-Dreifuss
dystrophy (C), a benign X-linked dyst rophy, include cont ractures of the elbow
exors, neck extensors, and posterior calf muscles.1

141
Q
  1. Monoplegia without muscular atrophy is most often secondary to a lesion in the
    A. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    C. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
    D. Landouzy-Dejerine (facioscapulohumeral) dystrophy
    E. Myotonic dystrophy
A

A. Brainstem
B. Cortex
C. Internal capsule
D. Peripheral nerve
E. Spinal cord

142
Q

The transmissible agent of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is inactivated by
I. Formalin
II. Autoclaving at 132°C under pressure for 1 hour
III. Alcohol
IV. Immersion for 1 hour in bleach

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Subacute spongiform encephalopathy, or Creut zfeldt-Jakob disease, is a
progressive neurologic illness characterized by dementia and myoclonic
jerks. The disease is thought to be due to a prion protein that is resistant to
formalin (I), alcohol (III), boiling, and ultraviolet radiation. The protein can
be inactivated by autoclaving at 132°C under pressure for 1 hour (II), or by
immersion in bleach for 1 hour (IV).1

143
Q

The most common nding on audiography in patients with acoustic neuromas is
A. Flat loss
B. High-frequency loss
C. Low-tone loss
D. Normal audiogram
E. Trough-shaped loss

A

A. Flat loss
B. High-frequency loss
C. Low-tone loss
D. Normal audiogram
E. Trough-shaped loss

144
Q

Median sensory responses from the index and middle nger are low in amplitude,
but motor conduction velocities of the hand muscles are normal.

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

A

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
**D. Middle trunk lesion
**E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

145
Q

Ulnar sensory response from the little nger is abnormal; electromyographic
exam of the extensor indicis proprius and abductor pollicis longus is abnormal.

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

A

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

146
Q

Ulnar sensory response from the little nger is abnormal; normal responses are
seen from the extensor indicis proprius.
A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

A

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
**C. Medial cord lesion
**D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

147
Q

Action potentials from the deltoid and biceps are of low amplitude.
A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

A

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

148
Q

Abnormal median sensory responses and denervation are seen in the biceps and
exor carpi radialis; normal response is seen from the abductor pollicis brevis.
A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

A

A. Lateral cord lesion
B. Lower trunk lesion
C. Medial cord lesion
D. Middle trunk lesion
E. Upper trunk lesion

Although lower trunk lesions (B) resemble medial cord lesions (C), abnormalities
of radially innervated C8 muscles are seen with the former, but not
with the lat ter. Low-amplitude act ion potentials in the deltoid and biceps are
seen in upper trunk lesions (E). Median sensory responses from the index
and middle nger are abnormal, and motor conduction velocities of the hand
muscles are normal in middle trunk lesions (D). Lateral cord lesions (A)
cause weakness of the muscles supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve and
the lateral root of the median nerve (innervates the forearm muscles). The
int rinsic hand muscles innervated by the medial root of the median nerve
are spared.7

149
Q

Persons migrating from a zone with high risk of multiple sclerosis (MS) to one of
low risk after age 15 show a risk of developing MS that is
A. Equal to that of the high-risk zone
B. Equal to that of the low-risk zone
C. Intermediate between the two zones
D. Lower than that of the low-risk zone
E. Unpredictable

A

A. Equal to that of the high-risk zone
B. Equal to that of the low-risk zone
C. Intermediate between the two zones
D. Lower than that of the low-risk zone
E. Unpredictable

Several studies indicate that a person migrating from a high-risk to a low-risk
zone of MS before age 15 will develop a risk that is similar to the low-risk
zone (B). If the migrat ion takes place after age 15, the risk is similar to that
of natives of the high-risk zone (A).1

150
Q

Eye ndings in botulism include
I. Ptosis
II. Strabismus
III. Diplopia
IV. Unreactive pupils

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

151
Q
  1. Repetition is least likely to be a ected by a
    A. Broca’s aphasia
    B. Conduction aphasia
    C. Global aphasia
    D. Transcortical sensory aphasia
    E. Wernicke’s aphasia
A

A. Broca’s aphasia
B. Conduction aphasia
C. Global aphasia
D. Transcortical sensory aphasia
E. Wernicke’s aphasia

Transcortical motor and sensory aphasias (D) are manifested by preserved
repetit ion. Broca’s aphasia (A) is characterized by a disrupt ion of expressive
speech with relative preservation of comprehension—repetition is impaired.
Wernicke’s aphasia (E) is characterized by uent, articulate speech that
lacks meaning with signi cant impairment of comprehension—repetition is
impaired. Conduction aphasia (B) is characterized by uent speech and a
relat ive preservation of comprehension, but with signi cant impairment of
repetit ion. Global aphasia (C) is characterized by impairment of speech, comprehension,
and repetition.1

152
Q

Which stage of sleep is prominent on EEG at the onset of narcoleptic sleep attacks?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. REM

A

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
E. REM

Narcoleptic sleep at tacks tend to begin with REM sleep (E), rather than with
non-REM (A–D) sleep as in the general population. This nding suggests that
narcolepsy is not a condition of excessive dayt ime

153
Q

The most common cause of viral meningitis is
A. Enterovirus
B. Human immunode ciency virus (HIV)
C. Leptospirosis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Mumps

A

A. Enterovirus
B. Human immunode ciency virus (HIV)
C. Leptospirosis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Mumps

The enteroviruses (A), which include echovirus, Coxsackie, and polio, represent
the most common cause of viral meningitis. HIV (B) may cause a
mononucleosis-like syndrome, and mumps (E) can be associated with
meningitis, although this is not as common as enterovirus meningitis.
Leptospirosis (C) is a spirochete and therefore not a cause of viral m eningitis.1

154
Q

Successive involvement of all cranial nerves on one side has been reported in
A. Meningitis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Tumors of the brainstem
D. Tumors of the cavernous sinus
E. Tumors of the clivus

A

A. Meningitis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Tumors of the brainstem
D. Tumors of the cavernous sinus
E. Tumors of the clivus

Garcin’s (hemibasal) syndrome has been reported with chondromas or chondrosarcomas
of the clivus.1

155
Q

Each of the following is true of Ménière’s disease except
A. Distention of the endolymphatic duct occurs
B. Hearing loss is usually unilateral
C. High-tone loss occurs early in the disease
D. Horizontal nystagmus occurs during an acute attack
E. Low-pitched tinnitus is typical

A

A. Distention of the endolymphatic duct occurs
B. Hearing loss is usually unilateral
C. High-tone loss occurs early in the disease
D. Horizontal nystagmus occurs during an acute attack
E. Low-pitched tinnitus is typical

Ménière’s disease is characterized by recurrent at tacks of vertigo and unilateral
tinnitus and deafness (B). Distention of the endolymphatic duct
is a characteristic pathologic change (A). Horizontal nystagmus may occur
during an acute attack (D), and low-pitched tinnitus is typical (E). Early
in Ménière’s disease, deafness a ects mainly the low tones and uctuates in
severity. Later in the disease, high tones are a ected (C is false).1

156
Q

Type I (red) muscle bers di er from type II (white) bers in all of the following
ways except that they
A. Are more fatigable
B. Fire more tonically
C. Have slower contraction and relaxation rates
D. Have more mitochondria
E. Have more oxidative enzymes

A

A. Are more fatigable
B. Fire more tonically
C. Have slower contraction and relaxation rates
D. Have more mitochondria
E. Have more oxidative enzymes

Type I (red) muscle bers are richer in oxidative en zymes (E), poorer in glycolytic
enzymes, contain more mitochondria (D) and myoglobin, re more
tonically (B), have slower rates of contraction and relaxation (C), and are less
fat igable (A is false) than type II (white) bers.1

156
Q

Each of the following is true of Eaton-Lambert syndrome except

A. Autonomic disturbances are seen
B. Fasciculations are not seen
C. It has been associated with carcinoma of the stomach and colon
D. Temporary increase in muscle power may occur during the rst few
contractions
E. Women are more frequently a ected than men

A

A. Autonomic disturbances are seen
B. Fasciculations are not seen
C. It has been associated with carcinoma of the stomach and colon
D. Temporary increase in muscle power may occur during the rst few
contractions
E. Women are more frequently a ected than men

The Eaton-Lambert syndrome is due to decreased calcium-dependent release
of acetylcholine quanta at the neuromuscular junct ion. A temporary increase
in muscle power may be observed during the rst few contractions (D), in
cont rast to myasthenia gravis. The disease process has been associated with
carcinoma of the stomach and colon (C); autonomic disturbances are
often observed (A), but fasciculations are not a presenting feature (B). Men
are more often a ected than women (5:1; E is false).1

157
Q

Historically, one of the treatment modalities of Parkinson’s disease was surgical ligation of the

A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior choroidal artery
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. Recurrent artery of Huebner

A

A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior choroidal artery
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. Recurrent artery of Huebner

Infarction of the anterior choroidal artery may result in contralateral hemiplegia,
hemihypesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia with sparing of
cognitive and language funct ions. Historically, ligat ion of the anterior choroidal
artery (B) was an early surgical treatment for pat ients with unilateral
tremor and rigidity from Parkinson’s disease.1

158
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of diabetic m ononeuritis multiplex?\A. Lower extremities are more commonly a ected than upper extremities
B. Painful neuropathy
C. Proximal extremities are more commonly a ected than distal extremities
D. Recovery is usual
E. Symmetric neuropathy

A

A. Lower extremities are more commonly a ected than upper extremities
B. Painful neuropathy
C. Proximal extremities are more commonly a ected than distal extremities
D. Recovery is usual
E. Symmetric neuropathy

Mononeuropathy multiplex of diabetes is classically asymmet ric (E is false).
In pract ice, however, a con uence of mult iple mononeuropathies may lead to
a symmet ric picture. The other answer choices are characterist ics of diabetic
mononeuritis mult iplex: lower extremities are more commonly a ected
than upper extremities (A), neuropathy tends to be painful (B), proximal
extremities are more commonly a ected than distal extremities (C), and
recovery is usual (D).1

159
Q

Status epilepticus

A

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

Ben zodiazepines such as lorazepam (C) are the rst-line agents for the
treatment of status epilepticus. Ethosuximide (B) is typically used for the
treatment of absence seizures. ACTH (A) is employed in the t reatment of infantile
spasms. Tegretol (D) and valproic acid (E) are acceptable alternatives
for the t reatment of complex part ial seizures. Valproic acid (E) is sometimes
used in the atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut.1

160
Q

Absence seizures
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

A

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

Ben zodiazepines such as lorazepam (C) are the rst-line agents for the
treatment of status epilepticus. Ethosuximide (B) is typically used for the
treatment of absence seizures. ACTH (A) is employed in the t reatment of infantile
spasms. Tegretol (D) and valproic acid (E) are acceptable alternatives
for the t reatment of complex part ial seizures. Valproic acid (E) is sometimes
used in the atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut.1

161
Q

Complex partial seizures

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

A

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

Ben zodiazepines such as lorazepam (C) are the rst-line agents for the
treatment of status epilepticus. Ethosuximide (B) is typically used for the
treatment of absence seizures. ACTH (A) is employed in the t reatment of infantile
spasms. Tegretol (D) and valproic acid (E) are acceptable alternatives
for the t reatment of complex part ial seizures. Valproic acid (E) is sometimes
used in the atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut.1

161
Q

Infantile seizure

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

A

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

Ben zodiazepines such as lorazepam (C) are the rst-line agents for the
treatment of status epilepticus. Ethosuximide (B) is typically used for the
treatment of absence seizures. ACTH (A) is employed in the t reatment of infantile
spasms. Tegretol (D) and valproic acid (E) are acceptable alternatives
for the t reatment of complex part ial seizures. Valproic acid (E) is sometimes
used in the atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut.1

162
Q

Atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

A

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Ethosuximide
C. Lorazepam
D. Tegretol
E. Valproic acid
F. D or E

Ben zodiazepines such as lorazepam (C) are the rst-line agents for the
treatment of status epilepticus. Ethosuximide (B) is typically used for the
treatment of absence seizures. ACTH (A) is employed in the t reatment of infantile
spasms. Tegretol (D) and valproic acid (E) are acceptable alternatives
for the t reatment of complex part ial seizures. Valproic acid (E) is sometimes
used in the atypical petit mal syndrome of Lennox-Gastaut.1

163
Q

Each of the following is true of polymyositis associated with carcinoma except
A. Carcinoma a ects 9% of patients with polymyositis.
B. It is most commonly associated with lung and prostate cancer in men.
C. It is usually painful.
D. Muscle biopsies show no evidence of tumor cells.
E. Proximal muscles are initially a ected more than distal ones.

A

A. Carcinoma a ects 9% of patients with polymyositis.
B. It is most commonly associated with lung and prostate cancer in men.
C. It is usually painful.
D. Muscle biopsies show no evidence of tumor cells.
E. Proximal muscles are initially a ected more than distal ones.

Pain with polymyositis occurs in only 15% of patients and often suggests an additional
disorder, such as rheumatoid arthritis (C is false). The other responses
regarding polymyositis associated with carcinoma are true: carcinoma a ects
9% of patients with polymyositis (A), it is most commonly associated with
lung and prostate cancer in men (B), muscle biopsies show no evidence
of tumor cells (D), and proximal muscles are initially a ected more than
distal ones (E).1

164
Q
A
165
Q

Which of the following is least suggest ive of cluster headaches?
A. Associated with lacrimation and rhinorrhea
B. Bilateral location
C. Daily occurrence for 2 months
D. Male predominance
E. Orbital location

A

A. Associated with lacrimation and rhinorrhea
B. Bilateral location
C. Daily occurrence for 2 months
D. Male predominance
E. Orbital location

Cluster headaches t ypically are recurrent for 6 to 12 weeks (C) in a unilateral
(B is false) orbital (E) location. The male-to-female ratio is
4.5:1 to 6.7:1 (D). Lacrimation, rhinorrhea (A), ushing of the face, and other
such parasympathet ic-type responses often accompany the headache

166
Q

Organophosphate poisoning is characterized by all of the following except

A. Bronchial spasms
B. Dry mouth
C. Miosis
D. Sweating
E. Vomiting

A

A. Bronchial spasms
B. Dry mouth
C. Miosis
D. Sweating
E. Vomiting

167
Q

One of the cerebral biochemical defects in Huntington’s disease is
A. Decreased dopamine
B. Decreased GABA
C. Decreased norepinephrine
D. Decreased somatostatin
E. Increased acetylcholine

A

A. Decreased dopamine
B. Decreased GABA
C. Decreased norepinephrine
D. Decreased somatostatin
E. Increased acetylcholine

Decreased glutamic acid decarboxylase (hence, decreased g-aminobutyric
acid [GABA] [B]) and choline acetyltransferase (hence, decreased acetylcholine;
E is false) have been found in the striatum and lateral pallidum in
Hunt ington’s disease. Also reported has been increased norepinephrine and
somatostatin in the striatum (C and D are false). An excess of dopamine
or an increased sensitivity of striatal dopamine receptors has been postulated
in the pathogenesis of Huntington’s disease (A is false).1

168
Q

Prosopagnosia is associated with lesions of the
A. Anterior corpus callosum
B. Bilateral anteroinferior temporal lobes
C. Bilateral medial temporo-occipital lobes
D. Occipital poles
E. Posterior corpus callosum

A

A. Anterior corpus callosum
B. Bilateral anteroinferior temporal lobes
C. Bilateral medial temporo-occipital lobes
D. Occipital poles
E. Posterior corpus callosum

Prosopagnosia refers to the inability to identify a familiar face while retaining
the ability to ident ify its features and is associated with injury to the
bilateral medial temporo-occipital lobes (C).1

169
Q
  1. A lesion of the supplementary motor cortex produces
    A. Echolalia
    B. Palilalia
    C. Poverty of spontaneous speech
    D. Receptive aphasia
    E. No speech abnormalities
A

A. Echolalia
B. Palilalia
C. Poverty of spontaneous speech
D. Receptive aphasia
E. No speech abnormalities

Injuries to the supplementary motor cortex are associated with mutism, contralateral
motor neglect , and impairment of coordinat ion (C is correct).1

170
Q

Lesions of the peroneal nerve produce weakness of the
A. Abductor hallucis and gastrocnemius
B. Extensor digitorum longus and brevis and abductor hallucis
C. Gastrocnemius and exor hallucis longus
D. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus and brevis
E. Tibialis anterior and exor digitorum brevis

A

A. Abductor hallucis and gastrocnemius
B. Extensor digitorum longus and brevis and abductor hallucis
C. Gastrocnemius and exor hallucis longus
D. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus and brevis
E. Tibialis anterior and exor digitorum brevis

Lesions of the peroneal nerve produce weakness of the tibialis anterior and
extensor digitorum longus and brevis (D). The t ibialis anterior is innervated
by the deep peroneal nerve, while the exor digitorum brevis is innervated
by the medial plantar nerve, a branch of the tibial nerve (E is incorrect).
The abductor hallucis is innervated by the medial plantar nerve (a branch
of the tibial nerve), and the gastrocnemius is innervated by the t ibial nerve
(A is incorrect). The extensor digitorum longus and brevis are innervated by
the deep peroneal nerve, whereas the abductor hallucis is innervated by a
branch of the t ibial nerve (B is incorrect). C is incorrect because the gast rocnemius
and exor hallucis longus are innervated by the tibial nerve.3

171
Q

Which of the following de cits is least characterist ic of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Corticospinal tract dysfunction
B. Dysnomia
C. Korsako ’s amnesic state
D. Personality change
E. Spatial disorientation

A

A. Corticospinal tract dysfunction
B. Dysnomia
C. Korsako ’s amnesic state
D. Personality change
E. Spatial disorientation

Corticospinal and corticosensory functions, visual acuit y, and visual
elds are relatively preserved throughout the course of Alzheimer’s disease
(A is false).1

172
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Abnormal startle response
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Cherry red spots in the retina
D. De ciency of sphingomyelinase
E. Macrocephaly

A

**A. Abnormal startle response
**B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Cherry red spots in the retina
D. De ciency of sphingomyelinase
E. Macrocephaly

Tay-Sachs disease is characterized by macrocephaly (E), abnormal startle
response (A), and cherry red spots in the retina (C). It is t ransmit ted via
autosomal recessive inheritance (B). De ciency of hexoaminidase A characterizes
Tay-Sachs disease (D is false), while sphingomyelinase de ciency
is present in Niemann-Pick disease types A and B.1

173
Q

Each of the following is true of Guillain-Barré syndrome except
A. Disturbances of autonomic function are common
B. High-dose steroids form the mainstay of therapy
C. Hypo- or are exia is characteristic
D. The mortality rate is 3%
E. The peak severity is 10 to 14 days after onset in 80% of cases

A

A. Disturbances of autonomic function are common
B. High-dose steroids form the mainstay of therapy
C. Hypo- or are exia is characteristic
D. The mortality rate is 3%
E. The peak severity is 10 to 14 days after onset in 80% of cases

Neither conventional dose nor high-dose steroids have been shown to be
helpful in the treatment of Guillain-Barré syndrome (B is false). The other
statements regarding the Guillain-Barré syndrome are true: disturbances of
autonomic function are common (A), hypo- or are exia is characteristic (C),
the mortality rate is 3% (D), and the peak severity is 10 to 14 days after onset
in 80% of cases.1

174
Q

The second-order neuron in the sympathetic pathway to the pupil arises
from the
A. Ciliary ganglion to the iris
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion
C. Hypothalamus to the lateral horn cells at C8 to T3
D. Lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 to the superior cervical ganglion
E. Superior cervical ganglion to the iris

A

A. Ciliary ganglion to the iris
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the ciliary ganglion
C. Hypothalamus to the lateral horn cells at C8 to T3
D. Lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 to the superior cervical ganglion
E. Superior cervical ganglion to the iris

The pathway from the lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 to the superior
cervical ganglion (D) constitutes the second-order neuron (preganglionic) in
the sympathetic pathway to the pupil. Neurons from the hypothalamus to the
lateral horn cells at C8 to T3 (C) constitute the rst-order neurons (central),
and neurons projecting from the superior cervical ganglion to the iris (E)
const itute the third-order neurons (postganglionic) in the sympathetic innervation
of the pupil. Projections from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus to the
ciliary ganglion (B) represent the parasympathet ic system

175
Q

The treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis is
A. Penicillin
B. Praziquantel
C. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
D. Rifampin and nafcillin
E. Thiabendazole

A

A. Penicillin
B. Praziquantel
**C. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
**D. Rifampin and nafcillin
E. Thiabendazole

The t reatment of choice for toxoplasmosis is oral sulfadiazine and
pyrimethamine (C) for at least 4 weeks. Leucovorin is sometimes given as
an adjuvant to counteract the antifolate e ects of pyrimethamine. Penicillin
and nafcillin (A and D) are b-lactam ant ibiotics and are not an appropriate
treatment for toxoplasmosis. Praziquantel (B) is used for the treatment of
cysticercosis; albendazole is another option for cysticercosis treatment. Thiabendazole
(E) is m ost commonly employed in the treatment of trichinosis.1

176
Q

Which of the following is true of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A. Intracytoplasmic but not intranuclear inclusions are found.
B. It is more common in patients . 18 years of age.
C. Lesions are con ned to the white matter.
D. The EEG shows characteristic periodic waves that occur every 2 to 3 seconds.
E. The CSF protein is normal

A

A. Intracytoplasmic but not intranuclear inclusions are found.
B. It is more common in patients . 18 years of age.
C. Lesions are con ned to the white matter.
D. The EEG shows characteristic periodic waves that occur every 2 to 3 seconds.
E. The CSF protein is normal

Subacute sclerosing panencephalit is (SSPE), characterized by a progressive
mental decline with seizures, myoclonus, and ataxia, mainly a ects children
and adolescents (B is false). SSPE is thought to be the result of chronic measles
infect ion. The lesions are found in both the cerebral cortex and white
matter (C is false). Eosinophilic inclusions are found in both the cytoplasm
and nuclei of neurons and glial cells (A is false). Elevated gamma globulin in
the CSF is typical—that is, CSF protein tends to be increased (E is false). The
EEG shows characteristic 2 to 3 per second waves (D is true).1

177
Q

The treatment of choice for optic neuritis is

A. Intrathecal prednisolone
B. Intravenous methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone
C. Oral prednisone only
D. Oral prednisone followed by intravenous methylprednisolone
E. Plasmapheresis

A

A. Intrathecal prednisolone
B. Intravenous methylprednisolone followed by oral prednisone
C. Oral prednisone only
D. Oral prednisone followed by intravenous methylprednisolone
E. Plasmapheresis

Treatment with oral prednisone (C) alone actually increased the risk of new
episodes of opt ic neuritis in a large randomized controlled study of optic neuritis
t reatment. Intravenous methylprednisolone therapy followed by oral
prednisone speeds recovery of visual loss (B is correct).1

178
Q

Schilder’s disease most closely resembles
A. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
B. Krabbe’s disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Trisomy 13
E. Tuberous sclerosis

A

A. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
B. Krabbe’s disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Trisomy 13
E. Tuberous sclerosis

Schilder’s disease (C) is a demyelinat ing illness of children and young adults that has several features in common with chronic relapsing MS

179
Q

The cricothyroid muscle is innervated by the
A. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
C. Ninth cranial nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Seventh cranial nerve

A

A. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
C. Ninth cranial nerve
D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. Seventh cranial nerve

The cricothyroid, supplied by the external laryngeal nerve (A), is the only
in t rinsic laryngeal muscle not supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve
(D). Cranial nerves VII (E) and IX (C) do not provide m otor innervat ion to
the larynx.3

180
Q

Korsako ’s syndrome is best characterized by
A. Defect in learning and loss of past memories
B. Global confusional state
C. Manic-depressive state
D. Paranoid ideation
E. Stupor or coma

A

A. Defect in learning and loss of past memories
B. Global confusional state
C. Manic-depressive state
D. Paranoid ideation
E. Stupor or coma

In Korsako ’s psychosis, retent ive memory is impaired out of proport ion to
other cognitive functions in an otherwise alert pat ient.1

181
Q

Werdnig-Ho mann disease is notable for all of the following except

A. Are exia
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Hypotonia
D. Involvement of chromosome 5q
E. Mental retardation

A

A. Are exia
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Hypotonia
D. Involvement of chromosome 5q
E. Mental retardation

Werdnig-Ho mann disease is infantile spinal muscular atrophy, or SMA
type I. SMA type I is characterized by neonatal hypotonia (C) and are exia (A).
Inheritance is autosomal recessive (B) and has been linked to chromosome
5q (D). Mental retardation is not a feature of the spinal muscular
atrophy of infancy and childhood (E), but may be associated with late-onset
varieties of spinal muscular at rophy.1

182
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants
I. Block norepinephrine uptake
II. Block oxidat ive deaminat ion of monoamines
III. Block serotonin uptake
IV. Bind to GABA receptors

A

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. All of the above

Tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine and amit ript yline block the
reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin (I and III). Selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitors such as citalopram or uoxetine prevent the reuptake
of serotonin only (III). Monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as iproniazid
and phenelzine prevent the oxidative deamination of monoamines (II).5

183
Q
  1. Lower extremity spasticity
    A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
    B. Cervical spondylosis
    C. Both
    D. Neither
A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

184
Q

Hyporeflexia

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

185
Q

Hyperreflexia

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

186
Q

Absence or paucity of sensory symptoms

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

187
Q

Atrophy of the hand muscles

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B. Cervical spondylosis
C. Both
D. Neither

188
Q

Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

189
Q

Antinuclear antibodies and malar rash

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

190
Q

Visual loss and claudication with chewing

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

191
Q

Visual loss and loss of peripheral pulses
A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

192
Q

Mononeuritis multiplex, kidney involvement, and skin purpura
A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

193
Q

Deafness and keratitis
A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Takayasu’s syndrome
E. Temporal arteritis
F. Wegener’s granulomatosis

194
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy consists of all of the following except
A. Defect in retentive memory out of proportion to other cognitive functions
B. Gait ataxia
C. Gaze palsy
D. Mental confusion
E. Nystagmus

A

A. Defect in retentive memory out of proportion to other cognitive functions
B. Gait ataxia
C. Gaze palsy
D. Mental confusion
E. Nystagmus

195
Q

Which of the following is least suggestive of a parietal lobe lesion?
A. Astereognosis
B. Lossofpositionsense
C. Loss of temperature sensation
D. Loss of two-point discrimination
E. Atopognosia

A

A. Astereognosis
B. Lossofpositionsense
C. Loss of temperature sensation
D. Loss of two-point discrimination
E. Atopognosia

196
Q

The purest form of achromatopsia is caused by a lesion involving the
A. Left calcarine cortex
B. Left superior occipitotemporal region
C. Right inferior occipitotemporal region
D. Right occipital cortex and angular gyrus
E. Right superior calcarine cortex

A

A. Left calcarine cortex
B. Left superior occipitotemporal region
C. Right inferior occipitotemporal region
D. Right occipital cortex and angular gyrus
E. Right superior calcarine cortex

197
Q

Failure of a miotic pupil to dilate after instilling 2 to 10%cocaine followed by 1%hydroxyamphetamine indicates a
A. First-order Horner’s syndrome
B. Second-order Horner’s syndrome
C. Third-order Horner’s syndrome
D. First- or second-order Horner’s syndrome
E. Second- or third-order Horner’s syndrome

A

A. First-order Horner’s syndrome
B. Second-order Horner’s syndrome
C. Third-order Horner’s syndrome
D. First- or second-order Horner’s syndrome
E. Second- or third-order Horner’s syndrome

198
Q

Somnambulism occurs in which stage of sleep?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 4
D. REM
E. Allof the above

A

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 4
D. REM
E. Allof the above

199
Q

The most efective treatment of enuresis is
A. Klonopin
B. Clonidine
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
E. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A

A. Klonopin
B. Clonidine
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
E. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

200
Q

In most cases, section of the corpus callosum causes
A. Apraxia of both hands to command
B. Apraxia of the left hand to command
C. Apraxia of the right hand to command
D. Object agnosia
E. Nodecit

A

A. Apraxia of both hands to command
B. Apraxia of the left hand to command
C. Apraxia of the right hand to command
D. Object agnosia
E. Nodecit

201
Q

Broca’s aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

202
Q

Conduction aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

203
Q

Global aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

204
Q

Transcortical motor aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

205
Q

Transcortical sensory aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

206
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia
A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

A

A. Good comprehension, fluent speech, poor repetition
B. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, good repetition
C. Good comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition
D. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, good repetition
E. Poor comprehension, fuent speech, poor repetition
F. Poor comprehension, nonfluent speech, poor repetition

207
Q

May be associated with carcinoma
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

208
Q

Men are more frequently a ected than women
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

209
Q

Necrosis and phagocytosis of individual muscleA. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

210
Q

Perifascicular muscle degeneration and atrophy are found
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

211
Q

Large numbers of T cells are found in the intramuscular in ammatory exudates
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

212
Q

Immune complexes are deposited in the walls of arterioles and venules
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

213
Q

Corticosteroids have no effect on symptoms
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Polymyositis
C. Both
D. Neither

214
Q

Which of the following anticonvulsants is associated with hyponatremia?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Levetiracetam
D. Phenytoin
E. Topiramate

A

A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Levetiracetam
D. Phenytoin
E. Topiramate

215
Q

All of the following statements regarding the use of single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and positron emission tomography (PET) in epilepsy are true except
A. Both ictal and interictal SPECT studies can be acquired and compared for
seizure localization
B. Ictal SPECT scans are generally easier to acquire than ictal PET scans
C. Ictal SPECT scans show decreased tracer signal in the seizure focus
D. Perfusion follows changes in metabolism during seizures
E. Tracer needs to be injected within 1–2 minutes of seizure onset for an ictal
SPECT study

A

A. Both ictal and interictal SPECT studies can be acquired and compared for
seizure localization
B. Ictal SPECT scans are generally easier to acquire than ictal PET scans
C. Ictal SPECT scans show decreased tracer signal in the seizure focus
D. Perfusion follows changes in metabolism during seizures
E. Tracer needs to be injected within 1–2 minutes of seizure onset for an ictal
SPECT study

216
Q

All of the following are associated with mononeuritis multiplex except
A. Diabetes
B. HIV
C. Neurocysticercosis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
E. Sarcoidosis

A

A. Diabetes
B. HIV
C. Neurocysticercosis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
E. Sarcoidosis

217
Q

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) initially approved intravenous rtPA (recombinant tissue plasminogen activator) for use in acute ischemic stroke up to ___ hour(s) since symptom onset, but in 2009 extended the window to ___ hours since symptom onset.
A. 1,3
B. 3,4.5
C. 4.5,6
D. 6,8
E. 8,10

A

A. 1,3
B. 3,4.5
C. 4.5,6
D. 6,8
E. 8,10

218
Q

Based on the PROACT study, intra-arterial thrombolytic therapy is appropriate for patients with middle cerebral artery occlusions within ___ hours of symptom onset.

A. 3
B. 4.5
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12

A

A. 3
B. 4.5
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12

219
Q

Based on the MERCI study, mechanical thrombectomy is appropriate for patients with middle cerebral artery occlusions within ___ hours of symptom onset.

A. 3
B. 4.5
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12

A

A. 3
B. 4.5
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12

220
Q

All of the following are possible indications for endovascular therapy in the setting of acute ischemic stroke except
A. Contraindication to intravenous tPA
B. Di usion-perfusion mismatch
C. Failure to improve with intravenous tPA
D. NIH stroke score of . 20
E. Patient presents outside the therapeutic window for intravenous tPA

A

A. Contraindication to intravenous tPA
B. Di usion-perfusion mismatch
C. Failure to improve with intravenous tPA
D. NIH stroke score of . 20
E. Patient presents outside the therapeutic window for intravenous tPA