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Y3 Medicine > Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 visible swellings/vesicles in the neural tube early in development?

A

Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Rhomboencephalon

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2
Q

What are the further subdivision of the vesicles of the neural tube?

A

Telencephalon, Diencephalon - Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon (same)
Metencephalon, Myelencephalon - Rhomboencephalon

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3
Q

What derives from the secondary vesicle - Telencephalon?

A

Cerebral Hemispheres

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4
Q

What derives from the secondary vesicle - Diencephalon?

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus

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5
Q

What derives from the secondary vesicle - Mesencephalon?

A

Midbrain

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6
Q

What derives from the secondary vesicle - Metencephalon?

A

Pons, Cerebellum

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7
Q

What derives from the secondary vesicle - Myelencephalon?

A

Medulla Oblongata

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8
Q

During development, when do the primary and secondary vesicles form?

A

Primary - 4 weeks

Secondary - 6-8 weeks

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9
Q

What makes up the Brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

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10
Q

What is the function of Neurones?

A

Receivev information (mainly via synapses), integrate the info and transfer electrical impulses to another neuron or effector cell

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11
Q

What are the four major types of Glial cells?

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal Cells

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12
Q

Which type of glial cells functions as a resident antigen-presenting/phagocytic cells in the brain?

A

Microglia

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13
Q

What’s the difference between the gyrus and sulcus?

A 
Gyrus = bump 
Sulcus = indentations (deeper than sulcus = fissure)
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14
Q

What’s the difference between the outer grey matter and inner white matter of the brain?

A

Grey matter - formed by neurons (soma/cell bodies found), synapses + support cells

White matter - only axons of neurons + support cells

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15
Q

How is the grey and white matter arranged in the spinal cord?

A

Grey matter on inside (cell bodies - H-shape)

White matter - outside, surrounds grey matter (axons)

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16
Q

How can you tell the orientation of the spinal cord from the grey matter?

A

Posterior side of the H-shaped grey matter will touch edge of spinal cord.

Anterior side of grey matter will not reach edge

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17
Q

What are the divisions of the white matter in the spinal cord?

A

Posterior (dorsal) column
Anterior (ventral) column
Lateral column

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18
Q

How are the anterior and posterior ends of the grey matter referred to?

A

Anterior (ventral) HORNS

Posterior (dorsal) Horns

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19
Q

What are the gyrus on either side of the Central Sulcus?

A 
Precentral Gyrus (anterior) 
Postcentral Gyrus (posterior)
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20
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital

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21
Q

Which sulcus marks the boundary between the Frontal and Parietal lobes?

A 
Central sulcus 
(continue line down from central sulcus to corpus callosum)
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22
Q

Which sulcus marks the boundary between the Parietal and Temporal lobes?

A

Lateral sulcus

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23
Q

What two points mark the anterior/lateral boundary of the Occipital lobe?

A

Parieto-occipital sulcus
to
Preoccipital Notch

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24
Q

What is the fifth hidden lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?

A 
Insular Lobe 
(important role in patient's experience of pain)
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25
Q

What are the three layers of the Meninges (superificial to deep)?

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater (subarachnoid space)
Pia mater

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26
Q

What is the deepest layer of the meninges which follows the dips of the sulcus/gyrus?

A

Pia mater

dura + arachnoid just a general protective cover

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27
Q

Between which layers of the meninges contains the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A

Subarachnoid space between the Arachnoid space AND Pia mater

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28
Q

What is the Enteric Nervous System?

A

Found in digestive system (oesophagus to rectum)

Neurons found in two plexuses in walls of gut (myenteric plexus between outer layers of smooth muscle, submucosal plexus in submucosa)

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29
Q

What is the venous drainage system of the brain?

A

Blood from the brain drains into a system of dural venous sinuses
Then drains into internal jugular vein
Exits via Jugular Foramen

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30
Q

What is the name for the con-shaped end of the spinal cord?

A

Conus Medullaris

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31
Q

True or False:

The spinal meninges are continuous with the cranial meninges via the foramen magnum

A

TRUE

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32
Q

True or False:

The spinal cord is suspended in the canal by a ribbon of tissue on the lateral aspect called the Denticulate Ligament?

A

TRUE

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33
Q

True or False:

The denticulate ligament is formed of arachnoid and dura tissue?

A

FALSE
Formed of pial and arachnoid tissue
Attaches to dura at points along length of cord

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34
Q

What does the white matter of the spinal cord consist of?

A

Longitudinally oriented nerve fibres (axons), glial cells and blood vessels

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35
Q

What does the grey matter of the spinal cord consist of?

A

Neuronal soma, cell processes, synapses, glia and blood vessels

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36
Q

What added feature exists in the T1 to L2 spinal segments?

A

Lateral Horn (of grey matter)

Contains preganglionic sympathetic neruons

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37
Q

What are the three arterial supplies to the spinal cord?

A

Longitudinal arteries
Segmental arteries
Radicular arteries

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38
Q

What is the origin of the Longitudinal arteries and where do they run?

A

1 anterior and 2 posterior that originate from the vertebral arteries

Run the length of the cord

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39
Q

Where are the Segmental arteries derived from?

A

Vertebral, Intercostal and Lumbar arteries

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40
Q

Where do Radicular arteries travel?

A

Along the dorsal and ventral roots

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41
Q

What is the space between the dura and the bone called in the spinal cord?
What does it contain?

A

Epidural Space

Contains adipose tissue, anterior + posterior epidural venus plexuses

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42
Q

What two parts is the dorsal (posterior) column of the spinal cord?

A

Fasciculus gracilis

Fasciculus cuneatus

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43
Q

What sensory info does the dorsal column/medial Lemniscus system transmit?

A

Fine touch and conscious proprioception (particularly from upper limb)

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44
Q

Where do fibres cross in the medial lemniscus system?

A

Medulla

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45
Q

What is Proprioception?

A

Sense of self-movement and body position

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46
Q

What sensory info does the Spinothalamic tract transmit?

A

Carries pain, temperature and deep pressure

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47
Q

Where do fibres cross in the spinothalamic tract?

A

Fibres cross segmentally (at the vertebrae level they enter)

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48
Q

True or False:

The Ascending tract of the spinal cord contains motor information

A

FALSE
Ascending tract is sensory information
Descending tract is Motor

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49
Q

What motor functions does the Corticospinal Tract transmit?

A

Fine, precise movement

Particularly of distal limb muscles, e.g. digits

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50
Q

Why is the Corticospinal Tract also called the Pyramidal tract?

A

Tract forms visible ridges referred to as ‘pyramids’on the anterior surface of the medulla

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51
Q

Where does the Corticospinal Tract (CST) fibres cross?

A

About 85% of fibres cross in caudal medulla at decussation of pyramids

Crossed fibres form Lateral CST
Uncrossed fibres form the Ventral CST (cross segmentally)

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52
Q

What is the Internal Capsule?

A

White matter structure containing ascending and descending axons going to and from the cerebellum.
All modalities travel through the internal capsule

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53
Q

What are the three motor systems outside of the pyramidal tract (aka Extrapyramidal system)?

A

Tectospinal Tract
Reticulospinal Tract
Vestibulospinal Tract

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54
Q

What motor functions is the Tectospinal tract involved?

A

Input mostly to cervical segments

Responsible for movement of head + upper body

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55
Q

What reflex is the Tectospinal tract though to be involved in?

A

Mediated reflex head and neck movement due to visual stimuli

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56
Q

What is the Reticular formation?

A

Forms the central core of the brainstem. Has many nuclei + receives input from virtually all parts of CNS

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57
Q

Where do fibres originate in the reticular formation?

A

Pons and Medulla

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58
Q

What is the motor function of the Reticulospinal Tract?

A

Pons - facilitate extensor movements + inhibit flexor movements
Medulla - opposite

59
Q

Where do the fibres originate in the Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

Originate in the vestibular nuclei of pons and medulla

in turn receive input from vestibular apparatus + cerebellum

60
Q

What is the motor function of the Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

Excitatory input to ‘antigravity’ extensor muscles

Pushed from behind > will stumble and catch yourself

61
Q

What causes Brown-Sequard’s Syndrome?

A

Lateral hemisection of spinal cord (destroys one side of spinal cord but other left intact)

62
Q

Where is the Primary motor area?

A

Pre-central Gyrus

63
Q

What attaches the brainstem to the cerebellum?

A

Peduncles (3 stalks)

Superior, Middle (largest) + Inferior

64
Q

What is the function of the Peduncle?

A

Stump of white matter than carries fibres in and out of cerebellum

65
Q

What are the Deep Cerebellar Nuclei?

A

Embedded grey matter within white matter of cerebellum

66
Q

What are the 3 layers of the Cerebellar Cortex (outer to inner)?

A

Outer = Molecular layer

Middle = Purkinje cell layer

Inner = Granule cell layer

67
Q

Where to afferents to the cerebellum tend to arrive from?

A
  • Spinal cord (somatic proprioceptors + pressure receptors)
  • Cerebral cortex (relayed via pons)
  • Vestibular apparatus (vis vestibular nuclei)
68
Q

How do afferent projections (input) enter the cerebellum

A

Enter via cerebellar peduncles and project mainly to granule cell layer

69
Q

How do efferent projections (output) leave the cerebellum?

A

From all 3 lobes the only output is via axons of Purkinje cells
Synapse on neurons of deep cerebellar nuclei + contribute to function of all motor tracts of brain stem + spinal cord

70
Q

Where do efferent fibres from Cerebellum cross the midline?

A

Most efferent axons of deep cerebellar nuclei cross the midline + synapse in the THALAMUS
Thalamus then sends fibres to motor cortex

71
Q

What are the signs of a unilateral hemispheric lesion of the cerebellum?

A

Disturbance of coordination in limbs

Can result in tremor + unsteady gait in absence of weakness or sensory loss

72
Q

What are the signs of a Bilateral cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Results in slowed, slurred speech (dysarthria), bilateral incoordination of arms, staggering wide-based gait (cerebellar ataxia)

73
Q

What common thing can cause bilateral cerebellar hemisphere dysfunction?

A

Acute alcohol exposure

Cerebellum is very sensitive to alcohol

74
Q

True or False:

Cerebellar hemispheres influence ipsilateral side of body = lesions lead to ipsilateral signs + symptoms

A

TRUE

75
Q

What are the functions of the Basal Ganglia?

A
  • To facilitate purposeful movement
  • Inhibit unwanted movements
  • Role in posture and muscle tone
76
Q

What is a basal ganglia?

A

A number of masses of grey matter located near the base of each cerebral hemisphere

77
Q

What are the 5 structures making up the basal ganglia?

A 
Caudate nucleus 
Putamen 
Globus pallidus 
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra
78
Q

Which structures make up the Striatum?

A

Caudate nucleus +

Putamen

79
Q

Which structures make up the Lenticular Nucleus?

A

Putamen +

Globus pallidum

80
Q

Which structures make up the Corpus Striatum?

A

Caudate nucleus +
Putamen +
Globus pallidus

81
Q

Why is the Substantia Nigra recognisable within the brain?

A

Structure stains itself black

Produces dopamine and by-product dyes structure darker colour than surrounding (neuromelanin)

82
Q

What is the pathology of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons of substantia nigra

83
Q

True or False:

Unilateral lesions of basal ganglia affect the ipsilateral side of body

A

FALSE

Affects contralateral side of body (cerebellar lesions affect ipsilateral side)

84
Q

True or False:

Lesions of basal ganglia generally DO NOT cause paralysis, sensory loss, loss of power or ataxia

A

TRUE

85
Q

What motor signs are seen with lesions of basal ganglia?

A

Changes in muscle tone

Dyskinesias (abnormal involuntary movements) - tremor, chorea, myoclonus

86
Q

Why do lesions affecting the indirect pathway of the basal ganglion cause jerky movements?

A

Involuntary exaggerated jerky movements can occur because the inhibitory system is not preventing them

87
Q

What is the pathology of Huntington’s Disease?

A

Progressive degeneration of basal ganglia and cerebral cortex

88
Q

What are some signs of Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease?

A

Parkinson’s - akinesia, rigidity, resting tremor

Huntington’s - chorea, progressive dementia

89
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

90
Q

Name the twelve cranial nerves in order

A 
Olfactory 
Optic 
Oculomotor 
Trochlear 
Trigeminal 
Abducens
Facial 
Vestibulocochlear 
Glossopharyngeal 
Vagus 
Spinal Accessory 
Hypoglossal
91
Q

Which of the cranial nerves are purely sensory modality?

A

Olfactory (I)
Optic (II)
Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

92
Q

Which of the cranial nerves are purely motor modality?

A 
Oculomotor (III)
Trochlear (IV)
Abducens (VI)
Accessory (XI)
Hypoglossal (XII)
93
Q

Which of the cranial nerves have mixed modality?

A

Trigeminal (V)
Facial (VII)
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Vagus (X)

94
Q

True or False:

All of the cranial nerves exit ANTERIORLY

A 
FALSE 
All exit anteriorly 
EXCEPT 
CN IV (trochlear) - posteriorly 
CN VIII (vestibulocochlear) - laterally
95
Q

Which of the twelve cranial nerves is the only one not the synapse in the thalamus prior to reaching the cortex?

A

Olfactory nerve

CN I

96
Q

Explain the structure of the olfactory nerve where it penetrates the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

A

Olfactory tract travels through the cranium and forms the Olfactory Bulb which sits superior to cribiform plate
The olfactory nerves exit the bulb and penetrate the bone to sit within the olfactory membrane

97
Q

What muscles does the Oculomotor nerve innervate?

A

Extraocular muscles - SR, MR, IR, IO
Levator pupillae sphincter

Sphincter pupillae + cilliary muscle (parasympathetic)

98
Q

Which three cranial nerves innervate the extraocular muscles of the eye?

A

Oculomotor (AO3)
Trochlear (SO)
Abducens (LR)

99
Q

Which muscles foes the Hypoglossal nerve innervate?

A

Genioglossus
Hypoglossus
Styloglossus
(All muscles of the tongue except one)

100
Q

What are the three main functions of the Trigeminal nerve?

A
  1. Somatosensation of face
  2. Proprioception associated with chewing (TMJ, mastication muscles, teeth)
  3. Motor Control (muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, mylohyoid, etc.)
101
Q

What are the three parts of the trigeminal sensory nuclei?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine Trigeminal Nucleus
Spinal Nucleus

102
Q

What are the three different functions of the nuclei of the trigeminal sensory column?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus - Proprioception info from chewing muscles

Pontine nucleus - discriminative touch, vibration

Spinal nucleus - pain, temperature

103
Q

What is the only site in the CNS where cell bodies of primary afferent neurones live inside the CNS?

A

Mesencephalic Nucleus

104
Q

What are some of the functions of the Facial nerve?

A
  1. Motor - muscles of facial expression, stapedius
  2. Parasymp. - pterygopalatine, submandibular ganglia
  3. Taste - anterior 2/3rds of tongue (via chorda tympani)
105
Q

What are some of the functions of the Glossopharyngeal nerve?

A
  1. Tactile sense, pain and temperature from posterior tongue, pharyngotympanic + upper pharynx
  2. Taste - posterior 1/3rd tongue
  3. Parasymp. - fibres to otic ganglion (parotid gland)
  4. Motor - stylopharyngeus
106
Q

What are some of the functions of the Vagus nerve?

A
  1. Tactile sense, pain + temp sense from pharynx, larynx, trachea, oesophagus + viscera
  2. Taste - epiglottis
  3. Parasymp. - inn. to ganglia serving thoraxix + abdominal viscera
  4. Motor - striated muscle of pharynx + larynx
107
Q

True or False:

The motor fibres of the facial nerve loop around the abducens nucleus before reaching the facial motor nucleus

A

TRUE

108
Q

What are the four nuclei of the glossopharyngeal nerve in the upper medulla?

A

Solitary nucleus - gustatory nucleus

Spinal Trigeminal nucleus (small region of somatosensory assoc. with ear)

Inf. Salivatory nucleus (parasymp.)

Nucleus Ambiguus (stylopharyngeus)

109
Q

What are the 4 components of the vagus nerve in the upper medulla?

A

Dorsal (motor) nucleus (parasymp)

Solitary

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

Nucleus ambiguus

110
Q

Which cranial nerves share the solitary nucleus?

A

VII (Facial) - ant 2/3 tongue
IX (Glossopharyngeal) - post 1/3 tongue
X (Vagus) - epiglottis

Taste + visceral sensory information

111
Q

Which cranial nerves share the Sup. and Inf. Salivatory nuclei?

A

VII (Facial)
IX (Glossopharyngeal)

Parasympathetic efferents to ganglia of salivary glands + pterygopalatine ganglion)

112
Q

Which cranial nerves share the Nucleus Ambiguus?

A

IX (Glossopharyngeal)
X (Vagus)

Motor efferents to muscles of pharynx, larynx + upper oesophagus)

113
Q

What is the part of the pyramidal tract that is motor to cranial nerves?

A

Corticobulbar Tract

includes fibres to the motor nuclei of CN V, VII, X, XII

114
Q

Which cranial nerves get input containing parasympathetic efferents?

A

III, VII, IX, X

115
Q

What is the path of input to CN’s containing parasymp. efferents?

A
  • Input mainly from hypothalamus
  • Efferents reach preganglionic autonomic neurons (directly + via synapses in reticular formation)

(Hypothalamus influenced by physiological status + input from many brain regions)

116
Q

What is the Reticular Formation?

A

Network of loosely aggregated cells with cell bodies, axons and dendrites intermingling in central core of brainstem

117
Q

What are the three bones of the middle ear?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

118
Q

What is the main cranial nerve for hearing & balance (number + name)?

A

CN VIII

Vestibulocochlear

119
Q

What is the Organ of Corti?

A

Sensitive element in inner ear which is the receptor organ for hearing (body’s microphone)
Situated on basilar membrane in one of the three compartments of the Cochlea (contains 4 rows of hair cells protruding from surface)

120
Q

Why is the Superior Olivary nucleus important in hearing?

A

Important in sound localisation - knowing where the sound comes from

121
Q

What is the bulletpoint pathway from cochlea to primary auditory cortex?

A

Cochlea >
Ventral cochlea nucleus + Dorsal Cochlear nucleus >
2nd order neurones ascend bilaterally >
Superior olivary nucleus >
Inferior colliculus >
Thalamus (synapse in thalamus = medial geniculate body) >
Primary auditory cortex

122
Q

Would you be concerned about a brainstem injury if someone had unilateral hearing loss?

A

NO

Bilateral projection in brainstem from cochlea so a unilateral hearing loss indicates a pathology earlier in pathway

123
Q 
Which of these coloured areas shows the Primary Auditory Cortex?
INSERT PICTURE (lecture 11 - slide 9)
A

Green

124
Q

Which of these coloured areas shows the Somatosensory cortex?
PICTURE

A

Red

125
Q

Which of these coloured areas shows the Primary Motor Cortex?
PICTURE

A

Yellow

126
Q

How is the auditory cortex tonotopically organised?

A

Fibres carrying info regarding LOW frequency sound end in anterolateral part of cortex

HIGH frequency sounds end in posteromedial part

127
Q

What is Aphasia?

A

Inability to use language

128
Q

What occurs if there is damage to Broca’s area?

A

Difficulty producing language
Use few words or only say important words

Have no difficulty comprehending language

129
Q

What occurs if there is damage to Wernicke’s area?

A

Difficulty comprehending language

Can manifest defects ranging from words out of order to meaningless words

130
Q

Which parts of the inner ear are important in balance?

A

Semicircular canals

+ Vestibular nerve (CN VIII)

131
Q

True or False:

The projection of vestibular information onto the cerebral cortex is bilateral

A

TRUE

132
Q

How are the visual fields on the retina often described?

A

Nasal field

Temporal field

133
Q

What is the bulletpoint pathway from the Retina of the eye to the visual cortex?

A

Retina >
Optic nerve >
Optic chiasm >
Optic tract >
Lateral geniculate nucleus (of thalamus) >
Temporal or Parietal for sup./inf. fields >
Visual Cortex

134
Q

What is the mneumonic for distinguishing between temporal and parietal as superior or inferior fields?

A

PITS

Parietal Inferior
Temporal Superior

135
Q

Which of these coloured areas shows the Primary Visual Cortex?
PICTURE

A

Blue

136
Q

Where does the macula project to?

A

Posterior pole of visual cortex

137
Q

How is the Meyer’s Loop related to the visual pathway?

A
  • Fibres of geniculocalcarine tract initially form part of internal capsule
  • Those carrying visual info from upper half of visual field LOOP ANTERIORLY around temporal part of lateral ventricle in MEYER’S LOOP
  • End below calcarine sulcus
138
Q

What are the two forms of eye movement?

A

Movements of command (jump/jerk, comes from frontal eye fields)

Tracking movements (smooth, controlled by visual cortex)

139
Q

What is the Pupillary Light Reflex?

A

Shine light into one eye = pupil constricts (direct light reflex)
Other pupil also constricts (Consensual light reflex)

Edinger-Westphal nucleus is in midline = bilateral projection activates both eyes

140
Q

How does the accommodation reflex involve?

A

Convergence of gaze
Contraction of ciliary muscles
Pupillary constriction

141
Q

Where does the accommodation reflex require input from?

A

Oculomotor and Edinger-Westphal nucleus from visual cortex

142
Q

What is Hemianopia?

A

Blindness for half the field of vision in one or both eyes

143
Q

What are the three types of fibres in white matter of the cerebral hemisphere?

A

Association fibres (connect cortical sites in same hemisphere)

Commissural fibres (connect one hemisphere to the other)

Projection fibres (connect hemispheres to deeper structures, e.g. thalamus, corpus striatum, brainstem, spinal cord)

Y3 Medicine (8 decks)

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