Neuroanatomy Flashcards
1
Q
What is the function of the CNS and its components
A
- integration and command center
- brain and spinal cord
2
Q
What is the function of the PNS and its components
A
- carries messages to and from the CNS
- paired spinal and cranial nerves
3
Q
What are the two functional nervous systems
A
Somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system
4
Q
Name the neuroglia in the CNS
A
Astrocytes, Microglia, Ependymal cells, Oligodendrocytes
5
Q
Name the neuroglia in the PNS
A
satellite cells and schwann cells
6
Q
What is the function of an astrocyte
A
- repairs damage in the CNS and is the most abundant
7
Q
What is the function of microglial cells
A
defensive cells of the CNS
8
Q
What is the function of oligodendrocytes
A
form myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the CNS
9
Q
What is the function of satellite cells
A
acts as protective cushions and supplies nutrients in the PNS
10
Q
What is the function of schwann cells
A
form myelin and surround neurons in the PNS (act as oligodendrocytes but for the PNS)
11
Q
What are clusters of cell bodies called in the CNS and PNS
A
CNS = nuclei
PNS = ganglia
12
Q
What are bundles of processes (axons & dendrites) called in the CNS and PNS
A
CNS = tracts
PNS = nerves
13
Q
What is the receptive region of a neuron called
A
dendrites (conveys electrical signals toward the cell body)
14
Q
What is the function of an axon
A
conduction region of a neuron, transmits impulses away from the cell body
15
Q
Where are neurotransmitters released from?
A
knoblike axon terminals (boutons)
16
Q
What is the function of myelin sheath
A
protect and electrically insulate the axon as well as increase the speed of impulse transmission
17
Q
White matter is ________ whereas gray matter is _______
A
white matter is myelinated whereas gray matter is unmyelinated
18
Q
Describe multipolar neurons
A
1 axon and several dendrites
- most abundant
- motor neurons and interneurons
19
Q
Describe bipolar neurons
A
1 axon and 1 dendrite
- retinal neurons
- rare
20
Q
Name the 3 meninges from superficial to deep
A
dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater
21
Q
Describe unipolar neurons
A
single short process that has 2 branches
-peripheral process is more distal and associated with a sensory receptor
-central process is the branch entering the CNS
22
Q
Name the layers of the dura mater
A
Periosteal - adherent to the skull
Meningeal - deep to the periosteal layer and forms the falx
23
Q
What is in the longitudinal fissure attached to the crista galli
A
falx ceribri
24
Q
what goes along the vermis of the cerebellum
A
falx cerebelli
25
what is the horizontal dural fold over the cerebellum and in the transverse fissure
tentorium cerebelli
26
What runs between the falx cerebri
superior sagittal sinus
27
which of these is epidural and which of these is subdural
right = subdural
left = epidural
28
Describe the arachnoid mater
-middle layer with web-like extensions and protruding arachnoid villi that permit CSF reabsorption
-subarachnoid space contains blood vessels and CSF
29
Describe the pia mater
delicate vascularized connective tissue that clings tightly to the brain
30
Name the 4 regions of the adult brain
cerebral hemispheres (R and L)
diencephalon
cerebellum
brain stem (midbrain, pons, medulla)
31
Describe the spinal cord
- extends from foramen magnum to the intervertebral disc of L1 and L2
- central cavity, edges made of gray matter with white matter core
32
What are ventricles lined with
ependymal cells
33
Describe where the 4 ventricles are located
- 2 C shaped ventricles in the L and R cerebral hemispheres
- 3rd ventricle in the diencephalon
- 4th ventricle in the hindbrain dorsal to the pons
34
What connects the L and R ventricles to the 3rd ventricle
the interventricular foramen of monro
35
What connects the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle
cerebral aqueduct aka aqueduct of silvus
36
What connects the 4th ventricle to the subarachnoid space
the lateral aperture of luschka and the median aperture of magendie
37
What connects the 4th ventricle to the spinal cord
the central canal
38
what is the function of CSF
gives buoyancy, protection, and nourishment to the CNS as well as carrying chemical signals
39
What is the function of the choroid plexuses
produces CSF at a constant rate
40
What is the blood brain barrier made of and what does it do
continuous endothelium of capillary walls, basal lamina, feet of astrocytes
-maintains stable environment for brain and separates some bloodborne substances
41
What does the BBB allow to pass through
fat soluble substances like alcohol, nicotine, and anesthetics
42
Where is there a lack of blood brain barrier
vomiting center and the hypothalamus - where it is necessary to monitor the chemical composition of the blood
43
Name the 5 lobes of the cerebral hemispheres
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula
44
What separates the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe and the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
the central sulcus
45
what separates the L and R hemispheres
the longitudinal fissure
46
what separates the cerebrum and the cerebellum
transverse cerebral fissure
47
what divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes
Slyvian/lateral fissure
48
What do association fibers do
connect adjacent gyri, do not cross the midline
49
What do commissural fibers do
connect wide areas of the cerebral cortex of the two hemispheres across the midline
50
What do homotopical and heterotpical comissural fibers do
homotopical connects identical areas, heterotopical connects different areas
51
what are the 4 areas of the corpus callosum
Rostrum (orbital surface)
Genu (medial/lateral frontal lobes)
Trunk (wide areas of cerebral cortex)
Splenium (occipital lobes)
52
what do projection fibers do
connect the cerebral cortex with sub-cortical gray matter of the basal ganglia, thalamus, and nuclei of the brain stem and spinal cord
53
What is the major group of projection fibers connecting the rest of the body to the primary motor cortex
the pyramidal/corticospinal tract
54
Describe the travel of the pyramidal/corticospinal tract from top down
primary motor cortex
corona radiata
internal capsule
midbrain
pons
medulla
spinal cord
55
What are the parts of the internal capsule
56
What are the arterial suppliers of blood to the brain
pair of internal carotid arteries
pair of vertebral arteries
57
what do the arterial pairs form
circle of willis
58
What are the 3 parts of blood supply in the brain
59
Name the 3 regions of the brain stem
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
60
How many cranial nerves are associated with the brain stem?
10 of 12
61
The nuclei of which cranial nerves are located in the midbrain?
Oculomotor (3), Trochlear, (4)
62
What are the 2 parts of the diencephalon?
thalamus, hypothalamus
63
Where are cerebral peduncles located
midbrain (ventral)
64
where is the substantia nigra located
midbrain (ventral)
65
Where is the corpora quadrigemina located
midbrain (posterior)
66
where are the superior and inferior colliculi located and what do they do?
Midbrain (posterior)
superior: visual reflex center
inferior: auditory relay center
67
What cranial nerves have their nuclei in the posterior midbrain?
oculomotor and trochlear
68
Why are the substantia nigra named the way they are and what is their degeneration associated with?
because they are melanin pigmented and if degenerated = Parkinson's
69
What do the fibers of the pons do?
connect higher brain centers and the spinal cord via the pyramidal tract, and relays impulses between motor cortex and cerebellum
70
What cranial nerve origins are located in the pons?
trigeminal (5), Abducens (6), Facial (7)
71
At what level does the medulla oblongata join the spinal cord?
level of the foramen magnum
72
What are the 2 major landmarks of the medulla oblongata?
pyramids and olives
73
What are the pyramids of the medulla oblongata
2 ventral longitudinal ridges formed by pyramidal tracts
74
what are the olives of the medulla oblongata
inferior olivary nuclei that relay sensory info from muscles and joints to cerebellum
75
What cranial nerves are associated with the medulla oblongata
8, 9, 10, 11, 12
76
What center regulates breathing
pons and medulla
77
what center regulates vestibular nuclear comples
medulla oblongata
78
What does the vestibular nuclear complex do
mediates responses that maintain equilibrium
79
Where are autonomic reflex centers located
medulla oblongata
80
where is the cardiovascular center located and what does it do
medulla oblongata
- cardiac center adjusts force and rate of heart contraction
- vasomotor center adjusts blood vessel diameter for BP regulation
81
Where is the respiratory center located
medulla oblongata
- controls respiratory rhythm, rate, depth in conjunction with pontine centers
82
What does the cerebellum do
subconsciously provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction
83
Describe the anatomy of the cerebellum
2 hemispheres with 3 lobes each, connected by vermis
- transverse gyri = folia
- treelike pattern of white matter - arbor vitae
84
Name the cerebellar nuclei later to medial
dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigii
85
Describe the 3 cerebellar peduncles
paired ipsilateral fibers
- superior peduncles connect cerebellum to midbrain
- middle peduncles connect pons to cerebellum
- inferior peduncles connect medulla to cerebellum
86
what does the cerebellar vermis of the homunculus control
the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs
87
what does the intermediate part of the cerebellar homunculus control
distal musculature
88
what does the lateral part of the cerebellar homunculus control
involved in motor planning
89
what does the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellar homunculus control
balance, eye movement
90
What is the blood supply of the cerebellum
superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
91
What are the 2 branches of the basilar artery that supply the cerebellum
SCA and AICA
92
what is the largest branch of the vertebral artery that supplies the cerebellum
PICA
93
Describe lateral medullary syndrome aka PICA syndrome aka Wallenberg syndrome
- most common cerebellar stroke
- PICA embolus/ischemia
- pain or temporary loss of contralateral trunk, extremity control and ipsilateral face: dysphagia, slurred speech, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, **horner's syndrome**
94
describe horner's syndrome
ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, red eye
95
what is the second most common cerebellar stroke and its symptoms
AICA syndrome
- ataxia, vertigo, ipsi deafness, ipsi facial weakness
96
What is the extent of the spinal cord
foramen magnum to conus medullaris at lower border of L1 vertebra
97
describe the denticulate ligaments
extension of pia mater that secures cord to dura mater
98
describe the filum terminale
fibrous extension from conus medullaris, composed of pia mater, anchors spinal cord to coccyx
99
describe cauda equina
formed by roots of lower pairs of lumbar, 5 pairs of sacra, 1 pair of coccygeal nerves
100
Which grows faster, the vertebral column or the spinal cord?
vertebral column
101
what is the part of the spinal cord that gives rise to pairs of spinal nerves
spinal segment of the spinal cord
102
What level is a lumbar puncture usually performed at
L4-L5
103
What section of the spinal cord is the lateral horn located in and what does it give rise to?
thoracic section only
gives rise to the sympathetic nervous system
104
White matter of the spinal cord consists of...
ascending sensory and descending motor tracts (in addition to transverse comissural fibers)
105
Where is the dorsal-column pathway located on the spinal cord and what sensory info does it carry
posterior side of spinal cord
vibration, fine touch, prioprioception
106
Where is the spinothalamic tract located on the spinal cord and what sensory info does it carry
lateral and anterior of spinal cord
carries pain and temperature (lateral), crude touch and pressure (ventral)
107
what are the 2 parts of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway
nucleus gracilis
nucleus cuneatus
(in the medulla)
108
Describe a 1st order neuron
- conducts impulses from cutaneous receptors and proprioceptors
- branches diffusely as it enters the spinal cord/medulla
- synapses with 2nd order neuron
109
Describe a 2nd order neuron
- interneuron
- cell body in dorsal horn of spinal cord/medullary nuclei
- axons extend to thalamus/cerebellum
110
Describe a 3rd order neuron
- interneuron
- cell body in thalamus
- axon extends to somatosensory cortex (3, 1, 2)
111
At which levels do the dorsal column and spinothalamic tracts cross over
dorsal column - medulla
spinothalamic - spinal cord
**mapping this out helps determine where a lesion is (contra-ipsi)**
112
What are the arteries supplying the spinal cord
primarily anterior and posterior spinal arteries (branches of vertebral arteries)
-reinforced by cervical, intercostal, and lumbar arteries at each level
113
A lesion of which blood vessel leads to anterior spinal artery syndrome
artery of adamkiewicz aka arteria radicularis magna
(this is the most substantial major blood supply to lumbar and sacral cord)
114
what are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system
parasympathetic and sympathetic
- all visceral organs are served by both divisions
115
what is the role of the parasympathetic division
relaxation, digestion, lowers BP, HR, RR
116
what is the role of the sympathetic division
fight or flight, bronchiles dilate, blood flow shunted to skeletal muscle and heart
117
What is the origin of the fibers of the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions
sympathetic - thoracolumbar region of spinal cord
parasympathetic - craniosacral
118
what is the length of the fibers in the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions
sympathetic - short preganglionic and long postganglionic
parasympathetic - long preganglionic and short postganglionic
119
where are the ganglia located in the sympathetic vs parasympathetic divisions
sympathetic - close to spinal cord
parasympathetic - in visceral effector organs
120
Describe how we get referred pain
visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers
(visceral pain shares somatic nerves so impulses of visceral reflex activates whatever that nerve is ie. appendicitis and umbilical pain, MI and chest, L arm pain)
121
What fibers release/receive acetylcholine
cholinergic fibers (all ANS preganglionic axons and parasympathetic postganglionic axons)
122
what fibers release/receive noradrenaline/norepinephrine
adrenergic fibers (most postganglionic sympathetic axons except in sweat glands and blood vessels in skeletal muscle)
123
What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors that bind ACh
nicotine and muscarinic
124
Describe nicotinic cholinergic receptors
- found in skeletal muscle, ganglionic neurons, hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla
- always stimulatory
125
Describe muscarinic cholinergic receptors
- associated with postganglionic cholinergic fibers
- inhibitory or excitatory
126
How does atropine work
- blocks muscarinic receptors (anticholinergic)
- prevents salivation during surgery and dilates pupils for exam
127
What are the 2 types of adrenergic receptors
Alpha 1 and 2
Beta 1, 2 and 3
128
What are the 5 layers of the scalp
**S**kin
**C**onnective tissue
**A**poneurosis
**L**oose sub-aponeurotic tissue
**P**ericranium/periosteum
129
what are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve
V1 - ophthalmic
V2 - maxillary
V3 - mandibular
130
what is the only cranial nerve that extends beyond the head and neck
vagus nerve
131
What is the basal ganglia
sub-cortical collection of gray matter in the cerebrum which lie in close relation to the internal capsule, which are essential constituents of the extra pyramidal system
132
what does the basal ganglia do
initiates and provides gross control over skeletal muscle movements
functionally associated with the subthalamic nuclei (diencephalon) and the substantia nigra (midbrain)
133
Describe the caudate nucleus of the basal ganglia
forms an arched band of gray matter in conformity with the curvature of the lateral ventricle
- head
- body
- tail
134
What are the parts of the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia
- caudate nucleus
- lentiform nucleus
135
What are the parts of the lentiform nucleus within the corpus striatum of the basal ganglia
putamen and globus pallidus
136
Name the sections of the basal ganglia
blue - caudate nucleus (head, body, tail)
green - putamen
purple - globus pallidus
red - thalamus
137
Describe what happens if there is a tumor on the caudate nucleus
it can compress the lateral ventricle and hamper circulation of CSF
138
What part of the basal ganglia is most affected in Huntington's disease
neurons of the head of the caudate nucleus - degenerated
139
What are the green lines
comissural fibers
140
What is the blue
ventricles
141
What is the white matter between the pink and purple
internal capsule
142
What is the anterior pink and lateral pink
anterior - caudate nucleus
lateral - lentiform nucleus
(medial = globus pallidus, lateral = putamen)
143
Where is the amygdaloid body located
144
What does the amygdaloid body do
primary role in processing memory and emotional reactions, therefore more functionally related to the **limbic system**
145
What is the Claustrum
thin sheet of gray matter separating the putamen and insular cortex
146
is GABA inhibitory or excitatory
inhibitory
147
is glutamate inhibitory or excitatory
excitatory
148
Which diseases are linked to the basal gangia and which pathways are affected
- Parkinson's disease (direct pathway)
- Huntington's disease (indirect pathway)
- Hemiballism (indirect pathway)
- Tourette syndrome (indirect pathway)
- Wilson disease (direct pathway)
149
What does dopamine do (connections of the corpus striatum)
**increases** cortical excitation by **exciting** the DIRECT pathway and **inhibiting** the INDIRECT pathway
150
What does acetylcholine do (connections of the corpus striatum)
**decreases** cortical excitation by **exciting** the INDIRECT pathway
151
What happens with increased level of cortical excitation vs decreased level of cortical excitation
promotion of movement vs suppression of unwanted movement
152
Direct pathway is characterized by _____ levels of cortical excitation and _______ of movement
increased, promotion
153
Indirect pathway is characterized by _____ levels of cortical excitation and _______ of movement
decreased, suppression (unwanted movement)
154
Identify each letter
A = caudate nucleus
B = lentiform nucleus
C = thalamus
D = internal capsule
E = corpus callosum?
F = occipital lobe
155
What are the 4 parts of the diencephalon
Masses of gray matter that surround the 3rd ventricle
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- epithalamus
- subthalamus
156
Identify the green, blue, light pink, darker pink (anterior), dark purple, light purple
green = Pons
blue = Cerebral aqueduct
light pink = pituitary gland
dark pink = pineal gland (part of epithalamus)
dark purple = hypothalamus (with inferior mammillary body)
light purple = thalamus
157
What is 80% of the diencephalon
the thalamus
158
What does the thalamus do
serves as major sensory relay for info that reaches the cortex and motor control areas synapse here before reaching the cortex
159
What is the input and output for Ventral posteriolateral (VPL) thalamic nuclei
160
What is the input and output for the ventral posteriomedial (VPM) thalamic nuclei
161
VPL and VPM thalamic nuclei are sensory or motor?
sensory
162
VA and VL (ventral anterior and ventral lateral) thalamic nuclei are sensory or motor?
motor
163
What is the input and output for the medial geniculate body (MGB) thalamic nuclei
164
What is the input and output for the lateral geniculate body (LGB) thalamic nuclei
165
What is the internal medullary lamina of the thalamus do
participates in our asleep/awake cycle - circadian rhythm (along with hypothalamus)
166
What do the anterior and medial nuclei of the thalamus do
help in memory processing
167
What is the mediodorsal nucleus involved in in the thalamus
degeneration of thalamus results in memory issues (Korsakoff)
168
Describe thalamic pain syndrome
- affects the ventral nuclear group
- burning, aching, loss of vibratory and touch sense in contralateral side
- resistent to analgesics
- secondary to lacunar stroke
169
What does the hypothalamus do
afferent and efferent connections throughout the nervous system including the **pituitary gland, autonomic system, and limbic system**
- regulates sleep awake, autonomic nervous system, temperature, involved in endocrine system
170
List some of the nuclei of the hypothalamus
- preoptic
- supraoptic
- suprachiasmatic
- ventromedial
- lateral hypothalamic area
- dorsomedial nucleus
- paraventricular nucleus
171
What is associated with the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
androgens and estrogens
172
what is associated with the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
ADH
173
what is associated with the suprachiasmatic nucleus
circadian rhythm
174
what is associated with the paraventricular nucleus
oxytocin
175
What hormones and nuclei are associated with the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
ADH and oxytocin from the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
176
what is associated with the dorsomedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
savage behavior
177
what is associated with the lateral hypothalamic area
feeding center
178
what is associated with the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus
satiety center
179
What happens if there is a lesion in the pre-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus before and after puberty
before: arrest of sexual development
after: amenorrhea or impotence
180
lesion of the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus can lead to what
neurogenic diabetes insipidus = polydipsia and polyuria
181
Lesion of the anterior hypothalamic zone leads to
hyperthermia
182
lesion to the posterior hypothalamic zone leads to
poikilothermy (inability to thermoregulate)
183
What does the hypothalamus do
- autonomic control of visceral functions
- emotional response
- body temp
- food intake, thirst
- sleep cycle
- hormones (anterior/posterior pituitary)
184
What does the epithalamus consist of
pineal body and habenular nuclei
185
What is the pineal body
- vascularized structure above the posterior comissure attached to the roof of the 3rd ventricle
- contains pinealocytes and glial cells
186
What does the pineal gland do
- synthesizes **melatonin, serotonin, cholecystokinin**
- regulates sleep wake cycle
- anti-gonadotropin function and inhibits GRH before puberty
187
Identify the pineal gland
188
What happens if there is a tumor of the pineal gland
the growth of the tumor will put pressure on the surrounding areas and result in symptoms (can compress superior coliculi = vision issues, compress cerebral aqueduct = hydrocephalus)
189
What is precocious puberty caused by
lesion of the pineal gland
190
What is Parinaud syndrome
-impairment of conjugate vertical gaze and bilaterally suppressed pupillary light reflex
-compression of upper midbrain and pretectal area by pineal tumor
191
Describe the subthalamus
- biconvex mass of gray matter called the subthalamic nucleis, lateral to the hypothalamus
- involved in the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia circuitry
192
Lesion of the subthalamus can cause what
hemiballismus - contralateral flinging movements of one or both extremities
193
what does the limbic system do
mediates and controls all aspects of emotional and motivational drives such as food, sex, anger, rage, love, stress, etc.
194
What is the Papez Circuit
limbic system
195
Window through which the limbic system sees the place of the person in the world =
amygdala
196
What are the structures of the limbic system
197
Kluver Bucy syndrome
lesion of the amygdala
- no fear
- compulsive to put objects in mouth
- forgetful
- curiosity
- strong sex drive
198
Hippocampus is important for ...
memory consolidation - short term
199
Lesion of the hypothalamus will NOT affect
long term memory, only short term memory (alzheimers)
200
What is the function of the temporal lobe
hearing, language processing, memory
201
what is the function of the frontal lobe
executive function, judgement, personality
202
What is the function of the parietal lobe
sense of self, spatial location, attention, motor control
203
what is the function of the occipital lobe
vision
204
What are the 3 functional areas of the cerebral cortex
primary, secondary, association
205
Describe primary motor areas
direct connections with specific muscles for causing discrete muscle movement
206
describe the secondary motor area
- makes sense of signals in primary areas
- provides patterns of motor activity or programs sequence of movement
207
Describe primary sensory areas
detects specific sensations
208
describe secondary sensory areas
analyzes the meanings of specific sensory signals
- interpretation of shape/texture, color/light, tones/sequence of tone
209
Describe association areas
receives and analyzes signals from multiple regions of both motor and sensory cortices
(parieto-occipitotemporal and prefrontal)
210
Describe the function of the parieto-occipitotemporal association area
provides interpretative meaning from all surrounding sensory areas
- spatial coordinates
- Wernicke's language comp.
- angular gyrus for visual processing of words/reading
- area for naming objects
211
Describe the function of the prefrontal association area
close association with motor cortex
- plans complex patterns and sequences of movement
- carries thought process
- involved in intellect, cognition, recall, personality
212
What could a lesion in the association area lead to
agnosia - inability to know familiar objects/people
213
What could a lesion in the visual cortex lead to
color agnosia - inability to name and distinguish colors and brightness discrimination
214
What might result from a lesion in the angular gyrus
lack of knowledge of ones own hand
- can't draw a hand
- Gerstmann Syndrome
215
What would a lesion to the facial recognition area lead to
prosopagnosia - inability to recognize a face, even ones own
216
Describe the 4 dominant speech centers
**Sensory**
- Wernicke's (22): comprehends spoken language and familiar sounds/words
- Area 39 of the angular gyrus: stores visual images and recognizes objects by sight
- Area 40 of the supra-marginal gyrus: recognizes objects with help of touch and proprioception
**Motor**
- Broca's (44, 45): expressive speech center
217
What does lesion of Wernicke's (22) produce
word deafness: unable to interpret spoken words, can still speak fluently with occasional meaningless words
218
What does lesion of area 39 produce
word blindness: inability to read (alexia) and write (agraphia)
219
What does lesion of area 40 produce
astereognosis: inability to recognize familiar objects by touch and proprioception
220
What is a lesion to the Broca's area called
motor aphasia: comprehension intact but distorted speech (nonsensical)
221
what is a lesion to the longitudinal fasciculus connecting Broca's and Wernicke's called
Conduction aphasia: fluent speech with intact comprehension but repetition of spoken language is very difficult
222
Lesion of area 18 and 19 causes what
visual agnosia
223
Visual projection surrounds the calcarine line. Describe the projection of visual fields from the left, upper, and macula lutea
left visual field: right hemisphere
upper visual field: lower wall of cortex
Macula lutea: posterior third of the visual cortex
224
Auditory agnosia (inability to identify familiar sounds) results from a lesion to what structure
bilateral destruction of the auditory association area (floor of lateral sulcus and posterior part of area 22)
225
Describe the difference between positive and negative memory
positive: brain enhances and stores memory traces
negative: brain ignores info that is of no consequece
226
Describe the 3 classifications of memory
short term: seconds or minutes
intermediate: days to weeks but fade away
long term: recalled up to years or a lifetime later
227
Describe the consolidation of memory
- the process of converting short term to long term memory
**- will cause chemical, physical, and anatomical changes in synapses with repetition**
- requires **5-10 mins** for minimal consolidation, **1hr+** for strong consolidation
228
What are the factors that affect memory consolidation
- best if alert, motivated, surprised, aroused
- repetition and practice
- tying new info with old memories
- automatic memory = subconscious info stored
229
Describe the difference between declarative and nondeclarative memory
**Declarative**
- conscious, explicit thoughts and language
- stored in long term with context in which it was learned
**nondeclarative**
- unconscious, acquired through experience and repetition
- procedural skill memory, motor memory, emotional memory
230
Describe the difference between anterograd and retrograde amnesia
Anterograde: cannot form new short term memories (seen in pts with hippocampal damage - Alzheimer's)
Retrograde: inability to recall memories from past, amesia for recent events more so than distant past (seen in pts with lesions to mammillary bodies, anterior thalamic nuclei, sometimes hippocampus)
231
Describe the input and output of the cerebellum
Input: inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles
Output: superior cerebellar peduncle
232
Functions of the cerebellum
**- coordination**
- recognizes and predicts sequences during complex movements
- word association and puzzle solving
233
Describe the parts of the cerebellum and their functions
**-vermis**: controls axial and proximal musculature of limbs
**-intermediate part**: controls distal musculature
**-lateral part**: motor planning
**-flocculonodular lobe**: control of balance and eye movement
