Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Auburn ECC > Neuro/Sp_senses > Flashcards

Neuro/Sp_senses Flashcards

1
Q

Damage to which cranial nerve causes MEDIAL strabismus?

A

CN VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 4 physiologic compartments of the cranial space?

A

Blood, CSF, intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is most CSF formed and where is it drained?

A

Formed by ultrafiltration from blood vessels of the choroid plexus lining the ventricles
Drains into the subarachnoid space, where it is absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What forms the motor unit?

A

Lower motor neurons, neuromuscular junction, skeletal muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cranial nerve to be affected by a nerve sheath tumor?

A

The trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is neuropraxia?

A

The loss of nerve conduction without structural changes. Can occur from transient loss of blood supply and usually resolves over weeks to months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is axonotmesis?

A

Axonal damage without loss of supporting structures. It requires regeneration of the axons toward its specific muscle target before functional recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How quickly does axonal regeneration occur?

A

1 mm per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is neurotmesis?

A

The complete severance of the nerve. This is typically seen with severe trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do patients with toxoplasmosis or neospora typically present?

A

They initially have flaccid paraparesis that may progress to a chronic state of extreme extensor tone. Once hind limb rigidity has developed, clinical improvement no longer occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List 3 drugs that may result in neuropathies

A

Vincristine, thallium, organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is masticatory myositis confirmed?

A

Either by muscle biopsy or through serum titers for antibodies against type IIM muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which breeds of dogs are over-represented in cases of acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

German shepherds, Labs, Akitas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between localized, generalized, and fulminant myasthenia gravis?

A

Localized: Typically show facial, laryngeal, or pharyngeal dysfunction without appendicular muscle involvement

Generalized: Appendicular muscle weakness with out without signs of facial, pharyngeal, or laryngeal dysfunction

Fulminant: Sudden, rapid, progression of severe appendicular muscle weakness resulting in recumbency, frequent regurgitation, and facial, pharyngeal, and laryngeal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In what percent of dogs with acquired myasthenia gravis will detectable levels of antibodies to acetylcholine receptors be found?

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what percentage of dogs with myasthenia gravis will the disease be related to a thymoma?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long will it take to see complete resolution of signs in a dog with botulism?

A

2 to 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long after attachment of a tick will signs of tick paralysis be seen? And how quickly will signs resolve after the tick is removed?

A

3 to 5 days after attachment, signs will resolve within 24-72 hours after the tick is removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What nerves can be safely biopsied to diagnose a neuropathy?

A

Fascicular biopsies of the ulnar or peroneal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What makes up a lower motor neuron?

A

Cell bodies found in the brainstem or spinal cord, and their motor axons within the cranial or spinal nerves respectively. They terminate on skeletal muscle fibers at the neuromuscular junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

CPP=MAP-ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What types of factors affect the volume of the blood in the brain?

A

Altered vascular tone or blood viscosity, impaired venous outflow (head-down posture, jugular vein compression, increased intrathoracic pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal ICP int he dog?

A

5-12 mm hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: The upper limit of ICP in which tx for ICH should be instituted has not been defined in dogs, but is 20 mm Hg in humans

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the three primary homeostatic mechanisms responsible for maintaining ICP in normal range

A
  1. Volume buffering
  2. Autoregulation
  3. Cushing’s response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe volume buffering and how it controls ICP

A

Monro-Kellie Doctrine: Increase in the volume of one component requires a compensatory decrease in one or more of the others if ICP is to remain unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe autoregulatory mechanisms that control ICP

A

Pressure regulation: Prevents underperfusion or overperfusion of the brain; operates at perfusion pressures between 50-150 mm Hg; outside this range the CBF is linear with MAP
Chemical regulation: cerebral vascular resistance is influenced by PaCO2, PaO2, and cerebral metabolic rate of O2 consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F: Decrease in PaO2 causes vasodilation, causing increased CBF

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F: Increased PaCO2 causes vasoconstriction

A

False- CO2 combines with water to form hydrogen ions, which stimulates cerebral vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Two broad categories of causes of ICH?

A

Vascular (cerebral vasodilation from increased PaCO2, loss of vascular tone, venous outflow obstruction), non-vascular (increased brain water, masses, obstruction of CSF outflow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name and describe the states of consciousness

A

Normal- Normal demeanor and interaction with its environment
Obtunded- Decreased responsiveness or alertness, graded as mild/moderate/severe
Stupor/semicoma- Responds only to vigorous or painful stimuli
Coma- Patient does not respond consciously to any stimuli; cranial nerve reflexes may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abnormalities in mentation indicate dysfunction in one of two which neuroanatomical locations?

A

Cerebrum

Reticular activating syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What role does the RAS play in mentation?

A

distinct nuclei in the brainstem that function to activate the cerebral cortex and maintain consciousness; the most important ones are located in the midbrain, rostral pons, and thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the main functions of the cerebrum?

A

Integration of sensory information, planning of motor activity, appropriate responses to information, emotion, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name some common metabolic diseases that may cause altered mentation

A

hypoxia, ischemia, hypoglycemia, hepatic disease, renal failure, endocrine dysfunction, sepsis, hyperbilirubinemia, hyperthermia/hypothermia, pain, CNS disease, electrolyte or acid-base disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name some common drugs that may cause altered mentation

A

anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, opiates, anesthetic drugs, atropine, abx, steroids, h2 receptor blockers, cardiac glycosides, antihypertensives, illicit drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name structural lesions that cause altered mentation

A

neoplasia, infection, inflammation, trauma, vascular lesions, hydrocephalus, brain herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 5 variables that evaluated in a patient with an altered mentation?

A 
Level of consciousness
Motor activity
Respiratory patterns
Pupil size and reactivity
Oculocephalic movements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name and describe 4 types of breathing patterns and their associated intracranial lesions

A
  1. Cheyne-Stokes: hyperpnea alternating with periods of apnea; diffuse cerebral or hypothalamic disease, metabolic encephalopathy
  2. Central neurogenic hyperventilation: persistent hyperventilation, may result in respiratory alkalosis; midbrain lesions
  3. Apneusis: paused breathing at full inspiration; pontine lesion
  4. Irregular/ataxic breathing: Irregular frequency and depth that proceeds apnea; lower pons/medulla lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name and describe the pupillary abnormalities and lesion localizations

A
  1. Unilateral mydriatic/unresponsive pupil: ipsilateral midbrain or CN III; increased ICP and unilateral cerebral herniation
  2. Bilateral miosis: metabolic encephalopathies, diffuse midbrain compression; may precede mydriatic/unresponsive pupils
  3. Bilateral/mydriatic/unresponsive: bilateral compression of midbrain or CN III; grave prognosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Loss of oculocephalic reflex may indicate a lesion where?

A

Pons, midbrain (CN III, IV, VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If there is a lesion of CN III, IV, or VI innervating the extraocular eye muscles, you will get a loss of the oculocephalic reflex but should also see what?

A

persistent, nonpositional strabismus in the affected eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F decerebrate rigidity occurs with lesions of the rostral pons and midbrain

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F decerebellate rigidity may manifest as extensor rigidity of all four limbs?

A

False- that describes decerebrate rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F decerebellate rigidity may manifest as extensor rigidity of the thoracic limbs and extension or flexion of the pelvic limbs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three categories of the Modified Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
  1. Level of consciousness
  2. Motor activity
  3. Brainstem reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False: The level of consciousness is the most reliable empiric measure of impaired cerebral function after head injury

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False: Pupils that respond to light, even if miotic, indicate adequate function of the rostral brainstem, optic chiasm, optic nerves, and retinas.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Injury to the cervical sympathetic pathway results in what findings in the ipsilateral pupil?

A

Constricted and fixed or sluggish to direct and contralateral light but normal consensual constriction in contralateral pupil.

May also see ptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Injury to the oculomotor nerve results in what findings in the ipsilateral pupil?

A

Dilated and fixed to direct light
No consensual constriction from contralateral light but normal consensual constriction in contralateral pupil.
May also see ptosis and ventrolateral strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Injury to the optic nerve results in what findings in the ipsilateral pupil?

A

Fixed to direct light
Absent consensual constriction in contralateral pupil
Normal consensual constriction from contralateral light
May also see spontaneous fluctuations in pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Injury to the oculomotor and optic nerve results in what findings in the ipsilateral pupil?

A

Dilated and fixed to direct light
No consensual constriction from contralateral light and no consensual constriction in contralateral pupil
May also see ptosis and ventrolateral strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Injury to the iris or ciliary body results in what findings in the ipsilateral pupil?

A

Dilated and fixed to direct light
No consensual constriction from contralateral light but normal consensual constriction in contralateral pupil
May also see signs of orbital injury, no strabisumus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the oculovestibular reflex?

A

It is eye movement with irrigation of external auditory ear canal with ice cold water.
When it is absent it is indicative of profound brain-stem failure and is an accepted criterion of brain death in humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the FOUR score?

A

It is the Full Outline of Unresponsiveness. It is a new coma scale in human medicine based on the bare minimum of tests necessary for assessing a patient with altered consciousness. It has four components: eye responses, motor responses, brainstem reflexes, and respiratory pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy occurs most commonly because of what disease in dogs?

A

PSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are less common diseases (other than PSS) that can cause hepatic encephalopathy?

A

microvascular dysplasia, congenital urea cycle deficiencies, portal hypertension from chronic liver disease, hepatic lipidosis (most common in cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
Which of the following is associated with HE?
A. CSF amino acid alterations
B. glutamate neurotoxicity
C. generation of reactive oxygen species
D. mitochondrial permeability transition
E. All of the above
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where is ammonia produced?

A

In the intestines as the end product of amino acid, purine and amine breakdown by bacteria, metabolism of glutamine by enterocytes, and breakdown of urea by bacterial urease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In the normal liver, what is ammonia converted into?

A

urea or glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T/F: The permeability of the BBB increases during hepatic encephalopathy

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the proposed mechanisms of decreased excitatory neurotransmission in HE?

A

down-regulation of NMDA receptors, blockage of Cl extrusion from the postsynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T/F the brain has a urea cycle

A

False- ammonia in the CNS is removed by transamination of glutamate into glutamine in astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How do glutamate and ammonia potentially cause neurotoxicity and seizures in HE?

A

Partly because of free radical formation secondary to overstimulation of NMDA receptors by ammonia and glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the most important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Why are benzodiazepines contraindicated in patients with PSS?

A

there are increased levels of endogenous benzodiazepine receptor ligands in the portal blood and systemic circulation of some dogs with PSS

67
Q

What two drugs experimentally have been shown to ameliorate CNS inflammation and brain edema in dogs with HE?

A

N-acetylcysteine and minocycline

68
Q

What is often the only clinical signs associated with HE In cats?

A

ptyalism

69
Q

What things can precipitate or worsen HE?

A

high protein meal, GI bleeding, systemic infection, medications (narcostics, anesthetics), electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia), hypoglycemia, acidosis/alkalosis, constipation

70
Q

T/F: samples for blood ammonia concentrations are effective when stored frozen if only for a short time?

A

false- must be run immediately

71
Q

What are the general treatment goals for animals with HE?

A

reduce ammonia levels, decrease GABA, decrease endogenous benzodiazepines

72
Q

T/F: a large meta-analysis of human trials showed probiotics reduce plasma ammonia levels but do not make a clinically relevant difference in outcome

A

true

73
Q

T/F: animals with liver insufficiency commonly experience clinical or subclinical GI hemorrhage

A

true

74
Q

What are the 3 primary homeostatic mechanisms responsible for maintaining ICP within a functional range for the brain?

A

Volume buffering, autoregulation, and the Cushing response

75
Q

List 6 causes of added IC volume

A

Tumor, hemorrhage, CSF accumulation, vascular congestion, cerebral edema, decreased venous outflow

76
Q

What are the 3 factors controlling chemical autoregulation of the brain?

A

PaCO2, PaO2, and the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption

77
Q

List 3 mechanisms of vascular ICH

A

Cerebral vasodilation secondary to increased PaCO2, distention of cerebral vessels resulting from loss of vascular tone, or venous outflow obstruction

78
Q

List 3 nonvascular mechanisms of ICH

A

Increased brain water (interstitial edema or intracellular swelling), masses, or obstruction of CSF outflow

79
Q

What ophthalmic exam finding is a reliable sign of ICH?

A

Papilledema

80
Q

Where are the mechanisms responsible for consciousness located?

A

Rostral brainstem, ascending reticular activation system, and diffusely throughout the cerebrum

81
Q

What neurologically is responsible for pupillary constriction?

A

Midbrain and efferent parasympathetic fibers of CN III

82
Q

Mydriasis indicates a lesion where?

A

Midbrain or CN III

83
Q

Conjugate oculovestibular movements require integrity of what pathways?

A

Cranial cervical spinal cord and medulla oblongata rostrally to the nuclei of CN III, IV, and VI, via the medial longitudinal fasiculus

84
Q

Absent corneal reflex indicates damage to what part of the CNS?

A

Afferent trigeminal nerve (CN V), efferent facial nerve (CN VII) or their reflex connections within the pons and medulla oblongata are damaged

85
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes respiration and it’s presence implies a lesion where?

A

Hyperpnea regularly alternating with apnea; lesion is deep in the cerebral hemispheres or in the Rostral brainstem

86
Q

List 4 viral causes of central vestibular disease

A

FIP, FIV, FeLV, rabies, pseudorabies, borna disease virus, distemper

87
Q

What are 3 protozoal causes of central vestibular disease?

A

Toxo, neospora, and encephalitozoonosis

88
Q

What are 3 parasitic causes of peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum, cuterebra larval myiasis, dirofilaria immitis

89
Q

List 5 fungal causes of central vestibular disease

A

Cryptococcus, blasto, histo, coccidiomycosis, aspergillosis, phaeohyphomycosis

90
Q

T/F An intact tympanum rules out otitis media

A

FALSE

91
Q

T/F Otitis media cannot be reliably diagnosed on the basis of a ruptured tympanum

A

True

92
Q

List 3 drugs that can cause peripheral vestibular disease

A

Aminoglycosides, furosemide, chlorhexidine, or aural administration of 10% fipronil solution

93
Q

List 2 toxic causes of central vestibular disease

A

Lead, metronidazole

94
Q

List 2 neoplasticism causes of peripheral vestibular disease

A

SCC, fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, ceruminous gland or sebaceous gland adenocarcinoma

95
Q

List 3 neoplastic causes of central vestibular disease

A

Meningioma, lymphoma, oligodendroglioma, medulloblastoma, extension of middle ear neoplasia, metastasis

96
Q

What are 3 disease processes that can cause either peripheral or central vestibular disease?

A

Hypothyroidism, cuterebral larval migrans, cryptococcosis, bacterial infection

97
Q

What cranial nerve deficit (other than VIII) can be associated with peripheral vestibular disease?

A

VII - can result in facial paresis, paralysis, or more rarely, spasm

98
Q

With horizontal nystagmus in peripheral vestibular disease, the fast phase is towards or away from the lesion?

A

Away from the side of the lesion

99
Q

Are paresis and/or proprioceptive deficits commonly ipsilateral or contralateral to the side of the lesion with central disease?

A

Commonly ipsilateral

100
Q

T/F spinal cord segments C1, C2, T12, and L3 are the only spinal cord segments located within the vertebral body with the same vertebral number in the dog

A

F, C1, C2, T12, T13, L1, and L2 are the only segments to which this applies

101
Q

What spinal cord segments might one expect to find in the 5 lumbar vertebral body?

A

L7, S1-3, Cd 1

102
Q

Define spinal ataxia

A

Incoordination, a wobbly gait with increased stride length, dragging or scuffing of toes, walking on the dorsum of the paw, or crossing over of limbs

103
Q

What are the segmental reflexes?

A

Extensor Carpi radialis, triceps, biceps, quadriceps, cranial tibial and gastrocnemius

104
Q

What is the definition of a neurological grade 3?

A

Non ambulatory paresis

105
Q

List 6 biochemical events that occur when the cellular membrane is disrupted in spinal cord injury

A

Release of excitotoxic amino acids, free fatty acids, oxygen free radicals, and vasoactive agents. NMDA receptors are activated and voltage sensitive Ca and Na channels open.

106
Q

List 6 consequences of spinal cord ischemia

A

Cytotoxic edema, axonal degeneration, demyelination, abnormal impulse transmission, conduction block, and cellular death.

107
Q

What is the neurological description of a grade 4 spinal lesion?

A

Paralysis, deep pain positive

108
Q

The sacral spinal cord segments give rise to the LMNs and sensory fibers of what nerves?

A

Sciatic, pelvic, pudendal, and perineal nerves

109
Q

What deficits are expected with sciatic nerve dysfunction?

A

Shuffling in pelvic limbs, plantigrade posture, failure to replace a knuckled paw, and cranial tibial, gastroc, and withdrawal reflexes may be decreased

110
Q

Where would you expect sensory deficits with damage to the spinal segments of S1-S3?

A

Perineum, tail, lateral and caudal skin of the distal pelvic limbs

111
Q

Spinal cord segments contribute to what 5 peripheral nerves?

A

Femoral, obturator, sciatic, pelvic, and pudendal nerves

112
Q

What pelvic limb nerve is responsible for weight bearing?

A

Femoral

113
Q

What is responsible for the increased thoracic tone noted with Schiff-Sherrington posture?

A

Lack of ascending inhibitory input to the thoracic limbs originating from the border cells located in the lower thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

114
Q

What are the border cells of the spinal cord responsible for?

A

Tonic inhibition of extensor muscle alpha motor neurons in the cervical intumescence

115
Q

T/F Schiff-Sherrington posture is associated with a poor prognosis for regain of pelvic limb function

A

False- no effect

116
Q

The cervical intumescence gives rise to what 7 peripheral nerves?

A

Subscapular, suprascapular, musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, and ulnar nerves

117
Q

Why can Horners be seen with damage at C6-T2?

A

Damage to the sympathetic fibers that leave the spinal cord at this level

118
Q

What is meant by a neuro scale of 2?

A

Ambulatory paresis

119
Q

A 2 engine gait is associated with dysfunction of what spinal cord segments?

A

C6-T2

120
Q

What are 2 potential lesions that may be missed if an imaging modality other than MRI is used to image the spine?

A

Intramedullary lesions or non compressive nuclear pulposus extrusions

121
Q

Why are IV fluids indicated for all acute spinal cord injuries?

A

Presumed compromise of spinal cord vasculature that inhibits normal autoregulation of arteriolar blood flow so blood flow to damaged spinal cord is dependent on MAP so CV stability should be optimized

122
Q

What are commonly seen complications associated with long term cervical splint treatment?

A

Soiled bandage with eating/drinking, frequent pyoderma, and pressure necrosis along the ventral mandible

123
Q

What landmarks should be used for bandage material to hold a cervical splint in place?

A

Just caudal to the ears and extending beyond the caudal aspect of both scapulae

124
Q

Internal spinal fracture fixation should be attempted when?

A

If the fracture incorporates the articular facets, the vertebral body, or both

125
Q

What comprises the ventral buttress?

A

Vertebral body, dorsal and ventral longitudinal ligaments, and intervertebral disks

126
Q

What mortality rate has been reported with surgical cervical fracture repair?

A

40%

127
Q

Small dogs with cervical spinal fractures should be splinted where?

A

Along the ventral cervical region; large dogs often need dorsal, ventral, or even circumfrential splinting

128
Q

What are 3 indications for surgical decompression of IVDD?

A

Grade 3 or greater deficits, recurrent episodes, or episodes unresponsive to medical treatment

129
Q

T/F In animals with cervical spinal fracture that are not deteriorating, external support and rest are the treatments of choice vs in similar fractures of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae surgery is recommended

A

TRUE

130
Q

What is the expected success rate with A-A subluxations for medical vs surgical management?

A

Splint 62.5% have good outcome (but 25% relapse) vs 61-91% good outcomes with surgery

131
Q

T/F There is significant variability in expected prognosis with surgical decompression of a cranial cervical vs caudal cervical disk compression?

A

True- long term resolution of 66% with C2-3, C3-4 with surgery vs only 21% of patients with lower cervical IVDH had long term resolution of signs with surgery

132
Q

List Ddx for a young, painful dog with acute onset of spinal signs

A

Trauma, IVDD type 1, +/- neoplasia, anomalous, or infectious/inflammatory disease

133
Q

What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

CPP= MAP-ICP

134
Q

What is the definition of intracranial pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by the tissues and fluids against the cranial vault

135
Q

What are the components of ICP?

A

Atmospheric pressure- weight of the atmosphere on the brain
Hydrostatic pressure- orientation of the neuraxis relative to gravity
Filling pressure- volume of fluid within cranial vault

136
Q

Name benefits of intracranial pressure monitoring

A
  1. Allows assessment of actual ICP and trends in ICP
  2. Optimization of cerebral perfusion pressure guided therapy
  3. Earlier interventions are possible
  4. Reduces indiscriminate tx of ICH
  5. Assessment of the effects of ICH tx
  6. Allows assessment in anesthetized or comatose animals
  7. Provides assessment of brain death
137
Q

What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

CPP= MAP-ICP

138
Q

What is the definition of intracranial pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by the tissues and fluids against the cranial vault

139
Q

What are the components of ICP?

A

Atmospheric pressure- weight of the atmosphere on the brain
Hydrostatic pressure- orientation of the neuraxis relative to gravity
Filling pressure- volume of fluid within cranial vault

140
Q

Name benefits of intracranial pressure monitoring

A
  1. Allows assessment of actual ICP and trends in ICP
  2. Optimization of cerebral perfusion pressure guided therapy
  3. Earlier interventions are possible
  4. Reduces indiscriminate tx of ICH
  5. Assessment of the effects of ICH tx
  6. Allows assessment in anesthetized or comatose animals
  7. Provides assessment of brain death
141
Q

What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

CPP= MAP-ICP

142
Q

What is the definition of intracranial pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by the tissues and fluids against the cranial vault

143
Q

What are the components of ICP?

A

Atmospheric pressure- weight of the atmosphere on the brain
Hydrostatic pressure- orientation of the neuraxis relative to gravity
Filling pressure- volume of fluid within cranial vault

144
Q

What type of catheter has been used in small animals for ICP monitoring during brain surgery?

A

fiberoptic ICP monitoring systems (transducer tipped catheters)

145
Q

What are the downsides to ICP in the classic location of the cisterna magna in animals?

A

Patient needs general anesthesia, ICP may not accurately reflect more compartmentalized elevations in ICP, risk of brain herniation, doesn’t allow for ongoing measurements

146
Q

What are some pros to using external pressure transducers to measure ICP?

A

Accurate, can be recalibrated after insertion, minimal zero drift, cheaper

147
Q

T/F: The fluctuations seen with placement of an epidural or subdural placement of a fluid filled catheter are generally reliable for measurement of ICP?

A

true

148
Q

What is normal ICP in the dog and cat?

A

5-12 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure

149
Q

Cons to using internal pressure transducer?

A

Cannot be rezeroed after insertion, some zero drift, expensive

150
Q

What is the gold standard for ICP monitoring in people?

A

Ventriculostomy catheters- most accurate, can be used to withdraw CSF for tx of ICH, easy and reliable to palpate

151
Q

Why are ventriculostomy catheters more difficult to place in dogs and cats than in people?

A

Marked variation in skull size, variation in size/shape/location of lateral ventricles of the brain, more musculature overlying cranial vault

152
Q

Which type of ICP monitoring systems can be used in awake dogs for 2-5 days post op?

A

Catheter tip ICP sensors

153
Q

Describe a subarachnoid bolt monitoring system for ICP

A

Screw secured to calvaria through a burr hold over a cerebral convexity

154
Q

What is normal ICP in the dog and cat?

A

5-12 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure

155
Q

What is responsible for the CSF fluid pulse pressure wave?

A

contraction of the LV of the heart causing distension of the arterioles

156
Q

What are the ICP respiratory waves?

A

slower pressure oscillations that fall with inspiration and rise with expiration

157
Q

What are some physiologic phenomena that can increase ICP?

A

Coughing, sneezing, straining, low head position, jugular compression, suctioning back of throat, regurgitation

158
Q

What is responsible for the CSF fluid pulse pressure wave?

A

contraction of the LV of the heart causing distension of the arterioles

159
Q

What are the ICP respiratory waves?

A

slower pressure oscillations that fall with inspiration and rise with expiration

160
Q

What are some physiologic phenomena that can increase ICP?

A

Coughing, sneezing, straining, low head position, jugular compression, suctioning back of throat, regurgitation

161
Q

At what ICP is treatment generally recommended?

A

15-20 mm Hg

162
Q

What are some other guidelines for instituting tx for ICH?

A

ICP 15-20 mm Hg that are slowly increasing, ICP

163
Q

Name complications of ICP monitoring

A

infection, hemorrhage, device malfunction, obstruction, malpositioning

164
Q

In what groups of animals is ICP monitoring likely to be more useful?

A
  1. Research animals
  2. Anesthetized, comatose, or post op brain surgery
  3. Severe, progressive neurologic deficits that may respond to treatment with time
  4. Severe TBI

Auburn ECC (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions