Neuro Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of disease is characterized by a lesion found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex, internal capsule, brainstem or spinal cord, and is characterized by weakness of involved muscles, hypertonicity, hyperreflexia, mild disuse atrophy, and abnormal reflexes?

A

Upper Motor Neuron Disease

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2
Q

Which type of disease is characterized by a lesion that affects nerves or their axons at or below the level of the brainstem, usually within the “final common pathway”, and is characterized by flaccidity or weakness of the involved muscles, decreased tone, fasciculations, muscle atrophy, and decreased or absent reflexes?

A

Lower Motor Neuron Disease

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3
Q

What is Athetosis?

A

A movement disorder that presents with slow, twisting, and writhing movements that are large in amplitude. It is a common finding in several forms of cerebral palsy secondary to basal ganglia pathology.

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4
Q

What is Chorea?

A

A form of hyperkinesia that presents with brief, irregular contractions that are rapid, but not to the degree of myoclonic jerks. It is often equated to “fidgeting”. Huntington’s disease is an example of a pathology that presents with chorea.

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5
Q

What is Dystonia?

A

A syndrome of sustained muscle contractions that frequently causes twisting, abnormal postures, and repetitive movements. All muscles can be affected and the involuntary movements are often accentuated during volitional movement and with progression, can produce overflow. Common diagnoses that may include dystonia are Parkinson’s disease, cerebral palsy, and encephalitits.

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6
Q

What are Tics?

A

Sudden, brief, repetitive coordinated movements that will usually occur at irregular intervals. Tourette syndrome is an example of a pathology that presents with tics.

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7
Q

What are Tremors?

A

Involuntary, rhythmic, oscillatory movements that are typically classified into three groupings:

-Resting: tremors are observable at rest and may or may not disappear with movement. An example is the pill-rolling tremor associated with Parkinson’s Disease.

-Postural: tremors are observable during a voluntary contraction to maintain a posture. Examples include the rapid tremor associated with hyperthyroidism, fatigue or anxiety, and benign essential tremor.

-Intension: tremors are absent at rest, but observable with activity and typically increase as the target approaches. These tremors likely indicate a lesion of the cerebellum or its efferent pathways and are typically seen with multiple sclerosis.

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8
Q

Definition: The inability to initiate movement; commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s Disease

A

Akinesia

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9
Q

Definition: Generalized weakness, typically secondary to cerebellar pathology

A

Asthenia

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10
Q

Definition: The inability to perform coordinated movements

A

Ataxia

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11
Q

Definition: A condition that presents with involuntary movements combined with instability of posture. Peripheral movements occur without central stability

A

Athetosis

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12
Q

Definition: Movement that is very slow

A

Bradykinesia

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13
Q

Definition: Movements that are sudden, random, and involuntary

A

Chorea

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14
Q

Definition: A form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion

A

Clasp-Knife Response

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15
Q

Definition: A characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion; involuntary alternating spasmodic contraction of a muscle precipitated by a quick stretch reflex

A

Clonus

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16
Q

Definition: A form of rigidity where resistance to movement has a phasic quality to it; often seen with Parkinson’s Disease

A

Cogwheel Rigidity

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17
Q

Definition: The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements

A

Disdiadochokinesia

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18
Q

Definition: The inability to control the range of a movement and the force of muscular activity

A

Dysmetria

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19
Q

Definition: Closely related to athetosis, however, there is larger axial muscle involvement rather than appendicular muscles

A

Dystonia

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20
Q

Definition: Closely related to athetosis, however, there is larger axial muscle involvement rather than appendicular muscles

A

Dystonia

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21
Q

Definition: A muscular twitch that is caused by random discharge of a lower motor neuron and its muscle fibers; suggests lower motor neuron disease, however, can be benign

A

Fasciculation

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22
Q

Definition: An involuntary and violent movement of a large body part

A

Hemiballism

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23
Q

Definition: The inability to perceive the direction and extent of movement of a joint or body part

A

Kinesthesia

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24
Q

Definition: A form of rigidity where there is uniform and constant resistance to range of motion; often associated with lesions of the basal ganglia

A

Lead Pipe Rigidity

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25
Q

Definition: A state of severe hypertonicity where a sustained muscle contraction does not allow for any movement at a specific joint

A

Rigidity

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26
Q

Definition: Involuntary, rhythmic, oscillatory movements secondary to a basal ganglia lesion. There are various classifications secondary to specific etiology.

A

Tremor

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27
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease?

A

A degenerative disorder characterized by a decrease in the production of dopamine in the basal ganglia, resulting in decreased modulation and control of voluntary movement

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28
Q

What is the most common early sign of Parkinson’s Disease?

A

A resting tremor in the hands or feet known as a “pill-rolling tremor”

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29
Q

How old are the majority of Parkinson’s Disease patients?

A

50-79

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30
Q

What should physical therapy interventions include for patients with Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Endurance, Strength, and functional mobility

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31
Q

What may progression of Parkinson’s Disease result in?

A

Dysphagia, difficulty with speech, and pulmonary impairment

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32
Q

What is Dysphagia?

A

Difficulty swallowing food or drink

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33
Q

What do many patients with Parkinson’s Disease end up dying from?

A

Complications of Bronchopneumonia

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34
Q

What is Spina Bifida, where does it occur, and what does it affect?

A

A developmental abnormality due to insufficient closure of the neural tube by the 28th day of gestation
It usually occurs in the lower thoracic, lumbar, or sacral regions
It affects the central nervous, musculoskeletal, and urinary systems

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35
Q

What are the different classifications of Spina Bifida?

A

Spina Bifida Occulta: the spinous processes of the vertebrae do not fuse, but the spinal cord and meninges remain intact. There is no associated disability.

Spina Bifida Cystica: presents with a cyst like protrusion through the non-fused vertebrae
-Meningocele: herniation of meninges and cerebrospinal fluid into a sac that protrudes through the vertebral defect. The spinal cord remains in the canal
-Myelomeningocele: a severe form characterized by herniation of meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, and the spinal cord extending through the defect in the vertebrae. The cyst may or may not be covered by skin.

36
Q

What is common in approximately 70% of children with Myelomeningocele?

A

Latex Allergies

37
Q

Which nerve is at risk of being compressed by the Pronator Teres muscle?

A

The Median Nerve

38
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with an Axillary Nerve Injury?

A

-Humeral neck fracture
-Anterior dislocation of the shoulder

39
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury?

A

Fracture of the Clavicle

40
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Radial Nerve Injury?

A

-Compression of the radial nerve in the Radial Tunnel

-Fracture of the humerus

41
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Median Nerve Injury?

A

-Compression in the Carpal Tunnel
-Pronator Teres Entrapment

42
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with an Ulnar Nerve Injury?

A

-Compression in the Cubital Tunnel
-Entrapment in Guyon’s Canal

43
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Femoral Nerve Injury?

A

-Total hip arthroplasty
-Displaced acetabular fracture
-Anterior dislocation of the femur
-Hysterectomy
-Appendectomy

44
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Sciatic Nerve Injury

A

-Total hip arthroplasty
-Blunt force to the buttocks
-Accidental injection to the nerve

45
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with an Obturator Nerve Injury?

A

-Total hip arthroplasty
-Fixation of a femur fracture

46
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Peroneal Nerve Injury?

A

-Femur, tibia, or fibula fracture
-Positioning during surgical procedures

47
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Tibial Nerve Injury?

A

-Tarsal Tunnel Entrapment
-Popliteal fossa compression

48
Q

What are some typical etiologies associated with a Sural Nerve Injury?

A

-Fracture of the calcaneus or lateral malleolus

49
Q

What is the number one cause of Traumatic SCIs?

A

Motor Vehicle Accidents

50
Q

Definition: A lesion to the spinal cord where there is no preserved motor or sensory function below the level of the lesion

A

Complete Lesion

51
Q

Definition: A lesion to the spinal cord with incomplete damage to the cord. There may be scattered motor function, sensory function or both below the level of the lesion.

A

Incomplete Lesion

52
Q

How does Anterior Cord Syndrome usually occur and what loss does it usually result in?

A

It occurs from a cervical flexion injury and results in motor, pain, and temperature loss below the level of the injury due to damage of the Corticospinal and Spinothalamic Tracts

53
Q

How does Brown-Sequard’s Syndrome usually occur and what loss does it usually result in?

A

It occurs from a stab wound and results in paralysis and loss of vibratory and position sense on the same side of the injury due to damage to the Corticospinal Tract; and loss of pain and temperature sense on the opposite side of the injury due to damage to the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract.

54
Q

How do Cauda Equina Injuries occur and what loss does it usually result in?

A

It occurs from injury to the spinal cord below the level of L1 where the long nerve roots transcend and results in flaccidity, areflexia, and impairment of bowel/bladder function.

55
Q

What are Cauda Equina Injuries also considered as?

A

A Peripheral Nerve Injury

56
Q

How does Central Cord Syndrome usually occur and what is usually the result of the injury?

A

It occurs from hyperextension of the C-spine which compresses the central portion of the spinal cord and damages the spinothalamic/corticospinal tracts and dorsal columns. It results in more upper extremity involvement than lower extremity and greater motor deficits than sensory.

57
Q

How does Posterior Cord Syndrome occur and what loss does it usually result in?

A

It occurs from compression of the posterior spinal artery and results in loss of proprioception, two-point discrimination, and stereognosis. Motor function is preserved.

58
Q

Definition: a standardized neurological examination used by the rehabilitation team to assess the sensory and motor levels which were affected by the spinal cord injury

A

ASIA Impairment Scale (American Spinal Injury Association)

59
Q

What are the levels of the ASIA Impairment Scale, and what do they mean?

A

A= Complete: No sensory or motor function is preserved in sacral segments S4-S5

B= Sensory Incomplete: Sensory function is preserved below the neurologic level, AND no motor function is preserved more than 3 levels below the motor level on either side of the body

C= Motor Incomplete: Motor function is preserved for voluntary anal contraction, OR the patient meets “Sensory Incomplete” status and has motor function more than 3 levels below the motor level on either side of the body. Less than half of key muscle functions below the neurologic level have a muscle grade of >/= 3

D= Motor Incomplete: “Motor Incomplete” status as defined above, with at least half of key muscle functions below the neurologic level having a muscle grade of >/= 3

E= Normal: Sensory and motor functions are normal in a patient that had prior deficits

60
Q

How do you determine the Motor Level of Injury in an SCI?

A

It is the most Caudal key muscles that have a muscle strength of 3 or greater with the superior segment tested as normal or 5

61
Q

How do you determine the Sensory Level of injury in an SCI?

A

It is the most Caudal dermatome with a normal score of 2/2 for pinprick and light touch

62
Q

How do you remember the Key Muscles tested for level of SCIs?

A

-C5 Stay Alive (Elbow Flexors)
-C6 Pick Up Sticks (Wrist Extensors)
-C7 Up To Heaven (Elbow Extensors)
-C8 Grab a Plate (Finger Flexors to the Middle Finger)
-T1 Tea for One (Pinky Abductors0
-L2 Lift the Shoe (Hip Flexors)
-L3 Straighten the Knee (Knee Extensors)
-L4 Kick the Door (Ankle Dorsiflexors)
-L5 (Big Toe Extensors)
-S1 The Race Has Begun (Ankle Plantar Flexors)

63
Q

How do you remember Key Dermatomes?

A

C5= Anterior portion of arm to inferior to the crook of elbow

C6= Deltoids to whole thumb

C7= Index and middle finger

C8= Medial side of arm to pinky and ring finger

L4= Crosses from lateral hip through knee area to medial ankle and foot

L5= Crosses from lateral portion of leg just superior to knee to dorsum of foot

S1= Lateral ankle and foot

64
Q

Which Spinal Level corresponds to each Reflex Test?

A

C5= Biceps
C6= Brachioradialis
C7= Triceps

L4= Patella
S1= Achilles

65
Q

For patients who have difficulty with Abstract Thinking; what kind of answers do they usually provide?

A

Answers that are Literal or Concrete

66
Q

List the Brunnstrom Stages of Recovery

A

1: No volitional movement initiated

2: The appearance of basic limb synergies. The beginning of spasticity.

3: The synergies are performed voluntarily; spasticity increases.

4: Spasticity begins to decrease. Movement patterns are not dictated solely by limb synergies.

5: A further decrease in spasticity is noted with independence from limb synergy patterns.

6: Isolated joint movements are performed with coordination.

7: Normal motor function is restored

67
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking a Dopamine Replacement Agent?

A

Their blood pressure should be monitored frequently due to risk of orthostatic hypotension

68
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is under the effects of General Anesthesia?

A

They may be weak and confused; and may be affected by retained pulmonary secretions which would suggest the need for breathing exercises or postural drainage

69
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is under the effects of a Local Anesthesia?

A

They may have diminished motor function and sensation. Exercise should be performed cautiously since the patient may not feel pain and braces may be needed during ambulation to support the lack of motor control

70
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Opioid Analgesic Agents?

A

Since these drugs are used to relieve pain, PT should be scheduled to coincide with peak drug effectiveness. However, the PTA should be aware that side effects of this drug include Sedation and Respiratory Depression

71
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Agents?

A

Since this drug is more mild that opioids and does not cause sedation, there are not really any negative side effects on PT. The patient might, however, suffer from gastrointestinal discomfort.

72
Q

What are Glucocorticoid drugs and what should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking them?

A

They are used to treat Arthritis. The PTA should be aware that these drugs may result in breakdown of tendon, bone, or skin. Therefore, they should be cautious with aggressive stretching and strengthening; and when applying orthotics to prevent skin breakdown

73
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Antiepileptic Agents?

A

They may result in cerebellar side effects such as Ataxia, and Dermatitis

74
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Skeletal Muscle Relaxants?

A

They may result in sedation and muscle weakness

75
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Antihypertensive Agents?

A

They are at increased risk for Orthostatic Hypotension; they should stay away from things that cause increased vasodilation, such as whirlpool therapy; and patients taking beta blockers have a diminished heart rate response and should use the RPE scale to asses exercise intensity

76
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Antiarrhythmic Agents such as beta blockers or calcium channel blockers?

A

They are at risk for orthostatic hypotension

77
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Anticoagulant Agents?

A

They are at increased risk for bleeding

78
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Respiratory Agents?

A

Patients who use Bronchodilators may experience cardiac arrhythmias, confusion, and tremors

Patients who are taking Mucolytics and Expectorants should take them 30-60 minutes before PT to maximize treatment effectiveness

79
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Sedative-hypnotic and Antianxiety Agents?

A

They may cause drowsiness at peak effectiveness and increased risk for falls

80
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Antidepressant Agents?

A

Some of them, such as Lithium and Tricyclics, may cause sedation and muscle weakness; some cause orthostatic hypotension; others cause hypertension. Check blood pressure often.

81
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Antipsychotic Agents?

A

They may result in extrapyramidal symptoms such as Dyskinesia or Dystonia. The PTA should watch out for changes in the patient’s posture, balance, or movement pattern, and notify personnel immediately

82
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Thyroid Agents?

A

Whether the drug is being taken to treat hypo or hyperthyroidism, the result may be symptoms of the opposite condition. E.g., if the patient is being treated for hyperthyroidism, the drug may cause hypothyroidism, in which case, the patient may experience decreased cardiac function and may not tolerate heavy workloads

83
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Insulin Replacement Therapy?

A

This may result in hypoglycemia; especially if the patient has not eaten or is participating in strenuous exercise

84
Q

What should PTAs be aware of when treating a patient who is taking Chemotherapy Agents?

A

They may be Extremely Fatigued, and may experience effects on both the central and peripheral nervous systems, which may cause symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy or ataxia

85
Q

What is the Etiology of Spacticity?

A

A lesion in the motor cortex in the cerebrum; upper motor neuron damage

86
Q

What is the Etiology of Athetoid Movements?

A

A lesion involving the basal ganglia

87
Q

What is Modified Plantigrade?

A

A developmental position consisting of the child standing with use of UE support on a stable surface