Neuro Flashcards by Margaret Grant

What happens in Multiple Sclerosis?
A) Demylination
B) Myelination

Demylination

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is Hypoxia?

a) Lack of Oxygen
b) too much oxygen
c) too much co2
d) lack of co2

lack of oxygen

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Stroke is caused by changes in

a) Wall, Flow and Constituents
b) resistance and radius

wall, flow and constiuents

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Irreversible Ischaemia is also called

a) Infarction
b) MI

Infarction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The central part of the spine carries?

a) Gray Matter
b) white matter

Gray matter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The peripheral part of the spine carries?

a) White matter
b) gray matter

white matter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Axons of sensory fibres enter through where into dorsal horn of grey matter?

a) ventral root
b) dorsal root

dorsal root

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where do motor neurones have their cell bodies

a) Ventral horn
b) dorsal horn

ventral horn

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ascending pathways are

a) Sensory
b) motor

sensory

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Descending pathways are

a) Motor
b) sensory

motor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All descending tracts end in?

a) …..Spinal
b) thalamic

….spinal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Corticospinal is what kind of tract

a) descending
b) ascending

descending

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Lateral spinothalamic is what kind of tract

a) ascending
b) descending

ascending

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dorsal column is what kind of tract

a) ascending
b) descending

ascending

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the Corticospinal tract carry?

a) Motor
b) sensory

motor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the Posterior/Dorsal Column carry?

a) Sensation
b) motor

sensation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the Lateral spinothalamic tract carry?

a) sensory eg pain and temperature
b) motor eg movement

sensory eg pain and t

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does the corticospinal tract start from?

a) Area 4 Motor Cortex
b) area 6 motor cortex

area 4 motor cortex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the blood supply of the Corticospinal tract

a) Middle Cerebral Artery
b) anterior cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is the Posterior/Dorsal Column 2nd Neuron situated?

a) Lower part of medulla
b) pons

lower medulla

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does the 2nd order neutron in posterior/dorsal column cross over?

a) Medulla
b) pons

medulla

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does the medial lemniscus pass through to reach thalamus?

a) medulla, pons and midbrain
b) hypothalamus

medulla,pons and thalamus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does the third order neuron of posterior/dorsal column start from?

a) Thalamus
b) hypothalamus

midbrain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where does the third order neuron radiate to?

a) Post central gyrus (areas 1,2 and 3)
b) pre central gyrus (areas 4)

a)Post central gyrus (areas 1,2 and 3)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Decussation in Lateral Spinothalamic tract ends where? a) Same level as first order neuron at grey matter b) below first order neuron at gray matter

Same level as first order neuron at grey matter

Is a reflex involuntarily or Voluntary? A)Involuntary B) Voluntary

Involuntary

A stretch reflex is said to be a) Monosynaptic b) postsynaptic

Monosynaptic

A flexor reflex is said to be a) Polysynaptic b) postsynaptic

polysynaptic

Reflexes are what in UMN Lesions? a) Exagerated b) decreased

exagerated

Upper Motor Neurone Lesion causes? a) Increased Tone (Spastisity) b) decreased tone

Increased Tone (Spastisity)

Lower Motor Neurone lesion causes? a) Flaccidity b) spasticity

Flaccidity

If there was a UMN Lesion at Lower Spinal cord what would happen a) R Sided Paralysis and hyperreflexia b) l sided paralysis and hyporeflexia

R Sided Paralysis and hyperreflexia

If there was a UMN lesion at Upper spinal cord what would happen a) L sided paralysis and hypereflexia b) r sided paralysis and hyporeflexia

L sided paralysis and hypereflexia

Motor Neurone Disease affects a) Lower Motor Neurone b) upper motor neurone

Lower Motor Neurone

Which part of the spinal cord does Motor Neurone Disease affect? a) Ventral Horn of Spinal Cord b) dorsal horn of spinal cord

Ventral Horn of Spinal Cord

What happens in Brown sequard syndrome? a) Hemisection of spinal cord left side b) hemisection of spinal cord right side

Hemisection of spinal cord left side

What happens to temperature and pain in Brown Sequard? a) Right sided loss of temp and pain b) left sided loss of temp and pain

Right sided loss of temp and pain

What happens to paralysis in brown sequard syndrome a) Left sided paralysis b) right sided paralysis

Left sided paralysis

What happens to touch and vibration in Brown Sequard? a) Loss of touch and vibration b) increased touch and vibration

a) Loss of touch and vibration

What happens to reflexes in Brown Sequard? A) reflexes on left side exaggerated b) reflexes on right side exagerated

A) reflexes on left side exaggerated

Which cranial nerve is I? a) Olfactory b) optic

olfactory

Which cranial nerve is II? a) Optic b) olfactory

optic

Which cranial nerve is III? a) oculomotor b) trochlear

oculomotor

which cranial nerve is IV? a) trochlear b) trigeminal

trochlear

which cranial nerve is trigeminal? a) V b) VI

which cranial nerve is VI? a) abducens b) facial

abducens

which cranial nerve is VII? a) facial b) abducens

facial

which cranial nerve is VIII? a) Vestibuochlear b) glossopharyngeal

vestibulochlear

Which cranial nerve is IX? | glossopharyngeal

glossopharyngeal

which cranial nerve is X? a) vagus b) accessory

vagus

which cranial nerve is XI? a) accessory b) vagus

accessory

which cranial nerve is XII? a) hypoglossal b) accessory

hypoglossal

Which cranial nerves control eye muscles? a) III, IV and VI b) V

III,IV and VI

Muscles of mastication are controlled by which cranial nerve? a) V b) VII

Muscles of facial expression are controlled by which cranial nerve? a) VII b) X

VII

Muscles of larynx and pharynx are controlled by which cranial nerve? a) X b) XI

Sternocleidomasotid and Trapezius muscle are controlled by which cranial nerve? a) XI b) X

Which cranial nerve causes pupillary constriction? a) III b) X

III

Which cranial nerve causes lacrimation? a)VII B) i

VII

Which cranial nerve causes salivation? a) VII b) x

VII

Which cranial nerves causes salivation from parotid gland? a) IX b) x

Autonomic Functions are said to be under what kind of control? a) Parasympathetic b) sympathetic

Parasympathetic

Pupillary constriction is said to be? a) Parasympathetic b) sympathetic

Parasympathetic

Corneal reflex would be tested under which cranial nerve? a) V b) VII

Jaw jerk would be tested under which cranial nerve? a) V b) X

Taste would be tested under which cranial nerve? a) VII b) X

VII

Accessory Nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) would test? a) Sternomastoid and Trapezius Function b) Taste

Sternomastoid and Trapezius Function

Afferent Pupillary light reaction tested under a) Cranial Nerve II b) cranial nerve VII

Cranial Nerve II

Efferent pupillary light reaction tested under a) Cranial Nerve III b) cranial nerve VII

Cranial Nerve III

Efferent Corneal Reflex tested under a) Cranial Nerve VII b) cranial nerve X

Cranial Nerve VII

Afferent Corneal Reflex tested under a) cranial nerve V b) cranial nerve x

cranial nerve V

Gag reflex afferent tested under a) Cranial nerve IX b) cranial nerve x

Cranial nerve IX

Gag reflex efferent tested under a) Cranial nerve X b) cranial nerve IX

Cranial nerve X

Ocoulmotor and Trochlear nuclei lie a) in midbrain b) hindbrain

in midbrain

Trigeminal, Abducente and Facial nuclei lie in a) Pons b) medulla

Pons

Vestibulochlear nuclei lie in a) Pontomedullary junction b) frontal lobe

Pontomedullary junction

Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Accessory and hypoglossal nuclei lie in a) Medulla b) pons

Medulla

What is optic neuritis a) Demylination in optic nerve b) myelination in optic nerve

Demylination in optic nerve

What happens in Optic neuritis colour vision a) reduced b) increased

reduced

What is optic neuritis often associated with a) Multiple sclerosis b) mnd

Multiple sclerosis

Dilated pupils happen with a) Mydriatic eye drops b) mitosis

Mydriatic eye drops

Dilated pupils happen with a) Coccaine b) mitosis

Coccaine

Dilated pupils happen with a) Third nerve palsy b) opiate overdose

Third nerve palsy

Dilated pupils happen with | Ooo

Dilated pupils happen with a) Anxiety b) miotic eye drops

Anxiety

Constricted pupils happen with a) Miotic eye drops b) anxiety

Miotic eye drops

Constricted pupils happen with a) Opiate Overdose b) anxiety

Opiate Overdose

Constricted pupils happen with a) Horner's Syndrome b) anxiety

Horner's Syndrome

Microvascular reason for Isolated Third Nerve Palsy a) Diabetes/Hypertension b) stroke

Diabetes/Hypertension

Is microvascular third nerve palsy sore? a) No b) yes

Compressive reason for isolated third nerve palsy a) Raised ICP b) decreased ICP

Raised ICP

Is compressive third nerve palsy sore? a) yes b) no

yes

Cause for Isolated Sixth Nerve Palsy a) Meningitis or Diabetes b) stroke

Meningitis or Diabetes

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia? a) paroxysmal attacks of lancinating pain b) painless nerve loss

paroxysmal attacks of lancinating pain

Which nerve is compressed in trigeminal neuralgia a) 5th Nerve in Posterior Fossa b) 8th nerve in posterior fossa

5th Nerve in Posterior Fossa

How to treat Trigeminal Neuralgia? a) Carbamazepine b) serotonin

Carbamazepine

What happens in Bell's palsy? a) Unilateral face weakness b) bilateral face weakness

Unilateral face weakness

Bells palsy affects? a) Lower Motor Neurone b) upper motor neurone

Lower Motor Neurone

How to treat Bells Palsy? a) Steroids b) injection

Steroids

Stroke is said to be? a) UMN b) LMN

UMN

Lymes is said to be? a) LMN b) UMN

LMN

Vestibular Neuronitis causes? a) Sudden disabling vertigo b) sudden pain

Sudden disabling vertigo

Bulbar palsy is a) Lower motor neurone b) UMN

Lower motor neurone

Pseudobulbar palsy is A)Upper motor neuron b)LMM

Upper motor neuron

Pseudobulbar palsy presents with a) Bilateral UMN lesions b) bilateral LMN Lesions

Bilateral UMN lesions

Bulbar palsy affects a) Bilateral LMN IX-XII b) unilateral UMN IX-XII

Bilateral LMN IX-XII

What happens to tongue in bulbar palsy? a) Wasting and Fasiculated b) redness

Wasting and Fasiculated

Most common late onset Dementia? a) Alzheimers b) vascular

Alzheimers

Most common young onset Dementia? a) Alzheimers b) vascular

Alzheimers

Dementia can mimic? a) Hydrocephalus b) encephalitis

Hydrocephalus

Screening test for Cognitive Function? a) Mini Mental or Montreal b) CT

Mini Mental or Montreal

Rapid progression is shown in? a) CJD b) Vascular dementia

CJD

Stepwise progression for Dementia is shown in? a) Vascular b) CJD

Vascular

Abnormal movements in Dementia are shown in? a) Huntingtons b) Fronto Temporal Dementia

Huntingtons

Mycolonus is related to? a) CJD b) vascular demen

CJD

Alzheimers pathology? a) B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles b) B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

Which genes are related to Alzheimers? a) APOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2 b) BPOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2

APOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2

Frontotemporal Dementia often sees changes in? a) Early changes in Personality b) late changes in personality

Early changes in Personality

Dementia with Lewy body pathology? a) A synuclein b) b synuclein

A synuclein

What is common in Dementia with Lewy bodies? a) Parkonism and Visual Hallucinations b) parkonism and dizziness

a) Parkonism and Visual Hallucinations

Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia treatment? a) Cholinsterease Inhibitor b) dopamine inhibitor

Cholinsterease Inhibitor

Why use Cholinesterase Inhibitors in Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia Treatment? a) Cholinergic Deficit b) dopamine deficit

Cholinergic Deficit

Name Cholinesterase Inhibitors that would be used in Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia? a) Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine b) Bonepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine

a) Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine

Which Signs are common in Parkinsons? a) Bradykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability b) tachykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability

a) Bradykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability

What is Bradykinesia? a) Slowness of movement b) fastness of movement

Slowness of movement

What happens in the Basal Ganglia in Parkinsons? a) Dopamine Loss b) serotonin loss

Dopamine Loss

Genetic Risk factors of Parkinsons? a) LRRK2, Parkin and GBA b) PIZZ

LRRK2, Parkin and GBA

Is Parkinson Fast or Slow Progression? a) Slow b) fast

SLOW

Which test for Parkinsons? a) Dopamine Transporter SPECT b) CT

Dopamine Transporter SPECT

Early medical treatment for Parkinsons? a) Dopaminergic Neuron b) serotonin neuron

Dopaminergic Neuron

Involuntary movements can be caused by? a) Levodopa b) serotonin

Levodopa

What can prolong Levodopa half life? a) MAO-B Inhibitor, COMT Inhibitor and Slow Release Levodopa b) Serotonin

MAO-B Inhibitor, COMT Inhibitor and Slow Release Levodopa

Which system is important for consciousness? a) Intact ascending reticular activating system b) disrupted ascending activating system

Intact ascending reticular activating system

Arousal is related to what system? a) Reticular activating system b) frontal lobe

Reticular activating system

Awareness of environment is related to? a) Cerebral Hemispheres b) lateral hemispheres

Cerebral Hemispheres

Ketoacidois does what to GCS? a) Decreased b) increased

Decreased

Which function has not recovered in Persistent Vegetative state? a) Cortical b) dorsal

Cortical

In locked in syndrome, where does the patient have total paralysis below? a) level of third nerve nuclei b) level of sixth nerve nuclei

level of third nerve nuclei

What happens to eye movements in locked in syndrome? a) unable to move eyes horizontally b) able to move eyes horizo

unable to move eyes horizontally

Increased respiration is caused by? a) Hypoxia b) over ventilated

Hypoxia

Increased respiration is caused by? a) Hypercapnia b) hypocapnia

Hypercapnia

Increased respiration is caused by? a) Acidosis b) alkalosis

Acidosis

Fluctuating respiration is caused by? a) Brainstem lesion b) frontal lobe lesion

Brainstem lesion

Depression respiration is caused by? a) Drug overdose b) too little drugs

Drug overdose

Depressed respiration is caused by? a) Metabolic disturbance b) metabolic increase

Metabolic disturbance

Focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs are only apparent in what type of coma? a) Focal cerebral eg Tumour, Infarct b) Strokes

Focal cerebral eg Tumour, Infarct

What is present on CT for subdural haematoma? a) Ellipse b) egg shape

Ellipse

Which osmotic agent can be used to treat increased ICP? a) Mannitol b) oxygen

Mannitol

What degree should head be at to increase venous return to treat increased ICP? a) 30-45% b) 50%

30-45%

Would the aim be to increase or reduce metabolism when treating increased ICP? a) Reduce b) increase

Reduce

For basilar artery occlusion where is the ischaemia a) Pons b) parietal lobe

Pons

Most common ischaemia stroke? a) Large artery atherosclerosis b) small artery atherosclerosis

a) Large artery atherosclerosis

Most common haemorrhagic stroke? a) Primary intracerebal haemorrhagesis b) secondary intracerebal haemorrhage

a) Primary intracerebal haemorrhage

Hypertension, Smoking and Diabetes contributes to what type of deposition in arterial walls? a) LDL-C b) MDL-C

LDL-C

The Carotid System supplies a) Most of hemispheres and cortical deep white matter b) cortical deep grey matter

Most of hemispheres and cortical deep white matter

The vertebra-basilar system supplies a) Brainstem, Cerebellum and Occipital Lobes b) Frontal Lobe

Brainstem, Cerebellum and Occipital Lobes

Occipital Lobe is related what function? a) Vision b) auditory

Vision

Personality is related to what function? a) Frontal Lobe b) parietal lobe

Frontal Lobe

Which hemisphere is most dominant for motor control of speech? a) Frontal lobe b) parietal lobe

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is important for memory? a) Frontal Lobe b) parietal lobe

Frontal Lobe

Which lobe is important for personality? a) Frontal Lobe b) parietal lobe

Frontal lobe

Which lobe is said to be sensory cortex? a) Parietal lobe b) frontal lobe

Parietal lobe

Which lobe is primary auditory receptive area? a) Temporal lobe b) occipital lobe

Temporal lobe

Cerebellum is involved in? a) Balance and Coordination b) eyesight

Balance and Coordination

How many cranial nerves arise in brainstem? a) 10 b) 8

Where do cortical tracts cross? a) Lower medulla b) upper medulla

Lower medulla

Occipital lobe is the a) Primary Visual cortex b) secondary visual cortex

Primary Visual cortex

What does positive functional signs point do? a) Functional Neurological condition b) brain tumour

Functional Neurological condition

What is Hoover's Sign? a) Hip extension is weak when tested directly but normal when patient asked to flex opposite hip b) Hip extension is weak when tested directly but more abnormal when patient asked to flex opposite hip

Hip extension is weak when tested directly but normal when patient asked to flex opposite hip

Hoover's Sign is related to? a) Functional weakness of hip b) spinal tumour

Functional weakness of hip

What is Hydrocephalus? a) Abnormal accumulation of CSF within ventricles b) accumulation of blood within ventricles

Abnormal accumulation of CSF within ventricles

What is Obstructive Hydrocephalus? a) enlargement of ventricles proximal to block b) destruction of ventricles

enlargement of ventricles proximal to block

What is DandyWalker Malformation (Congenital) ? a) Atresia of foramina of Luschka and Magendie b) Atresia of foramina of munro

Atresia of foramina of Luschka and Magendie

Symptoms of Hydrocephalus? a) Increased ICP symptoms including Abducens Palsy b) decreased ICP Symptoms

Increased ICP symptoms including Abducens Palsy

What happens to eyes in Hydrocephalus? a) Papilledema b) nothing

a) Papilledema

what happens in baby with hydrocephalus? a) fontanelle full and bulging b) fontanelle deep

fontanelle full and bulging

Treatment for Hydrocephalus? a) Lumbar Puncture and Drain b) antibiotics

Lumbar Puncture and Drain

Normal Ph of CSF? a) 7.33-7.35 b) 8-8.5

7.33-7.35

80% of CSF is produced from? a) Choroid Plexuses b) ventricles

Choroid Plexuses

CSF is absorbed primarily by? a) Arachnoid Villi (Granulations) that extend into dural venous sinuses b) Spinal cord

Arachnoid Villi (Granulations) that extend into dural venous sinuses

Voluntary Control of Movement is from? a) Precentral Gyrus b) postcentral gyrus

Precentral Gyrus

Bladder control is from? a) Paracentral Lobule b) postcentral lobule

Precentral Gyrus

Frontal Lobe with Pyramidal weakness shows? a) Increased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift b) decreased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift

Increased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift

Frontal lobe with pyramidal weakness shows? a) saccadic eye movements b) normal eye movements

saccadic eye movements

Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is related to? a) executive function b) motor function

executive function

Fluency is affected by a) Broca's area b) frontal lobe

Broca's area

3 Step Command is affected by a) Wernicke b) broca

Wernicke

Meyer's Loop is related to a) Visual Fields b) semicanular canals

Visual Fields

Myelopathy shows a) UMN Signs below lesion b) lMN signs below lesion

UMN Signs below lesion

Radiculopathy shows a) LMN Signs b) UMN signs

LMN Signs

Myelopathy is related to a) Cord Signs b) nerve root signs

Cord Signs

Radiculopathy is related to a) Nerve root signs b) cord signs

Nerve root signs

Myelopathy shows a) Bilateral b) unilateral

Bilateral

Radiculopathy shows a) Unilateral b) bilateral

Unilateral

Myelopathy signs? a) clonus, upping plantars, increased tone b) decreased tone

a) clonus, upping plantars, increased tone

Myelopathy shows a) Hoffman sign b) babinski sign

Hoffman sign

Myelopathy shows a) Brisk reflexes b) no reflexes

Brisk reflexes

Neuroepithelial Tissue is related to what type of Brain Tumour? a) Glioma b) blastoma

a) Glioma

Pituitary tissue is related to what type of brain tumour? a) adenoma b) glioma

adenoma

Do malignant melanomas spread to brain? a) yes b) no

yes

Gliomas are derived from? a) Astrocytes b) meningioma

Astrocytes

What type of Brain tumour is most common and most aggressive? a) Glioblastoma Multiforme b) meningioma

a) Glioblastoma Multiforme

Glioblastoma Multiforme spread through? a) tracking trough white matter and css b) tracking through grey matter

a) tracking trough white matter and css

Mengiomas growth rate? a) Slow b) fast

Slow

Where do Meningiomas arise from? a) Arachnoid b) dural

Arachnoid

How do Pituitary Adenomas present? a) Visual Disturbance and Hormone Imbalance b) Hearing disturbance

Visual Disturbance and Hormone Imbalance

How do Pituitary Adenomas Present? a) Epileptic Fits and CSF Obstruction b) Headaches

Epileptic Fits and CSF Obstruction

Raised ICP Signs a) Papilloedema, 6th Nerve Palsy, 3rd Nerve Palsy b) Faints

Papilloedema, 6th Nerve Palsy, 3rd Nerve Palsy

How much CSF is produced per day? a) 400-450 b) 200-300

400-450

Brain Tumour Medication? a) Dexamethasone b) Chemotherapy

Dexamethasone

Glioblastoma multiforme Treatment? a) Biopsy or Debulk only b) surgery

Biopsy or Debulk only

If suspect intracranial mass lesion what should you not do? a) Lumbar puncture b) CT

Lumbar puncture

Common Primary Benign Brain Tumours? a) Menigioma and Pituitary Adenoma b) Glioblastoma

Menigioma and Pituitary Adenoma

Normal ICP a) 5-15cm of Water b) 30-35cm of water

5-15cm of Water

Cerebral Blood flow makes up what percentage of cardiac output? a) 14% b) 25%

14%

Cerebral Perfussion Pressure is a) Difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP) b) stroke volume

Difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP)

PaCO2 has what influence on CSF? a) significant influence b) no influence

significant influence

Brain tissues uses what exclusively for metabolism? a) glucose and ketones b) sugar

glucose and ketones

What happens to blood volume after brain injury? a) Increase due to vasodilation b) decrease due to vasoconstriction

Increase due to vasodilation

Battle's sign is a common bruise with what type of fracture? a) Fracture of pertrous temporal bone b) brain tumour

Fracture of pertrous temporal bone

most common skull fracture a) linear b) commisurate

linear

Extra dural haematoma commonly associated with a) fracture of squamous temporal bone b) brain tumour

fracture of squamous temporal bone

Extra dural haematoma commonly looks like a) Typically egg/lens shaped haematomas b) crescent shaped

Typically egg/lens shaped haematomas

What happens in extra dural haematoma? a) lucid interval b) ongoing

lucid interval

What happens in sub dural haematoma a) Usually from shearing/tearing of bridging veins b) middle cerebral arteries

Usually from shearing/tearing of bridging veins

Subdural Haematomas are said to be a) Crescent Shaped b) egg shaped

Crescent Shaped

Extradural Haematomas are said to be a) egg shaped b) crescent shaped

egg shaped

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage is said to be a) Worst ever headache b) manageable headache

Worst ever headache

Diffuse Axonal Injury. Patient is said to be a) Likely in a coma by diagnosis b) fine

Likely in a coma by diagnosis

Depressed skull fracture common location a) Orbit and Squamous Temporal Bone b) mandible bone

Orbit and Squamous Temporal Bone

Subaxial spine is where? a) C3-6 b) c7

C3-6

C1 has no what? a) Body or spinous process b) transverse process

Body or spinous process

Biceps Reflex is where? a) C5-6 b) c6-c7

C5-6

Supinator Reflex is where? a) C6-7 b) c5-6

C6-7

Triceps Reflex is where? a) C7-8 b) c6-7

C7-8

Knee Jerk reflex is where? a) L1-4 b) s1-s2

L1-4

Ankle Jerk reflex is where? a) s1-S2 b) L1-4

s1-S2

Loss of bulbocavernous reflex commonly seen in a) Spinal shock, conus medullaris and cauda equina b) brain tumour

Spinal shock, conus medullaris and cauda equina

Spinal cord starts from a) Foramen Magnum b) foramen munro

Foramen Magnum

Cervical enlargement is a) C5-T1 b) L2-L3

C5-T1

Lumbosacral enlargement is a) L2-S3 b) c5-t1

L2-S3

Lateral Spinothalamic tract is for a) Pain and Temperature b) sensory

Pain and Temperature

Dorsal Column is for a) Sensory b) pain and temp

Sensory

Neural Plate is formed by a) Ectoderm b) endoderm

Ectoderm

Neural plate forms a) Brain and Spinal Cord b) heart

Brain Spinal Cord

Anterior Neuropore closes a) 24 days b) 50 days

24 days

Failure to close anterior neuropore results in a) Ancephalopathy b) brain bleed

Ancephalopathy

Posterior Neuropore closes a) 26-28 days b) 30-32 days

26-28 days

Posterior neurpore failure to close a) Spina bifida b) brain bleed

Spina bifida

Alpha Fetoprotein monitored which week of pregnancy? a) 16 weeks b) 18 weeks

16 weeks

Spina Bifida Occulta is a) Closed Spina Bifida b) open spina bifida

Closed Spina Bifida

Spina Bifida results in a) Lower Limb Deficit b) upper limb deficit

Lower Limb Deficit

Treatment for myelomeningocele? a) Primary surgical closure b) secondary surgical clos

Primary surgical closure

Myelomeningocele is said to be a) Transopaque with neurological deficit b) Translucent with no neurological deficit

Transopaque with neurological deficit

Pyogeneic Vertebral Osteomyelitis or Discitis. common organism? a) Staph aureus or Strep b) meningioma

Staph aureus or Strep

Extramedullary tumours? a) Meningoma, Neurofibroma, Schwanoma b) Glioma

Meningoma, Neurofibroma, Schwanoma

Tumour Test Gold Standard? a) MRI b) CT

MRI

Hyperacute Haematoma is a) <24 hours b) >24 hours

<24 hours

Subacute Haematoma is a) >3 days b) <3 days

>3 days

Cauda Equina syndrome affects which nerve roots? a) Lumbar and Sacral b) thoracic

Lumbar and Sacral

Which inflammatory condition can cause cauda equina syndrome? a) Ankolysing Spondolyitis b) meningitis

Ankolysing Spondolyitis

Which infection can cause cauda equina syndrome? a) Spinal epidural abscess b) spinal pia abscess

Spinal epidural abscess

Decreased anal tone can present in which condition along with absence of ankle reflex a) cauda equina b) spina bifida

cauda equina

Gold standard test for Cauda Equina a) MRI b) ct

MRI

Complete cauda equina is said to be? a) Incontinence/Retention b) decreased sensation

Incontinence/Retention

In a Primary Spinal Cord Injury what happens to axons? a) Undergoes Wallerian Degeneration b) nothing happens

Undergoes Wallerian Degeneration

Spinal shock implies an injury is above? a) T1 b) L1

Which reflex is lost in Spinal shock and then returned? a) Bulbocavernous reflex b) triceps reflex

Bulbocavernous reflex

Central Cord Syndrome presents with? a) weakness in upper limbs b) weakness in lower limbs

weakness in upper limbs

In Anterior Cord Syndrome. If above C7 what happens? a) Paraplegia or Quadriplegia b) nothing

Paraplegia or Quadriplegia

Is Two point preserved in anterior cord syndrome? a) Yes b) no

Yes

Brown Sequard Syndrome is also? a) Cord hemisection b) bleed

Cord hemisection

What happens to pain and temperature in brown sequard? a) Contralateral loss one level below lesion (lateral spinothalamic tract) b) unilateral loss one level below lesion

Contralateral loss one level below lesion (lateral spinothalamic tract)

What happens regarding posterior columns in Brown Sequard syndrome? Ipsilateral loss of sensation

Ipsilateral loss of sensation

What happens regarding posterior columns in Brown Sequard syndrome? a) Ipsilateral loss of sensation b) contralateral loss of sensation

Ipsilateral loss of sensation

Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage? a) Unenhanced CT b) MRI

Unenhanced CT

Treatment of ruptured intracranial aneurysm? a) Endovascular coil embolisation or clipping b) warfarin

Endovascular coil embolisation or clipping

Cerebellar strokes cause a) Ataxia/Nystagmus b) dizziness

Ataxia/Nystagmus

Left posterior cerebral artery supplies a) right visual field b) left visual field

right visual field

right posterior cerebral artery supplies a) left visual field b) right visual field

left visual field

right middle cerebral artery supplies a) left body b) right body

left body

left middle cerebral artery supplies a) right body and language b) left body

right body and language

Memory is affected by a) Limbic System (Hippocampus and Diencephalon) b) forebrain

Limbic System (Hippocampus and Diencephalon)

Foramina of munro connects a) two lateral ventricles to third ventricle b) 3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

two lateral ventricles to third ventricle

Mesencephalic duct connects a) two lateral ventricles to third ventricle b) 3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

What is the Pterion? | a weak spot in skull

a weak spot in skull

What is the Pterion? a) a weak spot in skull b) fracture in skull

a weak spot in skull

What does the Hippocampus do? a) Forms memories, learning b) breathing

Forms memories, learning

What does cortex do? a) Stores memories b) breathing

Stores memories

what does thalamus do? a) Searches memories b) breathing

Searches memories

Memories are formed in which system? a) Limbic b) brainstem

Limbic

Amygdala is involved in? a) emotion and memory b) language

emotion and memory

People with bilateral hippocampal damage have what kind of memory? a) immediate sensory memory b) long term memory retention

immediate sensory memory

People with bilateral hippocampal damage are unable to do what? a) form new long term memories b) form short term memories

form new long term memories

What does Anterograde memory mean? a) Cannot form new memories b) cannot remember long term memories

Cannot form new memories

What does retrograde memory mean? a) Cannot access old memories b) cannot make new memories

Cannot access old memories

What is Korsakoff Syndrome? a) Chronic Alcoholism with B1 deficiency b) excess sodium

Chronic Alcoholism with B1 deficiency

Which neurones are responsible for REM sleep? a) Cholinergic b) muscarinic

Cholinergic

Which part of brain does sleep originate in? a) reticular formation of brain stem b) parietal lobe

a) reticular formation of brain stem

Melatonin is released from where? a) Pineal Gland b) parotid gland

Pineal Gland

What inhibits pineal gland? a) Inhibitory Neurone from Suprachiasmatic nuclei b) Inhibitory Neurone from brainstem

Inhibitory Neurone from Suprachiasmatic nuclei

Which neurotransmitter that is released from hypothalamus is required for wakefulness? a) orexin b) ach

a) orexin

Serotonin does what in sleep? a) helps sleep b) hinders sleep

a) helps sleep

Alpha sleep waves are a) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude b) very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake

relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

Beta sleep waves are? a) very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake

Theta sleep waves are associated with? a) early sleep, low frequency b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

early sleep, low frequency

Delta sleep waves are associated with? a) Deep sleep, very low frequency, high amplitude b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

Deep sleep, very low frequency, high amplitude

Dreams occur during a) REM sleep b) deep sleep

REM sleep

Hippocampus is very active when? a) Deep sleep b) rem sleep

Deep sleep

Narcolepsy enter directly into what type of sleep? a) REM b) deep sleep

REM

Ab Primary afferent fibres are? a) large myelinated for pressure, vibration b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

large myelinated for pressure, vibration

Aδ primary afferent fibres are? a) large myelinated for pressure, vibration b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

C primary afferent fibres are? a) unmyelinated fibres for warmth and slow pain b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

unmyelinated fibres for warmth and slow pain

Proprioception is mediated by? a) Aα & Aβ b) c fibres

Aα & Aβ

All primary afferent fibres enter spinal cord via? a) Dorsal root ganglia b) ventral root ganglia

Dorsal root ganglia

Mechanoreceptive fibres project straight up through? a) Ipsilateral dorsal columns b) unilateral dorsal columns

Ipsilateral dorsal columns

Mechanoreceptive fibres project to? a) Reticular formation, thalamus and cortex b) midbrain

Reticular formation, thalamus and cortex

Thermoreceptive and Nociceptive Fibres synapse where? a) dorsal horn b) ventral horn

DORSAL HORN

Thermoreceptive and Nociceptive Fibres project up through? a) Contralateral spinothalamic tract b) lateral spinothalamic tract

Contralateral spinothalamic tract

Damage to dorsal columns causes? a) Loss of sensation below lesion on ipsilateral side b) loss of motor below lesion on ipsilateral side

Loss of sensation below lesion on ipsilateral side

Damage to anterolateral quadrant causes? a) Loss of sensation below lesion on contralateral side b) loss of motor

Loss of sensation below lesion on contralateral side

activity in which fibres activates inhibitory interneurones? a) Aβ fibres b) c fibres

Aβ fibres

What do local anesthetics do? a) block Na+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission b) block ca+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission

block Na+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission

What do opiates do? a) block transmitter release in dorsal horn b) activate descending inhibitory pathways

block transmitter release in dorsal horn

what do opiates do? a) activate descending inhibitory pathways b) block transmitter release in dorsal horn

activate descending inhibitory pathways

Indications to Perform MRI? a) Demylination b) myelination

Demylination

Do you see wasting of muscles in LMN? a) yes b) no

YES

Do you see hyperreflexia in UMN? a) Yes b) no

YES

Do you see a Positive Babinski Response in UMN? a) Yes b) no

YES

What is myelitis? a) Inflammation of spinal cord b) inflammation of brain

Inflammation of spinal cord

Viral cause of Meningitis? a) Enterovirus b) strep

Enterovirus

Encephalitis is said to have a a) Flu like prodrome b) sudden sickness

Flu like prodrome

Auto immune Encephalitis is associated with? a) Anti VGKC and Anti NMDA b) Coma

Anti VGKC and Anti NMDA

Auto Immune Encephalitis Anti VGKC is associated with? a) Frequent Seizures and Amnesia b) Progressing to movement disorder and coma.

Frequent Seizures and Amnesia

Auto Immune Encephalitis Anti NMDA is associated with a) Progressing to movement disorder and coma. b) Frequent Seizures and Amnesia

Progressing to movement disorder and coma.

Meningitis tests? a)Bloods and Lumbar Puncture B)ct or MRI

Bloods and Lumbar Puncture

Encephalitis Tests? a) Bloods, CT, MRI, EEG b) lumbar puncture

Bloods, CT, MRI, EEG

Indication for CT before lumbar puncture? a) focal neurological deficit b) rash

a) focal neurological deficit

In bacterial meningitis what happens to cell count? a) High neutrophils and reduced glucose b) low neutrophils and reduced glucose

High neutrophils and reduced glucose

In viral meningitis and encephalitis what happens to cell count a) high lymphocytes and normal glucose b) low lymphocytes and normal glucose

high lymphocytes and normal glucose

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis treatment? a) Aciclovir b) injection

ACICLOVIR

What is a rare complication of Herpes Simplex? a) Encephalitis b) meningitis

Encephalitis

Enteroviruses are spread by? a) Faecal Oral route b) coughing

Faecal Oral route

Arbovirus Encephalitis transmission? a) By Vector b) blood

By Vector

Subdural empyema location? a) between dura and arachnoid b) between dura and Pia

between dura and arachnoid

Brain abscess bacteria? a) Streptocci b) staph

Streptocci

Polomyeltitis is caused by? a) Enterovirus b) strep

Enterovirus

Polomyeltitis infects? a) Anterior horn cells LMN b) posterior horn cells

Anterior horn cells LMN

Tetanus is a) Anaerobic gram positive b) aerobic gram positive

Anaerobic gram positive

Tetanus causes a) Rigidity and spasm b) flex

Rigidity and spasm

Botulism is a) Anaerobic gram positive b) anaerobic gram negative

Anaerobic gram positive

How long is incubation period for botulism? a) 4-14 days b) 2 days

4-14 days

Botulism is said to be a) Pure motor b) pure sensory

Pure motor

How to diagnose botulism? a) nerve conduction studies b) Sri

nerve conduction studies

Sporadic CJD is said to be related to? a) Rapidly progressive dementia b) slow progressive dementia

Rapidly progressive dementia

Sporadic CJD is said to be related to? a) Myoclonus b) flaccidity

Myoclonus

GCS of 15? a) Best b) worst

Best

A contre-coup fracture is said to be caused by? a) Fall onto back of head b) brain tumour

Fall onto back of head

Extradural Haemorrhage bleeding commonly from a) Middle Meningeal artery b) cerebral artery

Middle Meningeal artery

Diffuse Traumatic Axonal Injury diagnosis can only be made by? a) Microscopy of brain tissue b) MRI

Microscopy of brain tissue

Squeeze on optic nerve causes? a) Papilloedema b) hearing issues

Papilloedema

A meningioma is said to be a) Benign b) malignant

Benign

Multiple Sclerosis affects which nerve system? a) Central Nervous System and White Matter b) peripheral nervous system

Central Nervous System and White Matter

Primary progressive MS often presents in? a) 5th and 6th decade b) 1st decade

5th and 6th decade

Which clinical criteria is used for MS? a) Posers b) dukes

Posers

Which MRI criteria is used for MS? a) macdonald b) geneva

macdonald

What is present in CSF of MS Patient? a) Normal Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands b) low Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands

Normal Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands

How to treat acute relapse in MS? a) Prednisolone b) sodium valproate

Prednisolone

B12 Deficient Myelopathy. Tests? a) FBC,B12 b) MRI

FBC,B12

Degeneration of Dorsal columns in B12 Deficient Myelopathy causes? a) Sensory Ataxia b) motor ataxia

Sensory Ataxia

Degeneration of Corticospinal tracts in B12 Deficient myelopathy causes? a) Paraplegia b) quadriplegia

Paraplegia

B12 Deficiency can cause? a) Myelopathy, Optic Nerve issue b) Hearing issues

a) Myelopathy, Optic Nerve issue

Treatment for Spinal cord stroke? a) Antiplatelets b) warfarin

Antiplatelets

Primary headache has? a) No underlying cause b) cause

No underlying cause

Mid Bilateral Headache, Pressing, Not aggrieved by routine physical activity. what is it? a) Tension type headache b) migraine

Tension type headache

How to treat tension type headache? a) Aspirin or Paracetamol b) nsaids

Aspirin or Paracetamol

How to prevent tension type headache? a) Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitryptiline b) sodium valproate

Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitryptiline

Acute migraine treatment? a) Aspirin or NSAIDS b) sodium valproate

Aspirin or NSAIDS

Prophylactic treatment of migraine? a) propranolol b) sodium valproate

a) propranolol

Chronic migraine can be defined as a) headache on >15 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months b) headache on >10 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months

headache on >15 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months

Migraine without aura does what in pregnancy? a) Gets better b) gets worse

Gets better

prophylactic Treatment for migraine in pregnancy? a) propranolol or amitryptiline b) sodium valproate

propranolol or amitryptiline

What is a neuralgia? a) intense burning or stabbing pain b) syncope

intense burning or stabbing pain

How long does Trigeminal Neuralgia last? a) 5-10 seconds each b) 20-30 seconds each

5-10 seconds each

What is a common cause of trigeminal neuralgia? a) compression of nerve b) head injury

compression of nerve

Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? a) Carbamazepine b) sodium valproate

Carbamazepine

Cluster headaches mainly affects? a) Orbital and temporal b) occipital

Orbital and temporal

Cluster headaches are a) strictly unilateral b) strictly bilateral

strictly unilateral

Cluster headaches. what happens to pain? a) rapid cessation b) continues

rapid cessation

Cluster headaches treatment? a) Subcutaneous sumatriptan or nasal zolmatriptan b) nsaids

Subcutaneous sumatriptan or nasal zolmatriptan

How to prevent cluster headaches? a) Verapamil b) sodium valproate

Verapamil

SUNCT is said to have what? a) no refractory period b) refractory period

no refractory period

SUNCT Pain? a) Unilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal b) bilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal

Unilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal

SUNCT Prophylaxis? a) Lamotrigine b) sodium valproate

Lamotrigine

Thunderclap onset in headache is? a) Sinister b) normal

Sinister

Thunderclup headache differential? a) Subarachnoid Haemorrhage or TIA/Stroke b) meningitis

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage or TIA/Stroke

Complications of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage? a) Vasospasm/Hydrocephalus b) vasoconstriction

Vasospasm/Hydrocephalus

Treatment of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage? a) Coiling or Clipping and Nimodipine b) warfarin

Coiling or Clipping and Nimodipine

Raised CSF pressure is present in? | Hydrocephalus

Hydrocephalus

Raised CSF pressure is present in? a) Hydrocephalus b) brain leak

Hydrocephalus

What is Intracranial Hypotension? a) Dural CSF Leak b) pia csf LEAK

Dural CSF Leak

Test for Intracranial Hypotension? A)MRI Brain and Spine B)CT

MRI Brain and Spine

Treatment for Intracranial Hypotension? A)Rest B) drain

rest

Giant Cell Arteritis should be considered in any patient with new headache over a) >50 b) <50

>50

Giant cell arteritis features? a) scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and visual disturbance b) scalp looseness

a) scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and visual disturbance

Giant cell arteritis features? a) enlarged temporal arteries b) enlarged carotid arteries

a) enlarged temporal arteries

Giant cell arteritis treatment? a) high dose prednisolone b) drain

high dose prednisolone

Complex partial seizures originate from? a) temporal lobe b) occipital lobe

temporal lobe

First line epilepsy treatment for Generalised Epilepsy? a) Sodium Valproate b) Topiramate c) Zonisamide d) Brivaracetam

Sodium Valproate

First line treatment for partial and secondary seizures in epilepsy? a) Lamotrigine b) Topiramide c) Zonisamide

Lamotrigine

First line treatment for absence seizures in epilepsy? a) Ethosuzimide b) Clobazam c) Clonazepam d) Vigabatrin

Ethosuzimide

Sodium valproate side effect? a) Tremor and Ataxia b) sickness

Tremor and Ataxia

Carbamazepine side effect? a) Ataxia, Nystagmus b) dizziness

Ataxia, Nystagmus

Lamotrigine side effect? a) skin rash b) dizzy

skin rash

Status Epilepticus treatment? | Midazolam

Midazolam

A patient presents with epilepsy. How long do they have to be seizure free? 1 year for a car, 5 years lorry

1 year for a car, 5 years lorry

Which blood is important to test for muscle disease? | a) creatine kinase

a) creatine kinase

Contractile cause of muscle disease? | Congenital myopathy

Congenital myopathy

Which blood is important to test for muscle disease? a) creatine kinase b) CRP

a) creatine kinase

Contractile cause of muscle disease? a) Congenital myopathy b) congenital heart disease

Congenital myopathy

Structural cause of muscle disease? a) Muscular dystrophy b) muscular atrophy

Muscular dystrophy

Inflammatory Muscle Disease is said to be? a) Autoimmune b) bacterial

Autoimmune

How to test for Inflammatory Muscle Disease? a) EMG and Biopsy b) Bloods

EMG and Biopsy

How to treat inflammatory muscle disease? a) Immunosuppression b) saids

Immunosuppression

Presentation of Myathenia Gravis? a) Fatiguable Weakness, Ptosis and Diplopia b) pain, headaches

Fatiguable Weakness, Ptosis and Diplopia

How to test for Myathenia Gravis? a) Ach receptor or anti musk antibodies b) muscarinic receptor

Ach receptor or anti musk antibodies

Treatment for Myathenia Gravis symptoms? a) Cholinesterase inhibitors b) saids

Cholinesterase inhibitors

Treatment for Myathenia Gravis Disease Modification? a) Immunoglobulin b) inhibitors

Immunoglobulin

Peripheral nerve diseases shows signs related to? a) LMN b) UMN

LMN

How to treat Peripheral nerve disease? a) Treat cause b) nothing

Treat cause

Voluntary control of movement is from? a) Precentral Gyrus b) postcentral gyrus

Precentral Gyrus

Bladder control is from? a) Paracentral lobule b) precentral lobul

Paracentral lobule

What is ataxia? a) unsteady/clumsy movement b) pain

unsteady/clumsy movement

Modulation of Pain is done in? a) Descending Tracts b) ascending tracts

Descending Tracts

Nociceptors are related to? a) Free nerve endings of a delta and c fibres. b) Free nerve endings of b fibres

Free nerve endings of a delta and c fibres.

Primary afferents/1st order neurone where are their cell bodies? a) Dorsal root ganglion b) ventral root

Dorsal root ganglion

Primary afferents/1st order neurone where do they synapse? a) spinal cord b) brain

spinal cord

Alpha and Beta fibres are? a) Myelinated, Large, respond to sensory touch b) unmyelinated

Myelinated, Large, respond to sensory touch

Alpha c fibres repsond to? a) Nociception b) illness

Nociception

C fibres are? a) Unmylinated, Small, Respond to Pain b) mylinated

Unmylinated, Small, Respond to Pain

The Spinothalamic tract is part of the? a) Ascending tract b) descending trac

Ascending tract

Which tract is the major tract sending impulses to thalamus? a) Spinothalamic b) corticospinal

Spinothalamic

Spinomesenphalic tract is related to which part of the brain? a) Brainstem b) frontal lobe

Brainstem

Spinoreticular tract is related to which part of brain? a) Medulla b) pons

Medulla

Wind up involves only? a) activated synapses b) deactivated synapses

activated synapses

Wind up is mediated by neurotransmitter substances? a) P and CGRP b) ERP

P and CGRP

Na+ action potential does what to voltage gated ca+ channels? a) activates b) decreases

a) activates

Activated Ca2+ channels triggers what? a) Ca2+ dependent exocytosis b) Na+ dependent endocytosis

Ca2+ dependent exocytosis

What does blocking voltage gated Na channels do? a) Reduces synaptic transmission b) increases synaptic transmission

a) Reduces synaptic transmission

what does activating presynaptic inhibitory receptors do? a) reduces synaptic transmissions b) increases synaptic transmission

a) reduces synaptic transmission

What does blocking postsynaptic receptors do? a) reduces synaptic transmission b) increases synaptic transmission

a) reduces synaptic transmission

What happens when you activate postsynaptic receptors with agonist? a) Increase synaptic transmission b) decrease synaptic transmission

Increase synaptic transmission

What happens when you block breakdown or uptake of transmitter? a) increase synaptic transmission b) decrease synaptic transmission

Increase synaptic transmission

What happens in Parkinsons Disease to Dopamine Cells? a) Degeneration b) generation

Degeneration

Dopamine deficiency is where in Parkinsons? a) Basal Ganglia b) hypocampus

Basal Ganglia

Dopamine Synthesis is from Glycine to what? a) Alanine b) phenyalanine

Alanine

Dopamine Synthesis is from Alanine to what? a) Phenyalanine b) glycine

Phenyalanine

Dopamine Synthesis is from Phenyalalnine to? a) Tyrosine b) dihydroxyphenyalanine

Tyrosine

Dopamine Synthesis is from Tyrosine to?a)Dihydroxyphenyalalnine b)alanine

Dihydroxyphenyalalnine

Name a peripheral AAAD inhibitor? | carbidopa

carbidopa

Name a MAOB Inhibitor? | Selegiline

Selegiline

Name a COMT Inhibitor? | Entacapone

Entacapone

COMT Inhibitors such as Entacapone and Opicapone? reduce metabolism of dopamine

reduce metabolism of dopamine

Dopaminergic Drugs make Nausea, Vomiting, Psychosis? | Worse

worse

Dopaminergic drugs for midline features eg dysarthria or balance do what? fail to help

fail to help

Dopaminergic Antagonist Antiemetics should they be used in Parkinsons? No

Vomiting centre in medulla is where? | Outside blood brain barrier

Outside blood brain barrier

Which Dopamine Antagonist doesn't cross blood brain barrier? | Domperiodne

Domperiodne

Domperidone is what? | Dopamine Antagonist

Dopamine Antagonist

Domperidone is classified as? | Anti emetic

Anti emetic

Dopaminergic drugs may cause? | Dyskinesia

Dyskinesia

MAO Inhibitors are? | Antidepressants

Antidepressants

Selective 5HT Agonists can be used for? | Migraine

Migraine

Gaba agonists are? | Anti epilepsy drugs

Anti epilepsy drugs

Voluntary brain control of muscles is via? | a Motor neurones

a Motor neurones

The spinal cord receives descending input via | Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

Stretch reflexes present? | in all muscles

in all muscles

The spinal cord receives descending input via a) Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract b) Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via lateral spinothalamic tract

Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

Stretch reflexes present? a) in all muscles b) in biceps only

in all muscles

In the stretch reflex which nerves are activated in muscle spindle? a) 1a afferent sensory nerves b) 1b afferent sensory nerves

1a afferent sensory nerves

In the stretch reflex what happens? a) increased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn b) decreased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn

increased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn

What is a monosynaptic reflex? a) one synapse, no interneurones involved b) two synapses

one synapse, no interneurones involved

What happens to agonist muscle in monosynaptic reflex? a) muscle contracts b) muscle relax

muscle contracts

What happens to antagonist muscle in monosynaptic reflex? a) stretch and relax b) tense

stretch and reflex

Which spindles are activated in monosynaptic reflex? a) a motor neurones to antagonist muscle b) b motor neurones to antagonist muscle

a motor neurones to antagonist muscle

Inverse Stretch Reflex is caused by? a) 1b afferent nerves from Golgi Tendon Organs b) 1a afferent nerves from golgi tendon orga

1b afferent nerves from Golgi Tendon Organs

Golgi tendon organs monitor? a) muscle tension b) muscle relax

muscle tension

What happens in inverse stretch reflex? a) 1b afferent nerves and sensory 1b afferent nerves b) 1a afferent nerves

1b afferent nerves and sensory 1b afferent nerves

Activation of inhibitory interneurones to agonist muscle causes? a) Decrease in contraction strength b) increase in contraction strength

Decrease in contraction strength

What happens in inverse stretch reflex to excitatory interneurons? a) activation to antagonist muscles b) activation to agonist muscles

activation to antagonist muscles

If an inhibitory interneuron is activated what happens? a) relaxation and inhibitation b) constriction

relaxation and inhabitation

Flexor reflex causes? a) Ipsilateral flexion b) unilateral flexion

Ipsilateral flexion