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Mixed Year 2 Questions > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What happens in Multiple Sclerosis?
A) Demylination
B) Myelination

A

Demylination

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2
Q

What is Hypoxia?

a) Lack of Oxygen
b) too much oxygen
c) too much co2
d) lack of co2

A

lack of oxygen

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3
Q

Stroke is caused by changes in

a) Wall, Flow and Constituents
b) resistance and radius

A

wall, flow and constiuents

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4
Q

Irreversible Ischaemia is also called

a) Infarction
b) MI

A

Infarction

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5
Q

The central part of the spine carries?

a) Gray Matter
b) white matter

A

Gray matter

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6
Q

The peripheral part of the spine carries?

a) White matter
b) gray matter

A

white matter

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7
Q

Axons of sensory fibres enter through where into dorsal horn of grey matter?

a) ventral root
b) dorsal root

A

dorsal root

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8
Q

Where do motor neurones have their cell bodies

a) Ventral horn
b) dorsal horn

A

ventral horn

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9
Q

Ascending pathways are

a) Sensory
b) motor

A

sensory

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10
Q

Descending pathways are

a) Motor
b) sensory

A

motor

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11
Q

All descending tracts end in?

a) …..Spinal
b) thalamic

A

….spinal

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12
Q

Corticospinal is what kind of tract

a) descending
b) ascending

A

descending

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13
Q

Lateral spinothalamic is what kind of tract

a) ascending
b) descending

A

ascending

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14
Q

Dorsal column is what kind of tract

a) ascending
b) descending

A

ascending

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15
Q

What does the Corticospinal tract carry?

a) Motor
b) sensory

A

motor

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16
Q

What does the Posterior/Dorsal Column carry?

a) Sensation
b) motor

A

sensation

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17
Q

What does the Lateral spinothalamic tract carry?

a) sensory eg pain and temperature
b) motor eg movement

A

sensory eg pain and t

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18
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract start from?

a) Area 4 Motor Cortex
b) area 6 motor cortex

A

area 4 motor cortex

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19
Q

What is the blood supply of the Corticospinal tract

a) Middle Cerebral Artery
b) anterior cerebral artery

A

middle cerebral artery

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20
Q

Where is the Posterior/Dorsal Column 2nd Neuron situated?

a) Lower part of medulla
b) pons

A

lower medulla

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21
Q

Where does the 2nd order neutron in posterior/dorsal column cross over?

a) Medulla
b) pons

A

medulla

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22
Q

Where does the medial lemniscus pass through to reach thalamus?

a) medulla, pons and midbrain
b) hypothalamus

A

medulla,pons and thalamus

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23
Q

Where does the third order neuron of posterior/dorsal column start from?

a) Thalamus
b) hypothalamus

A

midbrain

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24
Q

Where does the third order neuron radiate to?

a) Post central gyrus (areas 1,2 and 3)
b) pre central gyrus (areas 4)

A

a)Post central gyrus (areas 1,2 and 3)

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25
Q

Decussation in Lateral Spinothalamic tract ends where?

a) Same level as first order neuron at grey matter
b) below first order neuron at gray matter

A

Same level as first order neuron at grey matter

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26
Q

Is a reflex involuntarily or Voluntary?
A)Involuntary
B) Voluntary

A

Involuntary

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27
Q

A stretch reflex is said to be

a) Monosynaptic
b) postsynaptic

A

Monosynaptic

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28
Q

A flexor reflex is said to be

a) Polysynaptic
b) postsynaptic

A

polysynaptic

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29
Q

Reflexes are what in UMN Lesions?

a) Exagerated
b) decreased

A

exagerated

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30
Q

Upper Motor Neurone Lesion causes?

a) Increased Tone (Spastisity)
b) decreased tone

A

Increased Tone (Spastisity)

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31
Q

Lower Motor Neurone lesion causes?

a) Flaccidity
b) spasticity

A

Flaccidity

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32
Q

If there was a UMN Lesion at Lower Spinal cord what would happen

a) R Sided Paralysis and hyperreflexia
b) l sided paralysis and hyporeflexia

A

R Sided Paralysis and hyperreflexia

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33
Q

If there was a UMN lesion at Upper spinal cord what would happen

a) L sided paralysis and hypereflexia
b) r sided paralysis and hyporeflexia

A

L sided paralysis and hypereflexia

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34
Q

Motor Neurone Disease affects

a) Lower Motor Neurone
b) upper motor neurone

A

Lower Motor Neurone

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35
Q

Which part of the spinal cord does Motor Neurone Disease affect?

a) Ventral Horn of Spinal Cord
b) dorsal horn of spinal cord

A

Ventral Horn of Spinal Cord

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36
Q

What happens in Brown sequard syndrome?

a) Hemisection of spinal cord left side
b) hemisection of spinal cord right side

A

Hemisection of spinal cord left side

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37
Q

What happens to temperature and pain in Brown Sequard?

a) Right sided loss of temp and pain
b) left sided loss of temp and pain

A

Right sided loss of temp and pain

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38
Q

What happens to paralysis in brown sequard syndrome

a) Left sided paralysis
b) right sided paralysis

A

Left sided paralysis

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39
Q

What happens to touch and vibration in Brown Sequard?

a) Loss of touch and vibration
b) increased touch and vibration

A

a) Loss of touch and vibration

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40
Q

What happens to reflexes in Brown Sequard?
A) reflexes on left side exaggerated
b) reflexes on right side exagerated

A

A) reflexes on left side exaggerated

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41
Q

Which cranial nerve is I?

a) Olfactory
b) optic

A

olfactory

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42
Q

Which cranial nerve is II?

a) Optic
b) olfactory

A

optic

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43
Q

Which cranial nerve is III?

a) oculomotor
b) trochlear

A

oculomotor

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44
Q

which cranial nerve is IV?

a) trochlear
b) trigeminal

A

trochlear

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45
Q

which cranial nerve is trigeminal?

a) V
b) VI

A

v

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46
Q

which cranial nerve is VI?

a) abducens
b) facial

A

abducens

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47
Q

which cranial nerve is VII?

a) facial
b) abducens

A

facial

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48
Q

which cranial nerve is VIII?

a) Vestibuochlear
b) glossopharyngeal

A

vestibulochlear

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49
Q

Which cranial nerve is IX?

glossopharyngeal

A

glossopharyngeal

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50
Q

which cranial nerve is X?

a) vagus
b) accessory

A

vagus

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51
Q

which cranial nerve is XI?

a) accessory
b) vagus

A

accessory

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52
Q

which cranial nerve is XII?

a) hypoglossal
b) accessory

A

hypoglossal

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53
Q

Which cranial nerves control eye muscles?

a) III, IV and VI
b) V

A

III,IV and VI

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54
Q

Muscles of mastication are controlled by which cranial nerve?

a) V
b) VII

A

V

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55
Q

Muscles of facial expression are controlled by which cranial nerve?

a) VII
b) X

A

VII

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56
Q

Muscles of larynx and pharynx are controlled by which cranial nerve?

a) X
b) XI

A

X

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57
Q

Sternocleidomasotid and Trapezius muscle are controlled by which cranial nerve?

a) XI
b) X

A

XI

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58
Q

Which cranial nerve causes pupillary constriction?

a) III
b) X

A

III

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59
Q

Which cranial nerve causes lacrimation?
a)VII
B) i

A

VII

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60
Q

Which cranial nerve causes salivation?

a) VII
b) x

A

VII

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61
Q

Which cranial nerves causes salivation from parotid gland?

a) IX
b) x

A

IX

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62
Q

Autonomic Functions are said to be under what kind of control?

a) Parasympathetic
b) sympathetic

A

Parasympathetic

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63
Q

Pupillary constriction is said to be?

a) Parasympathetic
b) sympathetic

A

Parasympathetic

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64
Q

Corneal reflex would be tested under which cranial nerve?

a) V
b) VII

A

V

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65
Q

Jaw jerk would be tested under which cranial nerve?

a) V
b) X

A

V

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66
Q

Taste would be tested under which cranial nerve?

a) VII
b) X

A

VII

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67
Q

Accessory Nerve (Cranial Nerve XI) would test?

a) Sternomastoid and Trapezius Function
b) Taste

A

Sternomastoid and Trapezius Function

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68
Q

Afferent Pupillary light reaction tested under

a) Cranial Nerve II
b) cranial nerve VII

A

Cranial Nerve II

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69
Q

Efferent pupillary light reaction tested under

a) Cranial Nerve III
b) cranial nerve VII

A

Cranial Nerve III

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70
Q

Efferent Corneal Reflex tested under

a) Cranial Nerve VII
b) cranial nerve X

A

Cranial Nerve VII

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71
Q

Afferent Corneal Reflex tested under

a) cranial nerve V
b) cranial nerve x

A

cranial nerve V

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72
Q

Gag reflex afferent tested under

a) Cranial nerve IX
b) cranial nerve x

A

Cranial nerve IX

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73
Q

Gag reflex efferent tested under

a) Cranial nerve X
b) cranial nerve IX

A

Cranial nerve X

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74
Q

Ocoulmotor and Trochlear nuclei lie

a) in midbrain
b) hindbrain

A

in midbrain

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75
Q

Trigeminal, Abducente and Facial nuclei lie in

a) Pons
b) medulla

A

Pons

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76
Q

Vestibulochlear nuclei lie in

a) Pontomedullary junction
b) frontal lobe

A

Pontomedullary junction

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77
Q

Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, Accessory and hypoglossal nuclei lie in

a) Medulla
b) pons

A

Medulla

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78
Q

What is optic neuritis

a) Demylination in optic nerve
b) myelination in optic nerve

A

Demylination in optic nerve

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79
Q

What happens in Optic neuritis colour vision

a) reduced
b) increased

A

reduced

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80
Q

What is optic neuritis often associated with

a) Multiple sclerosis
b) mnd

A

Multiple sclerosis

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81
Q

Dilated pupils happen with

a) Mydriatic eye drops
b) mitosis

A

Mydriatic eye drops

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82
Q

Dilated pupils happen with

a) Coccaine
b) mitosis

A

Coccaine

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83
Q

Dilated pupils happen with

a) Third nerve palsy
b) opiate overdose

A

Third nerve palsy

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84
Q

Dilated pupils happen with

Ooo

A

oo

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85
Q

Dilated pupils happen with

a) Anxiety
b) miotic eye drops

A

Anxiety

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86
Q

Constricted pupils happen with

a) Miotic eye drops
b) anxiety

A

Miotic eye drops

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87
Q

Constricted pupils happen with

a) Opiate Overdose
b) anxiety

A

Opiate Overdose

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88
Q

Constricted pupils happen with

a) Horner’s Syndrome
b) anxiety

A

Horner’s Syndrome

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89
Q

Microvascular reason for Isolated Third Nerve Palsy

a) Diabetes/Hypertension
b) stroke

A

Diabetes/Hypertension

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90
Q

Is microvascular third nerve palsy sore?

a) No
b) yes

A

No

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91
Q

Compressive reason for isolated third nerve palsy

a) Raised ICP
b) decreased ICP

A

Raised ICP

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92
Q

Is compressive third nerve palsy sore?

a) yes
b) no

A

yes

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93
Q

Cause for Isolated Sixth Nerve Palsy

a) Meningitis or Diabetes
b) stroke

A

Meningitis or Diabetes

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94
Q

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia?

a) paroxysmal attacks of lancinating pain
b) painless nerve loss

A

paroxysmal attacks of lancinating pain

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95
Q

Which nerve is compressed in trigeminal neuralgia

a) 5th Nerve in Posterior Fossa
b) 8th nerve in posterior fossa

A

5th Nerve in Posterior Fossa

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96
Q

How to treat Trigeminal Neuralgia?

a) Carbamazepine
b) serotonin

A

Carbamazepine

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97
Q

What happens in Bell’s palsy?

a) Unilateral face weakness
b) bilateral face weakness

A

Unilateral face weakness

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98
Q

Bells palsy affects?

a) Lower Motor Neurone
b) upper motor neurone

A

Lower Motor Neurone

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99
Q

How to treat Bells Palsy?

a) Steroids
b) injection

A

Steroids

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100
Q

Stroke is said to be?

a) UMN
b) LMN

A

UMN

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101
Q

Lymes is said to be?

a) LMN
b) UMN

A

LMN

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102
Q

Vestibular Neuronitis causes?

a) Sudden disabling vertigo
b) sudden pain

A

Sudden disabling vertigo

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103
Q

Bulbar palsy is

a) Lower motor neurone
b) UMN

A

Lower motor neurone

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104
Q

Pseudobulbar palsy is
A)Upper motor neuron
b)LMM

A

Upper motor neuron

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105
Q

Pseudobulbar palsy presents with

a) Bilateral UMN lesions
b) bilateral LMN Lesions

A

Bilateral UMN lesions

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106
Q

Bulbar palsy affects

a) Bilateral LMN IX-XII
b) unilateral UMN IX-XII

A

Bilateral LMN IX-XII

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107
Q

What happens to tongue in bulbar palsy?

a) Wasting and Fasiculated
b) redness

A

Wasting and Fasiculated

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108
Q

Most common late onset Dementia?

a) Alzheimers
b) vascular

A

Alzheimers

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109
Q

Most common young onset Dementia?

a) Alzheimers
b) vascular

A

Alzheimers

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110
Q

Dementia can mimic?

a) Hydrocephalus
b) encephalitis

A

Hydrocephalus

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111
Q

Screening test for Cognitive Function?

a) Mini Mental or Montreal
b) CT

A

Mini Mental or Montreal

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112
Q

Rapid progression is shown in?

a) CJD
b) Vascular dementia

A

CJD

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113
Q

Stepwise progression for Dementia is shown in?

a) Vascular
b) CJD

A

Vascular

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114
Q

Abnormal movements in Dementia are shown in?

a) Huntingtons
b) Fronto Temporal Dementia

A

Huntingtons

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115
Q

Mycolonus is related to?

a) CJD
b) vascular demen

A

CJD

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116
Q

Alzheimers pathology?

a) B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
b) B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

A

B amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

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117
Q

Which genes are related to Alzheimers?

a) APOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2
b) BPOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2

A

APOE, APP, PSEN1, PSEN2

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118
Q

Frontotemporal Dementia often sees changes in?

a) Early changes in Personality
b) late changes in personality

A

Early changes in Personality

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119
Q

Dementia with Lewy body pathology?

a) A synuclein
b) b synuclein

A

A synuclein

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120
Q

What is common in Dementia with Lewy bodies?

a) Parkonism and Visual Hallucinations
b) parkonism and dizziness

A

a) Parkonism and Visual Hallucinations

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121
Q

Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia treatment?

a) Cholinsterease Inhibitor
b) dopamine inhibitor

A

Cholinsterease Inhibitor

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122
Q

Why use Cholinesterase Inhibitors in Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia Treatment?

a) Cholinergic Deficit
b) dopamine deficit

A

Cholinergic Deficit

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123
Q

Name Cholinesterase Inhibitors that would be used in Alzheimers and Lewy body Dementia?

a) Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine
b) Bonepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine

A

a) Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine

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124
Q

Which Signs are common in Parkinsons?

a) Bradykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability
b) tachykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability

A

a) Bradykinesia, Rigidity, Tremor and Postural Instability

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125
Q

What is Bradykinesia?

a) Slowness of movement
b) fastness of movement

A

Slowness of movement

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126
Q

What happens in the Basal Ganglia in Parkinsons?

a) Dopamine Loss
b) serotonin loss

A

Dopamine Loss

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127
Q

Genetic Risk factors of Parkinsons?

a) LRRK2, Parkin and GBA
b) PIZZ

A

LRRK2, Parkin and GBA

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128
Q

Is Parkinson Fast or Slow Progression?

a) Slow
b) fast

A

SLOW

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129
Q

Which test for Parkinsons?

a) Dopamine Transporter SPECT
b) CT

A

Dopamine Transporter SPECT

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130
Q

Early medical treatment for Parkinsons?

a) Dopaminergic Neuron
b) serotonin neuron

A

Dopaminergic Neuron

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131
Q

Involuntary movements can be caused by?

a) Levodopa
b) serotonin

A

Levodopa

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132
Q

What can prolong Levodopa half life?

a) MAO-B Inhibitor, COMT Inhibitor and Slow Release Levodopa
b) Serotonin

A

MAO-B Inhibitor, COMT Inhibitor and Slow Release Levodopa

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133
Q

Which system is important for consciousness?

a) Intact ascending reticular activating system
b) disrupted ascending activating system

A

Intact ascending reticular activating system

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134
Q

Arousal is related to what system?

a) Reticular activating system
b) frontal lobe

A

Reticular activating system

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135
Q

Awareness of environment is related to?

a) Cerebral Hemispheres
b) lateral hemispheres

A

Cerebral Hemispheres

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136
Q

Ketoacidois does what to GCS?

a) Decreased
b) increased

A

Decreased

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137
Q

Which function has not recovered in Persistent Vegetative state?

a) Cortical
b) dorsal

A

Cortical

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138
Q

In locked in syndrome, where does the patient have total paralysis below?

a) level of third nerve nuclei
b) level of sixth nerve nuclei

A

level of third nerve nuclei

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139
Q

What happens to eye movements in locked in syndrome?

a) unable to move eyes horizontally
b) able to move eyes horizo

A

unable to move eyes horizontally

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140
Q

Increased respiration is caused by?

a) Hypoxia
b) over ventilated

A

Hypoxia

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141
Q

Increased respiration is caused by?

a) Hypercapnia
b) hypocapnia

A

Hypercapnia

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142
Q

Increased respiration is caused by?

a) Acidosis
b) alkalosis

A

Acidosis

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143
Q

Fluctuating respiration is caused by?

a) Brainstem lesion
b) frontal lobe lesion

A

Brainstem lesion

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144
Q

Depression respiration is caused by?

a) Drug overdose
b) too little drugs

A

Drug overdose

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145
Q

Depressed respiration is caused by?

a) Metabolic disturbance
b) metabolic increase

A

Metabolic disturbance

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146
Q

Focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs are only apparent in what type of coma?

a) Focal cerebral eg Tumour, Infarct
b) Strokes

A

Focal cerebral eg Tumour, Infarct

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147
Q

What is present on CT for subdural haematoma?

a) Ellipse
b) egg shape

A

Ellipse

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148
Q

Which osmotic agent can be used to treat increased ICP?

a) Mannitol
b) oxygen

A

Mannitol

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149
Q

What degree should head be at to increase venous return to treat increased ICP?

a) 30-45%
b) 50%

A

30-45%

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150
Q

Would the aim be to increase or reduce metabolism when treating increased ICP?

a) Reduce
b) increase

A

Reduce

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151
Q

For basilar artery occlusion where is the ischaemia

a) Pons
b) parietal lobe

A

Pons

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152
Q

Most common ischaemia stroke?

a) Large artery atherosclerosis
b) small artery atherosclerosis

A

a) Large artery atherosclerosis

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153
Q

Most common haemorrhagic stroke?

a) Primary intracerebal haemorrhagesis
b) secondary intracerebal haemorrhage

A

a) Primary intracerebal haemorrhage

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154
Q

Hypertension, Smoking and Diabetes contributes to what type of deposition in arterial walls?

a) LDL-C
b) MDL-C

A

LDL-C

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155
Q

The Carotid System supplies

a) Most of hemispheres and cortical deep white matter
b) cortical deep grey matter

A

Most of hemispheres and cortical deep white matter

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156
Q

The vertebra-basilar system supplies

a) Brainstem, Cerebellum and Occipital Lobes
b) Frontal Lobe

A

Brainstem, Cerebellum and Occipital Lobes

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157
Q

Occipital Lobe is related what function?

a) Vision
b) auditory

A

Vision

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158
Q

Personality is related to what function?

a) Frontal Lobe
b) parietal lobe

A

Frontal Lobe

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159
Q

Which hemisphere is most dominant for motor control of speech?

a) Frontal lobe
b) parietal lobe

A

Frontal lobe

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160
Q

Which lobe is important for memory?

a) Frontal Lobe
b) parietal lobe

A

Frontal Lobe

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161
Q

Which lobe is important for personality?

a) Frontal Lobe
b) parietal lobe

A

Frontal lobe

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162
Q

Which lobe is said to be sensory cortex?

a) Parietal lobe
b) frontal lobe

A

Parietal lobe

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163
Q

Which lobe is primary auditory receptive area?

a) Temporal lobe
b) occipital lobe

A

Temporal lobe

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164
Q

Cerebellum is involved in?

a) Balance and Coordination
b) eyesight

A

Balance and Coordination

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165
Q

How many cranial nerves arise in brainstem?

a) 10
b) 8

A

10

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166
Q

Where do cortical tracts cross?

a) Lower medulla
b) upper medulla

A

Lower medulla

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167
Q

Occipital lobe is the

a) Primary Visual cortex
b) secondary visual cortex

A

Primary Visual cortex

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168
Q

What does positive functional signs point do?

a) Functional Neurological condition
b) brain tumour

A

Functional Neurological condition

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169
Q

What is Hoover’s Sign?

a) Hip extension is weak when tested directly but normal when patient asked to flex opposite hip
b) Hip extension is weak when tested directly but more abnormal when patient asked to flex opposite hip

A

Hip extension is weak when tested directly but normal when patient asked to flex opposite hip

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170
Q

Hoover’s Sign is related to?

a) Functional weakness of hip
b) spinal tumour

A

Functional weakness of hip

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171
Q

What is Hydrocephalus?

a) Abnormal accumulation of CSF within ventricles
b) accumulation of blood within ventricles

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF within ventricles

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172
Q

What is Obstructive Hydrocephalus?

a) enlargement of ventricles proximal to block
b) destruction of ventricles

A

enlargement of ventricles proximal to block

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173
Q

What is DandyWalker Malformation (Congenital) ?

a) Atresia of foramina of Luschka and Magendie
b) Atresia of foramina of munro

A

Atresia of foramina of Luschka and Magendie

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174
Q

Symptoms of Hydrocephalus?

a) Increased ICP symptoms including Abducens Palsy
b) decreased ICP Symptoms

A

Increased ICP symptoms including Abducens Palsy

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175
Q

What happens to eyes in Hydrocephalus?

a) Papilledema
b) nothing

A

a) Papilledema

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176
Q

what happens in baby with hydrocephalus?

a) fontanelle full and bulging
b) fontanelle deep

A

fontanelle full and bulging

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177
Q

Treatment for Hydrocephalus?

a) Lumbar Puncture and Drain
b) antibiotics

A

Lumbar Puncture and Drain

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178
Q

Normal Ph of CSF?

a) 7.33-7.35
b) 8-8.5

A

7.33-7.35

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179
Q

80% of CSF is produced from?

a) Choroid Plexuses
b) ventricles

A

Choroid Plexuses

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180
Q

CSF is absorbed primarily by?

a) Arachnoid Villi (Granulations) that extend into dural venous sinuses
b) Spinal cord

A

Arachnoid Villi (Granulations) that extend into dural venous sinuses

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181
Q

Voluntary Control of Movement is from?

a) Precentral Gyrus
b) postcentral gyrus

A

Precentral Gyrus

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182
Q

Bladder control is from?

a) Paracentral Lobule
b) postcentral lobule

A

Precentral Gyrus

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183
Q

Frontal Lobe with Pyramidal weakness shows?

a) Increased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift
b) decreased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift

A

Increased Tone, Brisk reflexes and pronator drift

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184
Q

Frontal lobe with pyramidal weakness shows?

a) saccadic eye movements
b) normal eye movements

A

saccadic eye movements

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185
Q

Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is related to?

a) executive function
b) motor function

A

executive function

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186
Q

Fluency is affected by

a) Broca’s area
b) frontal lobe

A

Broca’s area

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187
Q

3 Step Command is affected by

a) Wernicke
b) broca

A

Wernicke

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188
Q

Meyer’s Loop is related to

a) Visual Fields
b) semicanular canals

A

Visual Fields

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189
Q

Myelopathy shows

a) UMN Signs below lesion
b) lMN signs below lesion

A

UMN Signs below lesion

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190
Q

Radiculopathy shows

a) LMN Signs
b) UMN signs

A

LMN Signs

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191
Q

Myelopathy is related to

a) Cord Signs
b) nerve root signs

A

Cord Signs

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192
Q

Radiculopathy is related to

a) Nerve root signs
b) cord signs

A

Nerve root signs

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193
Q

Myelopathy shows

a) Bilateral
b) unilateral

A

Bilateral

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194
Q

Radiculopathy shows

a) Unilateral
b) bilateral

A

Unilateral

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195
Q

Myelopathy signs?

a) clonus, upping plantars, increased tone
b) decreased tone

A

a) clonus, upping plantars, increased tone

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196
Q

Myelopathy shows

a) Hoffman sign
b) babinski sign

A

Hoffman sign

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197
Q

Myelopathy shows

a) Brisk reflexes
b) no reflexes

A

Brisk reflexes

198
Q

Neuroepithelial Tissue is related to what type of Brain Tumour?

a) Glioma
b) blastoma

A

a) Glioma

199
Q

Pituitary tissue is related to what type of brain tumour?

a) adenoma
b) glioma

A

adenoma

200
Q

Do malignant melanomas spread to brain?

a) yes
b) no

A

yes

201
Q

Gliomas are derived from?

a) Astrocytes
b) meningioma

A

Astrocytes

202
Q

What type of Brain tumour is most common and most aggressive?

a) Glioblastoma Multiforme
b) meningioma

A

a) Glioblastoma Multiforme

203
Q

Glioblastoma Multiforme spread through?

a) tracking trough white matter and css
b) tracking through grey matter

A

a) tracking trough white matter and css

204
Q

Mengiomas growth rate?

a) Slow
b) fast

A

Slow

205
Q

Where do Meningiomas arise from?

a) Arachnoid
b) dural

A

Arachnoid

206
Q

How do Pituitary Adenomas present?

a) Visual Disturbance and Hormone Imbalance
b) Hearing disturbance

A

Visual Disturbance and Hormone Imbalance

207
Q

How do Pituitary Adenomas Present?

a) Epileptic Fits and CSF Obstruction
b) Headaches

A

Epileptic Fits and CSF Obstruction

208
Q

Raised ICP Signs

a) Papilloedema, 6th Nerve Palsy, 3rd Nerve Palsy
b) Faints

A

Papilloedema, 6th Nerve Palsy, 3rd Nerve Palsy

209
Q

How much CSF is produced per day?

a) 400-450
b) 200-300

A

400-450

210
Q

Brain Tumour Medication?

a) Dexamethasone
b) Chemotherapy

A

Dexamethasone

211
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme Treatment?

a) Biopsy or Debulk only
b) surgery

A

Biopsy or Debulk only

212
Q

If suspect intracranial mass lesion what should you not do?

a) Lumbar puncture
b) CT

A

Lumbar puncture

213
Q

Common Primary Benign Brain Tumours?

a) Menigioma and Pituitary Adenoma
b) Glioblastoma

A

Menigioma and Pituitary Adenoma

214
Q

Normal ICP

a) 5-15cm of Water
b) 30-35cm of water

A

5-15cm of Water

215
Q

Cerebral Blood flow makes up what percentage of cardiac output?

a) 14%
b) 25%

A

14%

216
Q

Cerebral Perfussion Pressure is

a) Difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP)
b) stroke volume

A

Difference between mean arterial pressure (MAP) and intracranial pressure (ICP)

217
Q

PaCO2 has what influence on CSF?

a) significant influence
b) no influence

A

significant influence

218
Q

Brain tissues uses what exclusively for metabolism?

a) glucose and ketones
b) sugar

A

glucose and ketones

219
Q

What happens to blood volume after brain injury?

a) Increase due to vasodilation
b) decrease due to vasoconstriction

A

Increase due to vasodilation

220
Q

Battle’s sign is a common bruise with what type of fracture?

a) Fracture of pertrous temporal bone
b) brain tumour

A

Fracture of pertrous temporal bone

221
Q

most common skull fracture

a) linear
b) commisurate

A

linear

222
Q

Extra dural haematoma commonly associated with

a) fracture of squamous temporal bone
b) brain tumour

A

fracture of squamous temporal bone

223
Q

Extra dural haematoma commonly looks like

a) Typically egg/lens shaped haematomas
b) crescent shaped

A

Typically egg/lens shaped haematomas

224
Q

What happens in extra dural haematoma?

a) lucid interval
b) ongoing

A

lucid interval

225
Q

What happens in sub dural haematoma

a) Usually from shearing/tearing of bridging veins
b) middle cerebral arteries

A

Usually from shearing/tearing of bridging veins

226
Q

Subdural Haematomas are said to be

a) Crescent Shaped
b) egg shaped

A

Crescent Shaped

227
Q

Extradural Haematomas are said to be

a) egg shaped
b) crescent shaped

A

egg shaped

228
Q

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage is said to be

a) Worst ever headache
b) manageable headache

A

Worst ever headache

229
Q

Diffuse Axonal Injury. Patient is said to be

a) Likely in a coma by diagnosis
b) fine

A

Likely in a coma by diagnosis

230
Q

Depressed skull fracture common location

a) Orbit and Squamous Temporal Bone
b) mandible bone

A

Orbit and Squamous Temporal Bone

231
Q

Subaxial spine is where?

a) C3-6
b) c7

A

C3-6

232
Q

C1 has no what?

a) Body or spinous process
b) transverse process

A

Body or spinous process

233
Q

Biceps Reflex is where?

a) C5-6
b) c6-c7

A

C5-6

234
Q

Supinator Reflex is where?

a) C6-7
b) c5-6

A

C6-7

235
Q

Triceps Reflex is where?

a) C7-8
b) c6-7

A

C7-8

236
Q

Knee Jerk reflex is where?

a) L1-4
b) s1-s2

A

L1-4

237
Q

Ankle Jerk reflex is where?

a) s1-S2
b) L1-4

A

s1-S2

238
Q

Loss of bulbocavernous reflex commonly seen in

a) Spinal shock, conus medullaris and cauda equina
b) brain tumour

A

Spinal shock, conus medullaris and cauda equina

239
Q

Spinal cord starts from

a) Foramen Magnum
b) foramen munro

A

Foramen Magnum

240
Q

Cervical enlargement is

a) C5-T1
b) L2-L3

A

C5-T1

241
Q

Lumbosacral enlargement is

a) L2-S3
b) c5-t1

A

L2-S3

242
Q

Lateral Spinothalamic tract is for

a) Pain and Temperature
b) sensory

A

Pain and Temperature

243
Q

Dorsal Column is for

a) Sensory
b) pain and temp

A

Sensory

244
Q

Neural Plate is formed by

a) Ectoderm
b) endoderm

A

Ectoderm

245
Q

Neural plate forms

a) Brain and Spinal Cord
b) heart

A

Brain Spinal Cord

246
Q

Anterior Neuropore closes

a) 24 days
b) 50 days

A

24 days

247
Q

Failure to close anterior neuropore results in

a) Ancephalopathy
b) brain bleed

A

Ancephalopathy

248
Q

Posterior Neuropore closes

a) 26-28 days
b) 30-32 days

A

26-28 days

249
Q

Posterior neurpore failure to close

a) Spina bifida
b) brain bleed

A

Spina bifida

250
Q

Alpha Fetoprotein monitored which week of pregnancy?

a) 16 weeks
b) 18 weeks

A

16 weeks

251
Q

Spina Bifida Occulta is

a) Closed Spina Bifida
b) open spina bifida

A

Closed Spina Bifida

252
Q

Spina Bifida results in

a) Lower Limb Deficit
b) upper limb deficit

A

Lower Limb Deficit

253
Q

Treatment for myelomeningocele?

a) Primary surgical closure
b) secondary surgical clos

A

Primary surgical closure

254
Q

Myelomeningocele is said to be

a) Transopaque with neurological deficit
b) Translucent with no neurological deficit

A

Transopaque with neurological deficit

255
Q

Pyogeneic Vertebral Osteomyelitis or Discitis. common organism?

a) Staph aureus or Strep
b) meningioma

A

Staph aureus or Strep

256
Q

Extramedullary tumours?

a) Meningoma, Neurofibroma, Schwanoma
b) Glioma

A

Meningoma, Neurofibroma, Schwanoma

257
Q

Tumour Test Gold Standard?

a) MRI
b) CT

A

MRI

258
Q

Hyperacute Haematoma is

a) <24 hours
b) >24 hours

A

<24 hours

259
Q

Subacute Haematoma is

a) >3 days
b) <3 days

A

> 3 days

260
Q

Cauda Equina syndrome affects which nerve roots?

a) Lumbar and Sacral
b) thoracic

A

Lumbar and Sacral

261
Q

Which inflammatory condition can cause cauda equina syndrome?

a) Ankolysing Spondolyitis
b) meningitis

A

Ankolysing Spondolyitis

262
Q

Which infection can cause cauda equina syndrome?

a) Spinal epidural abscess
b) spinal pia abscess

A

Spinal epidural abscess

263
Q

Decreased anal tone can present in which condition along with absence of ankle reflex

a) cauda equina
b) spina bifida

A

cauda equina

264
Q

Gold standard test for Cauda Equina

a) MRI
b) ct

A

MRI

265
Q

Complete cauda equina is said to be?

a) Incontinence/Retention
b) decreased sensation

A

Incontinence/Retention

266
Q

In a Primary Spinal Cord Injury what happens to axons?

a) Undergoes Wallerian Degeneration
b) nothing happens

A

Undergoes Wallerian Degeneration

267
Q

Spinal shock implies an injury is above?

a) T1
b) L1

A

T1

268
Q

Which reflex is lost in Spinal shock and then returned?

a) Bulbocavernous reflex
b) triceps reflex

A

Bulbocavernous reflex

269
Q

Central Cord Syndrome presents with?

a) weakness in upper limbs
b) weakness in lower limbs

A

weakness in upper limbs

270
Q

In Anterior Cord Syndrome. If above C7 what happens?

a) Paraplegia or Quadriplegia
b) nothing

A

Paraplegia or Quadriplegia

271
Q

Is Two point preserved in anterior cord syndrome?

a) Yes
b) no

A

Yes

272
Q

Brown Sequard Syndrome is also?

a) Cord hemisection
b) bleed

A

Cord hemisection

273
Q

What happens to pain and temperature in brown sequard?

a) Contralateral loss one level below lesion (lateral spinothalamic tract)
b) unilateral loss one level below lesion

A

Contralateral loss one level below lesion (lateral spinothalamic tract)

274
Q

What happens regarding posterior columns in Brown Sequard syndrome?
Ipsilateral loss of sensation

A

Ipsilateral loss of sensation

275
Q

What happens regarding posterior columns in Brown Sequard syndrome?

a) Ipsilateral loss of sensation
b) contralateral loss of sensation

A

Ipsilateral loss of sensation

276
Q

Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

a) Unenhanced CT
b) MRI

A

Unenhanced CT

277
Q

Treatment of ruptured intracranial aneurysm?

a) Endovascular coil embolisation or clipping
b) warfarin

A

Endovascular coil embolisation or clipping

278
Q

Cerebellar strokes cause

a) Ataxia/Nystagmus
b) dizziness

A

Ataxia/Nystagmus

279
Q

Left posterior cerebral artery supplies

a) right visual field
b) left visual field

A

right visual field

280
Q

right posterior cerebral artery supplies

a) left visual field
b) right visual field

A

left visual field

281
Q

right middle cerebral artery supplies

a) left body
b) right body

A

left body

282
Q

left middle cerebral artery supplies

a) right body and language
b) left body

A

right body and language

283
Q

Memory is affected by

a) Limbic System (Hippocampus and Diencephalon)
b) forebrain

A

Limbic System (Hippocampus and Diencephalon)

284
Q

Foramina of munro connects

a) two lateral ventricles to third ventricle
b) 3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

A

two lateral ventricles to third ventricle

285
Q

Mesencephalic duct connects

a) two lateral ventricles to third ventricle
b) 3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

A

3rd ventricle to fourth ventricle

286
Q

What is the Pterion?

a weak spot in skull

A

a weak spot in skull

287
Q

What is the Pterion?

a) a weak spot in skull
b) fracture in skull

A

a weak spot in skull

288
Q

What does the Hippocampus do?

a) Forms memories, learning
b) breathing

A

Forms memories, learning

289
Q

What does cortex do?

a) Stores memories
b) breathing

A

Stores memories

290
Q

what does thalamus do?

a) Searches memories
b) breathing

A

Searches memories

291
Q

Memories are formed in which system?

a) Limbic
b) brainstem

A

Limbic

292
Q

Amygdala is involved in?

a) emotion and memory
b) language

A

emotion and memory

293
Q

People with bilateral hippocampal damage have what kind of memory?

a) immediate sensory memory
b) long term memory retention

A

immediate sensory memory

294
Q

People with bilateral hippocampal damage are unable to do what?

a) form new long term memories
b) form short term memories

A

form new long term memories

295
Q

What does Anterograde memory mean?

a) Cannot form new memories
b) cannot remember long term memories

A

Cannot form new memories

296
Q

What does retrograde memory mean?

a) Cannot access old memories
b) cannot make new memories

A

Cannot access old memories

297
Q

What is Korsakoff Syndrome?

a) Chronic Alcoholism with B1 deficiency
b) excess sodium

A

Chronic Alcoholism with B1 deficiency

298
Q

Which neurones are responsible for REM sleep?

a) Cholinergic
b) muscarinic

A

Cholinergic

299
Q

Which part of brain does sleep originate in?

a) reticular formation of brain stem
b) parietal lobe

A

a) reticular formation of brain stem

300
Q

Melatonin is released from where?

a) Pineal Gland
b) parotid gland

A

Pineal Gland

301
Q

What inhibits pineal gland?

a) Inhibitory Neurone from Suprachiasmatic nuclei
b) Inhibitory Neurone from brainstem

A

Inhibitory Neurone from Suprachiasmatic nuclei

302
Q

Which neurotransmitter that is released from hypothalamus is required for wakefulness?

a) orexin
b) ach

A

a) orexin

303
Q

Serotonin does what in sleep?

a) helps sleep
b) hinders sleep

A

a) helps sleep

304
Q

Alpha sleep waves are

a) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude
b) very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake

A

relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

305
Q

Beta sleep waves are?

a) very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake
b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

A

very high frequency, low amplitude, alert awake

306
Q

Theta sleep waves are associated with?

a) early sleep, low frequency
b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

A

early sleep, low frequency

307
Q

Delta sleep waves are associated with?

a) Deep sleep, very low frequency, high amplitude
b) relaxed awake state. High frequency, medium amplitude

A

Deep sleep, very low frequency, high amplitude

308
Q

Dreams occur during

a) REM sleep
b) deep sleep

A

REM sleep

309
Q

Hippocampus is very active when?

a) Deep sleep
b) rem sleep

A

Deep sleep

310
Q

Narcolepsy enter directly into what type of sleep?

a) REM
b) deep sleep

A

REM

311
Q

Ab Primary afferent fibres are?

a) large myelinated for pressure, vibration
b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

A

large myelinated for pressure, vibration

312
Q

Aδ primary afferent fibres are?

a) large myelinated for pressure, vibration
b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

A

small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

313
Q

C primary afferent fibres are?

a) unmyelinated fibres for warmth and slow pain
b) small myelinated, cost, pain, pressure

A

unmyelinated fibres for warmth and slow pain

314
Q

Proprioception is mediated by?

a) Aα & Aβ
b) c fibres

A

Aα & Aβ

315
Q

All primary afferent fibres enter spinal cord via?

a) Dorsal root ganglia
b) ventral root ganglia

A

Dorsal root ganglia

316
Q

Mechanoreceptive fibres project straight up through?

a) Ipsilateral dorsal columns
b) unilateral dorsal columns

A

Ipsilateral dorsal columns

317
Q

Mechanoreceptive fibres project to?

a) Reticular formation, thalamus and cortex
b) midbrain

A

Reticular formation, thalamus and cortex

318
Q

Thermoreceptive and Nociceptive Fibres synapse where?

a) dorsal horn
b) ventral horn

A

DORSAL HORN

319
Q

Thermoreceptive and Nociceptive Fibres project up through?

a) Contralateral spinothalamic tract
b) lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Contralateral spinothalamic tract

320
Q

Damage to dorsal columns causes?

a) Loss of sensation below lesion on ipsilateral side
b) loss of motor below lesion on ipsilateral side

A

Loss of sensation below lesion on ipsilateral side

321
Q

Damage to anterolateral quadrant causes?

a) Loss of sensation below lesion on contralateral side
b) loss of motor

A

Loss of sensation below lesion on contralateral side

322
Q

activity in which fibres activates inhibitory interneurones?

a) Aβ fibres
b) c fibres

A

Aβ fibres

323
Q

What do local anesthetics do?

a) block Na+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission
b) block ca+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission

A

block Na+ action potential and therefore all axonal transmission

324
Q

What do opiates do?

a) block transmitter release in dorsal horn
b) activate descending inhibitory pathways

A

block transmitter release in dorsal horn

325
Q

what do opiates do?

a) activate descending inhibitory pathways
b) block transmitter release in dorsal horn

A

activate descending inhibitory pathways

326
Q

Indications to Perform MRI?

a) Demylination
b) myelination

A

Demylination

327
Q

Do you see wasting of muscles in LMN?

a) yes
b) no

A

YES

328
Q

Do you see hyperreflexia in UMN?

a) Yes
b) no

A

YES

329
Q

Do you see a Positive Babinski Response in UMN?

a) Yes
b) no

A

YES

330
Q

What is myelitis?

a) Inflammation of spinal cord
b) inflammation of brain

A

Inflammation of spinal cord

331
Q

Viral cause of Meningitis?

a) Enterovirus
b) strep

A

Enterovirus

332
Q

Encephalitis is said to have a

a) Flu like prodrome
b) sudden sickness

A

Flu like prodrome

333
Q

Auto immune Encephalitis is associated with?

a) Anti VGKC and Anti NMDA
b) Coma

A

Anti VGKC and Anti NMDA

334
Q

Auto Immune Encephalitis Anti VGKC is associated with?

a) Frequent Seizures and Amnesia
b) Progressing to movement disorder and coma.

A

Frequent Seizures and Amnesia

335
Q

Auto Immune Encephalitis Anti NMDA is associated with

a) Progressing to movement disorder and coma.
b) Frequent Seizures and Amnesia

A

Progressing to movement disorder and coma.

336
Q

Meningitis tests?
a)Bloods and Lumbar Puncture
B)ct or MRI

A

Bloods and Lumbar Puncture

337
Q

Encephalitis Tests?

a) Bloods, CT, MRI, EEG
b) lumbar puncture

A

Bloods, CT, MRI, EEG

338
Q

Indication for CT before lumbar puncture?

a) focal neurological deficit
b) rash

A

a) focal neurological deficit

339
Q

In bacterial meningitis what happens to cell count?

a) High neutrophils and reduced glucose
b) low neutrophils and reduced glucose

A

High neutrophils and reduced glucose

340
Q

In viral meningitis and encephalitis what happens to cell count

a) high lymphocytes and normal glucose
b) low lymphocytes and normal glucose

A

high lymphocytes and normal glucose

341
Q

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis treatment?

a) Aciclovir
b) injection

A

ACICLOVIR

342
Q

What is a rare complication of Herpes Simplex?

a) Encephalitis
b) meningitis

A

Encephalitis

343
Q

Enteroviruses are spread by?

a) Faecal Oral route
b) coughing

A

Faecal Oral route

344
Q

Arbovirus Encephalitis transmission?

a) By Vector
b) blood

A

By Vector

345
Q

Subdural empyema location?

a) between dura and arachnoid
b) between dura and Pia

A

between dura and arachnoid

346
Q

Brain abscess bacteria?

a) Streptocci
b) staph

A

Streptocci

347
Q

Polomyeltitis is caused by?

a) Enterovirus
b) strep

A

Enterovirus

348
Q

Polomyeltitis infects?

a) Anterior horn cells LMN
b) posterior horn cells

A

Anterior horn cells LMN

349
Q

Tetanus is

a) Anaerobic gram positive
b) aerobic gram positive

A

Anaerobic gram positive

350
Q

Tetanus causes

a) Rigidity and spasm
b) flex

A

Rigidity and spasm

351
Q

Botulism is

a) Anaerobic gram positive
b) anaerobic gram negative

A

Anaerobic gram positive

352
Q

How long is incubation period for botulism?

a) 4-14 days
b) 2 days

A

4-14 days

353
Q

Botulism is said to be

a) Pure motor
b) pure sensory

A

Pure motor

354
Q

How to diagnose botulism?

a) nerve conduction studies
b) Sri

A

nerve conduction studies

355
Q

Sporadic CJD is said to be related to?

a) Rapidly progressive dementia
b) slow progressive dementia

A

Rapidly progressive dementia

356
Q

Sporadic CJD is said to be related to?

a) Myoclonus
b) flaccidity

A

Myoclonus

357
Q

GCS of 15?

a) Best
b) worst

A

Best

358
Q

A contre-coup fracture is said to be caused by?

a) Fall onto back of head
b) brain tumour

A

Fall onto back of head

359
Q

Extradural Haemorrhage bleeding commonly from

a) Middle Meningeal artery
b) cerebral artery

A

Middle Meningeal artery

360
Q

Diffuse Traumatic Axonal Injury diagnosis can only be made by?

a) Microscopy of brain tissue
b) MRI

A

Microscopy of brain tissue

361
Q

Squeeze on optic nerve causes?

a) Papilloedema
b) hearing issues

A

Papilloedema

362
Q

A meningioma is said to be

a) Benign
b) malignant

A

Benign

363
Q

Multiple Sclerosis affects which nerve system?

a) Central Nervous System and White Matter
b) peripheral nervous system

A

Central Nervous System and White Matter

364
Q

Primary progressive MS often presents in?

a) 5th and 6th decade
b) 1st decade

A

5th and 6th decade

365
Q

Which clinical criteria is used for MS?

a) Posers
b) dukes

A

Posers

366
Q

Which MRI criteria is used for MS?

a) macdonald
b) geneva

A

macdonald

367
Q

What is present in CSF of MS Patient?

a) Normal Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands
b) low Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands

A

Normal Glucose/Protein and Oligoclonal Bands

368
Q

How to treat acute relapse in MS?

a) Prednisolone
b) sodium valproate

A

Prednisolone

369
Q

B12 Deficient Myelopathy. Tests?

a) FBC,B12
b) MRI

A

FBC,B12

370
Q

Degeneration of Dorsal columns in B12 Deficient Myelopathy causes?

a) Sensory Ataxia
b) motor ataxia

A

Sensory Ataxia

371
Q

Degeneration of Corticospinal tracts in B12 Deficient myelopathy causes?

a) Paraplegia
b) quadriplegia

A

Paraplegia

372
Q

B12 Deficiency can cause?

a) Myelopathy, Optic Nerve issue
b) Hearing issues

A

a) Myelopathy, Optic Nerve issue

373
Q

Treatment for Spinal cord stroke?

a) Antiplatelets
b) warfarin

A

Antiplatelets

374
Q

Primary headache has?

a) No underlying cause
b) cause

A

No underlying cause

375
Q

Mid Bilateral Headache, Pressing, Not aggrieved by routine physical activity. what is it?

a) Tension type headache
b) migraine

A

Tension type headache

376
Q

How to treat tension type headache?

a) Aspirin or Paracetamol
b) nsaids

A

Aspirin or Paracetamol

377
Q

How to prevent tension type headache?

a) Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitryptiline
b) sodium valproate

A

Tricyclic antidepressant eg amitryptiline

378
Q

Acute migraine treatment?

a) Aspirin or NSAIDS
b) sodium valproate

A

Aspirin or NSAIDS

379
Q

Prophylactic treatment of migraine?

a) propranolol
b) sodium valproate

A

a) propranolol

380
Q

Chronic migraine can be defined as

a) headache on >15 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months
b) headache on >10 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months

A

headache on >15 days a month of which >8 days have to be migraine for more than 3 months

381
Q

Migraine without aura does what in pregnancy?

a) Gets better
b) gets worse

A

Gets better

382
Q

prophylactic Treatment for migraine in pregnancy?

a) propranolol or amitryptiline
b) sodium valproate

A

propranolol or amitryptiline

383
Q

What is a neuralgia?

a) intense burning or stabbing pain
b) syncope

A

intense burning or stabbing pain

384
Q

How long does Trigeminal Neuralgia last?

a) 5-10 seconds each
b) 20-30 seconds each

A

5-10 seconds each

385
Q

What is a common cause of trigeminal neuralgia?

a) compression of nerve
b) head injury

A

compression of nerve

386
Q

Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia?

a) Carbamazepine
b) sodium valproate

A

Carbamazepine

387
Q

Cluster headaches mainly affects?

a) Orbital and temporal
b) occipital

A

Orbital and temporal

388
Q

Cluster headaches are

a) strictly unilateral
b) strictly bilateral

A

strictly unilateral

389
Q

Cluster headaches. what happens to pain?

a) rapid cessation
b) continues

A

rapid cessation

390
Q

Cluster headaches treatment?

a) Subcutaneous sumatriptan or nasal zolmatriptan
b) nsaids

A

Subcutaneous sumatriptan or nasal zolmatriptan

391
Q

How to prevent cluster headaches?

a) Verapamil
b) sodium valproate

A

Verapamil

392
Q

SUNCT is said to have what?

a) no refractory period
b) refractory period

A

no refractory period

393
Q

SUNCT Pain?

a) Unilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal
b) bilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal

A

Unilateral orbital, supraorbital or temporal

394
Q

SUNCT Prophylaxis?

a) Lamotrigine
b) sodium valproate

A

Lamotrigine

395
Q

Thunderclap onset in headache is?

a) Sinister
b) normal

A

Sinister

396
Q

Thunderclup headache differential?

a) Subarachnoid Haemorrhage or TIA/Stroke
b) meningitis

A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage or TIA/Stroke

397
Q

Complications of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

a) Vasospasm/Hydrocephalus
b) vasoconstriction

A

Vasospasm/Hydrocephalus

398
Q

Treatment of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

a) Coiling or Clipping and Nimodipine
b) warfarin

A

Coiling or Clipping and Nimodipine

399
Q

Raised CSF pressure is present in?

Hydrocephalus

A

Hydrocephalus

400
Q

Raised CSF pressure is present in?

a) Hydrocephalus
b) brain leak

A

Hydrocephalus

401
Q

What is Intracranial Hypotension?

a) Dural CSF Leak
b) pia csf LEAK

A

Dural CSF Leak

402
Q

Test for Intracranial Hypotension?
A)MRI Brain and Spine
B)CT

A

MRI Brain and Spine

403
Q

Treatment for Intracranial Hypotension?
A)Rest
B) drain

A

rest

404
Q

Giant Cell Arteritis should be considered in any patient with new headache over

a) >50
b) <50

A

> 50

405
Q

Giant cell arteritis features?

a) scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and visual disturbance
b) scalp looseness

A

a) scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and visual disturbance

406
Q

Giant cell arteritis features?

a) enlarged temporal arteries
b) enlarged carotid arteries

A

a) enlarged temporal arteries

407
Q

Giant cell arteritis treatment?

a) high dose prednisolone
b) drain

A

high dose prednisolone

408
Q

Complex partial seizures originate from?

a) temporal lobe
b) occipital lobe

A

temporal lobe

409
Q

First line epilepsy treatment for Generalised Epilepsy?

a) Sodium Valproate
b) Topiramate
c) Zonisamide
d) Brivaracetam

A

Sodium Valproate

410
Q

First line treatment for partial and secondary seizures in epilepsy?

a) Lamotrigine
b) Topiramide
c) Zonisamide

A

Lamotrigine

411
Q

First line treatment for absence seizures in epilepsy?

a) Ethosuzimide
b) Clobazam
c) Clonazepam
d) Vigabatrin

A

Ethosuzimide

412
Q

Sodium valproate side effect?

a) Tremor and Ataxia
b) sickness

A

Tremor and Ataxia

413
Q

Carbamazepine side effect?

a) Ataxia, Nystagmus
b) dizziness

A

Ataxia, Nystagmus

414
Q

Lamotrigine side effect?

a) skin rash
b) dizzy

A

skin rash

415
Q

Status Epilepticus treatment?

Midazolam

A

Midazolam

416
Q

A patient presents with epilepsy. How long do they have to be seizure free?
1 year for a car, 5 years lorry

A

1 year for a car, 5 years lorry

417
Q

Which blood is important to test for muscle disease?

a) creatine kinase

A

a) creatine kinase

418
Q

Contractile cause of muscle disease?

Congenital myopathy

A

Congenital myopathy

419
Q

Which blood is important to test for muscle disease?

a) creatine kinase
b) CRP

A

a) creatine kinase

420
Q

Contractile cause of muscle disease?

a) Congenital myopathy
b) congenital heart disease

A

Congenital myopathy

421
Q

Structural cause of muscle disease?

a) Muscular dystrophy
b) muscular atrophy

A

Muscular dystrophy

422
Q

Inflammatory Muscle Disease is said to be?

a) Autoimmune
b) bacterial

A

Autoimmune

423
Q

How to test for Inflammatory Muscle Disease?

a) EMG and Biopsy
b) Bloods

A

EMG and Biopsy

424
Q

How to treat inflammatory muscle disease?

a) Immunosuppression
b) saids

A

Immunosuppression

425
Q

Presentation of Myathenia Gravis?

a) Fatiguable Weakness, Ptosis and Diplopia
b) pain, headaches

A

Fatiguable Weakness, Ptosis and Diplopia

426
Q

How to test for Myathenia Gravis?

a) Ach receptor or anti musk antibodies
b) muscarinic receptor

A

Ach receptor or anti musk antibodies

427
Q

Treatment for Myathenia Gravis symptoms?

a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) saids

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

428
Q

Treatment for Myathenia Gravis Disease Modification?

a) Immunoglobulin
b) inhibitors

A

Immunoglobulin

429
Q

Peripheral nerve diseases shows signs related to?

a) LMN
b) UMN

A

LMN

430
Q

How to treat Peripheral nerve disease?

a) Treat cause
b) nothing

A

Treat cause

431
Q

Voluntary control of movement is from?

a) Precentral Gyrus
b) postcentral gyrus

A

Precentral Gyrus

432
Q

Bladder control is from?

a) Paracentral lobule
b) precentral lobul

A

Paracentral lobule

433
Q

What is ataxia?

a) unsteady/clumsy movement
b) pain

A

unsteady/clumsy movement

434
Q

Modulation of Pain is done in?

a) Descending Tracts
b) ascending tracts

A

Descending Tracts

435
Q

Nociceptors are related to?

a) Free nerve endings of a delta and c fibres.
b) Free nerve endings of b fibres

A

Free nerve endings of a delta and c fibres.

436
Q

Primary afferents/1st order neurone where are their cell bodies?

a) Dorsal root ganglion
b) ventral root

A

Dorsal root ganglion

437
Q

Primary afferents/1st order neurone where do they synapse?

a) spinal cord
b) brain

A

spinal cord

438
Q

Alpha and Beta fibres are?

a) Myelinated, Large, respond to sensory touch
b) unmyelinated

A

Myelinated, Large, respond to sensory touch

439
Q

Alpha c fibres repsond to?

a) Nociception
b) illness

A

Nociception

440
Q

C fibres are?

a) Unmylinated, Small, Respond to Pain
b) mylinated

A

Unmylinated, Small, Respond to Pain

441
Q

The Spinothalamic tract is part of the?

a) Ascending tract
b) descending trac

A

Ascending tract

442
Q

Which tract is the major tract sending impulses to thalamus?

a) Spinothalamic
b) corticospinal

A

Spinothalamic

443
Q

Spinomesenphalic tract is related to which part of the brain?

a) Brainstem
b) frontal lobe

A

Brainstem

444
Q

Spinoreticular tract is related to which part of brain?

a) Medulla
b) pons

A

Medulla

445
Q

Wind up involves only?

a) activated synapses
b) deactivated synapses

A

activated synapses

446
Q

Wind up is mediated by neurotransmitter substances?

a) P and CGRP
b) ERP

A

P and CGRP

447
Q

Na+ action potential does what to voltage gated ca+ channels?

a) activates
b) decreases

A

a) activates

448
Q

Activated Ca2+ channels triggers what?

a) Ca2+ dependent exocytosis
b) Na+ dependent endocytosis

A

Ca2+ dependent exocytosis

449
Q

What does blocking voltage gated Na channels do?

a) Reduces synaptic transmission
b) increases synaptic transmission

A

a) Reduces synaptic transmission

450
Q

what does activating presynaptic inhibitory receptors do?

a) reduces synaptic transmissions
b) increases synaptic transmission

A

a) reduces synaptic transmission

451
Q

What does blocking postsynaptic receptors do?

a) reduces synaptic transmission
b) increases synaptic transmission

A

a) reduces synaptic transmission

452
Q

What happens when you activate postsynaptic receptors with agonist?

a) Increase synaptic transmission
b) decrease synaptic transmission

A

Increase synaptic transmission

453
Q

What happens when you block breakdown or uptake of transmitter?

a) increase synaptic transmission
b) decrease synaptic transmission

A

Increase synaptic transmission

454
Q

What happens in Parkinsons Disease to Dopamine Cells?

a) Degeneration
b) generation

A

Degeneration

455
Q

Dopamine deficiency is where in Parkinsons?

a) Basal Ganglia
b) hypocampus

A

Basal Ganglia

456
Q

Dopamine Synthesis is from Glycine to what?

a) Alanine
b) phenyalanine

A

Alanine

457
Q

Dopamine Synthesis is from Alanine to what?

a) Phenyalanine
b) glycine

A

Phenyalanine

458
Q

Dopamine Synthesis is from Phenyalalnine to?

a) Tyrosine
b) dihydroxyphenyalanine

A

Tyrosine

459
Q

Dopamine Synthesis is from Tyrosine to?a)Dihydroxyphenyalalnine
b)alanine

A

Dihydroxyphenyalalnine

460
Q

Name a peripheral AAAD inhibitor?

carbidopa

A

carbidopa

461
Q

Name a MAOB Inhibitor?

Selegiline

A

Selegiline

462
Q

Name a COMT Inhibitor?

Entacapone

A

Entacapone

463
Q

COMT Inhibitors such as Entacapone and Opicapone? reduce metabolism of dopamine

A

reduce metabolism of dopamine

464
Q

Dopaminergic Drugs make Nausea, Vomiting, Psychosis?

Worse

A

worse

465
Q

Dopaminergic drugs for midline features eg dysarthria or balance do what?
fail to help

A

fail to help

466
Q

Dopaminergic Antagonist Antiemetics should they be used in Parkinsons?
No

A

no

467
Q

Vomiting centre in medulla is where?

Outside blood brain barrier

A

Outside blood brain barrier

468
Q

Which Dopamine Antagonist doesn’t cross blood brain barrier?

Domperiodne

A

Domperiodne

469
Q

Domperidone is what?

Dopamine Antagonist

A

Dopamine Antagonist

470
Q

Domperidone is classified as?

Anti emetic

A

Anti emetic

471
Q

Dopaminergic drugs may cause?

Dyskinesia

A

Dyskinesia

472
Q

MAO Inhibitors are?

Antidepressants

A

Antidepressants

473
Q

Selective 5HT Agonists can be used for?

Migraine

A

Migraine

474
Q

Gaba agonists are?

Anti epilepsy drugs

A

Anti epilepsy drugs

475
Q

Voluntary brain control of muscles is via?

a Motor neurones

A

a Motor neurones

476
Q

The spinal cord receives descending input via

Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

A

Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

477
Q

Stretch reflexes present?

in all muscles

A

in all muscles

478
Q

The spinal cord receives descending input via

a) Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract
b) Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Brainstem and Direct Cortical input via corticospinal pyramidal tract

479
Q

Stretch reflexes present?

a) in all muscles
b) in biceps only

A

in all muscles

480
Q

In the stretch reflex which nerves are activated in muscle spindle?

a) 1a afferent sensory nerves
b) 1b afferent sensory nerves

A

1a afferent sensory nerves

481
Q

In the stretch reflex what happens?

a) increased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn
b) decreased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn

A

increased number of action potentials in 1a afferents projecting through dorsal horn

482
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex?

a) one synapse, no interneurones involved
b) two synapses

A

one synapse, no interneurones involved

483
Q

What happens to agonist muscle in monosynaptic reflex?

a) muscle contracts
b) muscle relax

A

muscle contracts

484
Q

What happens to antagonist muscle in monosynaptic reflex?

a) stretch and relax
b) tense

A

stretch and reflex

485
Q

Which spindles are activated in monosynaptic reflex?

a) a motor neurones to antagonist muscle
b) b motor neurones to antagonist muscle

A

a motor neurones to antagonist muscle

486
Q

Inverse Stretch Reflex is caused by?

a) 1b afferent nerves from Golgi Tendon Organs
b) 1a afferent nerves from golgi tendon orga

A

1b afferent nerves from Golgi Tendon Organs

487
Q

Golgi tendon organs monitor?

a) muscle tension
b) muscle relax

A

muscle tension

488
Q

What happens in inverse stretch reflex?

a) 1b afferent nerves and sensory 1b afferent nerves
b) 1a afferent nerves

A

1b afferent nerves and sensory 1b afferent nerves

489
Q

Activation of inhibitory interneurones to agonist muscle causes?

a) Decrease in contraction strength
b) increase in contraction strength

A

Decrease in contraction strength

490
Q

What happens in inverse stretch reflex to excitatory interneurons?

a) activation to antagonist muscles
b) activation to agonist muscles

A

activation to antagonist muscles

491
Q

If an inhibitory interneuron is activated what happens?

a) relaxation and inhibitation
b) constriction

A

relaxation and inhabitation

492
Q

Flexor reflex causes?

a) Ipsilateral flexion
b) unilateral flexion

A

Ipsilateral flexion

Mixed Year 2 Questions (6 decks)

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