Nervous Flashcards

1
Q
1.	What is the most likely vessel damaged in an Extradural Haemorrhage?
A)	Opthalmic Artery
B)	Middle Cerebral Artery
C)	Middle Meningeal Artery
D)	Emissary Veins
E)	Bridging Veins
A

C) Middle Meningeal Artery

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2
Q

68 year old woman comes in with headache, blurred vision and sleepiness. Recovering alcoholic and has past medical history of falls. Examination reveals papilloedema and GCS of 12. On CT crescent shaped haemorrhage is identified that is not limited by cranial sutures.
Given more likely diagnosis what damaged vessel describes three signs and symptoms?
a) Emissary veins
b) Bridging Veins
c) Middle Meningeal Artery
d) Middle Cerebral Artery
e) Opthalmic Artery

A

b) bridging veins

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3
Q
A 57-year-old female attends the emergency department with a sudden onset of a severe occipital headache and has vomited 3 times in the past hour. An urgent CT scan finds no abnormalities, however, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later is positive for xanthochromia
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a)	Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
b)	Intracerebral Haemorrhage
c)	Extradural Haemorrhage
d)	Subdural Haemorrhage
e)	Diffuse Axonal Injury
A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

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4
Q

A SAH is diagnosed. Urgent neurosurgical review is requested and a CT cerebral angiography indicates a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise fit and well.
Which option is most likely to be the optimal treatment for the aneurysm?
a) Insertion of extraventricular drain
b) Coiling by interventional neuroradiologist
c) Extracranial intracranial bypass
d) Nimodipine only
e) Surgical clipping

A

b) Coiling by interventional neuroradiologist

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5
Q
All of the following are classical clinical features found in Parkinson’s Disease except?
a) Bradykinesia
B) Intention Tremor
C) Cogwheel Rigidity
D) Micrographia
E) Anosmia
A

B) Intention Tremor

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6
Q
What test would not be useful in determining an organic cause of dementia? 
a) Glucose
B) Thyroid Function tests
C) Neuroimaging
D) Vitamin B12
E) Nerve Conduction Studies
A

E) Nerve Conduction Studies

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7
Q
Which of the following diseases is Parkinsonism not a feature?
a) Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
B) Lewy body Dementia
C) Multiple System Atrophy
D) Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
E) Wilson’s Disease
A

D) Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

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8
Q
All the following medications are used in the treatment of parkinson’s disease except? 
a) COMT 
b) MAO-B
C) Atypical Antipsychotics
D) Dopamine Receptor Agonists
E) Levodopa
A

C) Atypical Antipsychotics

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9
Q
In which of the following conditions is dementia not a feature? 
a) Alzheimer’s Disease
B) Huntingtons
C) CJD
D) Pick’s Disease
e) Generalised Epilepsy
A

e) Generalised Epilepsy

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10
Q
A 71 year old man has progressive loss of short term memory. He has been experiencing visual hallucinations and is embarrassed to admit this. While the GP is talking to him she realises his right hand has a resting tremor
a) Vascular
B) Lewy Body
C) Fronto Temporal
D) Alzheimers
A

Lewy body

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11
Q
Jim is 57year old man who has come to the GP with his husband. His husband has noticed that Jim has been more aggressive and is exhibiting inappropriate behaviours when they are out in public. As the GP you ask about memory loss and there is no mention of any impairment. They are both worried about the gradual change in personality
a) Vascular
B) Lewy Body
C) Fronto Temporal
D) Alzheimers
A

Fronto Temporal

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12
Q
Margaret is a 78 year old woman who has presented to the GP with some concerns about her memory. Her husband has come with her today and he says that over the last 3 years she has had some sudden deteriorations, where he has noticed she has got considerably worse in a short period of time. BUt then she stays stable after these drops.  She has a history of difficulty controlling her hypertension
a) Vascular
B) Lewy Body
C) Fronto Temporal
D) Alzheimers .
A

Vascular

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13
Q
A 85 year old man comes to the GP with a 12 month history of gradual decline in memory. His daughter has urged him to come to the doctor to get checked over as he is forgetting appointments, and even how to do some simple tasks that he has done his whole life eg. cooking his famous macaroni 
a) Vascular
B) Lewy Body
C) Fronto Temporal
D) Alzheimers
A

Alzheimers

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14
Q

Which of the following is the most common primary tumour in adults?

a) Medulloblastoma
b) Ependymoma
c) Glioblastoma Multiforme
d) Cranipharyngioma
e) Meningioma

A

c) Glioblastoma Multiforme

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15
Q

On a CT head of a 50 year old patient a tumour is identified in the cerebellum. Which of the following might you elicit in examination of this patient? (Select all that apply)

a) Hypotonia
b) Intention Tremor
c) Slurred Speech
d) Hearing Loss
e) Past Pointing
f) Nstagmus
g) Dysdiachochokinesia
h) Ataxia
i) Dementia
j) Visual Problems

A
A Hypotonia
C Slurred Speech
E Past Pointing
F Nystagmus
G) Dysdiachocokinesia
H) Ataxia
J Visual Problems
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16
Q

Which of the following subtypes of brain tumour does not fall under the umbrella term of a ‘Glioma’?

a) Astrocytomae)
b) Oligodendroglioma
c) Glioblastoma Multiforme
d) Ependymomas
e) Meningoma

A

e) Meningoma

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17
Q

Select all options from the list below that describe the pathological features of a meningioma

a) Majority Benign
b) Compression symptoms rather than direct invasion
c) Respond to chemotherapy
d) Arise from dura mater
e) Majority Malignant

A

d) Arise from dura mater

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18
Q

Which of the following primary cancers does not commonly metastasise to the brain?

a) Renal
b) Breast
c) Pancreatic
d) Colorectal
e) Lung

A

Pancreatic

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19
Q

Which of the following is the most common malignant tumour in children?

a) Glioblastoma Multiforme
b) Pilocytic Astrocytoma
c) Cranipharyngioma
d) Medullablastoma
e) Meningoma

A

d) Medullablastoma

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20
Q

Which type of herniation syndrome is most worrying as it can cause cardiovascular and respiratory compromise?

a) Subfalcine (Supratentorial)
b) Central (Supratentorial)
c) Transtentorial (Supratentorial)
d) Tonsillar (Infratentorial)
e) Transcalvarial (supratentorial)

A

d) Tonsillar (Infratentorial)

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21
Q

In uncal herniation (transtentorial herniation) which concerning clinical sign may be elicited on examination?

a) Ipsilateral constricted pupil
b) Up and in position of ipsilateral eye
c) Down and out position of ipsilateral
d) Bitemporal hemianopia
e) Adduction of ipsilateral eye

A

c) Down and out position of ipsilateral

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22
Q

Which of the following would you NOT test for in a test for brain stem death? Select one or more

a) Patellar tendon reflex
b) Oculovestibular reflex
c) Pupillary light reflex
d) Respiratory effect on discontinuation of ventilation
e) Corneal reflex
f) Supraorbital pressure response
g) Gag reflex
h) Babinski reflex

A

A) Patellar Tendon Reflex

H) Babinski Reflex

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23
Q

What is the criteria for brain stem death testing? Tick all that apply:

a) Reversible causes excluded
b) Normal electrolytes
c) Deep coma of unknown cause
d) No sedation

A

a) Reversible causes excluded

c) Deep coma of unknown cause

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24
Q

A few days later, the patient has deteriorated and you go to speak to the family to explain that the patient is in a coma and you think it is time to start thinking about brain stem death testing.
Who can test Brain Stem Death?

a. 2 doctors, with at least 1 a consultant and both with experience of BSDT and at least 5 years PG experience, with testing taking place on 2 separate occasions
b. GP and Consultant together
c. 3 doctors, with at least 2 being consultants
d. A member of the transplant team
e. FY1 supervised by CT2

A

a. 2 doctors, with at least 1 a consultant and both with experience of BSDT and at least 5 years PG experience, with testing taking place on 2 separate occasions

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25
Q

A 35 year old male was involved in a head on collision with a tractor whilst riding his motorbike through the country roads in Aberdeenshire. He was airlifted to ARI where he was initially seen by the consultant in A+E resus. He is now in ICU and as the registrar in Neurosurgery you have been asked to go and assess him. He does not open his eyes and is unresponsive when you speak to him. He extends his right elbow, internally rotates his shoulder and flexes his elbow in response to pain.
What is his GCS?

a) 4
b) 9
c) 15
d) 3

A

9

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26
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
a) Raised Intracranial Pressure

A

Mydriasis

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27
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
b) Pilocarpine

A

Miosis

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28
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
c) Stimulants such as Coccaine

A

Mydriasis

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29
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
d) Cluster headaches

A

Miosis

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30
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
E) Horner Syndrome

A

Miosis

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31
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
F) Argyll Robertson Pupil

A

Miosis

32
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
G) Third Nerve Palsy

A

Mydriasis

33
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
H) Holmes Adie Syndrome

A

Mydriasis

34
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
I) Anticholinergics

A

Mydriasis

35
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
J) Nicotine

A

Miosis

36
Q

From the list below state whether the disease would cause a Mydriasis (dilated pupi) or Miosis (constricted pupil)
K) Opiates

A

Miosis

37
Q

What cranial nerves emerge from the pontomedullary junction?

a. facial nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. trigeminal nerve
d. abducens nerve
e. vestibulocochlear nerve

A

Facial Nerve
Abducens Nerve
Vestibulochlear nerve

38
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the Inferior oblique muscle of the eye?

a. Facial Nerve (CN VII)
b. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
c. Optic Nerve (CN II)
d. Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
e. Abducens Nerve (CN VI)

A

b. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

39
Q
What cranial nerve has a special visceral component that is responsible for taste to the posterior ⅓ of the tongue? 
Select one:
a. CN X
b. CN VII
c. CN V
d. CN IX  
e. CN XII
A

d. CN IX

40
Q

You want to examine Mr Smith’s cranial nerves as he has to come to see you today complaining of double vision. Whilst looking forward his left eye turns adducted. When you ask him to look to his right there is no obvious squint. But when he looks toward his left he is unable to abduct the left eye and double vision worsens. What is the most likely underlying problem?

Select one:

a. Right 4th nerve palsy
b. Right 3rd nerve palsy
c. Left 6th nerve palsy
d. Right 6th nerve palsy
e. Left 3rd nerve palsy

A

c. Left 6th nerve palsy

41
Q

A 22 year old patient presents to an emergency appointment with a 4-day history of pain behind her right ear. She has woken up today with a facial paralysis. You notice her mouth is drooping downwards on the right and she cannot completely close her right eye. Given the most likely diagnosis is Bell’s Palsy, what finding would you expect if you asked the patient to raise her right eyebrow and why?

Select one:

a. Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell’s palsy is due to an upper motor neuron lesion
b. Ability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell’s Palsy only affects the facial muscles below the level of the eyebrow
c. Ability to raise the left eyebrow as normal because Bell’s palsy does not affect the facial nerve
d. Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell’s palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion
e. Ability to raise the left eyebrow as frontalis muscle is not affected by Bell’s palsy

A

d. Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell’s palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion

42
Q

You are called to do a house visit for a 30-year-old woman who is unable to get to your surgery. She was previously fit and well, apart from having ‘a bit of a cold’, but this morning she woke up feeling very dizzy with the sensation that the room is spinnin. She feels too ill to leave the house. She has vomited twice this morning. Her hearing is normal on examination, and she is not experiencing tinnitus.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Vertigo
b. Vestibular Neuronitis
c. Meniere’s Disease
d. Acoustic neuroma
e. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

b. Vestibular Neuronitis

43
Q

A 70-year old woman presents to the Emergency Department by ambulance. She had a severe headache and nausea then had a subsequent epileptic fit. Fundoscopy shows papilloedema. She complains of diplopia when asked to look laterally.
What is the most likely cranial nerve responsible for the symptoms?

Select one:

a. Trochlear Nerve
b. Trigeminal Nerve
c. Oculomotor nerve
d. Optic Nerve
e. Abducens Nerve

A

Abducens Nerve

44
Q
Which of the following is not a cause of Facial nerve palsy?
Select one:
a. Guillain–Barré syndrome
b. Herpes Zoster Virus 
c. Quinsy  
d. Parotid tumours
e. Otitis Media
A

Quinssy

45
Q

Unilateral Upper Motor Lesions may occur in? Tick all that apply
A) Cerebrovasuclar Accidents (Strokes)
B) Tumours

A

All

46
Q

Bilateral Upper motor lesions may occur in? Tick all that apply
A) Pseudobulbar Palsies
B) Motor Neurone Disease

A

All

47
Q

A 34 year old lady is admitted with visual disturbance. On examination she is noted to have mydriasis and diminished direct response to light shone into the affected left eye. The consensual response in the affected eye is preserved. She also experiences pain in her left eye that comes on with movement. Her right eye is completely normal. She remembers that last year she developed some paresthesia in her left foot that resolved after a few weeks. She did not seek medical advice at the time.
What is the most likely cranial nerve responsible for the eyesymptoms?

Select one:

a. abducens nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Optic Nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
e. Trigeminal nerve

A

Optic nerve

48
Q

Sheila is a 65year old lady who was diagnosed with MS 25 years ago. Since the time of her diagnosis she has had weeks where she describes that her MS would flare then get better. She now presents to the GP because it has been 10 weeks since her most recent flare (bladder incontinence and gait abnormalities) and despite treatment she feels her symptoms are only getting worse as the weeks go on.
What pattern of disease does Sheila?

Select one:

a. Previously had secondary progressive disease but has now developed primary progressive disease
b. Relapsing-remitting disease
c. Primary Progressive disease
d. Previously had Relapsing-remitting disease but has now developed secondary progressive disease
e. Secondary progressive Disease

A

d. Previously had Relapsing-remitting disease but has now developed secondary progressive disease

49
Q

A 40-year-old woman presents with a variety of symptoms including generalised skin tingling and headache. On examination she has hyperreflexia, spastic weakness and upgoing plantars. You consider the possibility that she has multiple sclerosis. What is the most common presentation of multiple sclerosis?

Select one:

a. Ophthalmoplegia
b. Optic Neuritis
c. Tremor
d. ataxia
e. Urinary incontinence

A

Optic Neuritis

50
Q

Jessica is 26year old lady present to A&E following a seizure. Her football coach has come with her in the ambulance. Her coach describes the incidents from today to the admitting doctor: Jessica received a tackle late into the first half of the match. The tackle resulted in both women knocking their heads together. Jessica was unconscious immediately after the knock to the head for about 1 minute but then got up on her own. She promised that was feeling fine to go on for the second half. However, after about 5 mins of playing Jessica had to come off the pitch as she said she was feeling sick. She sat down on the bench and then collapsed. She was seizing for 3 minutes before the ambulance arrived.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Intracerebral haemorrhage
b. Diffuse axonal injury
c. Subdural haemorrhage
d. Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
e. Extradural Haemorrhage

A

Extradural Haemorrhage

51
Q

Which investigation is most appropriate for diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis?

Select one:

a. Brain biopsy
b. MRI brain with contrast
c. Serum testing for JC virus titres
d. Blood tests for oligoclonal bands
e. MRI brain without contrast

A

MRI Brain with Contrast

52
Q

Mr Smith presents to his GP with a one day history of ophthalmoplegia and double vision. He was diagnosed with MS two years ago, this is his 3rd acute relapses since the time of diagnosis. What drug might reduce the length of his relapse?

Select one:
a. Natalizumab
b. Beta-interferon
c. Baclofen
d. Prednisolone  
e. Amitriptyline
Prednisolone
A

Prednisolone

53
Q

In the UK, what is the most causative organism in an adult affected by encephalitis?

Select one:

a. HIV
b. Togavirus
c. Rabies
d. Varicella Zoster Virus
e. Herpes Simplex Virus

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

54
Q

A 32-year-old woman visited her GP two weeks ago complaining of thick green nasal secretions, a fever and facial pain. There is tenderness on palpation of the maxillary and frontal sinuses. The patient was reassured that she was suffering from acute sinusitis which should resolve itself in 2-3 weeks without antibiotic therapy.

She now has a frontal headache with nausea. She is also having increasing difficulty lifting her right arm and leg. She presents herself to the emergency department with these new symptoms, whilst in the department, she has a seizure.

Which complication of acute sinusitis has she developed?

Select one:

a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
b. Meningitis
c. Cerebral stroke
d. Intracranial bleed
e. Cerebral abscess

A

Cerebral Abscess

55
Q

What is the most likely causative organism in neonatal meningitis?

Select one:

a. Group B Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Neiseria Meningitidis
d. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
e. Haemophilus influenzae

A

Group B Streptoccus

56
Q

A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a headache and photophobia. On examination the doctor notices a purpuric rash on his chest. He has a respiratory rate of 22/min, a heart rate of 140/min and a blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg
Which of the following tests should not be ordered in this patient?

Select one:

a. Meningococcal septicaemia is a contraindication to a lumbar puncture.
b. Serum lactate
c. Lumbar puncture
d. Blood glucose
e. Blood cultures

A

c. Lumbar puncture

57
Q

A 24-year-old man was admitted overnight with suspected meningitis. You are asked to review the initial microscopy results from the lumbar puncture. The culture is growing gram negative diplococci.
What is the most likely organism?

Select one:

a. Escherichia coli
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

c. Neisseria meningitidis

58
Q

A 31-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache. She has had ‘flu’ like symptoms for the past three days with the headache developing gradually yesterday. The headache is generalised and she is experiencing photophobia. On examination her temperature is 38.2º, pulse 96/min and blood pressure 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present but no focal neurological signs. On close inspection you notice a number of petechiae on her torso. She has been cannulated and blood (including cultures) have been taken.
What is the most appropriate next step?

Select one:

a. Arrange a CT head
b. IV cefotaxime
c. IV dexamethasone
d. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin
e. Perform a lumbar puncture

A

Mumps

59
Q

An 18 year-old with no significant medical history registers at a new GP practice when he moves to University. The practice reviews his immunisation history and sends him an invitation to have a vaccination.
Which of the following vaccinations should he receive if he has not had it previously?

Select one:

a. Men ACWY
b. Men B
c. Varicella
d. BCG

A

Men ACWY

60
Q

Which one of the following is a typical CSF result for viral meningitis?

Select one:

a. CSF cloudy, protein high, Glucose low, white cell count high (Neutrophils)
b. CSF clear, protein normal, glucose normal, white cell count normal
c. CSF clear-cloudy, protein high, glucose low, white cell count raised
d. CSF clear, protein normal, glucose slightly raised, white cell count high (lymphocytes)

A

d. CSF clear, protein normal, glucose slightly raised, white cell count high (lymphocytes)

61
Q
Denticulate ligaments are triangular  ligaments that anchor the spinal cord along its length, at each side. Which layer do they arise from?
Select one:
a. Arachnoid mater
b. Dura mater
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Pia mater
A

Pia Mater

62
Q
The vertebral arteries arise from which artery?
Select one:
a. External carotid
b. Internal Carotid
c. Subclavian   
d. Brachiocephalic
e. Thyrocervical trunk
Feedback
A

c. Subclavian

63
Q
At what vertebral level does the Common Carotid artery bifurcate?
Select one:
a. C4  
b. C3
c. C6
d. C5
e. C2
A

C4

64
Q
To what does the filum terminale attach distally?
Select one:
a. Coccyx  
b. Sacrum
c. L3
d. Disc between L1/L2
A

Coccyx

65
Q
What is the name given to the tapering conical end of the spinal cord?
Select one:
a. Cauda equina
b. Filum terminale
c. Conus medullaris  
d. Denticulate ligaments
e. Lumbar cistern
A

Condus Medullaris

66
Q
The diencephalon is closely related to which of the following?
Select one:
a. 3rd ventricle    
b. Cerebral aqueduct  
c. Central canal
d. Lateral ventricle  
e. 4th ventricle
A

3rd Ventricle

67
Q
Which of the following form part of the brainstem?
Select one:
a. Pineal gland  
b. Thalamus  
c. Pituitary  
d. Pyramid 
e.  Optic chiasm
A

Pyramid

68
Q

A 65 year old man with a history of prostate cancer presents to his GP with back pain. It has been bothering him for a couple of months now. He is concerned that his prostate cancer has come back and read on the internet that it can spread to your spine. Which of the following features of back pain would you consider as alarming?

Select one or more:

a. Weight loss
b. Pain following exercise
c. Thoracic pain
d. Pain on lying down supine

A

Pain on Lying Down Supine
Thoracic Pain
Weight Loss

69
Q
A 59 year old man has presented to the GP with a 6 month history of neck and back pain. The pain is described as being like 'electric shocks' and is worse when he turns his head. There is no history of trauma and no other obvious trigger. He has no chronic conditions and is not taking any medications. On examination he has decreased sensation on the dorsal aspect of the thumb and index finger. 
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Select one:
a. C7 radiculopathy
b. C6 myelopathy
c. C5 radiculopathy 
d. C6 radiculopathy
e. C5 myelopathy
A

C6 Radiculopathy

70
Q

A 82-year old woman presents with a 2 day history of neck pain, paraesthesia in her fingers and progressive leg weakness. Which of the following investigations is the gold standard for diagnosing degenerative cervical myelopathy?

Select one:

a. CT Cervical spine
b. Xray Cervical Spine
c. MRI Cervical spine
d. USS cervical spine
e. Nerve conduction studies

A

MRI Cervical Spine

71
Q

Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes the damage to the spinal cord sustained?

Select one:

a. Anterior cord syndrome: hemisection of anterior cord damaged
b. Laceration to the sciatic nerve
c. Brown Sequard Syndrome: Left lateral Hemisection of the cord damaged
d. Central cord syndrome
e. Brown Sequard Syndrome: Right lateral hemisection of the cord damaged

A

e. Brown Sequard Syndrome: Right lateral hemisection of the cord damaged

72
Q

A 31-year-old intravenous drug user is brought to the emergency department with back pain, bilateral leg weakness and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Cervical Spondylosis
b. Prolapsed disc
c. Meningitis
d. Groin abscess
e. Epidural Abscess

A

Epidural Abscess

73
Q

An 82 year old man presents with back pain. This pain is typically worse lying down. He has noticed he has been more unsteady on his feet recently. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer which he is currency taking hormonal therapies for. Given the likely diagnosis what is the first line management?

Select one:

a. Discharge with advice regular NSAIDs
b. Radiotherapy
c. Oral Dexamethasone
d. IV mannitol
e. Physiotherapy

A

Oral Dexamethasone

74
Q

A 31-year-old intravenous drug user is brought to the emergency department with back pain, bilateral leg weakness and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Prolapsed disc
b. Epidural Abscess
c. Groin abscess
d. Meningitis
e. Cervical Spondylosis

A

Epidural Abscess

75
Q

A 40 year old female presents with tiredness that she says is worse in the evenings and better in the mornings when we wake up. She works as a cleaner in a local highschool and has recently had to take time off because she is so tired by the end of each shift. On examination you notice ptosis and her speech becoming slurred towards the end of the consultation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Peripheral Neuropathy
b. Guillain Barre Syndrome
c. Motor neuron disease
d. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)
e. Myasthenia Gravis

A

e. Myasthenia Gravis

76
Q

Given the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis which is the following investigations would you order? Tick all that apply

Select one or more:

a. Creatine Kinase
b. Lumbar Puncture
c. EMG
d. Anti Muscle Specific Tyrosine Kinase Antibody
e. Acetylcholine Receptor Antibody
f. CT thorax

A

All

77
Q

Which of the following drugs are used in the management of Myasthenia Gravis?

Select one or more:

a. Naproxen
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Bisoprolol
d. Clindamycin
e. Prednisolone

A

b. Pyridostigmine

e. Prednisolone