Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

A patient comes in to see you complaining of hearing loss. You perform Rinnes and Webers test and find that Rinnes air>bone in both ears. Webers localises to right. What kind of hearing loss is this?

Select one:

a. Sensorineural hearing loss right ear
b. Normal hearing
c. Sensorineural hearing loss left ear
d. Bilateral conductive hearing loss
e. Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

c. Sensorineural hearing loss left ear

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of vertigo?

Select one:

a. Labyrinthitis
b. Postural hypotension
c. Migraines
d. Meniere’s disease
e. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

b. Postural hypotension

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3
Q

When would we use the Epley manouver?

Select one:

a. To treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
b. To diagnose Meniere’s disease
c. To treat Meniere’s disease
d. To diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
e. To grade severity of labyrinthitis

A

a. To treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

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4
Q

A 47 year old patient comes in to see you with right sided facial weakness. He cannot close his right eye, has drooping of the right side of his mouth and can raise his eyebrows when asked. He also says his sense of taste has disappeared. What is the likely diagnosis?

Select one:

a. Bell’s palsy
b. Horner’s syndrome
c. Transient ischaemic attack
d. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
e. Left sided stroke

A

a. Bell’s palsy

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5
Q

What is the order of the inner ear bones, from exterior to anterior?

Select one:

a. Malleus, incus, stapes
b. Stapes, malleus, incus
c. Incus, spapes, malleus
d. Incus, melleus, stapes
e. Malleus, stapes, incus

A

a. Malleus, incus, stapes

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6
Q

What kind of hearing loss does otosclerosis cause?

Select one:

a. Conductive loss
b. Combined conductive/sensorineural loss
c. No change in hearing
d. Sensorineural loss

A

a. Conductive loss

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7
Q

Allergy is a Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity reaction. What antibodies are produced by the body in this response?

Select one:

a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD

A

A) IGE

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8
Q

After IgE antibodies are produced in response to an antigen, they bind to mast cells in phase called sensitisation. When the body is exposed again to this antigen, what do mast cells release in response?

Select one:

a. Prostaglandins and eosinophils
b. Histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins
c. Basophiles, prostaglandins and cytokines
d. Histamine and leukocytes
e. Histamine and basophils

A

b. Histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins

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9
Q

What is the commonest cause of epistaxis in paediatrics?

Select one:

a. Trauma
b. Foreign body
c. Nasopharyngitis
d. Nasal polyps
e. Allergy

A

a) trauma

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10
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment of treatment for nasal polyps?

Select one:

a. Oral antibiotics
b. Nasal steroids
c. Systemic steroids
d. Dietary intervention
e. Surgical intervention

A

b. Nasal steroids

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11
Q

Which of the following is most associated with acute rhinosinusitis?

Select one:

a. Strep pneumoniae
b. Strep viridans
c. Strep pyrogenes
d. Staph aureus
e. H influenza

A

a. Strep pneumoniae

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12
Q

What investigation is commonly used to identify presence and levels of allergen-specific levels of IgE?

Select one:

a. Nasal allergen challenge
b. Radioallergosorbent blood test
c. Sweat test
d. Skin patch testing

A

b. Radioallergosorbent blood test

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13
Q

A thyroglossal duct cyst is a congenital defect which develop due to failure of the obliteration of the thyroglossal duct during development. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of a thyroglossal cyst?

Select one:

a. Transilluminates
b. Moves up with protrusion of the tongue
c. Moves when swallowing
d. Fluctuating cyst at the border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

b. Moves up with protrusion of the tongue

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14
Q

What method of hearing assessment would be recommended for a 6 month old child?

Select one:

a. Distraction test
b. Tympanometry
c. Pure tone audiometry
d. Play audiometry
e. Visual reinforced audiometry

A

a. Distraction test

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15
Q

A child is brought to see you with a very painful throat which has increased in severity. Upon examination you see a displaced uvula and a left-sided enlarged tonsil. What is this likely to be?

Select one:

a. Tonsillitis
b. Epiglottitis
c. Dental abscess
d. Peritonsillar abscess
e. EBV

A

d. Peritonsillar abscess

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16
Q

Rhinitis severity is classified according to ARIA (Allergic Rhinitis and its Impact on Asthma). Which of the following is required to be classed as persistent symptoms?

Select one:

a. >5 days/week and >5 consecutive weeks
b. <3 days a week or <3 consecutive weeks
c. >4 episodes a month
d. >4 days/week and >4 consecutive weeks

A

d. >4 days/week and >4 consecutive weeks

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17
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used scoring system for the assessment of a child with a sore throat in primary care?

Select one:

a. Blatchford score
b. CHADVASC
c. Wells score
d. CENTOR
e. New York Classification

A

CENTOR

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18
Q

The products of mast cell degranulation in response to an antigen leads to which of the following important processes? (Tick all that apply)

Select one or more:
a.  Leukocyte release
b. Smooth muscle contraction 
c.  Vasoconstriction Incorrect
d. Vasodilation
e. Decreased permeability of vessels
Feedback
A

b. Smooth muscle contraction

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19
Q

Nasal polyps are very commonly associated with other conditions. Which of the following is NOT associated with nasal polyps?

Select one:

a. Allergic rhinitis
b. Churg-Strauss syndrome
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Asthma
e. Cystic fibrosis

A

c. Rheumatoid arthritis

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20
Q

What is your first line management for a patient with an active epistaxis?

Select one:

a. Topical anaesthetics
b. Silver nitrate cautery
c. Anterior nasal pressure
d. Cautery
e. Anterior nasal packing

A

c. Anterior nasal pressure

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21
Q

The TMJ is a modified hinge joint with an articular cartilage disc within the joint. What type of cartilage is this disc formed from?

Select one:

a. Elastic cartilage
b. Fibroelastic cartilage
c. Hylaine cartilage
d. Fibrocartilage

A

d. Fibrocartilage

22
Q

Which muscle causes protraction of the jaw?

Select one:

a. Lateral pterygoid
b. Temporalis
c. Masseter
d. Medial Pterygpoid
e. Digastric

A

a. Lateral pterygoid

23
Q

At what vertebral level does the larynx continue as the trachea?

Select one:

a. C7
b. C4
c. C6
d. C5

A

C6

24
Q

Which of the following is an unpaired bone that forms part of the skeleton of the nose?

Select one:

a. Sphenoid
b. nasal
c. Ethmoid
d. mandible

A

Ethmoid

25
Q

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid forms part of the:

Select one:

a. Roof of the nasal cavity
b. Part of the Nasal septum
c. Lateral wall of the nasal cavity
d. Part of the floor of the anterior cranial fossa
e. Floor of the nasal cavity

A

b. Part of the Nasal septum

26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a border of the anterior triangle?

Select one:

a. Lower border of the mandible
b. sagittal line down the midline of the neck
c. anterior border of the sternothyroid muscle
d. Anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

c. anterior border of the sternothyroid muscle

27
Q

Which of the following form the FLOOR of the posterior triangle of the neck?

Select one:
a. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia 
b. Pretracheal fascia
c. Carotid sheath
d. Prevertebral fascia
Feedback
A

d. Prevertebral fascia

28
Q

Which of the following is surrounded by the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia?

Select one:

a. Sternothyroid
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Platysma
d. Sternocleidomastoid

A

d. Sternocleidomastoid

29
Q

Which important vascular structure bifurcates within the carotid triangle?

Select one:

a. Internal Jugular Vein
b. Subclavian artery
c. External Carotid artery
d. Common Carotid artery
e. Facial artery

A

d. Common Carotid artery

30
Q

Which potential space in the neck could allow for the tracking of pus into the posterior mediastinum?

Select one:

a. Retropharyngeal
b. Visceral
c. Submandibular
d. Parapharyngeal

A

a. Retropharyngeal

31
Q

Which vertebral level marks the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries?

Select one:

a. C4
b. T4
c. C2
d. C1

A

C4

32
Q

The isthmus of the thyroid gland is related which of the following structures?

Select one:

a. Tracheal cartilaginous rings
b. Hypoid bone
c. Cricoid cartilage
d. Thyroid cartilage

A

a. Tracheal cartilaginous rings

33
Q

Which of the following nerves traverse the posterior triangle?

Select one:

a) accessory nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerves
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

a) accessory nerve

34
Q

During an elective thyroidectomy surgery, the superior thyroid artery is ligated. Which nerve runs close to this artery?

Select one:

a. Internal laryngeal nerve
b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
c. External Laryngeal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

c. External Laryngeal nerve

35
Q

Which of these is an infrahyoid muscle?

Select one:

a. Sternohyoid
b. Geniohyoid
c. Digastric
d. Stylohyoid
e. Myelohyoid

A

a. Sternohyoid

36
Q

What is the collective action of the suprayhyoid muscles?

Select one:

a. Elevation of the hyoid bone
b. Depression of the hyoiid bones
c. Rotation of the hyoid bone

A

a. Elevation of the hyoid bone

37
Q

Name the suture that separates the frontal from the parietal bone.

Select one:

a. Lambdoid
b. Metopic
c. Coronal
d. Sagitta

A

Coronal

38
Q

The ear ossicles are found inside which of these?

Select one:

a. The squamous part of the temporal bone
b. Petrous part of the temporal bone
c. Mastoid part of the temporal bone

A

b. Petrous part of the temporal bone

39
Q

The loose connective tissue layer is considered the danger area of the scalp because pus from this layer can track intracranially. Which veins are responsible for this?

Select one:

a. Emissary veins
b. Internal Jugular vein
c. Retromandibular veins
d. Collateral veins
e. Intracranial venous sinuses

A

Emissary Veins

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT found within the parotid salivary gland?

Select one:

a. Facial artery
b. Facial nerve
c. Superficial temporal artery
d. Maxillary artery
e. External Carotid artery

A

Facial Artery

41
Q

The Subglottis is an anatomical part which region?

Select one:

a. Nasal Cavity
b. Oral Cavity
c. Larynx
d. Oropharynx

A

Larynx

42
Q

The Salivary gland which lies on the side of the face is the?

Select one:

a. Submandibular Gland
b. Meiomian Gland
c. Sublingual Gland
d. Parotid Gland

A

Parotid Gland

43
Q

Which of these are not a feature of a reactive lymph node?

Select one:

a. Oval
b. Tender
c. Fixed
d. Smooth

A

Fixed

44
Q

In a patient presenting with hoarseness which clinical diagnosis MUST be excluded?

Select one:

a. Zygomatic Fracture
b. Laryngeal Cancer
c. Nasopharyngeal Cancer
d. Mandibular Fracture

A

Laryngeal Cancer

45
Q

A common patient complaint is FOSIT (Feeling of something in throat) when there is no physical cause found.

What is the medical term for this condition?

Select one:

a. Odontogenic Abscess
b. Globus Pharyngeus
c. Stridor
d. Parotitis

A

b. Globus Pharyngeus

46
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of Head and Neck Malignancy?

Select one:

a. Warthins Tumour
b. Pleomorphic Adenoma
c. Vestibular Schwannoma
d. Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

d. Squamous Cell Carcinoma

47
Q

Which of the following would you treat first in a patient complaining of difficulty breathing?

Select one:

a. Compromised Airway
b. Extreme pain
c. Low Blood Pressure
d. Prolonged capillary refill

A

a. Compromised Airway

48
Q

Ciliary body contraction results in:

Select one:

a. making the suspensory ligaments lax
b. Pupillary dilatation
c. Pupillary constriction
d. Pulling on the crystalline lens and making it thinner

A

c. Pupillary constriction

49
Q

Which of these accurately describes the actions of the SO?

Select one:

a. Extorsion abduction depression
b. Intorsion abduction depression
c. Intorsion abduction elevation
d. Intorsion adduction elevation
e. Extorsion adduction depression

A

b. Intorsion abduction depression

50
Q

Which muscle is being tested when you ask your patient to elevate the eye in adduction?

Select one:

a. SO
b. SR
c. IO
d. IR

A

c. IO