Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RRC Cards > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

patterns of PRES

A
  1. parieto-occipital lobes
  2. holohemispheric at watershed zones
  3. superior frontal sulcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

difference between porencephaly & schizencephaly

A
  1. porencephalic cyst CSF filled lined with reactive gliosis

2. schizencephaly lined by grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

carbon monoxide poisoning

A

bilat globi pallidi necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what lines virchow-robin spaces

A

pia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HIV encephalitis

A
  • progressive atrophy and symmetric, periventricular or diffuse patchy/confluent white matter disease
  • characteristic sparing of the subcortical-U fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cribriform plate is in the superior aspect of what bone?

A

ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which show restricted diffusion?

medulloblastoma, ATRT, ependymoma

A

medulloblastoma

ATRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

contents of meckels cave

A

CSF (90%)
fascicles CN V
trigeminal/semilunar/Gasserian ganglion
(posterolateral to cavernous sinus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

only nerve to exit dorsal brainstem

A

CN IV

trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tram track calcification along optic nerve

A

optic n meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

recurrent laryngeal nerve sits in here bilaterally

A

tracheoesophageal groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bilat vestibular schwannomas

A

NF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NF2 mutation

A

22q12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

artery of percheron infarct

A

central midbrain

medial thalami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NF 1 mutation

A

17q11.2
auto dom
100% penetrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

antibody in neuromyelitis optica

A

anti NMO IgG

against aquaporin 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN nuclei in the medulla

A

CN 9, 10, 11, 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CN 7 nuclei

A

mid pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

normal T1 signal vertebral bodies

A

brighter than disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stages of neurocysticercosis

A
  • Vesicular (viable larva): small 10mm cysts w scolex, follows CSF, no edema
  • Colloidal (dying larva): inflammation, hyperintense to CSF, enhancement, surrounding edema
  • Granular nodular (healing): cyst involutes, wall thickens, edema ↓
  • Nodular calcified (healed): no edema, MR black dots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cause of neurocysticercosis

A

taenia solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

findings of NFI

A

‘substance’

  • waxing/waning WM lesions (UBO, FASI)
  • optic n glioma
  • optic pathway glioma
  • brain gliomas (brainstem, cerebral, basal ganglia)
  • [plexiform] neurofibroma
  • vascular dysplasia
  • cafe au lait spots
  • dysplastic skeletal lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

findings of NFII

A

‘layers’

  • multiple CN schwannomas
  • meningiomas
  • spinal tumors/ependymomas

MISME - multiple inherited schwannomas meningiomas and ependymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clinical criteria of NFI

A

2+ of:
≥ 6 café au lait spots ≥ 15 mm adults or 5 mm children
≥ 2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma
Axillary/inguinal freckling
Visual pathway glioma
≥ 2 iris hamartomas (“Lisch nodules”)
Distinctive bony lesion (sphenoid wing dysplasia, thinning of long bone ± pseudoarthrosis)
1st-degree relative with NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

% inverted sinonasal papilloma convert to/coexist w/ SCCa

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

gene affected in NFIII (schwannomatosis)

A

SMARCB1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

length of MS spinal lesions

A

usually <2 vert bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

length of transverse myelitis lesions

A

usually >2 vert bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most common intramedullary neoplasm in adults

A

ependymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

second most common intramedullary neoplasm in adults

A

astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most common intramedullary spinal neoplasm in kids

A

astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

length of NMO lesions

A

usually >3 vert bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

criteria for NMO (Devic)

A

2/3 of:

  • Contiguous cord lesion 3 or more segments in length
  • initial brain MR nondiagnostic for MS
  • NMO-IgG seropositivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cannot distinguish NMO from this if optic neuritis and myelitis on 1st scan:

A

ADEM - acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

mutation in CADASIL

A

NOTCH3 - chromosome 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

stroke in middle aged, healthy adults

A

think CADASIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

classic triad susac syndrome

A

Encephalopathy
Branch retinal artery occlusions
Hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

most common meningitis bugs

A
  • strep pneumo
  • n meningitidis
  • haemophilus influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most common CNS fungal infection

A

cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

most common CNS infection worldwide

A

cysticercosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

most common tumor in chronic temporal lobe epilepsy

A

ganglioglioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

association with dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma (lhermitte-duclos disease)

A

cowden syndrome

10q23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

1 CNS neoplasm in tuberous sclerosis

A

subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

most common tumor in cauda equina region

A

myxopapillary ependymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

glomus tympanicum paraganglioma vs glomus jugulare –> floor in tact vs destroyed

A

in tact = tympanicum; destroyed = jugulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

only CN withIN the cavernous sinus

A

CN6 abducens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

‘cold’ spondylodiscitis causes

A

Tb

Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

rhomboencephalitis involves what

A

hindbrain = cerebellum and brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

bacteria in lemierre’s

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

gradenigo syndrome triad & cause

A
  1. otitis media
  2. periorbital pain (CN V)
  3. abducens palsy (CN VI)

cause: petrous apicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

association of T2 FLAIR mismatch

A

highly specific for IDH-mutated 1p/19q non-codeleted astrocytoma
(vs other lower grade gliomas, oligodendroglioma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

most common met to parasellar region

A

breast ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

syndrome caused by compression of tectal plate

A

parinaud syndrome

  • upward gaze paralysis
  • pupillary light dissociation
  • nystagmus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

central Ca2+ pineal gland

exploded Ca2+ pineal gland

A
  • germinoma

- pineoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

1 extraaxial hematoma

A

traumatic SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

2 extraaxial hematoma

A

acute subdural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

terson syndrome

A

intraocular hemorrhage with SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

recurrent artery of Heubner supplies…

A
  • head and anteromedial caudate nucleus

- anterior limb internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

medial lenticulostriate arise from?

lateral?

A

A1

MCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

calcifications of pineoblastoma and germinoma

A

blastoma blasts apart the Ca2+

germinoma enGulfs the Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

causes of convexal SAH (#10)

A
  • dural sinus and cortical vein thrombosis
  • arteriovenous malformations
  • dural arteriovenous fistulas
  • arterial dissection/stenosis/occlusion
  • mycotic aneurysm
  • vasculitides
  • amyloid angiopathy
  • coagulopathies
  • RCVS
  • posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

inheritance of sturge weber

A

sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

path of CN 6 (abducens)

A
  • front of pons (medial to 5)
  • up durrelos canal (clivus)
  • through cavernous sinus
  • up through superior orbital fissure
  • orbit
  • lateral rectus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

brain tumor classically Ca2+

A

oligodendroglioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

cerebrovascular malformations w/ arteriovenous shunt

A
  • AVM
  • dural AV fistula
  • vein of galen malformation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

wyburn mason syndrome

A

AVMs of retina and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

optic canal contents

A

optic nerve CNII

ophthalmic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

superior orbital fissure contents

A 
CN III
CN IV
CN V1
CN VI
sup'r and inf'r ophthalmic veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

longest cranial nerve

A

CN IV - trochlear

posterior decussation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami disease

A

rare, alcoholics
osmotic demyelination & necrosis of corpus callosum central fibers (sandwich sign on sagittal)
FLAIR hyperintense, nonenhancing T1 hypointense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Dandy Walker malformation

A
  • large posterior fossa
  • cyst extending posteriorly from 4th ventricle
  • vermian agenesis/hypoplasia
  • torcular-lambdoid inversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

shingles/herpes zoster of facial n

  • VZV reactivation in geniculate ganglion
  • triad: ear pain, facial paralysis, painful vesicular eruption involving EAC, pinna, tongue or hard palate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

oxyhemoglobin: time, RBC, T1 and T2 signal

A

hyperacute (<1 day)
RBC intact
T1 iso
T2 bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

deoxyhemoglobin: time, RBC, T1 and T2 signal

A

acute (1-3 days)
RBC intact
T1 iso
T2 dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

methemoglobin (intracellular): time, RBC, T1 and T2 signal

A

early subacute (3-7 days)
RBC intact
T1 bright
T2 dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

methemoglobin (extracellular): time, RBC, T1 and T2 signal

A

late subacute (7 to 14-28 days)
RBC lysed
T1 bright
T2 bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

hemosiderin: time, RBC, T1 and T2 signal

A

chronic (>14-28 days)
RBC lysed
T1 dark
T2 dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ecchordosis physaliphora

A

ectopic notochord remnant
anywhere from dorsum sella to sacrum
Aunt Minnie: clival defect/cystic lesion with sclerotic margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tornwaldt cyst

A
  • benign midline nasopharynx mucosal cyst
  • high T2 signal
  • notochordal remnant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome

A

occlusion of intracranial VA and/or PICA -> infarct of lateral medulla
- dysphagia (nucleus ambiguus), dysarthria, dysphonia
- ipsilat loss of pain in face
- contralat loss of pain & temp in body
+/- ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

embryonic carotid-basilar anastomoses

A
  • persistent trigeminal artery (btwn cavernous ICA and basilar artery; Neptune’s trident)
  • persistent hypoglossal artery (btwn prox cervical ICA at ~C1-2 level and BA; courses along CN XII through hypoglossal canal)
  • persistent otic artery (rare)
  • proatlantal/intersegmental artery (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

persistent stapedial artery - embryology, course

A
  • stapedial a transiently present in N fetal devel, connecting branches of future ECA to ICA
  • arises from C2/petrous ICA
  • pass thru stapes footplate, doubles size of anterior/tympanic seg of facial n
  • intracranially becomes middle meningeal artery
  • assoc w aberrant ICA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

persistent stapedial artery - CT findings

A
  • absence of foramen spinosum

- enlarged tympanic seg of facial n (contains soft tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

aberrant ICA - course, clinical

A
  • laterally displaced ICA
  • enters posterior middle ear cavity from below and hugs cochlear promontory as it crosses middle ear cavity
  • then resumes N expected course as it joins post-lat margin of horizontal petrous ICA
  • pulsatile tinnitus, vascular retrotympanic mass in anteroinferior mesotympanum
  • mimics glomus tympanicum
  • assoc w persistent stapedial a
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

aberrant ICA - imaging CT & angio

A

CT:

  • tubular lesion crossing middle ear cavity from posterior to anterior
  • soft tissue density lying on cochlear promontory

Angio:
- angulation resembling a 7, change in contour and caliber (pinched appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

CADASIL - imaging

A
  • symmetric high T2 subcortical WM
  • anterior temporal lobes + external capsules
    + lacunar infarcts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CADASIL - clinical

A

recurrent stroke/TIA + migraine -> premature dementia

young adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome

A

multifocal segmental arterial constrictions
- multiple vascular territories
- beaded appearance
high res wall imaging: +/- thickened wall, reduced lumen; no/minimal enhancement
convexal SAH, strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

moyamoya - imaging

A

progressive stenosis of distal (supraclinoid) ICA and proximal CoW, eventual occlusion
anterior > posterior circulation
enlarged/innumerable basal perforating arteries, lenticulostriate collaterals
puff of smoke

children stroke, adults bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

ivy sign in moyamoya

A

tubular branching FLAIR hyperintensities within sulci
represent cortical arterial branches that appear FLAIR hyperintense d/t slow collateral flow
+ vivid contrast enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

age of esthesioneuroblastoma (olfactory neuroblastoma)

A

> 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

most common benign orbit lesion adult

A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

most common suture to close prematurely

A

sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Prussak space boundaries

A

lateral: pars flaccida & scutum
superior: lateral malleal ligament
medial: neck of malleus

(subcomponent of the lateral epitympanic space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

nuc med imaging for esthesioneuroblastoma

A
  • neuroendocrine tumor –> somatostatin receptor
  • octreotide
  • MIBG
  • DOTATATE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Spetzler Martin scale for AVMs

A

predicts surgical morbidity/mortality

ranges from 1-5 pts:

  • size: <3cm (1), 3-6cm (2), >6cm (3)
  • location: noneloquent (0), eloquent area of brain (1)
  • venous drainage: superficial (0), deep (1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

triangle of Guillain & Mollaret

A

dentatorubro-olivary pathway:

  • contralateral dentate nucleus (lateral cerebellar nuclei)
  • red nucleus (tegmentum of midbrain)
  • inferior olivary nucleus (medulla)

damaged in hypertrophic olivary degeneration

98
Q

hypertrophic olivary degeneration

A

hypertrophied & T2 hyperintense inferior olivary nucleus with a causative lesion in the brainstem:
- infarct, hemorrhage, demyelination, surgery
damage to triangle of Guillain & Mollaret

99
Q

dysembyroplastic neuroepithelial tumor

A

“bubbly” lesion without mass effect
cortically based
wedge shaped
multilobulated

young pt with longstanding hx of seizures

100
Q

mesial temporal sclerosis imaging findings

A

reduced hippocampal volume
increased T2 signal (gliosis, scar)
loss of normal interdigitations

late:
atrophy of ipsilateral fornix & mammillary body

101
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy: affected areas

A

mammillary bodies
dorsomedial thalami
periaqueductal grey matter
tectal plate

102
Q

nonketotic hyperglycemia with hemichorea-hemiballismus: imaging appearance

A

hyperdense (CT) and T1 hyperintense basal ganglia (esp putamen) contralateral to side of movement disorder
normal signal on T2 & DWI

103
Q

spinal AVM/AVF classification

A

type 1: dural AVF (single coiled vessel, MC: 85%)
type 2: intramedullary nidus from ant or post spinal a (+/- aneurysm, SAH; assoc w HHT, KTS)
type 3: juvenile (very rare, complex, bad prog)
type 4: intradural perimedullary (near conus, subtypes: single vs multiple arterial supply)

104
Q

pterygopalatine fossa: 6 openings

A
  1. inferior orbital fissure (anterosup/“roof”) → orbit
  2. sphenopalatine foramen (medial) → nasopharynx via superior meatus (*origin of JNA)
  3. pterygomaxillary fissure (lateral) → masticator space
  4. foramen rotundum (posterosup) → middle cranial fossa
  5. vidian canal (posteroinf) → directly below f. rotundum
  6. greater & lesser palatine foramina(inferior/“floor”) → oral cavity
105
Q

syndrome associated with multiple DVAs

A

blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome

106
Q

genes associated with cavernomas

A

CCM1 (KRIT1)
CCM2 (OSM)
CCM3 (PDCD10)

107
Q

most common cerebral vascular malformations

A
  1. DVA
  2. capillary telangiectasia
  3. cavernoma
108
Q

Sturge Weber dominant findings

A
  • unilateral port wine stain (nevus flammeus), usually V1 trigeminal n
  • ipsilateral cerebral atrophy with cortical/subcortical tram-track calc’n (d/t vascular steal phenomenon)
  • choroidal angiomas (choroidal enhancement of globe)
  • leptomeningeal angiomatosis (diffuse leptomeningeal enhancement ipsilateral to facial port wine stain)
    (seizures, hemiparesis)
109
Q

2 branches of C2 (ICA)

A
  • vidian artery
  • caroticotympanic artery

(can get persistent stapedial artery from here)

110
Q

C3 (ICA) covered by what?

A
  • trigeminal ganglion

- no branches

111
Q

C4 (ICA) 2 important branches

A
  1. meningohypophyseal trunk (supply pituitary, tentorium, clival dura)
  2. inferolateral trunk (supply cranial nerves and CS dura)
112
Q

C6 (ICA) 2 important branches

A
  1. ophthalmic artery

2. superior hypophyseal (supply anterior pit lobe, infundibular stalk, optic chiasm)

113
Q

C7 (ICA) 2 important branches

A
  1. posterior communicating artery

2. anterior choroidal artery

114
Q

distal ICA passed between which two cranial nerves?

A

optic & oculomotor

115
Q

absent foramen spinosum and enlarged anterior facial nerve segment = ?

A

persistent stapedial artery

intracranial becomes middle meningeal artery

116
Q

most common circle of willis variant

A

hypoplastic or absent posterior communicating

117
Q

association with agenesis of corpus callosum (#6)

A
  • gray matter heterotopia
  • Chiari II malformation
  • lissencephaly
  • Dandy-Walker
  • cytomegalovirus infection
  • fetal alcohol syndrome
118
Q

associations with schizencephaly

A
  • septo-optic dysplasia
  • corpus callosum anomalies
  • grey matter heterotopia
  • absent septum pellicidum

(grey matter lined cleft extending from ependyma to pita mater)

119
Q

facial nerve segments

A

“I Love Going To Makeover Parties”

Intracranial/cisternal (medial to vestibulocochlear n)
Meatal/canalicular (anterosuperior IAC)
Labyrinthine (exits IAC anteriorly thru fallopian canal, reaches genu anteriorly)
Geniculate (gives off greater petrosal n)
Tympanic (geniculate ganglion to pyramidal eminence)
Mastoid (pyramidal eminence inferiorly to stylomastoid foramen, gives chorda tympani)
Parotid/Extracranial (stylomastoid foramen to division into major branches)

120
Q

facial nerve terminal motor branches

A

“Tall Zulus Bear Many Children”
“To Zanzibar By Motor Car”

Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Mandibular
Cervical
121
Q

VHL findings

A
  • multiple hemangioblastomas
  • ocular angiomas
  • pancreatic and renal cysts
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • pheochromocytoma
  • cystadenomas
  • islet cell tumors
  • endolymphatic sac tumors

VHL tumor suppressor gene (auto dom’t)

122
Q

dorello canal

A

bony canal
transmits CN VI/abducens nerve
from prepontine cistern to cavernous sinus

123
Q

superior orbital fissure contains which nerves?

A

CN III, IV, V1 ophthalmic, VI

“Lazy French Tarts Sit Nakedly In Anticipation” (sup to inf)

L: lacrimal n (branch CN V1)
F: frontal n (branch CN V1)
T: trochlear n (CN IV)
S: superior division of the oculomotor n (CN III)
N: nasociliary n (branch of CN V1)
I: inf division of oculomotor n (CN III)
A: abducens n (CN VI)
124
Q

foramen rotundum contains…

A

CN V2 maxillary

125
Q

foramen ovale contains…

A

CN V3 mandibular

accessory meningeal artery

126
Q

foramen spinosum contains…

A

middle meningeal artery & vein

meningeal br of V3

127
Q

inferior orbital fissure contains…

A

“Inferior Orbit Gets Infra-Orbital Nerves and VeinZ”

IO: inferior ophthalmic vein (tributary to both pterygoid venous plexus & cavernous sinus)
G: ganglionic branches from pterygopalatine ganglion to maxillary div. of trigeminal n.
ION: infraorbital nerve (branch CN V2)
A: infraorbital artery (branch maxillary artery)
V: infraorbital vein
Z: zygomatic nerve (branch CN V2)

128
Q

pars nervosa contains…

A

CN 9 + its tympanic branch Jacobsen’s nerve
inferior petrosal sinus

(anteromedial to pars vascularis)

129
Q

pars vascularis contains…

A

CN 10 + its auricular branch Arnold’s nerve
CN 11
jugular bulb
posterior meningeal br of ascending pharyngeal art

(posterolateral to pars nervosa)

130
Q

what branches of the trigeminal nerve are in which foramen?

A

Standing Room Only
S: Superior orbital fissure - V1 ophthalmic
R: foramen Rotundum - V2 maxillary
O: foramen Ovale - V3 mandibular

131
Q

mesial temporal sclerosis: hippocampus findings

A

volume, signal, morphology

  • reduced volume/atrophy
  • increased T2 signal
  • abN morphology: loss of internal architecture (interdigitations of hippocampus)
132
Q

cerebral peduncles

A

1 pair (vs 3 pairs of cerebellar peduncles)

  • anterior part of midbrain that connects remainder of brainstem to thalami
  • separated by interpeduncular cistern
  • contain large white matter tracts that run to and from the cerebrum
133
Q

cerebellar peduncles

A

3 pairs (vs 1 pair of cerebral peduncles)

  • superior cerebellar peduncles (brachium conjunctivum): cerebellum to midbrain
  • middle cerebellar peduncles (brachium pontis): cerebellum to pons
  • inferior cerebellar peduncles: cerebellum to medulla
134
Q

blood supply to superior cerebellar peduncle

A

superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

135
Q

blood supply to middle cerebellar peduncle

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

136
Q

blood supply to inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

137
Q

what is an infundibulum (artery)

A
  • conical outpouching from an artery with a broad base narrowing to an apex
  • must be a vessel that originates from apex (may not be visible on imaging)
  • commonly at origin of PCOM from supraclinoid ICA
  • no risk for rupture/SAH (vs aneurysm)
138
Q

ICA segments (Bouthillier)

A 
C1: cervical
C2: petrous (horizontal)
C3: lacerum
C4: cavernous
C5: clinoid
C6: ophthalmic (supraclinoid)
C7: communicating (terminal)
139
Q

branches of petrous (horizontal) segment of ICA

A
  • caroticotympanic artery

- Vidian artery

140
Q

branches of lacerum segment of ICA

A

none

141
Q

branches of cavernous segment of ICA

A
  • meningohypophyseal trunk
  • inferolateral trunk
  • capsular arteries (of McConnell) (variable)
142
Q

branches of clinoid segment of ICA

A

none

143
Q

branches of ophthalmic (supraclinoid) segment of ICA

A
  • ophthalmic artery

- superior hypophyseal artery

144
Q

branches of communicating segment of ICA

A
  • posterior communicating artery
  • anterior choroidal artery
  • anterior cerebral artery
  • middle cerebral artery
145
Q

idiopathic intracranial hypertension - findings

A

optic nerves: prominent SAS around CNII, vertical tortuosity/kinking, papilledema

enlarged arachnoid outpouchings: empty sella turcica, enlarged Meckel cave, prominent arachnoid granulations within temporal bone, sphenoid wing

bilateral venous sinus stenosis: junction of transverse & jugular sinuses (most important finding)

uncommon: slit-like ventricles, acquired tonsillar ectopia

146
Q

Tolosa Hunt

A

granulomatous inflammatory condition involving cavernous sinus and orbital apex
- clinical dx of exclusion: painful ophthalmoplegia 2/2 to surrounding cavernous sinus inflammation

CT: asymmetrical enlargement +/- enhancement
MRI: T1 iso-hyper, T2 hyper, enhancement

147
Q

facial nerve - typical enhancing vs nonenhancing segments

A

Mild enhancement of geniculate ganglion, and proximal tympanic segments

Bad enhancement: “proximal to genu, distal to SMF”

  • cisternal, meatal & labyrinthine segments: surrounded by CSF, should NOT enhance
  • extracranial segment: should NOT enhance
148
Q

3 important intratemporal branches of facial nerve, top to bottom (Osborn)

A

greater superficial petrosal nerve
- parasymp fibers supplying lacrimal gland

stapedius nerve
- innervate stapedius muscle

chorda tympani
- taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue

149
Q

internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

disorder of conjugate gaze (ability of eyes to move in same direction at same time):

  1. impaired adduction in ipsilateral eye
  2. dissociated horizontal nystagmus of contralateral abducting eye
  • d/t lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) ipsilateral to eye unable to adduct
  • e.g. MS, NMO, infarct
150
Q

CN III palsy: pupil-involving vs. pupil-sparing

A

pupil-involving (enlarged unreactive pupil):

  • compression of CN III, because parasympathetic pupillary fibers are located peripherally in the nerve which are more likely affected by external compression
  • causes: PCoA & SCA aneurysms, uncal herniation

pupil-sparing:
- cause: ischemia (microvascular infarction of the core of the nerve with relative sparing of its peripheral fibers)

151
Q

ulegyria

A

shrunken cortex with flattened, mushroom-shaped gyri, d/t global hypoxic ischemic injury in term infants

centers on deepest portion of gyri, usually in parasagittal region/parietooccipital area
- it is here that perfusion is most tenuous and, therefore, most susceptible to ischemic damage

152
Q

gelastic seizures

A

gelastic = laughing spells
think hypothalamic hamartoma

benign non-neoplastic heterotopias, arising from tuber cinereum

153
Q

neuronal migrational disorders

A

cortical heterotopia
polymicrogyria/pachygyria
schizencephaly
lissencephaly

154
Q

aditus ad antrum

A

(aka otomastoid foramen or entrance or aperture to mastoid antrum; Latin: “entrance to the cave”)

def’n: the short passageway coneccting epitympanum to mastoid antrum (the large central mastoid air cell posterior to middle ear up to 1 cm)

155
Q

Koerner septum

A
  • thin bridge of bone dividing petrous & squamous portion of mastoid air cells at level of mastoid antrum
  • serves as barrier to extension of infection from lateral to medial mastoid air cells
  • commonly eroded by middle ear cholesteatomas
  • important surgical landmark within mastoid air cells
156
Q

pyramidal eminence (or process)

A
  • small hollow anterior osseous protrusion from posterior wall of mesotympanum of petrous temporal bone
  • separates sinus tympani medially from facial recess laterally
  • stapedius muscle arises from the hollow of the pyramidal process, passes anterior out of apex of pyramidal eminence to attach to posterior aspect of neck of stapes
157
Q

cochlear promontory

A

bone that overlies basal turn of cochlea protruding into middle ear cavity
- glomus tympanicum paragangliomas typically arise in the region of the cochlear promonotory

158
Q

tensor tympani muscle

A

connects to malleus bone, pull down handle medially which tenses tympanic membrane, reducing amplitude of oscillations
supplied by nerve to medial pterygoid (branch of CNV3/mandibular n)
arises from cartilaginous part of Eustachian tube, greater wing sphenoid, petrous temporal bone;
passes into protympanum of tympanic cavity,
reflects at cochleariform process, inserts into upper end of handle of malleus

159
Q

muscles of the temporal bone

A

tensor tympani muscle: stabilizes malleus
stapedius muscle: stabilizes stapes
both function to dampen sound, prevents damage to inner ear from loud sounds

160
Q

stapedius muscle

A

smallest skeletal muscle in human body

stabilizes stapes (smallest bone in body)
stapedius muscle belly located in pyramidal eminence
stapedius tendon attaches to head of stapes
innervated by CNVII

161
Q

ossicles of middle ear

A

malleus (anterior): umbo + manubrium + head

incus (posterior): short process, body, long process, lenticular process

stapes (medial): head, crura, footplate

162
Q

branches of external carotid artery

A 
"Some Ancient Lovers Find Old Positions More Stimulating"
"Some Angry Lady Figured Out PMS"
arising from the carotid triangle:
- superior thyroid artery
- ascending pharyngeal artery
- lingual artery
- facial artery
- occipital artery
- posterior auricular artery

terminal branches:

  • (internal) maxillary artery
  • superficial temporal artery
163
Q

sinus tympani

A

clinical blind spot during standard mastoid approach to T-bone, where cholesteatomas may hide
medial wall contains: lateral SCC, tympanic segment of facial n, and oval & round windows

164
Q

Prussak space

A

lateral epitympanic recess

classic location for acquired (pars flaccida) cholesteatoma

165
Q

5 bony parts of temporal bone

A
  1. squamous: lat wall of middle cranial fossa
  2. mastoid
  3. styloid
  4. tympanic: U-shaped bone, forms most of bony external ear
  5. petrous: contains middle & inner ear, IAC, petrous apex
  • 2 important structures anteriorly: tegmen tympani (roof of tympanic cavity) & arcuate eminence (over SCC; surgical landmark along middle cranial fossa floor)
166
Q

round window

A
  • 1 of 2 openings in middle ear
  • basal turn of cochlea ends at round window
  • communication btwn mesotympanum of middle & inner ear
  • vibrates with opposite phase to vibrations from inner ear, producing movement of perilymph in cochlea
  • absence or rigidity assoc w hearing loss
167
Q

oval window

A

kidney-shaped aperture in medial wall of mesotympanum of middle ear

communication w vestibule of inner ear
footplate of stapes is attached to its rim by annular ligament

best visualized in coronal plane

168
Q

epi/meso/hypotympanum

A
  • mesotympanum (directly medial to tympanic membrane): btwn axial plane from tip of scutum to tympanic segment of facial n & axial plane from tympanic annulus to base of cochlear promontory
  • epitympanum (attic): above axial plane from tip of scutum to tympanic segment of facial n
  • hypotympanum: below axial plane from tympanic annulus to base of cochlear promontory
169
Q

basal lamella (of the middle turbinate)

A

osseous lamella that separates anterior from posterior ethmoid sinuses

170
Q

singular canal (aka foramen singulare, singular foramen)

A

thin channel within petrous temporal bone that carries singular nerve from IAC

  • normal structure that may be mistaken for a temporal bone fracture
  • surgical landmark during retrosigmoid approach to IAC, in which posterior wall is removed up to point of singular canal but no further to avoid fenestration of labyrinth
171
Q

inner ear structures

A

bony labyrinth/otic capsule (BL) + membranous labyrinth (ML):
- BL & ML are separated by perilymph (Na+), which does not communicate w endolymph (K+) contained in membranous labyrinth

  • cochlea (BL) housing cochlear duct (ML) for hearing
  • vestibule (BL) housing utricle & saccule (ML) for static balance
  • semicircular canals (BL) housing semicircular ducts (ML) for kinetic balance
172
Q

Keros classification

A

classifies depth of recess above cribriform plate, i.e. depth of olfactory fossa
Keros I: ≤ 3 mm
Keros II: 4-7 mm
Keros III: >7 mm

173
Q

Haller cell

A

cell in medial antrum, under orbital floor
next to infundibulum
may obstruct sinus drainage

174
Q

Agger Nasi cell

A

most anterior ethmoid air cell

175
Q

fovea ethmoidalis

A

lateral roof of ethmoid sinus

extension of orbital plate of frontal bone

176
Q

most common complication of functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)

A

CSF leak

the deeper the cribriform plate with respect to fovea ethmoidalis (higher Keros), the greater chance of CSF leak

177
Q

neck lymph node size criteria

A 
long axis on axial plane
1A (submental): 0.8cm (midline)
retropharyngeal: 0.8cm
1B: 1.5cm
2A (jugulodigastric/node of Ranvier): 1.5cm 
all others: 1cm
178
Q

Onodi air cell

A
  • sphenoethmoidal air cell above & lateral to sphenoid sinus
  • coronal: locate air cell above sphenoid sinus and identify its continuity with a posterior ethmoid air cell
  • places optic nerve at risk for intraoperative injury during posterior ethmoidectomy
179
Q

maxillary antrum drainage

A

via ostiomeatal unit into MIDDLE MEATUS

(drains via maxillary ostium into infundibulum, then through hiatus semilunaris into MIDDLE MEATUS)
(best plane: coronal)

180
Q

frontal sinus drainage

A

via ostiomeatal unit into MIDDLE MEATUS

(more variable than other paranasal sinuses;
frontal infundibulum -> frontal recess -> 2 main variations:
- drainage into ethmoidal infundibulum, through hiatus semilunaris into middle meatus
- drainage directly into middle meatus)
(best plane: coronal & sagittal)

181
Q

anterior ethmoid sinus drainage

A

via ostiomeatal unit into MIDDLE MEATUS

(drain to hiatus semilunaris and middle meatus via ethmoid bulla, which forms parts of ostiomeatal complex)
(best plane: coronal & sagittal)

182
Q

posterior ethmoid sinus drainage

A

via sphenoethmoidal recess into superior meatus

best plane: sagittal

183
Q

sphenoid sinus drainage

A

via sphenoethmoidal recess into roof of nasal cavity

best plane: axial

184
Q

Weber syndrome

A

midbrain stroke syndrome (PCA) involving cerebral peduncle & ipsilat fascicles of oculomotor n

  • ipsilat CN III palsy (diplopia, ptosis, afferent pupillary defect)
  • contralat hemiplegia/paresis (corticospinal/corticobulbar tracts)
  • contralat parkinsonian rigidity (if substantia nigra involved)
185
Q

nerves involved in taste

A

facial n: anterior 2/3 of tongue (via chorda tympani & greater superficial petrosal nerve
glossopharyngeal n: posterior 1/3 of tongue
vagus n: epiglottis region

186
Q

hypoglossal nerve innervates what

A

all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue except palatoglossus muscle (vagus n)

only CN with purely motor function

187
Q

through what structure are cochlear implants inserted?

A

round window

188
Q

what is the soft tissue component of the vestibular aqueduct?

A

endolymphatic sac

189
Q

what is the density in the centre of the cochlea?

A

modiolus

190
Q

what does the singular canal transmit?

A

singular nerve

  • branch of inferior vestibular nerve
  • carries afferent information from posterior semicircular canal
191
Q

trilateral retinoblastoma

A

pineoblastoma + bilateral retinoblastoma

192
Q

Foix-Alajouanine syndrome

A

spinal dural AV fistula + progressive myelopathy

  • initially: spastic paraplegia, then flaccidity, loss of sphincter control & ascending sensory level
  • thought to be d/t venous hypertension
193
Q

cavernous sinus drainage

A
  • inferiorly through foramen ovale to pterygoid venous plexus
  • posteriorly clival venous plexus, superior & inferior petrosal sinus
194
Q

most common tumour associated with temporal lobe epilepsy

A

ganglioglioma

195
Q

features ganglioglioma

A

50% calcify
cyst w/ enhancing nodule
can be solid

196
Q

DNET (dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor)

A
  • bubbly
  • no enhancement
  • swollen gyrus
197
Q

pleomorphic xanthroastrocytoma

A
  • cortical/subcortical
  • solid/cystic
  • +/- enhancing cyst
  • peritumoral edema
  • +/- enhancing meningeal C+ adjacent
198
Q

bug to cause necrotizing otitis externa

A

pseudomonas aeurginosa

199
Q

etiology of and most common place of origin for plunging ranula

A
  • Mucous retention cyst from obstructed sublingual gland/minor salivary gland
  • sublingual space
200
Q

epidermoid cyst

A

CSF-Iike extra-axial non-enhancing mass that is bright

on DWl

201
Q

arachnoid cyst

A

Non-enhancing unilocular extra-axial lesion
that follows CSF on all imaging modalities, including
DWl

202
Q

epidermoid vs arachnoid cyst

A

both C- CSF-like but

- epidermoid bright on DWI

203
Q

risk factors nasopharyngeal carcinoma vs squamous cell carcinoma

A
  1. nasopharyngeal = southern china, EBV virus

2. SCC = tobacco, EtOH, HPV 16

204
Q

staging nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Tx: primary not assessed
T0: no evidence of primary but EBV+ cervical node involvement
T1: NO parapharyngeal extension (NP +/- oropharynx, nasal cavity)
T2: WITH parapharyngeal extension
T3: involve bone
T4: extension: intracranial, CN, orbit, masticator space, hypopharynx

205
Q 
staging HPV (-) oropharynx
(p16 negative)
A

Tx: cannot be assessed
Tis: carcinoma in situ
T1: max diameter <2 cm
T2: 2-4 cm
T3: >4 cm or to lingual surface of epiglottis
T4a (moderately advanced): involves larynx, extrinsic tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, mandible
T4b (very advanced): involves lateral pterygoid, pterygoid plate, lateral nasopharynx, skull base, encases carotid art

206
Q 
staging HPV (+) oropharynx
(p16 positive)
A

T0: not seen
T1: max diameter <2 cm
T2: 2-4 cm
T3: >4 cm or to lingual surface of epiglottis
T4: involves larynx, extrinsic tongue, medial pterygoid, hard palate, mandible or more

207
Q

paraganglioma - most common arterial supply

A

ascending pharyngeal artery

208
Q

how far down do these go:

  1. retropharyngeal space
  2. danger space
A
  1. avg T3 (C7-T6)
  2. diaphragm

imaging down to carina/T6 at least if ?mediastinitis

209
Q

location of mucocele

A

F>E>M>S

frontal > ethmoid > maxillary > sphenoid

210
Q

location of conus medullaris

A

depends on growth of vertebral bodies
term: L2-3
3 months post-natal: L1-2

abnormal if below inferior endplate of L2

211
Q

Brown Séquard Syndrome

A

decreased pain and temperature in one leg

motor weakness on the other side

212
Q

spinal cord herniation vs dorsal arachnoid cyst on CT myelogram

A

spinal cord herniation - no contrast separating it from ventral dura

dorsal arachnoid cyst - thin rim of contrast should be seen anterior to the cord

213
Q

types of diastematomyelia

A

type I: 2 distinct dural sacs (bony/cartilage spur, symptomatic)
type II: 1 dural sac (fibrous spur, asymptomatic)

214
Q

most common malignancy of thyroglossal duct cyst

A

papillary thyroid carcinoma

215
Q

CT myelogram difference arachnoid cyst & neurenteric cyst

A
  1. arachnoid POSTERIOR (dorsal)

2. neurenteric cyst ANTERIOR (ventral)

216
Q

wide-neck cerebral aneurysm - definition

A

dome to neck ratio >2:1

absolute cut off: >4mm neck diameter

217
Q

pituitary stalk interruption syndrome: triad

A

ectopic posterior pituitary gland
thinned or absent pituitary stalk
absent or hypoplastic anterior pituitary gland

218
Q

Modic I-III changes

A

Type I: T1 low, T2 high, T1C+
Type 2: T1 high, T2 iso to high
Type 3: T1 low, T2 low

219
Q

perivascular anatomic route for nasopharyngeal carcinoma to access intracranial structures

A

foremen lacerum

cartilaginous floor of anterior horizontal petrous ICA

220
Q

perineural route of spread from masseter space to access intracranial structures occurs along…

A

CNV3 - mandibular

through foramen ovale into Meckels cave and beyond

221
Q

what is the connection between buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscles and its significance?

A

pterygomandibular raphe

  • fibrous band extending from hamulus of medial pterygoid plate above to posterior mandibular mylohyoid line below
  • lies beneath mucosa of retromolar trigone
  • perifascial route of spread for retromolar trigone SCCa
222
Q

what structure separates the lower oral cavity into the submandibular and sublingual spaces?

A 
mylohyoid muscle
(except along free posterior margin)
223
Q

what is the retromolar trigone?

A

small, triangular-shaped region of mucosa behind 3rd/last molar on mandibular ramus
- anatomical crossroads of oral cavity, oropharynx, soft palate, buccal space, floor of mouth, masticator space, and parapharyngeal space

224
Q

parotid primary drainage site for what?

A

scalp
external auditory canal
deep facial structures

225
Q

most common parotid tumor

A

benign mixed tumor

aka pleomorphic adenoma

226
Q

Earliest signal change sequences for:

  • CJD
  • HSV
  • autoimmune encephalitis
  • hypoxic ischemic injury
  • hyper acute infarct
  • SAH
A 
CJD: DWI
HSV: DWI
Autoimmune encephalitis: FLAIR
HIE: DWI & spec (lactate, glutamine-glutamine)
Infarct: DWI
SAH: FLAIR
227
Q

Most common source deep neck infection

Most common deep neck infection

A

Tonsilitis

Peritonsillar abscess

228
Q

Most common facial bone fracture adult and peds

Most common orbit fracture

A

Adult/peds = nasal bone
Peds mandible > orbital adult
Most common orbit = inferior orbit wall

229
Q

cranial nerve V3 (mandibular) is sensory/motor to:

A 
Sensory:
- mandible (except angle)
- preauricular
- meninges
- mouth (taste via chorda tympani CN VII)
Motor:
- masticator muscles
- tensor veli palatini
- mylohyoid
- anterior belly digastric
230
Q

how to confirm PML (progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy)

A

confirm JC virus antibody in CSF using PCR

231
Q

Toxo vs CNS Lymphoma on nuc med & MRS

A

Toxo:
no uptake on SPECT or PET
lipid and lactate peaks
decreased CBV

Lymphoma:
uptake on SPECT or PET
decreased NAA
choline peak
\+/- lipid and lactate peak
usually increased CBV
232
Q

carbon monoxide poisoning vs methanol poisoning

A

CO: CT hypo/T2 bright globes pallidus (CO causes globus warming)
Methanol: T2 bright putaminal (May hemorrhage, CT hyper)

233
Q

T1 bright basal ganglia

A

Copper and manganese deposition

  • nonspecific
  • related to liver disease
  • TPN, Wilson’s, nonketotic hyperglycemia
234
Q

What sequence is most sensitive for juxtacortical and periventricular plaques in MS?
Infratentorial?

A

Juxtacortical - FLAIR

infratentorial - T2

235
Q

MR spec in MS

A

Reduced NAA peaks in the plaques

236
Q

First bone eroded by pars flaccida cholesteatoma

A

Incus (adjacent to prussaks space)

237
Q

Retinoblastoma
Bilateral
Trilateral
Quadrilateral

A

Bilateral 30% of the time
Trilateral = eyes plus pineal
Quadrilateral = eyes, pineal, suprasellar

238
Q

features parathyroid adenoma on 4D ct scan

A
  1. NECT - hypoattenuating relative to thyroid
  2. C+ art - can hyperenhance
  3. C+ delayed washout
  4. C+ delayed washout
239
Q

% cavernomas with associated DVA

A

30%

240
Q

white matter tracts found in agenesis of corpus callosum

A

bundles of probst

241
Q

delayed radiation myelopathy

A

6-24 months post radiation

242
Q

foix alajouanine syndrome

A

venous congestive myelopathy due to a spinal arteriovenous malformation, presenting as subacute progressive neurological deterioration. Initially, patients have a spastic paraplegia which progresses to flaccidity, loss of sphincter control, and ascending sensory level.

RRC Cards (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions