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GU Flashcards

1
Q

1 extratesticular neoplasm

A

spermatic cord lipoma

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2
Q

1 infection related urethral stricture

A

gonococcal

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3
Q

1 cause urethral stricture

A

iatrogenic

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4
Q

1 epididymis neoplasm

A

adenomatoid neoplasm

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5
Q

sites of urothelial cancer

A

bladder (90%), kidney (8%), ureter/urethra (2%)

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6
Q

1 non-organ based retroperitoneal malignancy

A

lymphoma

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7
Q

most common retroperitoneal soft tissue sarcoma subtype

A

liposarcoma

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8
Q

nerve sheath tumor (neurofibroma) sign

A

T2 target sign

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9
Q

difference between bicornuate and didelphys uterus

A

bicornuate: partial fusion of the lower uterine segment, with single cervix
didelphys: two separate lower uterine segments and two cervices

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10
Q

jack/mulberry stone composition

A

calcium oxalate

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11
Q

most common abnormality co-existing with mullerian duct abnormality

A

renal agenesis

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12
Q

most common uterine anomaly

A

septate uterus

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13
Q

most common location ectopic

A

ampullary fallopian tube

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14
Q

hypoenhancing subtype of RCC

A

papillary RCC

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15
Q

dot dash pattern pelvic ultrasound

A

short & long echogenic lines within an ovarian dermoid cyst

due to the presence of hair

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16
Q

Wunderlich syndrome

A

spontaneous nontraumatic renal hemorrhage
2/2 to:
- renal tumor (ex AML)
- vascular pathology (AVM, vasculitis)
- coagulopathy
- other renal pathology (cystic renal disease, nephritis)

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17
Q

causes medullary nephrocalcinosis

A
  • medullary sponge kidney
  • hyperparathyroidism
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • hypervitaminosis D
  • milk-alkali syndrome
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18
Q

avascular plane of Brodel

A

renal parenchyma btwn 2/3 anterior and 1/3 posterior kidney on cross-section that is relatively avascular

  • represents plane where anterior and posterior segmental renal artery branches meet
  • relatively safe access route to pelvicalyceal system for nephrostomy insertion
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19
Q

teratoma def’n

A

germ cell tumour that originates from pluripotent germ cells that have been interrupted in their normal migration to the genital ridges
<10% in retroperitoneum
more common in females
bimodal age distrib: <6mo & early adult

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20
Q

mature vs immature teratoma

A

mature CYSTIC teratoma

  • well-diff tissues from at least 2 germ cell layers
  • predominantly CYSTIC but commonly have calc’n or fat

immature teratoma

  • predominantly SOLID with scattered areas of calc’n and fat
  • uncommon, young age group (<20yo)
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21
Q

ganglioneuroma def’n

A
  • benign tumors from ganglion cells within sympathetic ganglia
  • occur in retroperitoneum (extra-adrenal > adrenal) or posterior mediastinum
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22
Q

paraganglioma def’n

A

neoplasm of extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue

  • in either sympathetic or parasympathetic paraganglia
  • retroperitoneal paragangliomas usu from sympathetic paraganglia
  • MC at organs of Zuckerkandl or paravertebral regions
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23
Q

syndromes with paraganglioma

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia 2 (MEN2)
neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1)
von Hippel Lindau (VHL)
hereditary paraganglioma syndromes (SDH mutations)

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24
Q

male urethral segments

A

prostatic, membranous, bulbous, penile
“Pet My Beautiful Pig”

  • posterior urethra: prostatic & membranous
  • anterior urethra: bulbous & penile
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25
Q

most common urethral neoplasm

A

squamous cell carcinoma (of anterior urethra)

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26
Q

anterior vs posterior urethra develops what kind of cancer

A 
anterior urethra (lined by stratified squamous epithelium) develops squamous cell
carcinoma

posterior urethra (lined by uroepithelium) develops urothelial carcinoma

Cowper’s glands & glands of Littre (lined by glandular epithelium) develop adenocarcinoma

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27
Q

compartments of female pelvic floor

A

anterior compartment: bladder, urethra
middle compartment: uterus, cervix, vagina
posterior compartment: rectum, anus

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28
Q

Isolated right sided varicocele

A

Evaluate for cancer (CT Abdo)

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29
Q

Hypo vascular RCC

A

Papillary

2nd most common (clear CSLL #1)

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30
Q

critical stage endometrial cancer

A

stage 2 –> cervical stroma invasion –> high risk lymph node mets & changes mgmt from TAH to radical
IA (<50% myometrium) to IB (>50%) also increases risk

31
Q

critical stage cervical cancer

A

IIb parametrial invasion or involvement lower 1/3 of vagina (NOT ext to pelvic sidewall) = chemo/rads

IIa and below = spread beyond cervix = surgery

32
Q

met to anterior wall upper 1/3 vagina is…

met to posterior wall lower 1/3 is…

A

90% upper genital tract

90% GI tract

33
Q

ovarian follicle
dominant follicle
cyst

A

<1 cm follicle
1-2 cm dom’t follicle
>3 cm cyst

34
Q

cancer transformation subtypes:

  1. endometrioma
  2. dermoid
A
  1. endometrioma - clear cell carcinoma (1%)

2. dermoid - squamous cell carcinoma (1%)

35
Q

Meigs syndrome

A
  1. ascites
  2. pleural effusion
  3. benign ovarian tumor
36
Q

distinguishing stages of prostate cancer

A
  • stage II is confined by capsule
  • stage IIIa extends through capsule
    (IIIb involves seminal vesicles, nerve bundle)

determines treatment

37
Q

Gleason grade, score, group

A 
grade = histological pattern, 1-5
score = sum of 2 most common grades, most common goes first ex. 3+5=8
group = pattern scores to reflect risk, 3+4=grade2, 4+3=3, 1-5
38
Q

money sequences for pirads

A

transitional zone = T2

peripheral zone = DWI

39
Q

prostate cancer locations

A 
peripheral = 70%
transition = 20%
central = 10%
40
Q

acquired and congenital causes of seminal vesicle cyst

A

acquired:

  1. obstruction from BPH, chronic infxn
  2. prior prostate sx

congenital associations

  1. renal agenesis
  2. vas deferens agenesis
  3. ectopic ureter insertion
  4. polycystic kidney dz
41
Q

testicular cancer spread

A

lymphatic (RP nodes level of renal hilum)

EXCEPT choriocarcinoma = hematogenous

42
Q

risk factors testicular cancer

A
  • cryptorchidism (both testicles)
  • gonadal dysgenesis
  • klinefelters
  • trauma
  • orchitis
  • testicular microlithiasis
43
Q

elevated betaHCG testicular cancers

A

seminoma

choriocarcinoma (nonS)

44
Q

elevated AFP testicular cancer

A 
mixed germ cell (nonS)
yolk sac (nonS)
45
Q

sertoli leydig seen in what syndrome & causes what?

A

seen in peutz jegers

causes gynecomastia

46
Q

cystic fibrosis associated with what male congenital GU anomaly

A

congenital bilateral absence vas deferens

47
Q

most common correctable cause infertility

A

varicocele

48
Q

major complications associated with cryptorchidism

A
  • malignant degeneration (both)
  • infertility
  • torsion
  • bowel incarceration (indirect inguinal hernia)

NOT orchitis

49
Q

RCC associated with sickle cell trait

A

Medullary RCC

50
Q

Renal masses associated with Birt Hogg Dubé

A

Chromophobe RCC

Bilât oncocytomas

51
Q

RCC in VHL

A

Clear cell

52
Q

Associations of papillary RCC

A 
Hereditary papillary RCC
Transplant kidney (native kidney most commonly gets the cancer)
53
Q

RCC staging

A

1 - kidney only and <7 cm
2 - kidney only and >7 cm
3 - in Gerota’s fascia but A) renal vein invasion B) IVC below diaphragm C) IVC above diaphragm
4 - beyond gerotas, ipsilat adrenal

54
Q

Retroperitoneal contents

A

SADPUCKER

Suprarenal 
Aorta/IVC
Duodenum (2nd/3rd)
Pancreas (NOT tail)
Ureters
Colon (ascending/descending)
Kidneys 
Esophagus (distal)
Rectum (upper 2/3)
55
Q

ddx striated nephrogram

A
  • acute ureteral obstruction
  • acute pyelonephritis
  • medullary sponge kidney
  • acute renal vein thrombosis
  • radiation nephritis
  • acute post contusion
  • infantile polycystic kidney
56
Q

1 location extra pulmonary Tb

A

kidneys

57
Q

uric acid stone dx

A

HU <500 (lower than others)

little change in HU on dual energy CT

58
Q

change of non uric acid stones on dual energy CT

A

higher HU at 80 kvp
lower HU at 140 kvp

uric acid ≠ change, or slight higher at 140

59
Q

stone with biggest change on dual energy CT

A

calcium >1.25 low/high energy ratio

  1. 1 uric acid
  2. 25 cystine
60
Q

stone type not seen on xray

ct

A

uric acid xray

indanivir ct

61
Q

most common cause renal vein thrombosis in kids & adults

A

kids - umbilical vein catheter

adults - nephrotic syndrome

62
Q

normal kidney RI

A

<0.7

PSV-EDV/PSV

63
Q

leukoplakia vs malakoplakia

A

leukoplakia - premalignant, chronic irritation metaplasia, squamous cell

malakoplakia - not pregmalig, e coli, better w. abx

64
Q

risk factors for TCC

A
  • smoking
  • azo dye
  • cyclophosphamide
  • aristolochic acid (balkan nephropathy)
  • horseshoe kidney
  • stones
  • ureteral pseudodiverticulosis
  • hereditary non polyposis colon cancer (type 2)
65
Q

upper tract TCC risk lower

bladder TCC risk upper

A

upper tract TCC 40% risk lower

bladder TCC 4% risk upper

66
Q

associations with squamous cell cancer of bladder

A 
schistosomiasis
suprapubic catheter (longstanding)
67
Q

cancer type in:
urethra
prostatic urethra
urethral diverticulum

A

urethra - squamous
prostatic - TCC
diverticulum - adenocarcinoma

68
Q

cushing disease vs syndrome

A 
disease = pituitary adenoma making too much ACTH
syndrome = every other cause
69
Q

absolute washout

A

C+ - delayed/C+ - C-
>60% is adenoma

if C+ >120 HU do not call adenoma

70
Q

relative washout

A

C+ - delayed/C+
>40% is adenoma

if C+ >120 HU do not call adenoma

71
Q

pheo associated syndromes

A

VHL

MEN 2a/b

NFI, sturge weber, TS

72
Q

wolman disease

A

aunt minnie

bilateral enlarged Ca2+ adrenals

73
Q

risk factor adenoca of bladder

A
  • urachus

- bladder exstrophy

RRC Cards (17 decks)

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