Neuro

Question 1

Which is INCORRECT?

a. Lesions in cerebral cortex cause ipsilateral UMN signs and postural reaction deficits
b. Lesions in C1-C6 cause UMN signs in both pelvic and thoracic limbs
c. Lesions in C6-T2 cause UMN signs in the pelvic limbs and LMN signs in the thoracic limbs
d. Lesions in T2-L3 cause UMN signs in the pelvic limbs
e. Lesions in L6-S2 cause LMN signs in the pelvic limbs

Answer 1

a. Lesions in cerebral cortex cause ipsilateral UMN signs and postural reaction deficits

Question 2

Which of the follow not usually associated with LMN lesion?
a. Muscle atrophy

b. Hyporeflexia/areflexia
c. Paralysis/paresis
d. Hyperesthesia
e. Hypoton/atonia

Answer 2

d. Hyperesthesia

Question 3

Which of the following is not a routine part of a neurological exam?
a. Take an accurate history

b. Observe the animal
c. Test peripheral reflexes
d. Test spinal reflexes
e. Do a CSF tap

Answer 3

e. Do a CSF tap

Question 4

Which is not cerebellar sign?
a. Broad based stance

b. Ataxia
c. Dysmetria
d. Intention tremors
e. Conscious proprioceptive deficits

Answer 4

e. Conscious proprioceptive defitcits

Question 5

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. An UMN bladder is difficult to express manually
b. A LMN bladder is atonic and readily expressed
c. The paniculus reflex tests nerves that transmit the information to the cell bodies of the lateral thoracic nerves at T11-L1.
d. The extensor carpi radialis reflex tests the radial nerve and is obtained by percussing the
belly of the extensor carpi radialis muscle and observing for extension of carpal joint
e. The flexor withdrawal reflex test several peripheral nerves, muscle strength and conscious
sensory proprioception

Answer 5

c. The paniculus reflex tests nerves that transmit the information to the cell bodies of the lateral thoracic nerves at T11-L1

Explanation: Its C8-T11

Question 6

Which of the following statements about Fibrocartilaginous emboli is INCORRECT?

a. It occurs in large breed dogs and rarely in the cat
b. Clinical signs develop slowly over day to weeks
c. The condition is usually non-painful
d. Diagnosis is by exclusion of other possible causes of clinical signs
e. Surgery is of no benefit and only supportive medical therapy is indicated

Answer 6

b. Clinical signs develop slowly over day to weeks

Question 7

Which of the following statements about intervertebral disc disease is INCORRECT?
a. Disc degeneration results in the dorsal displacement of the nucleus pulposus which results in spinal cord compression
b. Daschunds are predisposed
c. The condition most commonly occurs between T11-L2
d. Myelography, CT, MRI are needed for a definitive diagnosis
e. The order of nuerogical dysfunction that occurs with increasing spinal cord compression is
first – conscious proprioception
second – superficial pain
third - deep pain
fourth - motor function

Answer 7

e. The order of nuerogical dysfunction that occurs with increasing spinal cord compression is

Explanation: the correct order is:

first – conscious proprioception
second – Motor Funtion
third - Superficial pain
fourth - Deep pain –> BAD PROGNOSIS

Question 8

Which of the following statements about thoracolumbar disc disease is INCORRECT?

a. Cage rest helps most dogs but reoccurance of signs is common
b. Prednisolone can be used instead of cage rest in mildly affected dogs
c. Animals that do not improve with cage rest are candidates for surgery
d. Surgery is the therapy of choice in dogs that are paralyzed
e. Surgery is usually a hemilaminectomy with fenestration of affected, surrounding dogs

Answer 8

b. Prednisolone can be used instead of cage rest in mildly affected dogs

Question 9

Which of the following statements about diskospondylitis is INCORRECT?

a. It is an infection of the intervertebral disks
b. It most commonly occurs by bacteria spread hematogenously from skin/bladder infections
c. Affected dogs show signs of pyrexia, depression, weight loss and neurological signs
d. Radiographic changes may not occur until 4-6 weeks post infection
e. Short term antibiotic therapy is highly effective in treating the condition

Answer 9

e. Short term antibiotic therapy is highly effective in treating the condition

Question 10

Which of the following statements about cervical disk disease is INCORRECT?

a. In dachshunds it occurs between C2/C3
b. In dobermans it occurs between C6/C7
c. The predominant sign is severe neck pain.
d. Cage rest is the initial treatment of choice in dogs that do not have marked neurological deficits
e. A hemilaminectomy is the surgery of choice to relieve pressure on the spinal cord

Answer 10

e. A hemilaminectomy is the surgery of choice to relieve pressure on the spinal cord

Question 11

Which of the following statements about degenerative myelopathy is INCORRECT?

a. There is a slow progressive development of paresis and ataxia
b. It occurs especially in German Shepherd dogs
c. The condition is painful and urinary and fecal incontinence usually develop
d. Diagnosis is by exclusion of inflammatory and compressive conditions of the spinal cord
e. There is no effective therapy

Answer 11

c. The condition is painful and urinary and fecal incontinence usually develop

Question 12

Which statement about cervical spondylomyelopathy (canine wobblers) is INCORRECT?

a. The condition occurs most in young great danes and old dobermans
b. The pelvic limbs are usually more affected than the thoracic limbs
c. Myelograms are not necessary for the diagnosis; vertebral changes are obvious on plain radiographs

d. Medical therapy is only palliative as the condition is progressive
e. surgical decompression and or surgical stabilization may provide long term benefits

Answer 12

c. Myelograms are not necessary for the diagnosis; vertebral changes are obvious on plain radiographs

Question 13

Which of the following statements about lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation instability is INCORRECT?

a. It is seen particularly in old, large breed like the german shepherd
b. In the early stages you see lumbosacral pain and difficulty rising and negotiating stairs
c. Posterior paresis is usually seen early and occurs because of entrapment of the sciatic nerve
d. The condition can be diagnosed by contrast radiography, myelography or epidural
e. Medical management has the best results, surgery usually exacerbates the condition

Answer 13

e. Medical management has the best results, surgery usually exacerbates the condition

Question 14

Which of the following statements about vestibular disease is INCORRECT?

a. The main signs include a head tilt, circling to the affected side and nystagmus
b. In central vestibular disease there are contralateral conscious proprioception deficits
c. Peripheral vestibular disease can be caused by otitis media interna and drug toxicities
d. Idiopathic peripheral vestibular disease occurs in both cats and older dogs
e. Central vestibular disease occurs in mature dogs and is most often due to neoplasia

Answer 14

b. In central vestibular disease there are contralateral conscious proprioception deficits

Question 15

Which of the following statements about seizures is INCORRECT?
a. General tonic clonic motor seizures are the commonest seizures in dogs

b. Seizures in dogs generally have 3 phases – preictal, ictal and post ictal
c. Idiopathic epilepsy is treated with anticonvulsants while in secondary epilepsy, the underlying cause should be treated
d. Phenobarbitol should not be used in dogs with liver disease
e. KBromide should not be used in dogs with renal disease
f. All choices are correct

Answer 15

f. All choices are correct

Question 16

Which of the following is not indicated for the start of anticonvulsant therapy?

a. Seizures occur more frequently than once every 6-8 weeks
b. Status epilepticus
c. Clusters of seizures
d. Prolonged seizures
e. Owner demands therapy

Answer 16

e. Owner demands therapy

Question 17

Which statement about fibrocartilaginous embolism is INCORRECT?

a. it occurs mainly in middle-aged large breed dogs
b. clinical signs often develop peracutely, frequently during or after vigorous exercise
c. there is paresis or paralysis that is often lateralizing and not associated with hyperestheia
d. hemilaminectomy is indicated to relieve pressure on the spinal cord

e. where the embolus has occurred in the brachial or pelvic intumescence there are LMN signs and a
worse prognosis

Answer 17

d. hemilaminectomy is indicated to relieve pressure on the spinal cord

Question 18

Which one of the following about diskospondylitis is INCORRECT?

a. it is an infection of an intervertebral disk with concurrent osteomyelitis of the contiguous vertebrae

b. it is commonly caused by s. intermedius which spreads hematogenously to the disc from
skin/bladder infections

c. affected dogs usually have pyrexia, depression and weight loss as well as neurological signs
d. even dogs with minimal neurological dysfunction should be treated surgically as debridement of the infection is the only effective therapy
e. definitive diagnosis by radiography is sometimes difficult as radiographic changes may only be seen 4-6 weeks post infection

Answer 18

d. even dogs with minimal neurological dysfunction should be treated surgically as debridement of the infection is the only effective therapy

Question 19

Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. progressive monoparesis with ‘root sign’ is very suggestive of nerve root neoplasia

b. surgery is indicated for decompression of the spinal cord and stabilization of vertebrae fractured
by trauma, but only if the injury occurred less than 4 hours previously

c. congenital absence or fracture of the odontoid process usually results in a chronic syndrome of
gradual vertebral displacement which is correctable by surgery

d. botulism, tick paralysis, coonhound paralysis. Congenital and acquired myopathies, tetanus and
protozoal polyradiculoneuritis all causes flaccid paralysis in the dog

e. with central vestibular dz there a re conscious proprioceptive deficits or paresis which do not
occur w/ peripheral vestibular dz

Answer 19

d. botulism, tick paralysis, coonhound paralysis. Congenital and acquired myopathies, tetanus and
protozoal polyradiculoneuritis all causes flaccid paralysis in the dog

Question 20

A dog presents with neurological signs. The findings upon examination are the following:

Motor: Circling to the left
Oculomotor: nystagmus fast phase to the right

Where is the lesion located?

Answer 20

Left Side Vestibular Lesion

Question 21

A Police dog gets injured during service. The following are results from the neurological examination:

Mentation: BAR
Motor: Tetraparesis, hypertonic muscles

Where is the lesion located?

Answer 21

C1-C6

Question 22

True/False: Tetanus causes flaccid paralysis.

Answer 22

FALSE.

Question 23

A dog presents with neurological abnormalities. The following are findings from the neurological exam:

Mentation: Depressed, seizing
Motor: right thoracic and pelvic limbs hemiparesis
Cranial Nerves: Normal PLR, No menace resonse in the right eye

Where is the lesion located?

Answer 23

Left Cortex

Question 24

What does not occur with Horner’s syndrome:

a. Mydriasis
b. Ptosis
c. Miosis
d. Prolapse of nicotinic membrane
e. Enopthalmos

Answer 24

a. Mydriasis

Question 25

T/F: Pyridostigmine can be used for upper AND lower motor bladder

Answer 25

FALSE

Question 26

A dog is hit by a car and is presenting depression, sluggish pupil reflex, irregular resp, and decreased CN reflexes. All of the following are treatment options EXCEPT?
A. CSF Tap
B. Sedation

Answer 26

A. CSF Tap

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT seen with lesions located between C6-T2?

a. LMN bladder
b. Horner’s syndrome
c. absent panicular reflex
d. LMN front limbs

Answer 27

a. LMN bladder

Question 28

What is the likely diagnosis of the following case?
Normal mentation
Left front limb - increased extensor tone
Head tilt, circling, falling to right side
proprioceptive deficits on the left side
cranial nerve deficits on the left side.

A. Right cerebral cortex tumor
B. left cerebral cortex tumor
C. Right brain stem lesion
D. Left brain stem lesion

Answer 28

B. left cerebral cortex tumor

Question 29

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old intact male German Shepard (police dog):

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – difficulty with rising over the past 3 months – getting slowly worse; avoids stairs.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems –pain over lumbosacral area
Evaluation of postural reactions – mild paraparesis.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – normal forelimbs; patellar reflex exaggerated; flexor withdrawal – poor flexion of hock and stifle; reduced cranial tibial
and perineal reflexes.
Evaluation of sensation – reduced superficial pain sensation in hind limbs.
Where is the neurological lesion MOST LIKELY to be in this dog?
a. Brain stem
b. C2/3
c. C7/T1
d. T2/T3
e. L7/S1

Answer 29

e. L7/S1

Question 30

True/False: Masticatory Myositis will respond to steroid therapy.

Answer 30

TRUE

Question 31

Localize the Lesion:

a. Normal mental status, Normal Front limbs, LMN hind limbs

b. GSD with lumbosacral pain. Normal mental status. LMN signs in the hind limbs and the front were not
affected.

c. Depressed and lethargic. Circling to the left, CP deficits & no menace response on the right.

Answer 31

a. L3 caudal

b. L4-S3 – Normal mentation eliminates cortex & brain stem. Normal front & LMN hindlimbs is
your lumbosacral region.

c. Left cerebral cortex – you automatically think cortex & brain stem based on the mental status.

Question 32

Which is INCORRECT in regards to seizures in cats?

a. Phenobarb doesnt cause hepatic toxicity in cats
b. Potassium bromide is the safest drug to use

Answer 32

B

Explanation:

Answer A (Phenobarb doesnt cause hepatic toxicity in cats) This is true, a lot of people picked this, but he stressed that phenobarb is the DOC for cats bc it
doesn’t cause hepatotoxicity (don’t use it if they have existing liver dz bc it still has to be
metabolized by the liver but its not toxic)

Answer B: K+ bromide causes severe asthma, and in class he said “better to avoid in cats completely”

Question 33

Which of the following is not an LMN sign?

a. Hypo/Areflexia
b. Atrophy
c. Crossed extensor reflex

Answer 33

c. Crossed extensor reflex – only UMN

Question 34

True/False: Colloids are contraindicated in brain herniation.

Answer 34

FALSE.

Explanation: Colloids will pull fluids from the CNS and decrease the pressure.

Question 35

Which of the following is diagnosed by serology?

a. Limber tail
b. exertional myopathy
c. myasthenia gravis
d. canine idiopathic myositis
e. tick paralysis

Answer 35

c. myasthenia gravis

Question 36

All of the following are consistent with brain trauma EXCEPT:

a. Depression
b. Sluggish PLR
c. Irregular respiration
d. Diminished Cranial nerve responses
e. LMN Bladder

Answer 36

e. LMN Bladder

Question 37

All of the following may be treated with prednisolone/prednisone EXCEPT:

a. Masticatory muscle myositis
b. Feline hypokalemic myopathy
c. Extraocular myositis
d. Canine idiopathic myositis
e. Feline idiopathic inflammatory myopathy

Answer 37

b. Feline hypokalemic myopathy

Question 38

True/False: Hypokalemic myopathy can occur in older cats with renal disease.

Answer 38

TRUE.

Question 39

True/False: The drug of choice in animals with UMN bladder is phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

Answer 39

FALSE

Question 40

True/False: Myasthenia Gravis is often associated with megaesophagus

Answer 40

TRUE

Question 41

A dog presents to your clinic with a myopathy. Which of the following signs are LEAST likely to be seen?

a. Weakness
b. Muscle pani and elevated CPK
c. Normal conscious proprioception
d. Normal sensation
e. Short strides

Answer 41

e. Short strides

Question 42

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding cranial trauma?

a. Shock and life threatening injuries should be treated first
b. Hypercapnia must be presented as it raises intracranial pressure
c. Use of crystalloid fluids to treat shock is prefferred as this is less likely to increase intracranial pressure
d. Irregular respiratory and unresponsive bilateral mydriasis indicate poor prognosis
e. Brain edema is treated with mannitol

Answer 42

c. Use of crystalloid fluids to treat shock is prefferred as this is less likely to increase intracranial pressure

Explanation: USE COLLOIDS. Coilloids will pull fluids into the vascular space and away from the CNS

Question 43

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old Schnauzer spayed
bitch that suddenly ‘collapsed’ after her evening walk:

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – tetraplegia.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – normal, no pain, muscle tone maybe increased.
Evaluation of postural reactions – tetraplegia.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – all reflexes exaggerated.
Evaluation of sensation – decreased on all 4 limbs.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?

a. Fibrocartialgenous embolus.
b. Bain stem tumor.
c. Cervical disc extrusion.
d. Bilateral brachial plexus avulsion.
e. Granulomatous meningioencephalitis.

Answer 43

a. Fibrocartialgenous embolus.

Question 44

Which one of the following is NOT tested in the flexor withdrawal reflex on a hind limb?

a. Muscle strength.
b. Sensory perception.
c. Flexion of the hip via the femoral nerve.
d. Flexion of the stifle and hock via the sciatic nerve.
e. Continence.

Answer 44

e. Continence.

Explanation: –Continence is tested via the pudendal nerve which is not tested in the flexor withdrawal test. (Test
includes: Sciatic & femoral in the hindlimb, ‘MUM’ in the front limb – Median, Ulnar,
Musculocutaneous)

Question 45

Which statement about thoracolumbar disc disease is INCORRECT?

a. Cage rest helps most dogs with spinal hyperesthesia and paresis.
b. Relapses are very rare in dogs that recover with cage rest.
c. Animals that do not improve with cage rest are candidates for surgery.

d. Surgery is the therapy of choice in dogs that are paralyzed.
e. Surgery usually consists of a hemilaminectomy and fenestration of the affected and
surrounding discs.

Answer 45

b. Relapses are very rare in dogs that recover with cage rest.

Question 46

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 3 year-old Great Dane dog:

Mental status – normal mentation.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems - lack of muscle tone.
Evaluation of postural reactions - dog has tetraplegia.
Evaluation of cranial nerves - normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves - all reflexes markedly depressed or absent.
Evaluation of sensation - normal.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?

a. Canine wobbler syndrome (cervical spondylopathy).
b. Tetanus.
c. Acute polyradiculoneuritis (Coonhound’s paralysis).
d. Myositis.
e. Brain stem neoplasia.

Answer 46

c. Acute polyradiculoneuritis (Coonhound’s paralysis).

Question 47

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 15 year-old dog:

Mental status, posture and gait – depressed, seizures, pacing, circles to the left.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems - normal.
Evaluation of postural reactions – abnormal on the right fore and hind limbs.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – no menace in the right eye; minimal response to stimulation of the
nasal mucosa on the right.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – hyperreflexia on the right fore and hind limbs.
Evaluation of sensation – depressed on the right side.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?

a. A tumor in the left cerebral cortex.
b. A tumor in the right cerebral cortex.
c. A tumor in the cerebellum.
d. A tumor in the left brain stem.
e. A tumor in the right vestibular apparatus

Answer 47

a. A tumor in the left cerebral cortex.

Question 48

Which of the following are you LEAST LIKELY to see in a dog with lower motor neuron
signs?

a. Lack of voluntary motor activity.
b. Decreased sensation.
c. Lack of muscle tone.
d. Areflexia.
e. Crossed extensor reflex.

Answer 48

e. Crossed extensor reflex.

Question 49

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old intact male poodle:

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – dragging back legs today, was normal last night.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – hind limbs a little atonic
Evaluation of postural reactions – paraplegia
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – hyporeflexia on hind limbs
Evaluation of sensation – superficial pain sensation absent on hind limbs.

Where is the neurological lesion MOST LIKELY to be in this dog?

a. T2 to L3
b. L3 caudally
c. in the muscles
d. C6 to T2
e. in the peripheral nerves

Answer 49

b. L3 caudally

Question 50

A dog with vestibular signs, facial nerve signs and conscious proprioceptive deficits on the same side must have a lesion in the:

a. brain stem on the same side
b. ear on the opposite side
c. brain stem on the opposite side
d. cerebral cortex on the opposite side
e. cerebellum on the same side.

Answer 50

a. brain stem on the same side

Question 51

Which of the following is not consistent with a cerebellar problem?

a. dysmetria
b. ataxia
c. head bobbing
d. broad based stance
e. conscious proprioception deficits

Answer 51

e. conscious proprioception deficits

Question 52

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old intact male GSD
(police dog):

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – difficulty with rising over the past 3 months – getting slowly worse; avoids stairs.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – pain over lumbosacral area
Evaluation of postural reactions – mild paraparesis.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – normal forelimbs; patellar reflex exaggerated; flexor withdrawal –
poor flexion of hock and stifle; reduced cranial tibial and perineal reflexes.
Evaluation of sensation – reduced superficial pain sensation in hind limbs.

Where is the neurological lesion MOST LIKELY to be in this dog?

a. Brain stem
b. C2/3
c. C7/T1
d. T2/T3
e. L7/S1

Answer 52

e. L7/S1

Question 53

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Megaesophagus occurs commonly in dogs with myasthenia gravis.
b. Botulism, tick paralysis and coonhound paralysis all cause flaccid paralysis in the dog.

c. Deafness is a common congenital problem in Dalmatians. It is generally recommended that
bilaterally deaf animals be euthanized.

d. In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to antibiotic therapy.
e. Granulomatous meningioencephalomyelitis (GME) can cause focal or multifocal neurological signs.

Answer 53

d. In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to antibiotic therapy.

Question 54

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Bethanecol can be used in dogs with a ‘lower motor neuron bladder’.
b. Phenoxybenzamine can be used in dogs with an ‘upper motor neuron bladder’.
c. Phenylpropanolamine can be used in dogs with a ‘lower motor neuron bladder’.
d. Prazosin can be used in dogs with an ‘upper motor neuron bladder’.
e. Indwelling urinary catheters are better than the above drugs for the management of upper/ lower motor neuron bladders

Answer 54

e. Indwelling urinary catheters are better than the above drugs for the management of upper/ lower motor neuron bladders

Question 55

Which statement comparing cervical (CDP) and thoracolumbar disc prolapses (TLDP) is CORRECT?

a. CDP are more likely to cause neurological deficits and less likely to cause pain.
b. CDP are most commonly Hansen type II in small dogs
c. CDP are less likely to respond to cage rest
d. Surgery for a CDP involves a ventral approach; a dorsal approach is made for TLDP
e. Prognosis following surgery for CDP is much poorer than for TLDP

Answer 55

d. Surgery for a CDP involves a ventral approach; a dorsal approach is made for TLDP

Question 56

Which statement about intervertebral disc disease is INCORRECT?

a. Calcification of discs occurs commonly in chondrodystrophic breeds.
b. Most thoracolumbar disc protrusions are between T11 and L2.
c. Clinical signs with a disc prolapse vary from spinal hyperesthesia with no neurological deficits to anesthesia with paralysis.

d. Myelography, CT or MRI are needed for the definitive diagnosis of a disc prolapse and to
locate the site of the prolapse.

e. Onset of clinical signs is usually precipitated by exercise/ trauma

Answer 56

e. Onset of clinical signs is usually precipitated by exercise/ trauma

Question 57

Which of the following statements about vestibular disease is INCORRECT?

a. Signs include head tilt, falling to one side and nystagmus.
b. Head tilt and falling are usually toward the side of the lesion.
c. The fast phase of nystagmus is usually towards the side of the lesion.
d. Central vestibular disease is often associated with neoplasia or infections.
e. Peripheral vestibular disease is usually associated with otitis.

Answer 57

c. The fast phase of nystagmus is usually towards the side of the lesion.

Question 58

In animals with cranial trauma which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Shock and life threatening injuries should be treated first.
b. Colloids are contraindicated and Lactated Ringer’s Solution (LRS) must be used to treat shock.
c. Hypercapnia must be prevented as this raises intracranial pressure.
d. Brain edema is best treated with mannitol.
e. Irregular respiration and unresponsive bilateral mydriasis indicate a poor prognosis.

Answer 58

b. Colloids are contraindicated and Lactated Ringer’s Solution (LRS) must be used to treat shock.

Question 59

Which of the following conditions is LEAST LIKELY to be painful?

a. fibrocartilaginous embolus.
b. discospondylitis.
c. cervical disc protrusion.
d. lumbosacral instability.
e. malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.

Answer 59

a. fibrocartilaginous embolus.

Question 60

Which of the following statements about seizures is INCORRECT?

a. Generalized tonic-clonic motor seizures are the most common form of seizures in dogs.

b. In the preictal phase, there may be subtle behavior changes such as seeking out the owner,
restlessness or anxiety.

c. During the ictal phase, animals usually fall unconscious and show tonic and then clonic
muscle activity with autonomic signs (urination/ defecation/ salivation).

d. In the postictal phase, animals very rapidly regain consciousness and soon appear normal,
behaviorally and neurologically.

e. Idiopathic epilepsy is treated with anticonvulsant drugs; with secondary epilepsy the underlying cause should be treated.

Answer 60

d. In the postictal phase, animals very rapidly regain consciousness and soon appear normal,
behaviorally and neurologically.

Question 61

Which of the following statements about the treatment of seizures is INCORRECT?

a. Phenobarbital is contraindicated in dogs with existing liver disease.
b. Blood levels of phenobarbital should be measured at regular intervals to enable the correct dose of the drug to be given.
c. Dogs having seizures in clusters or more frequently than every 6-8 weeks should be placed on phenobarbital.
d. ALP and ALT must be measured regularly so that phenobarb induced hepatopathy can be detected early.

e. Potassium bromide can also be used for seizure control, but it should not be used if there
are signs of renal insufficiency.

Answer 61

d. ALP and ALT must be measured regularly so that phenobarb induced hepatopathy can be detected early.

Question 62

Which of the following statements about seizures in cats is INCORRECT?

a. They are less likely to be idiopathic (primary) than in dogs.
b. They are more variable than those seen in dogs.
c. They are most commonly treated with phenobarbital.
d. Phenobarbital does not cause hepatotoxicity in cats.
e. Potassium bromide is the safest drug to treat seizures in cats.

Answer 62

e. Potassium bromide is the safest drug to treat seizures in cats.

Question 63

A dog with tetraplegia as a result of a severe lesion at C6-T2 is most likely to have which of the following?

a. Normal respiration
b. No respiration
c. Marked abdominal effort
d. Marked thoracic effort
e. Marked abdominal and thoracic effort.

Answer 63

c. Marked abdominal effort

Question 64

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

a. Monoparesis - lack of voluntary muscle activity on one limb.
b. Hemiplegia – absence of voluntary motor activity on one side
c. “Root signature” - hyperesthesia with limb palpation or manipulation.
d. Paraplegia – lack of voluntary motor activity on all four limbs.
e. Hypesthesia – decreased sensation.

Answer 64

d. Paraplegia – lack of voluntary motor activity on all four limbs.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Dogs with hydrocephalus show signs as puppies and these may include seizures, tetraparesis, altered mental status and learning problems.
b. Hydrocephalus is best treated with shunts that drain CSF into the abdominal/ peritoneal cavity.
c. Gliomas and meningiomas are the commonest primary brain tumors in dogs.
d. Gliomas are easier to remove surgically and have a better prognosis.
e. Brain herniation is a possible complication of a CSF tap.

Answer 65

d. Gliomas are easier to remove surgically and have a better prognosis.

Question 66

Which of the following treatments is LEAST important in a neurological patient that is nonambulatory?

a. Physiotherapy.
b. Regular turning.
c. Emptying the bladder regularly.
d. Prophylactic antibiotics.
e. Ensure dog can reach water and food.

Answer 66

d. Prophylactic antibiotics.

Question 67

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Cerebellar hypoplasia in cats can be due to in utero infection with feline panleukopenia parvovirus.
b. Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) responds well to prednisolone therapy.
c. Dogs in the early stages of degenerative myelopathy generally have normal sensation in the limbs and are continent.

d. Dysautonomia can be seen in dogs in the mid-western US and is associated with signs due to
autonomic nervous system dysfunction.

e. There is no effective treatment for degenerative myelopathy in dogs.

Answer 67

b. Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) responds well to prednisolone therapy.

Question 68

Severe peripheral nerve injuries result in which ONE of the following?

a. Very little muscle atrophy.
b. Hypermetria.
c. Nerve root signs.
d. Anesthesia and areflexia.
e. Hyperesthesia and hyperreflexia.

Answer 68

d. Anesthesia and areflexia.

Question 69

Which of the following statements regarading status epilepticus is CORRECT?

a. It occurs when there are rapidly recurring convulsions without complete
b. there minimal recovery between seizures and requires aggressive antiepileptic therapy
c. Intravenous phenobarbital takes 20-30 mins to produce its maximum antileptic effect and seizures occurring in this time should be controlled with diazepam
d. Intravenous phenobarbital is indicated if the animal has stopped seizuring by the time the animal presents for treatment
e. If seizure cannot be controlled with diazepam and phenobarbital the animal should be anesthetized with pentobarbital
f. all of the above

Answer 69

f. all of the above

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for tetanus?

a. Wound Debridement
b. Peniccillin
c. Canine Antitoxin
d. IV fluid

Answer 70

c. Canine Antitoxin

Explanation: it is EQUINE antitoxin. That is why you must always test a small areal first for allergic reactions