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SAM I > Infectious > Flashcards

Infectious Flashcards

1
Q

F+ Vomiting, bloody Diarrhea, V+ was intractable after treatment. Which is the LEAST likely cause?

a. Foreign body
b. Intussception
c. Pancreatitis
d. Leptospirosis
e. Salmonella

A

d. Leptospirosis

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2
Q

Which of the following dx are best for lepto

a. PCR
b. MAT
c. Any of the above are good indicators

A

c. Any of the above are good indicators

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3
Q

Ehrlichia & Anaplasma, which is NOT a common finding seen with them?

a. Epistaxis because of Decreased platelets
b. Exercise intolerance because of Heart block
c. Otitis externa from colonization

A

c. Otitis externa from colonization – they don’t colonize bc they’re in the blood

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4
Q

Pick the non-core vax for a dog

a. Bordetella
b. Hepatitis
c. Distemper
d. Rabies
e. Parvo

A

a. Bordetella

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5
Q

Cat 10 weeks old tests positive for FeLV, whats next?

A

a. Retest in 3 months

It may be a regressive disease, which will be p27 negative in 3 months.

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6
Q

Why are killed vaccines better than live?

A

a. Killed vaccines cannot replicate

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7
Q

A pitbull comes into your clinic and is found to have hemolytic anemia, vasculitis, fever, and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely cause?

A

a. Babesia gibonsi

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8
Q

FIV + cat at 7mo. Old, what is true?

a. Maternal Abs could have
b. Transient infection
c. The cat likely has FIV
d. Retest in 8 months

A

c. The cat likely has FIV

Explanation: Maternal antibodies only produce positive results until 6 months.

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of hemolytic anemia in cats?

a. Mycoplasma
b. Cytauxzoon
c. Bartonella henselae
e. Feline Paneleukopenia

A

a. Mycoplasma

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10
Q

What is OspA and what does it do?

A

It is the outer surface protein of Borrelia Burgdorferi. It helps the bacterium adhere to the midgut of the infected ticks.

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11
Q

4 month old in the southern states presents with waxing & waning pyrexcia, cachexia, pain, diarrhea and lameness.
Radiographs show periosteal reactions near the muscle attachment. What is your differential diagnosis? What is used to treat?

A

Hepatozoonosis (H. americanum)

Tx w/ NSAIDs. If in remission can add trimethorprim/decoquinate)

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12
Q

List the infectious diseases for which doxycycline is the treatment of choice.

A

Dogs

  • Brucellosis
  • Lymy Disease (borrelia burgdorferi)
  • Leptospirosis
  • Mycoplasma Hemocanis
  • Bartonellosis
  • Rickettsial diseases
  • *Cats**
  • Mycoplasma hemofelis
  • Bartonella henselae

Ehrlichia and Borrelia – Ehrlichia & Borrelia (Lyme dz.) are both intracellular bacteria so you would
use Doxycycline for both

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13
Q

4 month old cat tested FIV + on your in-house ELISA snap test. What is the most likely cause?

a. Fighting with another FIV + cat
b. Maternal Antibodies

A

b. Maternal Antibodies

Explanation: A is not correct because that would be the case if the cat was >6 months

they may have false + due to material Abs until 6 mo old. So retest in 6 mo to see if it’s a true
+ (Also: FIV = Antibodies & ‘unfriendly’ – transmission is via Biting or Blood – you can remember this bc AntiBodies has
a B and so does Biting & Blood) (FeLV = Ag & ‘Friendly’

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14
Q

Which organism is found in a neutrophil?

a. Ehrlichia Canis
b. Ehrlichia chaffensis
c. Ana plasma Platys
d. Ehrlichia ewingii

A

d. Ehrlichia ewingii

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15
Q

Dallas presents with thrombocytopenia, enemia, and hyperglobulinemia. You suspect ehrlichia. How would you confirm this?

a. PCR
b. Fecal microscopy
c. Ehrlichia Culture
d. Elisa Snap Test

A

a. PCR

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16
Q

The test for ehrlichiosis returns positive. What antibiotic would you treat Dallas with

a. Amoxycillin clavulanic acid
b. Trimethoprim sulphonamide
c. Doxycycline
d. Erythromycin

A

c. Doxycycline

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17
Q

How is canine distemper virus shed

a. Bite wounds
b. Respiratory water droplets
c. feces
d. urine

A

b. Respiratory water droplets

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18
Q

Which one of the following is not a classical sign for canine distemper virus?

a. Diarrhea
b. Nasal and Digital hyperkeratosis
c. Oculonasal discharge
d. Seizures
e. Trismus
f. Paralysis
g. Coughing

A

e. Trismus

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19
Q

True/False: Canine Adenovirus type 1 only affects dogs <1 year of age.

A

FALSE

It typically affects dogs <1year of age but any unvaccinated dog can develop.

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20
Q

A puppy presents with hemorrhagic diarrhea, it was vaccinated (CDV CPV) 4 days ago. you perform a fecal canine parvo ELISA antigen test which returned positive. Which one of the following is correct?

A. You need to perform fecal microscopy
B. The dog has parvovirus
C. The dog may be positive due to the vaccination, advise PCR
D. It is likely a result of the poor sensitivity of the test

A

C. The dog may be positive due to the vaccination, advise PCR

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21
Q

A rabies outbreak occurs in the northeast. What is the most likely reservoir?

A

Racoon

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22
Q

What sample is tested when diagnosing Rabies with Fluorescent antibody testing?

A

Saliva

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23
Q

An 8week old puppy presents with diarrhoea, anorexia, vomiting, and mental depression. You suspect coccidiosis. How would you confirm this?

A

Fecal flotation

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24
Q

A dog presents with change in behaviour, lethargy, aggression, restlessness, and vomiting. You suspect Rabies and Pseudorabies (or Aujesky’s disease). How are these transmitted?

a. Aujesky’s is transmitted via bite wounds while rabies is transmitted via pork products.
b. They are both tickborne diseases.
c. Rabies is transmitted through bite wounds while Aujesky’s is transmitted through mosquitoes.
d. Rabies is transmitted through bite wounds whie Aujesky’s is transmitted through the consumption of pork products.

A

d. Rabies is transmitted through bite wounds whie Aujesky’s is transmitted through the consumption of pork products.

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25
Q

At what age are puppies given their last vaccination?

A

16 weeks

26
Q

A dog presents with diarrhea/maldigestion. You perform fecal microscopy, suspecting Giardia duodenalis. The fecal microscopy comes back negative. What is the next best technique to confirm your suspicion?

A. Fecal float

B. Blood serology

C. Fecal ELISA Test

D. Radiographs

A

C. Fecal ELISA Test

27
Q

How is rabies spread?

  1. Airbone
  2. Feces
  3. Bites
  4. Ingestion of food
A
  1. Bites
28
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies viral infection in dogs & cats ?

a. 1-3 wks
b. 3-12 wks
c. 3-8 wks
d. 6-10 wks

A

c. 3-8 wks

29
Q

Which phase of rabies viral infection shows hyper salivation and the inability to swallow?

a. Prodromal phase
b. Furious/psychotic phase
c. paralytic dumb phase
d. Incubation phase

A

c. paralytic dumb phase

30
Q

The local pig farmer brings in his new border collie for vaccination. The dog eats raw pork frequently. Which additional vaccination would you recommend?

a. Borreliosis
b. Porcine Herpesvirus-1
c. Swine Influenza VIrus
d. Trypanosomiasis

A

b. Porcine Herpesvirus-1

31
Q

Neosporosis in dogs classical shows two system deficits/abnormalities. One, neurological abnormalities and the other…

a. Muscular
b. Hepatic
c. Pulmonary
d. Myocardial

A

a. Muscular

32
Q

A radiograph suggests Hepatozoon americium infection. What does it show?

a. Osteolytic changes near end plates
b. Hypertrophic osteopathy around distal limbs
c. Osteopenia of all skeletal bones
d. Periosteal reactions near muscle attachments

A

d. Periosteal reactions near muscle attachments

33
Q

How is bartonellosis spread to cats?

a. through food
b. through cat fleas
c. through saliva
d. through feces

A

b. through cat fleas

34
Q

A cat presents with classical mycoplasma hemofelis signs. What does this cat show

a. Icterus, anemia, hyperglobulinemia
b. Anorexia, elevated creatinine and dehydration
c. neurological abnormalities & hypoglycemia
d. Fever, elevated potassium and hyperglycemia

A

a. Icterus, anemia, hyperglobulinemia

35
Q

Which cells does feline panleukopenia virus target?

a. Neural cells
b. hepatic cells
c. rapidly dividing cells
d. pulmonary cells

A

c. rapidly dividing cells

36
Q

What is the pathological lesion found in the life threatening disease FeCOV/FIP

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Hepatic necrosis
c. Immune-mediated vasculitis
d. Immuno-suppression

A

c. Immune-mediated vasculitis

37
Q

FIP occurs when?

a. CMI occurs
b. Humoral Immunity occurs
c. FeCOV is excreted in feces
d. FeCOV is taken up by neutrophils

A

b. Humoral Immunity occurs

38
Q

When does the wet form of FIP occur?

a. When FeCOV enters the GIT
b. When FeCOV is taken up by macrophages
c. When Mild Cell-mediated immunity occurs
d. When severe-immune mediated vasculitis occurs

A

d. When severe-immune mediated vasculitis occurs

39
Q

A 5 yo mn dog is fed hill’s active adult with added raw chicken. CS include vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia (bright red -undigested poo). Which next step would be appropriate?

a. Client education
b. Culture for definitive diagnosis
c. Antibiotics even if minimal CS
d. Neuter

A

a. Client education

Explanation: Raw chicken -think salmonella. A culture would not be helpful in this case because its commensal. Antibiotics should not be given unless severe.

40
Q

Choose all of the appropriate treatments for helicobacter:

a. Omeprazole or famotidine
b. histamine to increase gastric acid production
c. 2 antibiotics like amoxicillin, metronidazole
d. Surgery debulk

A

a. Omeprazole or famotidine
c. 2 antibiotics like amoxicillin, metronidazole

41
Q

What is the mechanism of 4Dx snap test for borrelia burgodrferi

a. Ag in blood
b. Ab in joint aspirate
c. Ag in urine
d. Antibodies to Osp C6

A

d. Antibodies to Osp C6

Fun fact: snap test can differentiate between vaccinated and infection. Vaccines use OspA!

42
Q

T/F: Client education concerning borrelia burgdorferi is very important since canines are the source of infection for humans.

A

FALSE.

43
Q

Which is the most probable outcome of an animal with low antibody levels during a leptospira infection?

a. Elimination
b. No shedding
c. Mild bacteremia
d. Chronic shedding

A

d. Chronic shedding

44
Q

What tests do you send to diagnose leptospirosis?

A

3 tests to send off: PCR Urine + Serum, MAT

45
Q

Which is true of botulism (choose all that apply)?

a. Most of the toxin is released from clostridium botulinum in the GIT
b. Prevent by cooking meat fully
c. Canines are resistant and cannot be infected
d. Mouse inoculation test of serum, feces, v, or stomach contents is highly sensitive

A

b. Prevent by cooking meat fully
d. Mouse inoculation test of serum, feces, v, or stomach contents is highly sensitive

46
Q

Treatment for tetanus includes (choose all that apply):

a. Antitoxin
b. Supportive care
d. Antibiotics to reduce toxin formation
e. Muscle relaxants

A

All of the above

47
Q

Which rickettsial organism infects monocytes

a. Rickettsia rickttsia
b. Erhlichia canis
c. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
d. Ehrlichia ewingii

A

b. Erhlichia canis
c. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

MonoCytes = Canis & Chaffeensis

48
Q

A 3y mn dog presents with petechia and lameness. You suspect a rickettsial disease, which is the appropriate next step

a. Empirical doxycline
b. Empirical itraconazole
c. Fresh whole blood

A

a. Empirical doxycline

49
Q

Which of the following is true of canine distemper virus (choose all that apply)?

a. spread by water droplet
b. most common signalment is older intact male
c. neutralizing antibody serology is the gold standard
d. Prognosis is excellent with seizure medications

A

a. spread by water droplet
c. neutralizing antibody serology is the gold standard

50
Q

CAV-1 targets which cells?

a. Hepatic parenchyma
b. Vascular endothelium
c. CNS
d. Lung parenchyma

Bonus: what is the disease name of this virus?

A

a. Hepatic parenchyma
b. Vascular endothelium
c. CNS

Bonus: Canine infectious hepatitis!

51
Q

True/False:

Parvovirus and canine distemper virus are very stable in the environment

A

FALSE

52
Q

A client says their dog was exposed to a rabid animal. Which of the following circumstances are appropriate?

a. If unvaccinated dog recommend euthanasia
b. If unvaccinated dog monitor for 45 days if CS show
c. Monitor for 90 days regardless of vaccination history
d. Do nothing

A

a. If unvaccinated dog recommend euthanasia

53
Q

What is the appropriate vaccination protocol for rabies virus in an endemic area?

A

Killed Vaccine:

Vaccinate at 16 weeks

Booster at 1 year

Booster every 3 years

54
Q

How is pseudorabies prevented in endemic areas? Select all that apply

a. Porcine HSV-1 Vaccine
b. Educate owners on the risk of raw pork
c. cross-protection w/ rabies vax
d. imperial antibiotics

A

a. Porcine HSV-1 Vaccine
b. Educate owners on the risk of raw pork

55
Q

A 6 yo pitibull presents with an odd lesion on the ears you associate with vasculitis. You suspect this animal may be involved with dog fighting since the teeth are filed down. What organism are you concerned about and how would you test?

a. Small babesia, plasma sample
b. Small babesia, blood smear
c. Large babesia, plasma sample
d. Large babesia, blood smear

A

b. Small babesia, blood smear

56
Q

Felines are reservoirs for human catch scratch disease. Which organism is responsible for this?

a. Cryptococcus
b. Mycoplasma
c. Bartonella
d. FIV

A

c. Bartonella

57
Q

Which of the following correctly describes feline panleukopenia virus? Select all that apply

a. very stable at room temp
b. target is rapidly dividing cells
c. acute infection is most common
d. long shedding period

A

a. very stable at room temp
b. target is rapidly dividing cells
c. acute infection is most common

58
Q

Which of the following is/are most susceptible to FIP

a. Indoor cats
b. Outdoor cats
c. Multicat household
d. Shelter cats

A

a. Indoor cats

Explanation: it is shed in the feces. LItter box transfer!

59
Q

Which immune response results in wet form/effusive form of FIP?

a. Strong cell mediated immune response
b. Strong humoral resonse
c. intermediate cell mediated response
d. mild cell mediated response

A

b. Strong humoral resonse

60
Q

Which of the following is true regarding diagnosis of FIP? Select all that apply

a. gold standard = histpathology
b. rivalta test positive results from low protein content in effusion
c. RT-PCR feces very sensitive
d. Ab Titer false negatives may occur

A

a. gold standard = histpathology
d. Ab Titer false negatives may occur

SAM I (6 decks)

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