Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

The Daily Review > Networking Warm-Up 2 > Flashcards

Networking Warm-Up 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the class of the following IP address: 146.203.143.101

A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D

A

B) Class B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the number 138 in binary?

A) 10001010
B) 10101010
C) 10000111
D) 11001010

A

A) 10001010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When DHCP Discover fails, what process will the client use to generate an address for itself?

A) ATAPI (Automatic Temporary Address Program Initiator)
B) APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
C) ATIPA (Automatic Temporary IP Address)
D) APFBA (Automatic Programmable Fall Back Address)

A

B) APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?

A) Static Address Translation
B) Natural Address Translation
C) Computed Public Address Translation
D) Port Address Translation

A

D) Port Address Translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Distance vector routing protocols such as RIP rely on what metric to determine the best route?

A) Hop count.
B) Link speed.
C) Ping time.
D) Routes are chosen at random.

A

A) Hop count.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the name of the cable that you use to connect to the console port on Cisco routers?

A) Router console cable
B) Yost cable
C) That funny blue Cisco cable
D) Null modem cable

A

B) Yost cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following are key benefits of Web-based mail? (Select two.)

A) You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook, to download your e-mail.
B) You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection.
C) It is completely spam-free.
D) It is great for creating throw-away accounts.

A

B) You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection.
&
D) It is great for creating throw-away accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why might you use a Telnet client?

A) To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers
B) To see your IP address and configuration details
C) To see the endpoints of your sessions
D) To issue commands to a remote server

A

D) To issue commands to a remote server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following protocols are used to receive e-mail from servers? (Select two.)

A) IMAP
B) ICMP
C) IGMP
D) POP

A

A) IMAP
&
D) POP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What command do you run to see the DNS cache on a Windows system?

A) ping /showdns
B) ipconfig /showdns
C) ipconfig /displaydns
D) ping /displaydns

A

C) ipconfig /displaydns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The users on your network haven’t been able to connect to the server for 30 minutes. You check and reboot the server, but you’re unable to ping either its own loopback address or any of your client systems. What should you do?

A) Restart the DHCP server.
B) Restart the DNS server.
C) Replace the NIC on the server because it has failed.
D) Have your users ping the server.

A

C) Replace the NIC on the server because it has failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail?

A) A record
B) CNAME record
C) MX record
D) SMTP record

A

C) MX record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RC4 is a(n) ______________cipher.

A) block
B) forwarding
C) stream
D) asymmetric

A

C) stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is a common hash function?

A) SHA-3
B) RC4
C) AES
D) BMX

A

A) SHA-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In order to have a PKI you must have a(n)_________.

A) Web server
B) Web of trust
C) root authority
D) unsigned certificate

A

C) root authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a protocol popular with today’s VPNs?

A) PPTP
B) L2TP
C) IPsec
D) PPPoE

A

C) IPsec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

802.1X is a great example of _____________.

A) encryption
B) content switching
C) port authentication
D) VLAN trunking

A

C) port authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

A) 2001:bead:beef::1
B) 2001:30f5::3d62::04ffe
C) 192.168.1.4:ff45:129g:48fd:1
D) 2001.0470.b33e.23f4.27de.d34a.aed2.1827

A

A) 2001:bead:beef::1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is NAT needed with IPv6?

A) No, because NAT has been replaced with a new version called NAT6.
B) No, the address space is so large that rationing routable addresses is unnecessary.
C) Yes, because it is the only way to protect against hackers.
D) Yes, because of the limited nature of IPv6 addressing.

A

B) No, the address space is so large that rationing routable addresses is unnecessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does a client need to access IPv6 content on the Internet?

A) A link-local address.
B) A multicast address.
C) A global unicast address.
D) The IPv6 Internet is currently unreachable.

A

C) A global unicast address.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the /48 prefix of the address 2001:0480:b6f3:0001::0001?

A) 2001:0480:b6f3:1
B) 2001:0480:b6f3
C) 2001:0480:b6f3:1:0000::1
D) 2001:0480:b6f3:1:0000:0000:0000:1

A

B) 2001:0480:b6f3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following provides the fastest throughput?

A) PSTN
B) ISDN BRI
C) ADSL
D) POTS

A

C) ADSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What device do you use to connect to a T1 line?

A) Router
B) CSU/DSU
C) Modem
D) WIC-2T

A

B) CSU/DSU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

You have just had DSL installed at your house. Although the Internet connection is fast, your phones no longer work. What is the problem?

A) The installer failed to install the POTS filers on the phones.
B) Nothing; the phones can’t function at the same time as the Internet.
C) The house phone lines can’t handle the bandwidth of both the phone and DSL.
D) The DSL modem is missing the filter and causing line interference.

A

A) The installer failed to install the POTS filers on the phones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What protocol do cable modems use?

A) ACMSIS
B) CMAS
C) DOCSIS
D) CCSIP

A

C) DOCSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which wireless networking technology used the 5.0-GHz frequency range?

A) 802.11
B) 802.11a
C) 802.11b
D) 802.11g

A

B) 802.11a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of these consumer electronics may cause interference with 802.11n wireless networks?

A) Wireless telephones
B) Wireless televisions
C) Cellular telephones
D) Television remote controls

A

A) Wireless telephones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

To achieve maximum Wi-Fi coverage in a room, where should you place the WAP?

A) Place the WAP on the north side of the room.
B) Place the WAP in the center of the room.
C) Place the WAP near a convenient electrical outlet.
D) It doesn’t matter where you place the WAP.

A

B) Place the WAP in the center of the room.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What hardware enables wireless PCs to connect to resources on a wired network segment in infrastructure mode? (Select two.)

A) An access point
B) A router
C) A hub
D) A wireless bridge

A

A) An access point&D) A wireless bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What feature lets you save a VM’s state so you can quickly restore to that point?

A) Replacement
B) Save
C) Snapshot
D) Zip

A

C) Snapshot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

After the unforeseen failure of her Bigfoot-picture-sharing service, bgFootr–which got hacked when she failed to stay on top of her security updates–Janelle has a great new idea for a new service to report Loch Ness Monster sightings. Which service would help keep her from having to play system administrator?

A) Software as a Service
B) Infrastructure as a Service
C) Platform as a Service
D) Network as a Service

A

C) Platform as a Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which cellular WAN technology introduced the concept of the SIM card?

A) CDMA
B) GSM
C) EDGE
D) LTE

A

B) GSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You can reduce the vulnerability of your cell phone when automatically connecting to open SSIDs by:

A) Requiring HTTPS
B) Disabling WPA
C) Forgetting all wireless networks
D) Requiring SSH

A

A) Requiring HTTPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

NFC tags are always:

A) Passive
B) Encoded
C) Spherical
D) Magnetic

A

A) Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following would be a loopback address?

A) 127.0.0.1
B) 10.0.0.1
C) 240.0.0.1
D) 192.168.0.1

A

A) 127.0.0.1

IPv4 loopback addresses range between 127.0.0.1 and 127.255.255.254, or 127.0.0.0/8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following would BEST describe the topology of a switched Ethernet network?

A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Mesh
D) Star

A

D) Star

A switched Ethernet network topology consists of devices on the edge of the network connecting to a central switch to create a star topology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the largest channel bandwidth supported for 802.11ac?

A) 20 MHz
B) 40 MHz
C) 80 MHz
D) 160 MHz

A

D) 160 MHz

802.11ac requires at least 80 MHz of available wireless bandwidth, and can use up to 160 MHz of the wireless spectrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Users in the accounting department are not able to visit an internal webserver using the FQDN, but can access the server using IP addresses. Which of the following would be the faulty service associated with this issue?

A) SNMP
B) DNS
C) SMTP
D) HTTP

A

B) DNS

DNS (Domain Name System) provides the services to resolve a name with an IP address.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following would be the best choice for connecting IDFs using the space above a drop ceiling?

A) Coax
B) Shielded twisted pair
C) Plenum-rated cable
D) Fiber optic

A

C) Plenum-rated cable

Plenum-rated cable is usually the best choice for network cables installed in circulating air space and between building floors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A network administrator is connecting a 500 meter Ethernet connection using an LED light source. Which of the following would be the MOST likely network type?

A) Coax
B) Multimode fiber
C) 802.11 wireless
D) Single-mode fiber

A

B) Multimode fiber

Multimode fiber commonly uses LED light sources to send data over relatively short distances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following would be the best choice for a 40 Gbit/sec fiber network link?

A) SFP
B) QSFP+
C) Category 6
D) DSL

A

B) QSFP+

The QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable+) transceiver supports up to 40 Gbit/sec network links.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A network administrator needs to extend a Gigabit Ethernet link to a building located two kilometers away. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this connection?

A) 1000BASE-LX
B) 1000BASE-T
C) 100BASE-TX
D) 1000BASE-SX

A

A) 1000BASE-LX

The 1000BASE-LX standard can support Gigabit Ethernet over single-mode fiber to a distance of five kilometers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

An IPS uses artificial intelligence to identify potential attacks. Which of the following would BEST describe this technology?

A) Behavior
B) Signature
C) Heuristics
D) Anomaly

A

C) Heuristics

Instead of relying on signatures or known-bad behavior, heuristics uses artificial intelligence to identify a potential attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following would be MOST likely associated with CCMP?

A) WPA2
B) STP
C) IPS
D) LDAP

A

A) WPA2

CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) is the block cipher mode used with WPA2 wireless encryption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A Windows administrator is using the SFC utility on her workstation. Which of the following would BEST describe this utility?

A) Vulnerability scanner
B) FIM
C) Port scanner
D) IPS

A

B) FIM

A FIM (File Integrity Monitoring) utility can identify files that may have been changed. Applications such as SFC (System File Checker) and Tripwire are common examples of a FIM utility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A network administrator has logically separated two different broadcast domains on a single switch. Which of the following would BEST describe this configuration?

A) VPN
B) DMZ
C) VLAN
D) SSO

A

C) VLAN

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical separation of broadcast domains on a single physical switch. Devices configured for separate VLANs cannot communicate to each other without a router.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A computer in the accounting department is incorrectly assigned a DHCP address for the marketing subnet. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue?

A) DHCP server is down
B) Duplex mismatch
C) Incorrect VLAN configuration
D) Bad transceiver

A

C) Incorrect VLAN configuration

The VLAN configuration on a switch determines the broadcast domain used for a group of devices. If a device is in the incorrect subnet, the issue is commonly related to the VLAN setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to segment broadcast domains on a single switch?

A) 802.1Q
B) STP
C) VLANs
D) Flood Guard

A

C) VLANs

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically separate broadcast domains within a single physical switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

An administrator has configured their network to prevent loops from occurring at OSI layer 2. Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be enabled?

A) Split horizon
B) RSTP
C) Half-duplex
D) QoS

A

B) RSTP

RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) provides fast convergence and backwards-compatibility with the older Spanning Tree Protocol to prevent layer 2 loops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A network administrator is configuring a routing protocol that is based on the number of hops between networks. Which of the following would BEST describe this dynamic routing protocol?

A) Hybrid
B) Redundant
C) Distance-vector
D) Link-state

A

C) Distance-vector

Distance-vector protocols make routing decisions based on the number of routers, or hops, between networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do IPv6 devices identify MAC addresses of other IPv6 devices on the same subnet?

A) ARP
B) SSH
C) NDP
D) ROUTE

A

C) NDP

NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) uses multicasts to identify workstations, routers, and test for duplicate IPv6 addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following would be considered a private IP address?

A) 224.0.0.7
B) 192.168.22.7
C) 11.20.7.10
D) 165.245.152.8

A

B) 192.168.22.7

Private IP addresses are defined in RFC 1918, and include the 192.168.0.0/16 address range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The power supply in the DHCP server has failed. Which of the following IP addresses might be used by new devices connecting to the network?

A) 127.0.0.1
B) 169.254.24.11
C) 10.1.2.7
D) 172.16.23.87

A

B) 169.254.24.11

The APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) range has reserved 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254. If a DHCP server isn’t available, an APIPA address will be assigned by the local device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A system administrator is making a change to the TXT record on a DNS server. Which of the following would be the MOST common use of this record type?

A) Resolves a web server address
B) Associates a name with an IP address
C) Identifies the Windows Domain Controllers
D) Defines a public key for email messages

A

D) Defines a public key for email messages

The TXT (Text) record of a DNS (Domain Name System) server is used for human-readable text information, such as SPF (Sender Policy Framework) information or public keys for DKIM (Domain Keys Identified Mail).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A network administrator needs to connect a server to a network switch at 10 Gbit/sec at a distance of 75 meters. What is the lowest-level cable category that will support this connection?

A) Category 5
B) Category 5e
C) Category 6
D) Category 6A

A

D) Category 6A

A network administrator needs to connect a server to a network switch at 10 Gbit/sec at a distance of 75 meters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to add a 10 Gbit/sec fiber connection to a switch?

A) SFP
B) TDM
C) SIEM
D) PSTN

A

A) SFP

An SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is a modular interface that can be plugged into a network device to provide connectivity. An SFP can provide various copper and fiber options from a single device interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A WAN service provider has installed an Internet link at a remote site using the existing telephone cabling. Which of the following would describe this service?

A) DOCSIS
B) DSL
C) Metro E
D) T3

A

B) DSL

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses existing telephone cabling to transport the DSL signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of these technologies would be the MOST common at the core of a WAN provider’s network?

A) Copper
B) Satellite
C) Fiber
D) Wireless

A

C) Fiber

The core of a WAN provider’s network uses fiber to traverse large distances using high bandwidth rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A system administrator needs a way to track the location and use of a CSU/DSU. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this?

A) Bluetooth
B) Asset tag
C) Electronic ID card
D) Mobile Device Manager

A

B) Asset tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A network administrator would like to install a firewall that will continue to operate if a power outage occurs. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

A) UPS connection
B) Load balancing
C) Server clustering
D) Auto-switching power supply

A

A) UPS connection

A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) commonly provides backup battery power when the main power source is unavailable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A help desk ticket has been opened with a report of excessive CRC errors on a user’s workstation. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this report?

A) Bad network cable
B) Incorrect file system
C) Misconfigured network share
D) Failed OS update

A

A) Bad network cable

CRC (Cyclical Redundancy Check) errors are commonly reported on a network interface to describe problems with the network signal and are often caused by a bad adapter card or network cable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A system administrator needs centralized authentication for a client VPN service. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

A) TACACS+
B) SSL
C) DHCP
D) SIP

A

A) TACACS+

TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a common method of authentication to an AAA (Authorization, Authentication, and Accounting) server.

63
Q

What type of authentication factor is associated with a signature?

A) Somewhere you are
B) Something you do
C) Something you are
D) Something you have

A

B) Something you do

A personal way of doing things, such as handwriting, is categorized as something you do.

64
Q

Which MAC address begins a frame?

A) Receiving System
B) Sending System
C) Network
D) Router

A

A) Receiving System

65
Q

Routers must use the same type of connection for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or ATM to ATM.

A) True
B) False

A

B) False

66
Q

Which of the following should be used to access a DHCP server located on a separate subnet?

A) Router ACL
B) DHCP relay
C) STP
D) MX record

A

B) DHCP relay

DHCP relay, or DHCP helper, is a common option available in layer 3 devices to forward DHCP broadcast frames to a specific remote IP address.

67
Q

Which of the following would be MOST associated with a 10 gigabit per second fiber link?

A) GBIC
B) QSFP
C) RS-232
D) SFP+

A

D) SFP+

The SFP+ interface supports data rates up to 16 gbit/s, and it’s common with 10 gigabit per second fiber links.

68
Q

A network administrator is capturing packets to help troubleshoot some DHCP issues in the core of the network. Which of these port numbers should be used to filter the DHCP requests?

A) udp/67
B) udp/53
C) tcp/143
D) udp/69

A

A) udp/67

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an IPv6 address?

A) 128 bits
B) Written with hexadecimal characters
C) Groups are separated by dashes
D) Broken up into eight groups

A

C) Groups are separated by dashes

70
Q

Which of the following is the trunking protocol used in today’s VLANs?

A) 802.1Q
B) 802.1X
C) 802.1t
D) 802.1z

A

A) 802.1Q

71
Q

A network administrator would like to minimize the impact of broadcast frames on the network. Which of the following would limit the scope of a network broadcast?

A) Switch
B) Repeater
C) 802.1Q
D) Router

A

D) Router

Broadcast frames don’t traverse routed links, so putting a router between two network connection will limit the number of broadcasts.

72
Q

Jason is concerned about the communication between two workstations and wants to capture and analyze that traffic to see if anything illicit is going on. Which tool would best serve his needs?

A) Interface monitor
B) Packet flow monitor
C) Packet sniffer
D) Performance monitor

A

B) Packet flow monitor

73
Q

A message has appeared in a user’s browser announcing a planned outage next week. Which OSI layer would be MOST associated with this message?

A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 7

A

D) Layer 7

Information and messages viewed in an application occur at OSI layer 7, the application layer.

74
Q

NetBIOS uses what type of name space?

A) Hierarchical name space
B) People name space
C) DNS name space
D) Flat name space

A

D) Flat name space

75
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to block network flows containing non-encrypted credit card numbers?

A) AUP
B) Password policy
C) DLP
D) Privileged user agreement

A

C) DLP

76
Q

What is the job of a router?

A) To assign IP addresses to hosts on the network
B) To connect networks with different network IDs
C) To map IP addresses against MAC addresses
D) To allow outside hosts to initiate contact with hosts on the LAN side of a network

A

B) To connect networks with different network IDs

77
Q

Which committee governs the standards of Ethernet?

A) IEEE 802.11n
B) IEEE 9001
C) IEEE 9002
D) IEEE 802.3

A

D) IEEE 802.3

78
Q

A network administrator is running cables for a new construction. Which of the following would commonly connect to a user’s workstation from the wiring closet?

A) Router
B) 110 block
C) Load balancer
D) Proxy server

A

B) 110 block

79
Q

An IT manager would like to estimate the amount of time before a core switch becomes unavailable. Which of the following would describe this timeframe?

A) MTBF
B) SLA
C) MTTR
D) EULA

A

A) MTBF

80
Q

Ethernet hubs take an incoming packet and __________ it out to the other connected ports.

A) amplify
B) repeat
C) filter
D) distort

A

B) repeat

81
Q

A user at a remote site has opened a ticket regarding wireless access. Each time the user connects to the wireless network, it works normally until they are disconnected about two minutes later. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

A) Deauthentication attack
B) Invalid encryption key
C) Man-in-the-middle attack
D) Incorrect username and password

A

A) Deauthentication attack

A deauthentication attack can force stations to disconnect from the wireless network.

82
Q

The goal of this aspect of a DoS attack is to make the attacked system process each request for as long as possible.

A) reflection
B) rotation
C) destruction
D) amplification

A

D) amplification

83
Q

A technician has been tasked with planning for equipment failures. Which specs will the technician NOT need to review in order to create a failure plan?

A) MTTR
B) SLA
C) MTBF
D) MTTF

A

B) SLA

84
Q

Layer 2 of the OSI model is concerned with MAC addresses.
Layer 3 is concerned with IP addresses.
What is layer 4 concerned with?

A

Port numbers

85
Q

Which service does NOT automatically assign an IP address to a host?

A) Static
B) DHCP
C) bootp
D) APIPA

A

A) Static

86
Q

Which of the following is not an authentication factor?

A) Something you are
B) Something you can do
C) Something you know
D) Something you have

A

B) Something you can do

87
Q

What command will assign a drive letter to a network share?

A) Net assign
B) Net drive
C) Net share
D) Net use

A

D) Net use

88
Q

When starting a laptop computer, a user has been assigned an IP address of 169.254.74.11. Which of the following would best describe this address?

A) Public IP address
B) Non-routable IP address
C) Multicast address
D) Private IP address

A

B) Non-routable IP address

Automatic IP addressing (APIPA) provides addressing to a device for local/non-routed communication when a DHCP server is not available or not responding. APIPA addresses assigned to devices range from 169.254.1.1 through 169.254.254.254.

89
Q

A firewall is blocking all traffic using TCP/3389. Which OSI layer is associated with this process?

A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4

A

D) Layer 4

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the RIP routing protocol?

A) RIP is a distance vector protocol
B) RIP is an interior gateway protocol
C) RIP supports a maximum hop count of 127 hops
D) The primary metric in RIP is hop count

A

C) RIP supports a maximum hop count of 127 hops

91
Q

A network administrator needs to connect a gigabit Ethernet link between two switches. Both switches are next to each other in an equipment rack. Which of these standards would be the best choice for this connection?

A) 1000BASE-SX
B) 10GBASE-T
C) 1000BASE-T
D) 1000BASE-LX

A

C) 1000BASE-T

The 1000BASE-T standard provides 1 Gbit/sec connectivity over a copper cable. This is commonly the most available and the least expensive connection type available on a switch.

92
Q

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address?

A) 0-255
B) 00-50-56-A3-04-0C
C) SBY3M7
D) 192.168.4.13

A

B) 00-50-56-A3-04-0C

93
Q

What is the maximum number of backup sets that would be required to recover from a differential backup?

A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Variable

A

B) Two

Recovering from a differential backup requires the initial full backup and the last differential backup.

93
Q

Janelle wants to start a new photo-sharing service for real pictures of Bigfoot, but doesn’t own any servers. How can she quickly create a new server to run her service?

A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Community cloud
D) Hybrid cloud

A

A) Public cloud

94
Q

What type of fiber transceiver would commonly be used with a single 10 Gbit/sec connection between switches?

A) QSFP
B) Category 6A
C) SFP+
D) SFP

A

C) SFP+

An SFP+ transceiver supports data rates up to 16 Gbit/sec, making it a good choice for 10 Gbit/sec links.

95
Q

A network administrator has been informed that all devices connecting to the Marketing subnet are suddenly receiving APIPA addresses. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A) Exhausted DHCP scope
B) Untrusted SSL certificate
C) Incorrect ACL setting
D) Blocked TCP port

A

A) Exhausted DHCP scope

There are only so many IP addresses available for lease on the DHCP server, and when that scope is exhausted the workstations will automatically configure an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address.

96
Q

What is Port Forwarding?

A

People on the outside on the internet coming into view the stuff on my network. Basically, I configure my server to recognize, “If this specific IP address tries to communicate with me, I will turn it’s not private IP address into my internal private IP address so we can talk to one another.”

97
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST example of an ACL?

A) Loops between switch interfaces are automatically blocked
B) Redundant WAN connections are installed at a remote location
C) A fingerprint is used as an authentication factor
D) Outbound IP traffic to a specific FQDN is filtered

A

D) Outbound IP traffic to a specific FQDN is filtered

An ACL (Access Control List) is a method of allowing or disallowing traffic based on a set of criteria. You’ll find ACLs in firewalls, operating systems, and anywhere else where information access needs to be controlled.

98
Q

What are the benefits of caching on a Web proxy? (Select two.)

A) Response time
B) Virus detection
C) Tracking
D) Authentication

A

A) Response time
&
B) Virus detection

99
Q

A network cable is labeled S/FTP. Which of these best describes this cable type?

A) The cable does not have any shielding
B) There is both a braided shielding around the cable and around each pair
C) There is braided shielding around the cable, but no shielding around the pairs
D) There is only shielding around each pair

A

B) There is both a braided shielding around the cable and around each pair

The abbreviation U would signify an unshielded cable. S specifies a braided shield, and F refers to foil shielding around the pairs.

100
Q

Which statement is NOT true of network storage?

A) NAS is a file-based network storage solution
B) SAN is a block-level network storage solution
C) A SAN hosts files that are shared using protocols such as SAMBA and Apple File Share
D) NAS is a single box solution

A

C) A SAN hosts files that are shared using protocols such as SAMBA and Apple File Share

101
Q

Which of the following is NOT a normal Windows log?

A) Application
B) Security policies
C) Setup
D) Network

A

D) Network

102
Q

In order to pair to another Bluetooth device, it must be set into ____________ mode.

A) PIN
B) Discoverable
C) Master
D) Pair

A

B) Discoverable

103
Q

Which statement is NOT true of 100 megabit Ethernet?

A) 100BaseTX supports runs of up to 2KM
B) Both 100BaseT and 100BaseTX run over unshielded twisted pair
C) Both 100BaseF and 100BaseFX run over multi-mode cable
D) Ethernet can run at 100mbps on fiber or copper

A

A) 100BaseTX supports runs of up to 2KM

104
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent loops between switches?

A) RSTP
B) 802.1X
C) Route poisoning
D) TACACS+

A

A) RSTP

105
Q

A system administrator has to install an operating system and compile the application on a cloud-based platform. Which of the following would BEST describe this platform?

A) SaaS
B) Hybrid
C) Elastic
D) IaaS

A

D) IaaS

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides hardware services and requires the user to maintain the operating system and applications.

106
Q

Which network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks?

A) Star
B) Bus
C) Ring
D) Mesh

A

D) Mesh

107
Q

The delivery of equipment into a wiring closet has pulled some of the Ethernet cables from a 110 block. Which of the following would be the BEST way to repair this problem?

A) Punch-down tool
B) Tone generator
C) TDR
D) Loopback plug

A

A) Punch-down tool

108
Q

A VLAN on one switch is not able to communicate with the same VLAN on a separate switch. Which of the following would be MOST likely associated with this issue?

A) Split horizon
B) STP
C) 802.1Q
D) DMZ

A

C) 802.1Q

The 802.1Q standard provides trunking of multiple VLANs across a single network connection.

109
Q

A network team needs to connect two buildings with gigabit Ethernet across a 200 meter distance. Which of the following would provide this connectivity?

A) 1000Base-SX
B) 10GBase-T
C) 100Base-TX
D) 1000Base-T

A

A) 1000Base-SX

110
Q

A network administrator needs to provide 802.11 network connectivity from a single access point in the center of the building. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for the antenna?

A) Yagi
B) Omnidirectional
C) Parabolic
D) Dipole

A

B) Omnidirectional

An omnidirectional antenna will radiate and receive a signal in relatively equal amounts in all directions.

111
Q

Which of the following is NOT a security task that should be performed on a new WAP?

A) Enable backwards compatibility
B) Change administrator account and password
C) Enable encryption
D) Disable SSID broadcast

A

A) Enable backwards compatibility

112
Q

A network administrator has been asked to install a RADIUS service in the data center. Which of these would be the most common use of this service?

A) Provide authentication for access to all network switches
B) Build an encrypted tunnel between two remote locations
C) Dynamically modify IP routes when a link is unavailable
D) Block traffic based on TCP or UDP port number

A

A) Provide authentication for access to all network switches

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) is an AAA protocol that’s commonly used for authentication.

113
Q

What does port mirroring accomplish?

A) Enables inbound and outbound traffic from switch ports to be duplicated at the mirrored port
B) Doubles switch-port bandwidth by bonding a specified port to the mirrored port
C) Redirects any inbound traffic to the mirrored port to another, specified port
D) Redirects any outbound traffic from the mirrored port to a host with a specific IP address

A

A) Enables inbound and outbound traffic from switch ports to be duplicated at the mirrored port

114
Q

Which type of fiber optic cable supports longer run lengths?

A) Laser-mode
B) Multi-mode
C) Fractal-mode
D) Single-mode

A

D) Single-mode

115
Q

A company is using an Ethernet connection for a remote PTZ (Pan/Tilt/Zoom) camera that requires 20 watts of power. Which of the following would BEST describe this connection?

A) PoE+
B) VLAN
C) STP
D) PoE

A

A) PoE+

PoE+ (Power over Ethernet +) is a power standard that can provide up to 25 watts of DC power to devices connected to the network. The older PoE standard could provide a maximum of 15.4 watts of DC power.

116
Q

Which would be the best solution to make an encrypted tunnel using SSH?

A) Recode an unencrypted tunneling program to support SSH encryption
B) Piggyback an existing tunnel program onto SSH
C) Set up a tunnel using PPTP
D) Set up a tunnel using L2TP/Ipsec

A

B) Piggyback an existing tunnel program onto SSH

117
Q

A network device includes a number of BNC connections on its back panel. What type of network connection is most likely using these BNC interfaces?

A) POTS
B) 10 Gbps/sec Ethernet
C) Cable Modem/Internet
D) Remote-site WAN

A

D) Remote-site WAN

BNC connectors can be used for many different purposes, but common use on a network device is for DS3 WAN links.

118
Q

An IPS has reported that the traffic levels of an Internet link have increased compared to normal traffic patterns. What type of identification was used for this alert?

A) Anomaly-based
B) Heuristics
C) Behavior-based
D) Signature-based

A

A) Anomaly-based

119
Q

While you are asking the user problem-isolating questions, what else should you be doing?

A) Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem.
B) Nothing; just keep asking the user questions.
C) Using an accusatory tone with the user.
D) Playing solitaire.

A

A) Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem.

120
Q

True or false: Most SOHO routers come with NAT enabled?

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

121
Q

The throughput of a wireless connection between buildings on a campus tends to increase and decrease as the outside temperature changes. Which of the following would BEST describe this characteristic?

A) Reflection
B) Jitter
C) Interference
D) Refraction

A

D) Refraction

Refraction describes a signal passing through an object and exiting at a different angle. Changes in temperature or water vapor in the air can cause refraction on wireless network links.

122
Q

Monte, a network administrator, is configuring PAT on his Internet-facing firewall. Which of the following IP addresses would be MOST likely assigned to his router’s internal network connection?

A) 127.0.0.1
B) 1.1.1.1
C) 10.17.88.2
D) 192.186.1.1

A

C) 10.17.88.2

PAT (Port Address Translation) is a type of NAT (Network Address Translation) that modifies both the IP address and port number when the translation occurs. For Internet connections, the most common internal IP address schemes will use RFC 1918 private addresses. The only RFC 1918 address in the available answers is 10.17.88.2

123
Q

What is AAAA?

A

A DNS record type. Usually called Quad A records. Used to associate an IPv6 address with the name of a device. A records do the same thing with IPv4 devices.

124
Q

Which of the following would MOST commonly be found at a demarc?

A) Smartjack
B) Load balancer
C) SAN
D) VPN concentrator

A

A) Smartjack

The demarc (demarcation point) is commonly associated with the handoff between the internal network and a third-party provider. It’s common for WAN connectivity equipment, such as a smarjack or CSU/DSU, to be located at the demarc.

125
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to verify the integrity of an executable file?

A) File hashing
B) Change default login credentials
C) Reinstall the application
D) Use an encrypted backup

A

A) File hashing

A file hash can be used to verify the existing file with a previously created hash value.

126
Q

Which of the following is a proper subnet mask?

A) 11111111111111111111111100000000
B) 00000000000000000000000011111111
C) 10101010101010101010101011111111
D) 01010101010101010101010100000000

A

A) 11111111111111111111111100000000

127
Q

BigTracks is a successful Bigfoot-tracking company using an internal service to manage all of its automated Bigfoot monitoring stations. A Bigfoot migration has caused a massive increase in the amount of audio and video sent back from their stations. In order to add short-term capacity, they can create new servers in the public cloud. What model of cloud computing does this describe?

A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Community cloud
D) Hybrid cloud

A

D) Hybrid cloud

128
Q

Which wireless standard can support multiple data streams, with 150 megabits per second for each stream?

A) 802.11ac
B) 802.11b
C) 802.11n
D) 802.11a

A

C) 802.11n

802.11n supports 4 150 Mbit/sec MIMO (multiple-input/multiple-output) streams on a single access point.

129
Q

What is the maximum distance that can separate a 10BaseT node from its hub?

A) 50 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 185 meters
D) 200 meters

A

B) 100 meters

130
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to determine which services may be available on a remote device?

A) Loopback plug
B) route command
C) Nmap utility
D) ifconfig command

A

C) Nmap utility

131
Q

Which of the following would provide connectivity between two separate broadcast domains?

A) Switch
B) Router
C) Repeater
D) Access point

A

B) Router

132
Q

The protocol developed by Netscape for transmitting private documents over the Internet is known as

A) SSS
B) SSA
C) SSL
D) NSSL

A

C) SSL

133
Q

A system administrator has asked the security team for a firewall rule that will allow them to “walk the MIB.” What service should be allowed through the firewall?

A) SSH
B) SMTP
C) SSL/TLS
D) SNMP

A

D) SNMP

A MIB (Management Information Base) is a database of statistical information that can be gathered from a remote device using SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).

134
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to separate two network subnets on the same physical switch?

A) Trunk
B) IPsec tunnel
C) VLAN
D) STP

A

C) VLAN

135
Q

Which Windows utility displays open ports on a host?

A) netstat
B) ping
C) ipconfig
D) nbtstat

A

A) netstat

136
Q

An analysis of a network shows a lot of traffic on one machine on port 161. What kind of machine is it?

A) Managed device
B) SNMP manager
C) PDU
D) MIB

A

A) Managed device

137
Q

Which of the following would commonly be associated with WPA2?

A) TKIP
B) SHA-2
C) SSL
D) CCMP

A

D) CCMP

138
Q

A user’s machine is locked to a screen telling her she must call a number to unlock her system. What kind of attack is this?

A) DDoS
B) Logic bomb
C) Ransomware
D) Worm

A

C) Ransomware

139
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of contingency planning?

A) Disaster recovery
B) Business continuity
C) Fire suppression systems
D) Backup site

A

C) Fire suppression systems

140
Q

Which type of channel access method uses a unique code to differentiate one cellular call from another?

A) TDMA
B) WPA2
C) CDMA
D) GSM

A

C) CDMA

With CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access), all devices communicate simultaneously, but each call uses a different code. The codes are used on the receiving side to filter each call.

141
Q

What device directs packets based on MAC addresses?

A) Router
B) Hub
C) Repeater
D) Switch

A

D) Switch

142
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent a rogue STP advertisement?

A) DHCP snooping
B) Root guard
C) Flood guard
D) IP filter

A

B) Root guard

143
Q

A remote site has been having power outages that can last up to 24 hours. Which of the following would provide the BEST power redundancy option?

A) Battery-backed UPS
B) Dual power supplies
C) Low voltage CPU
D) Generator

A

D) Generator

144
Q

Which cloud model provides a software development environment?

A) PaaS
B) SaaS
C) IaaS
D) BaaS

A

A) PaaS

145
Q

What is appended to the beginning of the Ethernet frame?

A) MAC address
B) Length
C) Preamble
D) CRC

A

C) Preamble

146
Q

What are the first octet numbers of the three private IP addresses that are not routable across the internet?

A

10, 172, and 192

147
Q

What is the maximum cable length of 10GBaseT on Cat 6?

A) 55 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 20 meters
D) 70 meters

A

A) 55 meters

148
Q

A frame ends with a special bit called the frame check sequence (FCS). What does the FCS do?

A) Cycles data across the network
B) Verifies that the MAC addresses are correct
C) Verifies that the data arrived correctly
D) Verifies that the IP address is correct

A

C) Verifies that the data arrived correctly

149
Q

A network administrator needs to communicate to a remote server over SSH. Which port number should be enabled in the firewall?

A) 23
B) 21
C) 22
D) 20

A

C) 22

150
Q

Which of the following differentiates a PLC from a DCS controller?

A) Sequential control
B) Sensors
C) Operator
D) Actuator

A

A) Sequential control

151
Q

A user connects their smartphone to their car audio system over a wireless link. Which of the following would BEST describe this connection?

A) CAN
B) LAN
C) PAN
D) SAN

A

C) PAN

A PAN (Personal Area Network) is commonly associated with a local Bluetooth network or any other short-distance network type.

152
Q

A network administrator has just sent a ping to a mail server on the local IP subnet. Which of the following would show the MAC address of the mail server?

A) ifconfig
B) arp
C) route
D) netstat

A

B) arp

The Daily Review (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions