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The Daily Review > Networking Warm-Up > Flashcards

Networking Warm-Up Flashcards

Study 10 per day

1
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to maintain uptime if a server motherboard failure occurs?

A) NIC teaming
B) Redundant switches
C) RAID
D) Load balancing

A

D) Load balancing

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2
Q

A network administrator needs to connect devices between buildings located four kilometers from each other. Which of the following standards would be the BEST choice?

A) 1000BASE-SX
B) 1000BASE-T
C) 1000BASE-LX
D) 10GBASE-T

A

C) 1000BASE-LX

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3
Q

A network administrator is connecting two devices using twisted pair copper cables transmitting at ten gigabits per second. Which of the following Ethernet standards would describe this connection?

A) 10GBASE-T
B) 1000BASE-SX
C) 1000BASE-T
D) 100BASE-TX

A

A) 10GBASE-T

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4
Q

A network administrator is upgrading the wireless network in a warehouse that operates at 54 megabits per second in the 5 GHz range. Which of the following would describe this network type?

A) 802.1x
B) 802.11ac
C) 802.3
D) 802.11a

A

D) 802.11a

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5
Q

A remote office WAN link is a single connection communicating at 1.544 Mbit/sec. Which of the following would describe this network type?

A) OC-48
B) POTS
C) Metro E
D) T1

A

D) T1

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6
Q

A switch is not forwarding traffic to the destination device, and the MAC address of the destination does not appear in the switch forwarding table. Which of the following OSI layers is MOST associated with this issue?

A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4

A

B) Layer 2

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7
Q

Which of the following would be MOST associated with 802.1X?

A) Multiple VLANs between switches
B) Loop prevention on a switched network
C) RADIUS server
D) Redundant storage

A

C) RADIUS server

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8
Q

Which of the following would BEST describe a Z-Wave network topology?

A) Ring
B) Star
C) Mesh
D) Bus

A

C) Mesh

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9
Q

Which of the following attacks would describe an exploit of a web server with a vulnerability that had not previously been detected or published?

A) Brute force
B) VLAN hopping
C) Zero-day
D) Insider threat

A

C) Zero-day

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10
Q

A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue with a blocked port number on a firewall. Which of the following OSI layers would be MOST associated with this issue?

A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4

A

D) Layer 4

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11
Q

The audio during a VoIP phone call breaks up and parts of the audio are missing during the call. Which of the following would BEST describe this issue?

A) Excessive jitter
B) VLAN mismatch
C) TX/RX reversal
D) Transceiver mismatch

A

A) Excessive jitter

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12
Q

A company’s contract with a third party states that the Internet router should continue to operate properly for approximately three years, but if it needs replacing it will be fixed within four hours. Which of the following describes the three-year and the four-hour timeframe, respectively?

A) SLA, MTFB
B) MTFB, SLA
C) MTTR, MTBF
D) SLA, MTTR

A

B) MTFB, SLA

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13
Q

Which of the following would BEST describe the protocol used on a DSL network?

A) PPPoE
B) ATM
C) DMVPN
D) MPLS

A

A) PPPoE

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14
Q

A network administrator is concerned that a nearby office building may be interfering with their 802.11ac network. Which of the following tools would be the BEST way to troubleshoot this issue?

A) Protocol analyzer
B) Spectrum analyzer
C) Loopback plug
D) Inductive probe

A

B) Spectrum analyzer

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15
Q

Which of the following measures the signal loss across a length of twisted pair cabling?

A) TDR
B) Tone generator
C) Light meter
D) Cable tester

A

A) TDR

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16
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to identify open services on a remote server?

A) Wireless analyzer
B) Port scanner
C) Protocol analyzer
D) OTDR

A

B) Port scanner

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17
Q

Which of the following would best describe distributed switching in an SDN?

A) Application servers have a redundant path through the network
B) VMs are connected through a high-speed fiber network
C) Any missing routes will automatically converge
D) Devices can belong to any VLAN, regardless of where the VM is running

A

D) Devices can belong to any VLAN, regardless of where the VM is running

Distributed switching removes the physical network segmentation created by a VM server farm and allows the network administrator to define VLANs regardless of physical VM location. If the VM moves to another server, the VLAN and IP addressing remains static.

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18
Q

When entering a car, a user’s mobile phone automatically pairs to their automobile and all phone audio is sent over the car’s speakers. What kind of network would best describe this connection?

A) WAN
B) LAN
C) SAN
D) PAN

A

D) PAN

A PAN (Personal Area Network) is commonly associated with devices that are in immediate proximity to the user.

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19
Q

A network administrator has been asked to create a secondary name for an existing file server. Which DNS record type would be the best choice for this task?

A) SRV
B) MX
C) CNAME
D) TXT

A

C) CNAME

A canonical name (CNAME) DNS record is used to create an alias for an existing device.

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20
Q

What command would be the best way to reboot a Windows computer from the command line?

A) RESTART
B) SHUTDOWN
C) BOOT
D) TASKKILL

A

B) SHUTDOWN

The Windows SHUTDOWN command can be used to shutdown and power off Windows or to restart the system.

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21
Q

A network administrator needs to update the software in all of the access points across a college campus. Which of the following would be the best fit for this task?

A) Mobile Device Manager
B) Application Proxy
C) Wireless LAN Controller
D) AAA Server

A

C) Wireless LAN Controller

A wireless LAN controller provides centralized management of all wireless access points on the network.

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22
Q

A network engineer is designing a WAN that would connect all remote locations to each other using encrypted tunnels. Which of these WAN technologies best fits this description?

A) DMVPN
B) ATM
C) PPPoE
D) MPLS

A

A) DMVPN

A DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN) is designed to dynamically build encrypted VPN tunnels between multiple sites to create a meshed WAN architecture.

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23
Q

A network administrator has configured two Ethernet adapters in a database server to operate as a single connection. Which of these would best describe this configuration?

A) Channel bonding
B) Mesh network
C) MIMO
D) NIC teaming

A

D) NIC teaming

NIC teaming combines multiple network interfaces together to operate as a single entity, allowing for aggregate bandwidth and redundant network paths.

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24
Q

Which of the following device hardening techniques would best protect the information transmitted across the network while administering the device?

A) Disable unnecessary services
B) Use complex passwords
C) Create new keys during the installation
D) Check the hash of each patch file

A

C) Create new keys during the installation

Devices often ship with encryption keys that are used by default, but that usually means that everyone has access to the same keys. Creating your own keys ensures that others would not have the ability to tap into your encrypted communications.

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25
Q

Vala, a security administrator, is concerned that an internal application may not be using secure protocols over the network. Which of these would be the best way for Vala to verify the type of network security used by this application?

A) Port scanner
B) Tone generator
C) Protocol analyzer
D) Speed test site

A

C) Protocol analyzer

A protocol analyzer will capture and display all of the network traffic and provide a decode of the captured frames.

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26
Q

A network administrator would like to configure a firewall to allow direct SMB file transfers between Windows machines. Which of the following should be enabled on the firewall?

A) tcp/3389
B) tcp/445
C) tcp/25
D) tcp/22

A

B) tcp/445

NetBIOS-less SMB (Server Message Block) communication communicates using tcp/445.

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27
Q

A network administrator needs to connect to a third-party network using an EGP. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this task?

A) BGP
B) EIGRP
C) OSPF
D) WPA2

A

A) BGP

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is a common EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol). EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol), OSPF (Open Shortest Path First), and RIPv2 (Routing Information Protocol version 2) are categorized as IGPs (Interior Gateway Protocols). WPA2 is an encryption protocol used on 802.11 wireless networks.

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28
Q

A network administrator would like to prioritize different VLANs traversing an 802.1Q trunk. Which of these technologies would be the best choice for this task?

A) DiffServ
B) DSCP
C) DS
D) CoS

A

D) CoS

CoS (Class of Service) is a method of traffic prioritization managed in the Ethernet frame header of an 802.1Q trunk. One common use of CoS is to prioritize voice VLAN traffic over other VLANs traversing a trunked link.

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29
Q

When classful subnetting, what is the default subnet mask for the IP address 147.240.1.195?

A) 255.0.0.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.255.255.0
D) 255.255.255.255

A

B) 255.255.0.0

An IP address that starts with 147 is a class B address, so the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.

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30
Q

A medical facility consists of four separate buildings at the same address, and each building is connected with private fiber runs. Which of the following would BEST describe this network?

A) CAN
B) IaaS
C) Hybrid
D) WAN

A

A) CAN

A CAN (Campus Area Network) describes connectivity between separate buildings in a limited geographical area. Since these facilities are usually under the management of a single group, it’s relatively easy to install conduit and connect the buildings using fiber optic cabling.

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31
Q

A network administrator needs to install a wireless network that can support 150 Mbit/sec data transfers. Which of the following would be the minimum standard to support this requirement?

A) 802.11a
B) 802.11b
C) 802.11ac
D) 802.11n

A

D) 802.11n

802.11n can support four separate MIMO channels that each support a theoretical maximum throughput of 150 megabits per second.

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32
Q

A system administrator is not able to browse a web site using the FQDN, but using the IP address works perfectly. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A) Bad DNS setting
B) Incorrect subnet mask
C) Invalid web server configuration
D) Invalid routing table

A

A) Bad DNS setting

The DNS server is responsible for converting a FQDN (Fully-Qualified Domain Name) to an IP address. If this resolution process isn’t working, then the client workstation will not know the IP address of the destination device.

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33
Q

A network administrator has configured a switch to reference a stratum 1 server. Which of the following would describe this configuration?

A) DNS
B) NTP
C) SNMP
D) SSH

A

B) NTP

NTP (Network Time Protocol) uses stratums to describe the distance from the original reference clock. Stratum 0 describes the most accurate atomic clock, stratum 1 is a primary time server synchronized to the stratum 0 source, and stratum 2 NTP servers are synchronized to stratum 1 servers.

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34
Q

A network administrator has run a 1 gigabit per second ethernet connection between a switch and a server using a category 5 patch cable. Which of these standards is in use?

A) 1000BASE-T
B) 10GBASE-T
C) 1000BASE-SX
D) 100BASE-TX

A

A) 1000BASE-T

1000BASE-T provides gigabit (1,000 megabit per second) connectivity over a minimum of category 5 twisted pair cable.

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35
Q

A network administrator is transferring files to a SAN using Ethernet frames of 9,000 bytes in length. Which of the following would BEST describe this transfer method?

A) Full duplex
B) Jumbo frames
C) Point-to-point
D) Deep packet inspection

A

B) Jumbo frames

By default, Ethernet frames have a maximum payload length of 1,500 bytes. Ethernet frames that extend beyond this payload size are called jumbo frames.

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36
Q

Which of the following WAN technologies would be commonly found on DSL networks?

A) DMVPN
B) MPLS
C) ATM
D) PPPoE

A

D) PPPoE

DSL networks commonly use PPPoE (Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet) as their primary protocol.

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37
Q

A company has contracted with a third-party to provide a recovery site that contains racks, server hardware, network infrastructure, and storage systems. To activate this location, the company would send a team that would install software and data. Which of the following would BEST describe this site?

A) Hot site
B) Redundant site
C) Warm site
D) Remote site

A

C) Warm site

A warm site contains everything a company might need to recover their services except for the applications and data.

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38
Q

A network administrator would like to centralize the reporting of switch, router, and firewall log data. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this task?

A) SIEM
B) LDAP
C) RADIUS
D) DMVPN

A

A) SIEM

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) service provides consolidated log file storage, security alerts, data correlation and reporting, and more.

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39
Q

A company is interviewing engineers for a new project, but wants to prevent the engineers from discussing these details with others. Which of the following would restrict the release of this information?

A) EULA
B) AUP
C) NDA
D) BYOD

A

C) NDA

An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) is a confidentiality agreement between parties. An NDA would allow the company do discuss the details of their project but prevent any of the interviewees from discussing those details with others.

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40
Q

A user connecting to the corporate wireless network is presented with a username and password prompt before they can continue. Which of the following would BEST describe this prompt?

A) MAC filtering
B) Port security
C) ACL
D) 802.1X

A

D) 802.1X

IEEE 802.1X is a standard that provides port-based network access control (NAC). Before a user can gain access to the network, they must first authenticate with proper credentials.

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41
Q

Daniel is constructing some Ethernet patch cables for a data center. Which of the following would be the BEST way to validate the pinouts of these cables?

A) Punch-down tool
B) Crimper
C) Cable tester
D) Spectrum analyzer

A

C) Cable tester

A cable tester can quickly show continuity between the eight RJ45 connectors on both ends of the cable.

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42
Q

A network administrator is installing a new VoIP server at a branch office. Which of the following port numbers should be allowed on the local network?

A) tcp/3389
B) udp/53
C) tcp/22
D) tcp/5060

A

D) tcp/5060

TCP ports 5060 and 5061 are commonly used for the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) signaling VoIP (Voice over IP) protocol.

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43
Q

Which of the following would be a valid IP address?

A) 2600:dddd:1111:1::1
B) 192.168.1.55.7
C) fe80::9b8f:44d1:14e1::93fd
D) 10.17.265.2

A

A) 2600:dddd:1111:1::1

A valid IPv6 address contains eight separate groups, with groups of zeros replaced with a double colon.

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44
Q

Which DNS record type is most commonly associated with IPv6 addressing?

A) AAAA
B) MX
C) SRV
D) CNAME

A

A) AAAA

The AAAA record is the designation for an IPv6 address DNS entry.

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45
Q

A network administrator is replacing wires in a punch down block that only supports analog voice. Which of the following would describe this equipment?

A) Fiber distribution panel
B) 110 block
C) 802.11n
D) 66 block

A

D) 66 block

A 66 block is commonly used for analog voice connections. Ethernet links are commonly associated with a 110 block.

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46
Q

A computer on a 1000BASE-T link is connecting at 100 mbps. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A) Attenuation
B) Incorrect pin-out
C) Duplex mismatch
D) Invalid network driver

A

B) Incorrect pin-out

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47
Q

A network administrator has identified a number of errors associated with a WAN link. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test the router interface for potential problems?

A) ping
B) Punch-down tool
C) Tone generator
D) Loopback plug

A

D) Loopback plug

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48
Q

How does a network device determine if a specific packet is the start of a new traffic flow?

A) TCP flags
B) MTU size
C) SSID broadcasts
D) DNS record

A

A) TCP flags

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49
Q

Which link-state routing protocol would be the best choice for a large internal network?

A) OSPF
B) BGP
C) EIGRP
D) RIP

A

A) OSPF

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50
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to block file transfers containing sensitive customer information?

A) AUP
B) DLP
C) BYOD
D) IPS

A

B) DLP (Data Loss Prevention)

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51
Q

Which security strategy involves the use of physical, technical, and administrative controls?

A) CIA Triad
B) Role-based access control
C) Zero trust
D) Defense in depth

A

D) Defense in depth

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52
Q

A network administrator would like to be informed each time a network link is disabled. Which of the following would provide this functionality?

A) Top of rack switching
B) Trap
C) LDAP
D) TCP flag

A

B) Trap

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53
Q

An administrator is designing a network for applications to communicate directly to their associated cloud services. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

A) CAN
B) SD-WAN
C) mGRE
D) MPLS

A

B) SD-WAN

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54
Q

A network administrator is configuring LACP on a switch port. Which of the following would BEST describe this setting?

A) Link aggregation
B) Port mirroring
C) Loop prevention
D) Flow control

A

A) Link aggregation

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55
Q

An organization is consolidating log files from Windows servers, Linux servers, switches, routers, and firewalls. Which of the following is used to consolidate this information?

A) NetFlow
B) Environmental sensors
C) Syslog
D) SNMP

A

C) Syslog

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56
Q

A user connecting through a VPN to the corporate office is not able to use their printer at home. Which of the following could be used to resolve this issue?

A) VDI
B) 802.1X
C) Split tunnel
D) Clientless VPN

A

C) Split tunnel

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57
Q

A network administrator is building a network to connect industrial equipment. Which of the following would BEST describe this network type?

A) SAN
B) SCADA
C) SDWAN
D) SOHO

A

B) SCADA

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58
Q

A user connecting to the VPN receives a message on the screen with instructions for downloading the corporate anti-virus utility. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A) Invalid certificate
B) Incorrect VLAN
C) Failed posture assessment
D) Wrong date and time

A

C) Failed posture assessment

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59
Q

Construction work in the area has severed a fiber connection between buildings. Which of the following should be used to reconnect this network?

A) Fusion splicer
B) OTDR
C) Tone generator
D) Port mirror

A

A) Fusion splicer

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60
Q

A firewall is blocking all traffic using tcp/3389. Which OSI layer is associated with this process?

A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4

A

D) Layer 4

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61
Q

A user moves seamlessly between access points when walking between campus buildings. Which of the following provides this functionality?

A) ESSID
B) Cellular roaming
C) MU-MIMO
D) CSMA/CAF

A

A) ESSID

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62
Q

A network administrator would like to enable authentication for wireless network users. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?

A) ACL
B) IPsec
C) MAC filtering
D) 802.1X

A

D) 802.1X

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63
Q

A company is connecting two locations across the city using 100 megabit per second Ethernet links. Which of the following would BEST describe this connection?

A) WAN
B) PAN
C) CAN
D) MAN

A

D) MAN

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64
Q

Which of these would support a 40 Gbit/sec Ethernet network link?

A) QSFP
B) SFP
C) QSFP+
D) SFP+

A

C) QSFP+

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65
Q

A company is changing the FQDN of their SMTP server. Which of the following DNS records should be updated?

A) AAAA
B) MX
C) A
D) NS

A

B) MX

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66
Q

A company is designing a network that will provide the highest amount of availability to a web server. Which of the following should be included in this design?

A) Load balancer
B) VPN concentrator
C) IPS
D) Layer 3 switch

A

A) Load balancer

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67
Q

Which of the following should be used if a disaster causes a long-term outage to normal online processes?

A) COOP
B) SLA
C) EULA
D) STP

A

A) COOP

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68
Q

Which of the following would be required to use a clientless VPN?

A) Dynamic routing protocol
B) MFA
C) HTML5 compliant browser
D) 802.1X

A

C) HTML5 compliant browser

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69
Q

A(n) ________________ organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room.

A) rack
B) patch panel
C) outlet
D) 110 jack

A

B) patch panel

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70
Q

What are patch cables used for? (Select two.)

A) To connect different telecommunications rooms.
B) To connect the patch panel to the switch.
C) They are used as crossover cables.
D) To connect PCs to outlet boxes.

A

B) To connect the patch panel to the switch.
&
D) To connect PCs to outlet boxes.

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71
Q

What does IANA stand for?

A) International Association Numbers Authority
B) International Association Numbering Authority
C) Internet Assigned Numbering Authority
D) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

A

D) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority

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72
Q

What is Area 0 called in OSPF?

A) Local Area
B) Primary Zone
C) Trunk
D) Backbone

A

D) Backbone

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73
Q

The traceroute utility is useful for?

A) Configuring routers remotely
B) Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination
C) Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address
D) Fixing the computer’s local routing table

A

C) Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address

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74
Q

An SSL/TLS URL connection start with which prefix?

A) http
B) www
C) ftp
D) https

A

D) https

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75
Q

Why might you use the netstat utility?

A) To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers
B) To see your IP address and configuration details
C) To see the endpoints of your sessions
D) To issue commands to a remote server

A

C) To see the endpoints of your sessions

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76
Q

Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (Select three.)

A) -a shows all used ports.
B) -n shows raw port numbers and IP addresses.
C) -o shows the process ID.
D) -s shows the application name.

A

A) -a shows all used ports.
B) -n shows raw port numbers and IP addresses.
C) -o shows the process ID.

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77
Q

The DNS root directory is represented by what symbol?

A) . (dot)
B) / (forward slash)
C) \ (back slash)
D) $ (dollar sign)

A

A) . (dot)

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78
Q

Running which command enables you to query the functions of a DNS server?

A) ipconfig
B) nslookup
C) ping
D) xdns

A

B) nslookup

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79
Q

Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain?

A) Forward lookup zone
B) Canonical zone
C) MX record
D) SMTP record

A

A) Forward lookup zone

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80
Q

Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called?

A) Encoded key
B) Symmetric key
C) Single key
D) Synthetic key

A

B) Symmetric key

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81
Q

The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called___________.

A) PKI
B) authentication
C) locking
D) nonrepudiation

A

D) nonrepudiation

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82
Q

If you saw some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard would you know was running?

A) PPP
B) RADIUS
C) MS-CHAP
D) TACACS+

A

B) RADIUS

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83
Q

Which VPN technology enables direct connections between satellite locations?

A) PPTP VPN
B) IPsec VPN
C) SSL VPN
D) DMVPN

A

D) DMVPN

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84
Q

A static VLAN assigns VLANs to_____________.

A) IP addresses
B) MAC addresses
C) ports
D) trunks

A

C) ports

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85
Q

A content switch always works at least at which layer of the OSI model?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 7

A

D) 7

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86
Q

DHCP is required to receive an IPv6 address automatically.

A) True
B) False

A

B) False

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87
Q

What is the /16 prefix for all 6to4 address?

A) 2001
B) 2003
C) 2002
D) 2021

A

C) 2002

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88
Q

What service do tunnel brokers provide?

A) A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.
B) They provide no useful service.
C) Access to IPv6 DNS records.
D) A second connection for multihoming.

A

A) A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.

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89
Q

Which of the following is the valid reduced version of the address 2001:0489:000f:0000:0000:1f00:0000:000d?

A) 2001:489:f::1f:0:d
B) 2001:489:f::1f00::d
C) 2001:0489:000f::1f00:0000:000d
D) 2001:489:f::1f00:0:d

A

D) 2001:489:f::1f00:0:d

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90
Q

What is the popular Microsoft remote access server program called?

A) RRAS
B) Dial-Up Networking
C) Dial-Up Server
D) Microsoft Client for Networks

A

A) RRAS

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91
Q

The V.90 standard defines a modem speed of _______________.

A) 56 Kbps
B) 33.6 K baud
C) 28.8 Kbps
D) 2400 baud

A

A) 56 Kbps

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92
Q

What is SONET used for?

A) Short-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission
B) Long-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission
C) Long-distance, low-speed, copper cable transmission
D) Short-distance, low-speed, copper cable transmission

A

B) Long-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission

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93
Q

Which technology enables use of a WAP without directly connecting the WAP to an AC power outlet?

A) AES
B) PoE
C) Powered Wi-Fi
D) TKIP

A

B) PoE

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94
Q

Which of the following is known as a Basic Service Set in infrastructure mode?

A) A WAP
B) A WPA
C) A RADIUS server
D) A TKIP

A

A) A WAP

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95
Q

What do you call a wireless network in infrastructure mode with more than one access point?

A) BSS
B) EBSS
C) WBSS
D) ExNet

A

B) EBSS

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96
Q

Which of the following is the most secure method of wireless encryption?

A) WEP
B) WEP2
C) WPA
D) WPA2

A

D) WPA2

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97
Q

Upgrading which component of a host machine would most likely enable you to run more virtual machines simultaneously?

A) CPU
B) Hard Drive
C) RAM
D) Windows

A

C) RAM

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98
Q

What enables two VMs hosted on the same physical machine to communicate without leaving the machine itself?

A) Virtual firewall
B) Virtual LAN
C) Virtual PBX
D) Virtual switch

A

D) Virtual switch

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99
Q

John has two groups of virtual machines that each need to be on their own subnet. Which of the following should he use to subnet each group of virtual machines without moving or re-cabling hardware?

A) Virtual NIC
B) Virtual switch
C) Virtual router
D) Virtual firewall

A

C) Virtual router

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100
Q

GSM, EDGE, and LTE all use which of the following? (Select two.)

A) SIM cards
B) CDMA
C) TDMA
D) NFC

A

A) SIM cards
&
C) TDMA

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101
Q

Which of the following does a classic hotspot require? (Select two.)

A) Bluetooth
B) 802.11
C) Cellular WAN
D) NFC

A

B) 802.11
&
C) Cellular WAN

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102
Q

All tap-to-pay services use which networking technology?A) 802.11B) BluetoothC) ANT+D) NFC

A

D) NFC

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103
Q

Which of the following probably uses the least power?A) ANT+B) RFIDC) BluetoothD) 802.11

A

A) ANT+

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104
Q

Which of the following is a unique server function?A) Network loginB) High graphics speedC) Large amounts of RAMD) Network authentication

A

D) Network authentication

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105
Q

What standard is used by most NAS devices, enabling them to connect easily to almost any network?A) VLANB) SIPC) RTUD) CIFS

A

D) CIFS

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106
Q

H.323 uses which TCP port number?A) 5004B) 5060C) 2427D) 1720

A

D) 1720

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107
Q

The RTP protocol runs on top of which protocol?A) UC serverB) SIPC) MGCPD) H.323

A

B) SIP

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108
Q

What is a medianet’s primary tool to ensure bandwidth for VTC?A) MPLSB) RTUC) QoSD) ISDN

A

C) QoS

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109
Q

Which item should be found in a security policy?A) Acceptable use policyB) Emergency exit planC) Service level agreementD) Instruction on how to fill out a change request form

A

A) Acceptable use policy

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110
Q

The best way to know the vulnerabilities of an IT infrastructure is to run what?A) A system-wide antivirus scannerB) Cable certifierC) Critical asset scannerD) Vulnerability scanner

A

D) Vulnerability scanner

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111
Q

During and after a change to the IT infrastructure, what must be done?A) Downtime must be scheduled.B) New equipment must be installed.C) Operating systems must be patched.D) The changes must be documented.

A

D) The changes must be documented.

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112
Q

When working inside equipment, what should Jane do?A) Ensure that the equipment is secured to the rack with four screws.B) Wear a properly connected anti-ESD wrist strap.C) Have a fire extinguisher nearby and review its proper use.D) Wear safety goggles and fire retardant gloves.

A

B) Wear a properly connected anti-ESD wrist strap.

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113
Q

A computer compromised with malware to support a bot net is called a __________?A) zombieB) reflectionC) DDoSD) locked node

A

A) zombie

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114
Q

Which of the following protocols are notorious for cleartext passwords? (Select two.)A) SSHB) TelnetC) HTTPSD) POP3

A

B) Telnet&D) POP3

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115
Q

In an SNMP managed network, which software does a managed device run?A) AgentB) NMSC) SNMP managerD) MIB

A

A) Agent

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116
Q

What should you create when a network is running correctly?A) Answer fileB) Capture fileC) MIBD) Baseline

A

D) Baseline

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117
Q

When should you use a cable tester to troubleshoot a network cable?A) When you have a host experiencing a very slow connectionB) When you have an intermittent connection problemC) When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cableD) When you are trying to find the correct cable up in the plenum

A

C) When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cable

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118
Q

What will the command route print return on a Windows system?A) The results of the last tracertB) The gateway’s router tableC) The routes taken by a concurrent connectionD) The current system’s route table

A

D) The current system’s route table

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119
Q

Which command shows you detailed IP information, including DNS server addresses and MAC addresses?A) ipconfigB) ipconfig -aC) ipconfig /allD) ipconfig /dns

A

C) ipconfig /all

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120
Q

Which best describes a model?A) A duplicate of a real object or processB) A representation of a real object or processC) Multiple steps of a process converted into a single stepD) The expansion of a single process step into multiple steps

A

B) A representation of a real object or process

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121
Q

The OSI model has ____ layers and the TCP/IP model has ____ layers.A) 4 and 4B) 7 and 7C) 7 and 4D) 4 and 7

A

C) 7 and 4

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122
Q

What is a chunk of data that has been sent out of a NIC called?A) PacketB) SegmentC) FrameD) MAC

A

C) Frame

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123
Q

An organization is building out its offices. Initially, computer connections will be 1 gigabit Ethernet but the company plans to upgrade to 10 gigabit connections in the near future. What category of wiring should be installed so that the company will not have to re-wire the facility when they upgrade their Ethernet speed?A) Cat 5B) Cat 5eC) Cat 6aD) Thicknet

A

C) Cat 6a

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124
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of serial ports?A) Sends out 8 bits at the same time on different pinsB) Uses RS-232 signalingC) Uses DB-9 connectorD) Uses DB-25 connector

A

A) Sends out 8 bits at the same time on different pins

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125
Q

Which statement is NOT true about 10BaseT?A) 10BaseT runs at 10 megabits per secondB) Maximum distance between the switch and the node is 100 metersC) 10BaseT requires Cat 5a UTP cableD) 10BaseT supports a maximum of 1024 nodes per switch

A

C) 10BaseT requires Cat 5a UTP cable

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126
Q

Why can straight-through cables be used to connect modern switches together?A) Straight-through cables cannot be used to connect modern switches togetherB) Straight-through cables can be used to connect modern switches together, but autosensing sets the switch port to half-duplex, reducing performance by halfC) The switch will re-wire the cable termination so that it becomes a crossover cableD) Autosensing in the switch will cause the switch port to re-wire itself into a crossover configuration.

A

D) Autosensing in the switch will cause the switch port to re-wire itself into a crossover configuration.

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127
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of structured cabling?A) Telecommunication closetB) Table-top rackC) Horizontal runD) Work area

A

B) Table-top rack

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128
Q

Which of the following is NOT a distribution panel?A) 166 Punch-down blockB) 110 Punch-down blockC) 66 Punch-down blockD) Fiber distribution panel

A

A) 166 Punch-down block

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129
Q

Which of the following is not a cable test?A) WiremapB) ContinuityC) Cable lengthD) Ping

A

D) Ping

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130
Q

A Fox and Hound are also known as what?A) Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)B) WiremapC) A tone generator and a tone probeD) Continuity tester

A

C) A tone generator and a tone probe

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131
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common wired network problem?A) AttenuationB) UTP cables < 100MC) JitterD) Wrong cable type

A

B) UTP cables < 100M

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132
Q

Which decimal number is represented by the binary number 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0?A) 182B) 176C) 73D) 182.176.73.0

A

A) 182

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133
Q

Here are three IP addresses: 216.53.12.11, 130.222.255.170, 223.255.6.88. What class of addresses are each one (in order)?A) C, B, CB) B, A, CC) C, A, BD) A, C, A

A

A) C, B, C

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134
Q

An organization has five campus buildings. They want each building to be on its own subnet. Each campus will need a minimum of twenty-five IP addresses. The organization has the Class C network address 217.105. 2.0 assigned to it. Using CIDR, what subnet mask will yield the minimum number of subnetworks with the maximum number of hosts per network that will meet the requirements of the organization?A) /26B) /27C) /28D) /29

A

B) /27

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135
Q

Which choice is true of a rogue DHCP server?A) A rogue DHCP server increases the speed of the DHCP serviceB) A rogue DHCP server increases the pool of available IP addressesC) A rogue DHCP server can assign incompatible IP addresses to hostsD) A rogue DHCP server ensures that hosts will get compatible APIPA addresses

A

C) A rogue DHCP server can assign incompatible IP addresses to hosts

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136
Q

Which of the following is not a “special” IP address?A) 10.255.1.1B) 169.253.4.185C) 192.168.70.70D) 127.0.0.1

A

B) 169.253.4.185

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137
Q

Which symptom is NOT a result of an IP addressing problem?A) Duplicate IP addressB) Static IP addressC) Duplicate MAC addresses D) Incorrect gateway

A

B) Static IP address

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138
Q

Port forwarding allows which of the following?A) Public addresses to be assigned to the LAN side of a NAT routerB) One host on the LAN side of a NAT router to be assigned with the same public address of the router’s WAN interfaceC) Registers a LAN side host with a portable DNS addressD) Outside access to hosts on the LAN side of a NAT router

A

D) Outside access to hosts on the LAN side of a NAT router

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139
Q

A tech has just installed a new SOHO router for a client. Which security task should the tech perform first?A) Change the administrator name and passwordB) Disable port forwardingC) Disable the DHCP serverD) Enable MAC address cloning

A

A) Change the administrator name and password

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140
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the OSPF routing protocol?A) OSPF is a link state protocolB) OSPF is a distance vector protocolC) OSPF routers are grouped into areasD) OSPF routers in an area elect a designated router and a backup designated router

A

B) OSPF is a distance vector protocol

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141
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the BGP routing protocol?A) BGP is a hybrid of distance vector and link state routing protocolsB) BGP is broken up into divisions called Autonomous Systems (AS)C) The primary job of BGP is to route between ASesD) OSPF is the primary routing protocol between ASes

A

D) OSPF is the primary routing protocol between ASes

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142
Q

Ping uses which IP layer protocol?A) ICMPB) ARPC) RIPD) FTP

A

A) ICMP

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143
Q

What is the primary purpose of netstat?A) Captures frames and packets for later reviewB) Shows your computer’s connection(s) to any web server(s)C) Graphical utility that charts amount of network data entering and leaving a hostD) Displays all connections to and from a host computer

A

D) Displays all connections to and from a host computer

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144
Q

Which of the following is a secure email protocol?A) STMPB) STLSC) POPD) IMAP

A

B) STLS

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145
Q

Which is the default port for NTP?A) 321B) 123C) 132D) 231

A

B) 123

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146
Q

In what folder is the HOSTS file located in a Windows computer?A) C:\etcB) C:\Windows\System32\Drivers\etcC) C:\Windows\etcD) C:\Windows\System32\etc

A

B) C:\Windows\System32\Drivers\etc

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147
Q

The primary command-line tool to troubleshoot Windows naming issues is what?A) NbtstatB) NetstatC) IpconfigD) Net

A

A) Nbtstat

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148
Q

In terms of network security, what is the purpose of hashing?A) Hash is a great side dish with eggsB) Hashing encrypts dataC) Hashes are used to verify data integrityD) Hashing decrypts data that was encrypted by hashing

A

C) Hashes are used to verify data integrity

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149
Q

What is a digital signature?A) A hashed web pageB) An encrypted web pageC) A hash of an encrypted data chunk that sender and receiver both haveD) A web page that has been hashed with a private key

A

C) A hash of an encrypted data chunk that sender and receiver both have

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150
Q

Which statement is true of VLANs?A) VLANs enable remote stations to connect to the LAN from across the InternetB) VLANs break up broadcast domains into multiple, smaller broadcast domainsC) VLANs use SSH tunnels for cross-VLAN trafficD) VLANs can only be implemented on specified ports on a router

A

B) VLANs break up broadcast domains into multiple, smaller broadcast domains

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151
Q

When operating multiple, duplicate servers such as web servers, which method is best to to take advantage of the full power of all of the servers?A) HSRPB) DNS ServerC) Round Robin ServerD) Server Side Load Balancer

A

D) Server Side Load Balancer

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152
Q

What does QoS provide?A) Higher performance of selected trafficB) Blocking of specified traffic typesC) Redirection of low priority traffic to slower router interfacesD) Prioritized throughput of different traffic types

A

D) Prioritized throughput of different traffic types

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153
Q

Which statement is true of IPS and IDS systems?A) Passive IDS is the same as IPSB) IPS responds to threats with a notification to specified staffC) IPS detects then attempts to defend against a threatD) Passive IPS is the same as IDS

A

C) IPS detects then attempts to defend against a threat

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154
Q

Which statement is NOT true of a forward proxy?A) Forward proxy servers are connected in-line between the front-end router and the LAN, and they do not require hosts to be configuredB) Forward proxy servers function between the local network and the front-end routerC) Forward proxy servers are application specificD) Hosts must be configured to access the forward proxy server

A

A) Forward proxy servers are connected in-line between the front-end router and the LAN, and they do not require hosts to be configured

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155
Q

Dial-up connections require which piece of equipment?A) ModemB) Cable modemC) NICD) Multi-speed switch

A

A) Modem

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156
Q

The primary technical disadvantage to satellite Internet is what?A) Slow uploadB) Slow downloadC) LatencyD) Expense

A

C) Latency

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157
Q

SCADA differs from ICS/DCS for what major reason?A) SCADA uses conventional computers while ICS/DCS uses highly specialized computersB) ICS/DCS uses conventional computers while SCADA uses highly specialized computersC) ICS/DCS operates over long distances while SCADA is localD) SCADA operates over long distances while ICS/DCS is local

A

D) SCADA operates over long distances while ICS/DCS is local

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158
Q

Which choice is NOT a typical Wi-Fi problem?A) InterferenceB) WPS failureC) Wrong WAP passwordD) WAP configuration has changed

A

B) WPS failure

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159
Q

Which element does NOT need to be configured when installing a virtual machine on a host?A) The number of CPU coresB) The type and size of storage systemC) The input voltage of the power supplyD) The amount of RAM

A

C) The input voltage of the power supply

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160
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element that is exclusive to Mobile NAC?A) Two-factor authenticationB) OnboardingC) Captive PortalD) Geofencing

A

A) Two-factor authentication

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161
Q

Which choice is NOT an element of unified communication (UC)?A) CollaborationB) Presence informationC) Video conferencingD) Virtualization

A

D) Virtualization

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162
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of risk management?A) Secure infrastructure from threatsB) Security policiesC) Security controlsD) Security procedures

A

A) Secure infrastructure from threats

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163
Q

Which choice is NOT found in a change request?A) Type of changeB) Configuration proceduresC) Rollback processD) Cost of implementation

A

D) Cost of implementation

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164
Q

Which choice is NOT a type of firewall?A) UMTB) Network-basedC) Host-basedD) Software

A

A) UMT

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165
Q

Troubleshooting networks add which element to the general troubleshooting model?A) Gather basic informationB) Network model top-to-bottom approachC) Form a theoryD) Test the theory

A

B) Network model top-to-bottom approach

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166
Q

Which of the following would be MOST commonly associated with out-of-band management?A) IPsec concentratorB) Load balancerC) Comm serverD) Repeater

A

C) Comm server

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167
Q

An organization has connected two sites over a secure encrypted tunnel. Which of the following would MOST likely be in use?A) SSHB) RDPC) IPsecD) SFTP

A

C) IPsec

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168
Q

Which of the following attack types would describe the process of identifying a password based on a stored hash?A) PhishingB) Brute forceC) Logic bombD) Denial of service

A

B) Brute force

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169
Q

Describe fully shielded cabling.

A

Copper wiring that has a braded outer screen and foil-shielded pairs. There are also variants that have a foil outer shield.

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170
Q

Which cable type consists of a single core made of solid copper surrounded by insulation, a braided metal shielding, and an outer cover?

A

Coax.

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171
Q

A user has configured a wireless network to communicate directly between two devices without using an access point. Which of the following would BEST describe this configuration?A) SSIDB) MU-MIMOC) ESSIDD) IBSS

A

D) IBSS(Independent Basic Service Set)Two devices communicate directly to each other using 802.11, no access point required. This used to be called ‘Ad hoc’.

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172
Q

An attacker is attempting to obtain user credentials by using a list of the most common passwords. Which of the following would BEST describe this attack?A) VLAN hoppingB) On-path attackC) Social engineeringD) Dictionary attack

A

D) Dictionary attack

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173
Q

Which network topology connected nodes with a ring of cable?A) StarB) BusC) RingD) Mesh

A

C) Ring

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174
Q

What type of topology does 10BaseT use?A) BusB) RingC) Star busD) Bus ring

A

C) Star bus

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175
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of crossover cables?A) They are a type of twisted-pair cabling.B) They reverse the sending and receiving wire pairs.C) They are used to connect hubs.D) Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.

A

D) Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.

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176
Q

What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe?A) 1000BaseLXB) 1000BaseTC) 100BaseTD) 1000BaseSX

A

B) 1000BaseT

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177
Q

What is a big advantage to using fiber-optic cable?A) Fiber is common glass; therefore, it’s less expensive.B) Fiber is not affected by EMI.C) Making custom cable lengths is easier with fiber.D) All that orange fiber looks impressive in the network closet.

A

B) Fiber is not affected by EMI.

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178
Q

Identify the network ID section of the following IP address and subnet mask: 10.14.12.43 - 255.255.255.0A) 10.14B) 43C) 10.14.12D) 14.12.43

A

C) 10.14.12

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179
Q

Which of the following is a valid loopback address?A) 128.0.0.1B) 127.0.0.0C) 128.0.0.255D) 127.24.0.1

A

D) 127.24.0.1

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180
Q

Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (Select two.)A) Windows comes with preinstalled SSH and Telnet clients.B) SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.C) Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool.D) SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.

A

B) SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.&D) SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.

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181
Q

A user calls to say she can’t see other systems on the network when she looks in My Network Places. You are not using NetBIOS. What are your first two troubleshooting steps? (Select two.)A) Ping the address of a known Web site.B) Ping the loopback address to test her NIC.C) Ping several neighboring systems using both DNS names and IP addresses.D) Ping the IP addresses of the router.

A

B) Ping the loopback address to test her NIC.&C) Ping several neighboring systems using both DNS names and IP addresses.

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182
Q

A hash function is by definition a ________.A) complex functionB) PKI functionC) one-way functionD) systematic function

A

C) one-way function

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183
Q

What’s the most common method used to configure a VLAN-capable switch?A) Log into the switch using SSH and use the command-line interface.B) Plug into the switch with a console cable and use the command-line interface.C) Log into the switch via a Web browser and use the GUI.D) Plug into the switch with a VLAN cable and use the command-line interface.

A

A) Log into the switch using SSH and use the command-line interface.

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184
Q

Which of the following operating systems have Teredo built in? (Select two).A) Windows 7B) macOSC) Windows 10D) Linux

A

A) Windows 7&C) Windows 10

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185
Q

An Ethernet cable has become disconnected from a 110 block patch panel. Which of the following would repair this issue?A) MultimeterB) Inductive probeC) Punch-down toolD) Loopback plug

A

C) Punch-down tool

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186
Q

A firewall needs to be configured to allow clock synchronization. Which of the following ports should be opened?A) udp/123B) tcp/3389C) tcp/22D) udp/53

A

A) udp/123

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187
Q

An ISP has guaranteed a company that an on-site equipment failures will be repaired within four hours. Which of the following would BEST describe this guarantee?A) MTBFB) RAIDC) Full backupD) SLA

A

D) SLA

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188
Q

Each time a user attempts to login to an application server, the authentication is denied. Which of the following would provide more information about this issue?A) MIB browserB) Port scannerC) Protocol analyzerD) TDR

A

C) Protocol analyzer

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189
Q

A computer in the shipping department is receiving an IP address during startup, but the assigned address is for the marketing department network. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?A) VLAN mismatchB) Incorrect duplexC) Near-end crosstalkD) Dual stack

A

A) VLAN mismatch

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190
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for managing the encryption and decryption of application data?A) Layer 7B) Layer 6C) Layer 5D) Layer 4

A

B) Layer 6

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191
Q

Which of the following would be the MOST common choice for the console on a switch?A) RJ11B) MT-RJC) F-connectorD) DB9

A

D) DB9

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192
Q

A server administrator has received a notification from the help desk that a server is experiencing a high number of CRC errors. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?A) Bad network cableB) Invalid routing tableC) Failed default gatewayD) Duplicate IP address

A

A) Bad network cable

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193
Q

A network administrator has configured MAC address filtering on a WAP, but unauthorized traffic continues to appear on the network. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this?A) Man-in-the-middleB) SpoofingC) DDoSD) Phishing

A

B) Spoofing

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194
Q

A network engineer would like to configure a switch to prevent any network loops. Which of the following should be enabled on the switch?A) VLANB) Half-duplexC) STPD) QoS

A

C) STP

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195
Q

Which of these would BEST describe the location of a CSU/DSU?A) Between a fiber network and a copper networkB) At the power supply of a routerC) Between a WAP and the wired networkD) Between a router and a WAN circuit

A

D) Between a router and a WAN circuit

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196
Q

A user in the accounting department uses a phone app to generate a random number during the login process. What factor of authentication is in use?A) Somewhere you areB) Something you knowC) Something you doD) Something you have

A

D) Something you have

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197
Q

You are configuring a firewall to allow VoIP signaling with the H.323 protocol. Which of these should you configure on your firewall?A) Enable outbound ICMPB) Enable tcp port 5060 and tcp port 5061C) Disable inbound udpD) Allow tcp port 1720

A

D) Allow tcp port 1720The H.323 VoIP signaling protocol uses tcp/1720 to communicate.

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198
Q

How does a switch know which devices are connected to a switch interface?A) The switch sends ARP requests based on IP traffic traversing the switchB) The switch examines the destination MAC address of every frameC) The switch examines the source MAC addresses of every frame.D) All devices must be initially configured in the switch settings

A

C) The switch examines the source MAC addresses of every frame.A switch examines the source MAC address of every frame to determine where a device may be located. This information is stored in a MAC address table for use during the normal frame forwarding process.

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199
Q

Your network has grown larger over time, and you’re concerned about the number of broadcasts on the network. Which of these would be the best way to limit the number of broadcasts?A) Use a switch to separate the networkB) Use a firewall to filter broadcastsC) Use a router to separate the networkD) Enable QoS on your switches

A

C) Use a router to separate the networkA router can separate a network into different broadcast domains. A switch or hub will not restrict broadcasts, and firewalls and QoS are not useful for controlling broadcasts.

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200
Q

Which of the following would be the most obvious advantage to optimizing an MTU?A) Guaranteed encryption for all network trafficB) Network prioritization of the most important applicationsC) End-to-end traffic flows without fragmentation overheadD) Data is routed with the fewest hops between networks

A

C) End-to-end traffic flows without fragmentation overheadConfiguring the correct size of an MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) provides the ability to communicate between devices without fragmentation of the data.

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201
Q

Daniel is a network administrator, and he’s configured a trunk between two switches for a test VLAN and a production VLAN. How does the receiving switch determine which VLAN is associated with the incoming data?A) The switch refers to its ARP tableB) The destination IP address is examinedC) The switch refers to its routing tableD) The switch examines the VLAN header

A

D) The switch examines the VLAN headerBefore traffic is sent across a trunk, the sending switch adds VLAN information to a VLAN header. This information is used on the receiving switch to forward traffic to the appropriate VLAN.

202
Q

One of your network administrators has brought the network down by connecting two switches together to form a loop. Which of these would have been the best way to prevent this downtime?A) Use a LAG between switchesB) Connect switches using 802.1Q trunksC) Configure port security on both switchesD) Enable STP on the switches

A

D) Enable STP on the switchesSTP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is the most effective way to prevent loops on a switched network.

203
Q

Jack suspects that an application may be communicating inefficiently across the network. Which of these would be the best way to view the application traffic?A) Configure full-duplexB) Use port mirroringC) Configure a DMZD) Add the application monitor to the server VLAN

A

B) Use port mirroringPort mirroring is a switch feature that allows you to copy traffic flows to a packet capture device on another switch interface.

204
Q

A network administrator is building a new network in a data center, and the administrator is moving from static routing to dynamic routing. What EGP would be the BEST choice to connect this data center to the Internet?A) OSPFB) BGPC) RIPD) EIGRP

A

B) BGPOne of the most common exterior gateway protocols (EGP) is Border Gateway Protocol (BGP). The other protocols listed are considered interior gateway protocols (IGP).

205
Q

Which of the following would be a valid IPv4 address?A) 10.55.272.1B) 192.268.22.7C) 122.254.0.1D) 270.16.22.55

A

C) 122.254.0.1A valid IPv4 address will have four octets with a maximum value of 255 in any octet.

206
Q

A network administrator would like to prioritize different traffic types traversing an 802.1Q trunk. Which of these technologies would provide this control over traffic flows?A) DiffServB) DSCPC) IPsecD) CoS

A

D) CoSCoS (Class of Service) is a method of prioritizing traffic using the Ethernet frame header within an 802.1Q trunk.

207
Q

An organization is deploying a cloud-based application, but the security team is concerned about preventing security breaches for this application. Which of these would allow the company to implement security policies in the cloud?A) Next-generation firewallB) DLPC) IPSD) CASB

A

D) CASBA Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) provides visibility, compliance, threat prevention, and data security for cloud-based applications.

208
Q

Which of these would best describe FCoE?A) Uses specialized adapter cards to connectB) Communicates over an IP tunnelC) Only available over fiber optic connectionsD) Not routable from external IP subnets

A

D) Not routable from external IP subnetsFibre Channel over Ethernet communicates over Ethernet frames, but no layer 3 address is available to route the traffic over an IP network.

209
Q

A user in the accounting department has traveled overseas and now cannot login to the accounting server. The help desk determines that the authentication process has restricted access based on the IP address of the user’s workstation. Which of these authentication factors would best describe this scenario?A) Something you haveB) Something you doC) Something you knowD) Somewhere you are

A

D) Somewhere you areThe multi-factor authentication of ‘somewhere you are’ can be used to control access based on geographical location.

210
Q

When starting a computer, a user finds that they have been assigned an APIPA address. The DHCP server is operating and the client computer is able to successfully ping the DHCP server. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue?A) The DHCP server is on the wrong VLANB) The DHCP server has assigned a duplicate IP addressC) The DHCP server has an untrusted certificateD) The DHCP scope is exhausted

A

D) The DHCP scope is exhaustedAn APIPA address is assigned by the local device when it is not able to receive an IP address from a DHCP server. In this case, the DHCP server appeared to be operational, so the most likely available option would be that the DHCP server did not have any available IP addresses to assign. The DHCP administrator could increase the number of available IP addresses in the scope or lower the overall lease time for the DHCP assignments.

211
Q

Which of the following would be an invalid IPv4 address?A) 192.168.11.131B) 254.254.254.254C) 10.177.2.256D) 1.1.1.1

A

C) 10.177.2.256IPv4 addresses consists of four 8-bit octets, which means the numbers in each octet range from 0 through 255. An IP address with an octet of 256 would not be valid.

212
Q

A user has connected a laptop to a new network, but the network does not yet have an operational DHCP server. Which of these IP addresses would be MOST likely assigned to the laptop?A) 169.254.75.2B) 192.168.5.99C) 10.1.20.3D) 127.0.0.1

A

A) 169.254.75.2If a DHCP server is not available, a device will commonly use APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) and assign an address between the range 169.254.1.0 through 169.254.254.255.

213
Q

A relative has just installed a voice-controlled virtual assistant in their home. What type of network does the virtual assistant use to control lights, door locks, and other devices in the home?A) NFCB) 802.11bC) Z-WaveD) Bluetooth

A

C) Z-WaveZ-wave is a common home automation network topology used by Amazon, Samsung, Logitech, and others.

214
Q

An Internet provider has installed a new circuit and provided the network team with an RJ11 connector. What type of network is running over this circuit?A) EthernetB) DS3C) DSLD) DOCSIS

A

C) DSLRJ11 (Registered Jack type 11) is commonly associated with analog telephone and DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connections.

215
Q

A network administrator is using an RJ45 cable that has wires connected on pins 1, 2, 3, and 6, and no wires connected on the other pins. Which of the following would be the MOST likely use of this cable?A) Gigabit uplink from a serverB) Serial connection to a console portC) Connection between a dmarc and CSU/DSUD) Fast Ethernet connection for a WAP

A

B) Serial connection to a console portThe 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet) standard uses two-pairs of copper wires for connectivity. The gigabit standard of 1000BASE-T uses four pairs of wire.

216
Q

A network administrator would like to ensure the uptime of a database server if a network switch fails. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this requirement?A) UPSB) On-site spare switchC) NIC teamingD) Incremental backups

A

C) NIC teamingNIC teaming uses multiple NICs (Network Interface Cards) to provide load balancing and fail over features.

217
Q

Which of the following would be MOST associated with a console router?A) IPsecB) Out-of-band managementC) FTPSD) DTLS VPN

A

B) Out-of-band managementAn out-of-band management system commonly uses a separate network connection and a router that can switch between different serial consoles at a location.

218
Q

A network administrator would like to prevent users in the corporate office from disconnecting their Ethernet laptop connection and plugging in their own devices. Which of the following would provide this type of control?A) Flood guardB) DHCP snoopingC) Spanning treeD) Root guard

A

A) Flood guardFlood guard allows network administrators to configure a maximum number of source MAC addresses on a switch interface.

219
Q

Which of the following would commonly be used as an IGP?A) 802.1XB) OSPFC) STPD) WPA2

A

B) OSPFSome common IGPs (Interior Gateway Protocols) are OSPF (Open Shortest Path First), RIP (Routing Information Protocol), and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol).

220
Q

A network administrator would like to synchronize the clocks used by switches, routers, and firewalls. Which of the following would provide this functionality?A) NTPB) BDPUC) NFSD) SNMP

A

A) NTPNTP (Network Time Protocol) is used to set and sync the time on almost any network-connected device.

221
Q

A network administrator is installing a backup network connection at a remote warehouse. Which of the following networks can use the existing phone lines?A) Cable broadbandB) ISDNC) OC-12D) T3

A

B) ISDNISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) BRI (Basic Rate Interface) connections are delivered over POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) lines.

222
Q

Which of the following makes forwarding decisions based on an OSI layer 2 MAC address?A) RouterB) Load balancerC) SwitchD) Media converter

A

C) SwitchA switch forwards Ethernet data based on the destination MAC address of a frame.

223
Q

What does ARP stand for and what does it do?A) Advanced Routing Protocol. Determines routes between MAC addressesB) Alternate Routing Protocol. Determines backup routes between MAC addressesC) Address Resolution Protocol. Resolves MAC addresses with IP addressesD) Advanced Resolution Protocol. Resolves network names to IP addresses

A

C) Address Resolution Protocol. Resolves MAC addresses with IP addresses

224
Q

Which statement is NOT true of static routes?A) Routers can have static routesB) Hosts can have static routesC) Static routes are entered manually and must be manually changed by a humanD) Static routes are entered manually but can be manually changed by the router

A

D) Static routes are entered manually but can be manually changed by the router

225
Q

Which choice is NOT true about protocol analyzers such as WireShark?A) Protocol analyzers can capture packets and framesB) Protocol analyzers can show the contents of packets and framesC) Protocol analyzers can filter the contents of packet framesD) Protocol analyzers can generate packets and frames

A

D) Protocol analyzers can generate packets and frames

226
Q

A website just changed its IP address and a user is unable to reach it by typing the site’s domain name into their browser. What command can the user run to make the computer learn the website’s new IP address?A) Ipconfig /updatednscacheB) Ipconfig /flushdnsC) Ipconfig /allD) Ipconfig /dnsupdate

A

B) Ipconfig /flushdns

227
Q

Which statement is true of inter-VLAN routing?A) Inter-VLAN routing calls for connecting each VLAN to a port on a router so that data can pass between the VLANsB) Inter-VLAN routing is implemented within switches to enable communication between VLANsC) Inter-VLAN routing encrypts and decrypts traffic between VLANsD) Inter-VLAN routing enables remote VLANs to connect over a public network, such as the internet

A

B) Inter-VLAN routing is implemented within switches to enable communication between VLANs

228
Q

PoE describes what?A) Using power lines to carry Ethernet dataB) Using wireless access points to provide power to wireless clientsC) Using Ethernet cables to carry data and power to network devicesD) Using power cables as wireless antennas in Wi-Fi environments

A

C) Using Ethernet cables to carry data and power to network devices

229
Q

Which cloud model provides a virtualized hardware environment that includes elements such as servers, switches, routers, and load balancers?A) PaaSB) SaaSC) IaaSD) BaaS

A

C) IaaS

230
Q

Which choice is NOT a tool to test network security?A) nmapB) nessusC) Honey treeD) Honey pot

A

C) Honey tree

231
Q

A system administrator is using SNMP. Which of the following would be the MOST likely use of this protocol?A) View router statisticsB) Transfer log filesC) Encrypt all data between remote sitesD) View the desktop of a remote device

A

A) View router statistics

232
Q

A network administrator would like to confirm that all application traffic is using encrypted protocols. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this task?A) Port scannerB) tracerouteC) Protocol analyzerD) Spectrum analyzer

A

C) Protocol analyzer

233
Q

During startup, a laptop in the corporate office receives an IP address that is not associated with one of the company IP subnets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this from occurring in the future?A) Rapid Spanning Tree ProtocolB) BPDU guardC) Root guardD) DHCP snooping

A

D) DHCP snooping

234
Q

A network diagram shows a WAN interface connecting to serial port 0 on slot 1. Which of these would be the BEST description of this diagram?A) Network baselineB) Logical diagramC) Patch panel documentation D) Physical map

A

D) Physical map

235
Q

An organization is migrating their WAN connections from a circuit switched network to a packet switched network. Which of the following would fit this description?A) Frame Relay to SONETB) T1 to MPLSC) Frame Relay to ISDND) SONET to cable modem

A

B) T1 to MPLSCircuit switched networks could be dialup, T1/E1/T3/E3, or ISDN. Examples of packet switched networks include SONET, DSL, Frame Relay, MPLS, cable modem, or wireless.

236
Q

Which of the following network topologies would be the best choice to provide redundancy and fault tolerance across all connected devices?A) BusB) RingC) MeshD) Star

A

C) MeshA mesh topology provides multiple links to the same location to provide a fully or partially connected network infrastructure.

237
Q

A company uses an ANT+ network in their corporate office. Which of these would be most likely associated with this network?A) Encrypted site-to-site communicationB) Internet access on a wireless guest networkC) Streaming video from security camerasD) View real-time statistics from equipment in the corporate gym

A

D) View real-time statistics from equipment in the corporate gymANT and ANT+ are wireless topologies used for Internet of Things networks. These short-range networks are commonly associated with personal fitness devices and heart rate monitors.

238
Q

What type of network termination point is usually installed between a floor of offices and a network closet?A) CSU/DSUB) Patch panelC) COD) Loopback

A

B) Patch panelA patch panel allows for a permanent run between the closet and the user’s desktop, but still allows for changes to the network configuration within the closet.

239
Q

What type of networking component is responsible for forwarding traffic based on the MAC address of the destination device?A) RouterB) WAPC) ProxyD) Switch

A

D) SwitchA switch operates at OSI layer 2, and examines the destination MAC address of a frame when forwarding traffic.

240
Q

A network administrator has created documentation that shows a WAN connection to a remote office that operates at approximately 45 Mbit/sec. Which of these would be the most likely service associated with this WAN connection?A) OC-12B) T3C) DialupD) E1

A

B) T3A T3 line operates at approximately 44.736 Mbit/s.

241
Q

A security administrator is concerned that documents and spreadsheets containing credit card information may be transmitted to the Internet. Which of these would be the best way to identify the transmission of this sensitive information?A) BYODB) DLPC) NDAD) AUP

A

B) DLPA DLP (Data Loss Prevention) system would provide a method of monitoring and alerting for data policy violations, such as sending unencrypted credit card information over an insecure link.

242
Q

Jack, a server administrator, would like to make a service available on the Internet while simultaneously providing security and control of traffic going to the server. Which of the following would be the best way to implement this service requirement?A) Leave the server in the corporate data center and configure a static NATB) Place the server in a DMZC) Install a separate server on the Internet side of the corporate firewallD) Place the server on it’s own physical switch

A

B) Place the server in a DMZA common method of segmenting external services from the internal network is to build a demilitarized zone (DMZ) and place externally-facing services in this protected network subnet. The DMZ is usually controlled using a firewall, and this allows the network administrator the ability to control and manage traffic to the server without allowing this external traffic to traverse the internal corporate network.

243
Q

A network administrator has configured a new static route into a core router. Which of the following OSI layers would be MOST associated with this change?A) Layer 1B) Layer 2C) Layer 3D) Layer 4

A

C) Layer 3

244
Q

A network administrator is troubleshooting a switching problem. While looking in the switch settings, the administrator identifies one interface which has a status of “learning.” Which of these would best describe this interface?A) The switch interface is working normallyB) The network is currently experiencing a loopC) SNMP statistics for the interface are enabledD) The interface is not forwarding and adding to the MAC table

A

D) The interface is not forwarding and adding to the MAC tableBefore communicating on the network, an interface configured with Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) will use the learning state to listen to existing network communication and update the MAC address table of the switch.

245
Q

A network administrator is configuring a switch to automatically modify the network if a virtual system moves from one site to another. Which of the following would BEST describe this activity?A) VLANB) MPLSC) SDND) RSTP

A

C) SDNSDN (Software-Defined Networking) provides a way to programmatically configure network components without the need for human intervention. (Operating a network from a “Single Pane of Glass”) This can be especially useful for cloud-based infrastructures that can dynamically change based on demand or time of day.

246
Q

A user in the marketing department needs to view many graphical documents while mobile. Which of the following cellular technologies would provide the fastest throughput?A) CDMAB) 802.11C) GSMD) LTE

A

D) LTELTE is the fastest cellular techno.

247
Q

Devices on a warehouse network obtain an IP address automatically, but new devices connecting to the network are not assigned an address. Which of the following would BEST describe this issue?A) Interference to the wireless networkB) Lease time is too shortC) Router needs a relay configurationD) DHCP scope is too small

A

D) DHCP scope is too small

248
Q

A recent network outage was identified as a problem with a layer 3 device. Which of the following would have been the source of this issue?A) WAPB) Media converterC) SwitchD) Router

A

D) RouterA router operates at OSI layer 3 and makes forwarding decisions based on the destination IP address in a packet.

249
Q

An organization has been informed that a service running in their data center may have a security flaw. Which of the following would be the BEST way to determine the scope of this issue?A) Port scanB) Protocol analyzerC) Vulnerability scanD) Penetration test

A

C) Vulnerability scanA vulnerability scan is a relatively low-impact scan that can identify systems with known security issues.

250
Q

A manager needs to secure the door to the data center. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?A) CCTVB) Identification badgesC) BiometricsD) Hardware token generator

A

C) BiometricsAccess door security usually takes the form of locks and authentication systems. Of the available options, the biometric authentication factor is the only choice that could be used to allow or disallow access.

251
Q

A network administrator would like to determine the maximum bandwidth available to a new Internet-facing web server. Which of the following tools would be the BEST choice for this task?A) Speed test siteB) Port scannerC) Protocol analyzerD) Spectrum analyzer

A

A) Speed test siteA speed test site provides bandwidth testing from a device to determine the total amount of throughput available across an Internet link.

252
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used to prioritize traffic using DiffServ?A) RouterB) ProxyC) Web serverD) Switch

A

A) RouterDiffServ (Differentiated Services) uses a series of bits in the IP header to classify the packet, allowing a router to apply QoS (Quality of Service) policies.

253
Q

A system administrator is configuring a firewall to allow SNMP traps. Which of the following should be allowed in the firewall rules?A) udp/53B) tcp/443C) udp/162D) tcp/3389

A

C) udp/162

254
Q

A network administrator suspects that a server is configured with a duplex mismatch. Which of the following would confirm this suspicion?A) Late collisionsB) No Internet accessC) High CPU temperatureD) No link lightE) Out of memory

A

A) Late collisions

255
Q

Which of the following topologies required termination?A) StarB) BusC) MeshD) Ring

A

B) Bus

256
Q

Which of the following cables should never be used in a structured cabling installation?A) UTPB) STPC) Fiber-opticD) Coax

A

D) Coax

257
Q

What are two big advantages to using OSPF over RIP? (Select two.)A) OSPF is a modern protocol that does not have legacy problems.B) OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count.C) OSPF runs on all routers, big and small.D) OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing network traffic.

A

B) OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count. & D) OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing network traffic.

258
Q

Port 110 (POP) is what kind of port?A) Well-knownB) RegisteredC) EphemeralD) Reserved

A

A) Well-known

259
Q

Running which command enables you to reset the DNS cache?A) ipconfigB) ipconfig /allC) ipconfig /dnsD) ipconfig /flushdns

A

D) ipconfig /flushdns

260
Q

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?A) PAPB) RADIUSC) 802.1XD) Kerberos

A

D) Kerberos

261
Q

Which of the following statements best applies to an IDS?A) An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions.B) An IDS inspects all traffic as it enters a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions.C) An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and reports intrusions to a configured user account.D) AN IDS inspects all traffic as it enters a network and reports intrusions to a configured user account.

A

A) An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions.

262
Q

BRI ISDN uses ________________.A) 1 B channel and 24 D channelsB) 24 B channels and 1 D channelC) 1 B channel and 2 D channelsD) 2 B channels and 1 D channel

A

D) 2 B channels and 1 D channel

263
Q

What feature enables 802.11n networks to minimize dead spots?A) Channel bondingB) FIFOC) MIMOD) Transmit beamforming

A

D) Transmit beamforming

264
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine over a physical machine?A) Increased performanceB) Hardware consolidationC) No backups neededD) Operating systems included

A

B) Hardware consolidation

265
Q

A TV remote control most likely uses which of the following network technologies?A) RFIDB) NFCC) InfraredD) Bluetooth

A

C) Infrared

266
Q

When designing a basic network, which of the following are factors to consider? (Select two.)A) Ease of useB) List of requirementsC) Equipment limitationsD) Cost of installation

A

B) List of requirements&C) Equipment limitations

267
Q

Users need training from the IT department to understand which of the following?A) How to troubleshoot lost network connectionsB) How to secure workstations with screen-locking and password-security techniquesC) How to send e-mail to the change management teamD) How to check their network connection

A

B) How to secure workstations with screen-locking and password-security techniques

268
Q

A hacker who sends an e-mail but replaces his return e-mail address with a fake one is ______________ the e-mail address.A) hardeningB) malwareC) spoofingD) emulating

A

C) spoofing

269
Q

Bob is told by his administrator to go to www.runthisantimalware.com and click the “Run the program” button on that site to check for malware. What form of anti-malware delivery is this called?A) Host-basedB) Network-basedC) Cloud-basedD) FTP-based

A

C) Cloud-based

270
Q

What is the last step in the troubleshooting process?A) Implementing the solutionB) Testing the solutionC) Documenting the solutionD) Closing the help ticket

A

C) Documenting the solution

271
Q

Which protocol is connectionless?A) UDPB) TCPC) Port numberD) Well-known port

A

A) UDP

272
Q

A network tech suspects a wiring issue in a work area. Which element does she NOT need to check?A) Verify link lights at the workstation and the switch portB) Ensure that the connection from the router to the ISP is goodC) Confirm network settings in the operation systemD) Ping the workstation NIC with a loopback plug installed

A

B) Ensure that the connection from the router to the ISP is good

273
Q

Which statement is NOT true of a subnet mask?A) Subnet masks are used by a computer to determine the network IDB) Subnet masks are sent out as one of the fields in the IP packetC) Subnet masks are made up of contiguous 1s starting at the leftmost (most significant bit) of an IP addressD) Subnet masks are never sent out of a host

A

B) Subnet masks are sent out as one of the fields in the IP packet

274
Q

What is the role of port numbers in IP headers?A) Port numbers identify the sending and receiving processes between two hostsB) Port numbers identify which interfaces on a router should receive data in and which interfaces should forward data outC) Port numbers identify which connectors on a switch that should receive data in and which should forward data outD) Port numbers identify the path of routers between any two hosts that need to communicate with each other

A

A) Port numbers identify the sending and receiving processes between two hosts

275
Q

Which feature of a SOHO router is NOT typically found in an enterprise router?A) Two or more router interfacesB) Graphical or textual management interfaceC) Each interface in the router must be configuredD) Built-in switch

A

D) Built-in switch

276
Q

Which characteristic is true of TCP?A) TCP is connectionlessB) The TCP three-way handshake begins with a SYN message, followed by an ACK response, followed by an ACK SYN messageC) TCP uses FIN message to close a connectionD) TCP uses END message to close a connection

A

C) TCP uses FIN message to close a connection

277
Q

FTP uses TCP port 20 and TCP port 21. Which choice describes how the ports are used?A) FTP servers listen for commands on port 20 and respond with data on port 21B) FTP servers listen for commands on port 21 and respond with data on port 20C) FTP clients send requests on port 20 and receive data on port 21D) FTP clients send requests on port 21 and receive data on port 20

A

B) FTP servers listen for commands on port 21 and respond with data on port 20

278
Q

Which of the following is NOT a network service problem?A) Duplicate IP address in DHCP scopeB) Not enough IP addresses in the DHCP scopeC) Overlong DHCP lease periodsD) Exclusions in the DHCP scope

A

D) Exclusions in the DHCP scope

279
Q

When securing IP networks, developers focus on several key principles. Which of the following is NOT one of those principles?A) PerformanceB) ConfidentialityC) IntegrityD) Availability

A

A) Performance

280
Q

Which port on a switch is used to manage the switch?A) Rollover portB) Console portC) Yost portD) Layer-three port

A

B) Console port

281
Q

Which statement is NOT true of IPv6 addresses?A) Outbound IPv6 addresses are randomized by the operating systemB) EUI-64 can be traced back to the source computerC) IPv4 and IPv6 are automatically translated back and forth as requiredD) There are no private IPv6 addresses

A

C) IPv4 and IPv6 are automatically translated back and forth as required

282
Q

WPS is used for what purpose?A) Automatically shares the Wi-Fi password B) Automatically sets up a personal area networkC) Automatically applies protection services to wireless devicesD) Automatically configures a wireless device to connect to a WAP

A

D) Automatically configures a wireless device to connect to a WAP

283
Q

Which of the following is NOT a good approach to mitigating network threats?A) Training and awarenessB) Patch managementC) Policies and proceduresD) Documenting chain of custody

A

D) Documenting chain of custody

284
Q

Which OSI layer is associated with a switch’s forwarding decisions?A) Layer 1B) Layer 2C) Layer 3D) Layer 4

A

B) Layer 2

285
Q

A network administrator would like to block all known vulnerabilities sent into the network from the Internet. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?A) FDEB) IPSC) ACLD) VLAN

A

B) IPS

286
Q

A user is not able to login to an Active Directory network. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?A) Duplex mismatchB) Incorrect date and timeC) DHCP is enabled D) STP is configured

A

B) Incorrect date and time

287
Q

A network administrator needs to transmit gigabit Ethernet to a remote site four kilometers away. Which of the following standards would be the BEST option?A) 1000BASE-TXB) 1000BASE-LXC) 1000BASE-SXD) 1000BASE-T

A

B) 1000BASE-LX

288
Q

A network administrator is configuring a series of WAN links to provide a mesh of dynamically-built-on-demand encrypted tunnels. Which of the following would BEST describe this configuration?A) MPLSB) DMVPNC) SIP trunkingD) IPsec

A

B) DMVPN

289
Q

What is decimal 154 in binary?A) 00011001B) 10011010C) 01100101D) 00001111

A

B) 10011010

290
Q

A network administrator is connecting a patch cable to a computer, but all lights on the Ethernet port remain dark. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?A) Excessive crosstalkB) VLAN mismatchC) Open circuitD) Duplex mismatch

A

C) Open circuit

291
Q

A network administrator is connecting two buildings 500 meters apart. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this connection?A) Wireless Access PointB) RouterC) BridgeD) Media converter

A

D) Media converter

292
Q

A CEO would like to create a real-time duplicate of the company data center at a recovery location. Which of the following would BEST describe this requirement?A) Dual stackB) Split horizonC) Server clusteringD) Hot site

A

D) Hot site

293
Q

An attacker has modified their MAC address to circumvent an access point filter. Which of the following would BEST describe this attack?A) Man-in-the-middleB) SpoofingC) PhishingD) VLAN hopping

A

B) Spoofing

294
Q

An HR manager is reporting a problem with garbled telephone calls. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to troubleshoot this issue?A) TDRB) Punch-down toolC) Protocol analyzerD) Cable tester

A

C) Protocol analyzer

295
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST choice for an Ethernet connection between buildings that are 2 kilometers apart?A) 1000BASE-SXB) 100BASE-TC) 1000BASE-LXD) 10GBASE-T

A

C) 1000BASE-LX

296
Q

A server administrator has replaced a web server and would like to verify that the new server is accepting server requests. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this verification?A) NmapB) pathpingC) netstatD) traceroute

A

C) netstat

297
Q

You’ve configured a firewall to block all traffic that uses TCP port 80. Which of these OSI layers would be most associated with this firewall rule?A) Layer 1B) Layer 2C) Layer 3D) Layer 4

A

D) Layer 4Any device that operates using TCP or UDP ports is operating at OSI layer 4.

298
Q

Jack, a network administrator, is configuring a default route on the router at a remote store location. Which of the following would BEST describe the addition of this default route?A) All traffic from the corporate site to the store will be dropped without a specific routeB) All store traffic not matching an entry in the routing table will be droppedC) The store routing table will automatically update based on route advertisements from corporateD) All store traffic not matching an entry in the routing table will be forwarded

A

D) All store traffic not matching an entry in the routing table will be forwardedA default route sets a gateway of last resort for any destination IP address that’s not specifically listed in the routing table.

299
Q

Which of the following is a common method for an IPv6 device to locate a router?A) ARPB) TeredoC) NDPD) All-ones broadcast

A

C) NDPNDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) is used with multicasts in IPv6 to locate other devices on the network. The Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement NDP packets are used to identify any local routers.

300
Q

While troubleshooting a network issue, your coworker asks you to “ping the VIP.” Which of these would best describe this request?A) Ping the VPN addressB) Ping the variable IP address of the database serverC) Validate the IP address of the serverD) Ping the virtual IP address of a router

A

D) Ping the virtual IP address of a routerA virtual IP address (VIP) is a logical address assigned to a virtual or non-physical device. Virtual IP addresses are commonly associated with virtual machines or associated with logical/internal addresses in a router or server.

301
Q

A network administrator is designing a wireless network that would allow multiple devices to stream video simultaneously over the same wireless frequencies. Which of these technologies would be the best choice for this requirement?A) WPA2B) Parabolic antennaC) AESD) MU-MIMO

A

D) MU-MIMOMU-MIMO (Multi-user Multiple-Input Multiple-Output) is a wireless technology that can simultaneously send and receive traffic to multiple devices simultaneously over the same frequencies.

302
Q

A system administrator has configured an incremental tape backup system that begins each week on Sunday morning. On Sunday night, an imaging server failed and needs to be immediately recovered. How many tape sets would be required to fully restore this server?A) OneB) No more than twoC) ThreeD) Four

A

A) OneAlthough this backup is configured for daily incremental backups, the initial backup is a full backup of all files. Since this failure occurred just after the full backup, only one tape set of the full backup would be required for the restore process. This would be the same recovery for a differential backup as well.

303
Q

A help desk technician has received a phone call from the company’s ISP asking for authentication information associated with the company’s external DNS server. After some additional investigation, it was determined that the call was not legitimate and the ISP did not actually place any calls to the help desk. What type of attack was this?A) Man-in-the-middleB) Insider threatC) DNS poisoningD) Social engineering

A

D) Social engineeringSocial engineering tries to take advantage of people to gain access to information.

304
Q

A network administrator has identified an increase in broadcasts. Which of the following would decrease the number of broadcasts seen on the local network?A) Replace all hubs with switchesB) Configure all switch interfaces for full-duplex communicationC) Disable broadcasts on the workstation NICsD) Use a router to segment the network

A

D) Use a router to segment the networkA router can be used to create multiple broadcast domains. Splitting the network into two smaller routed networks would decrease the number of broadcasts on both networks.

305
Q

A network administrator needs a router to forward all traffic not matching any existing static or dynamic route. Which of the following would be the best configuration option for this requirement?A) Split horizonB) 802.1QC) Default routeD) ICMP redirect

A

C) Default routeA default route will configure a gateway of last resort when traffic does not match any of the existing routing table entries.

306
Q

A network administrator needs to automatically assign IP addresses to a subnet that does not have its own DHCP server. Which of the following would provide this functionality?A) DHCP reservationB) DHCP acknowledgementC) DHCP relayD) DHCP pool

A

C) DHCP relayA DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) relay will forward DHCP requests to a DHCP server on another IP subnet.

307
Q

A network administrator has chosen to use APC connectors instead of UPC connectors. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this decision?A) Minimize crosstalkB) Limit throughputC) Lower the return lossD) Block malicious traffic

A

C) Lower the return lossAn APC (Angle-Polished Connector) fiber connector uses an angle at the connector to minimize the amount of light reflected back to the source. APC connectors tend to have a lower return loss than UPCs (Ultra-Polished Connectors).

308
Q

A network administrator was able to block a known exploit using a predefined set of signatures. Which of the following would have been the MOST likely technology used to block this attack?A) VPN concentratorB) IPSC) RADIUS serverD) Wireless LAN controller

A

B) IPSAn IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) can block exploit attempts using signatures, heuristics, and other identification technologies.

309
Q

A network administrator is configuring an access point so that everyone connecting to the network can use the same passphrase. Which of the following would BEST describe this security mode?A) AESB) 802.1XC) PSKD) TKIP

A

C) PSKAn access point configured with a pre-shared key (PSK) would allow anyone with the shared passphrase to successfully authenticate.

310
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to block traffic to a Linux server?A) ifconfigB) iptablesC) tcpdumpD) route

A

B) iptablesThe Linux iptables utility is a kernel-level packet filter.

311
Q

Which of the following would BEST describe MPLS?A) Local area networkB) 802.1XC) Packet switchedD) PAN

A

C) Packet switchedMPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a packet-switched technology, and is most often used for wide area networks.

312
Q

A user is having an issue when purchasing items at the grocery store with their smartphone’s credit card payment system. Which of the following technologies is MOST likely associated with this issue?A) BluetoothB) NFCC) 802.11D) Z-wave

A

B) NFCNFC (Near Field Communication) is used by payment systems such as Apple Pay or Google Pay.

313
Q

Which color wires are used for pins 1 and 2 of a 568B termination?A) GreenB) OrangeC) BrownD) Red

A

B) OrangeThe TIA 568B pin assignments use white/orange and orange for pins 1 and 2.

314
Q

What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?A) SegmentationB) MapC) TopologyD) Protocol

A

C) Topology

315
Q

What uniquely identifies every NIC?A) IP addressB) Media access control addressC) ISO numberD) Packet ID number

A

B) Media access control address

316
Q

What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables? (Select two.)A) Tone aggregatorB) Tone binderC) Tone generatorD) Tone probe

A

C) Tone generator & D) Tone probe

317
Q

When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network?A) TrueB) False

A

A) True

318
Q

What ports does FTP traditionally use? (Select two.)A) 20B) 21C) 23D) 25

A

A) 20 & B) 21

319
Q

What is checked first when trying to resolve an FQDN to an IP address?A) hosts fileB) LMHOSTS fileC) DNS serverD) WINS server

A

A) hosts file

320
Q

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?A) PublicB) PrivateC) BothD) Depends on who sends the data

A

A) Public

321
Q

When the network is very busy, VoIP calls start to sound badly clipped. What solution might improve the quality of the VoIP calls?A) 802.1zB) Traffic shapingC) DNSD) Content switching

A

B) Traffic shaping

322
Q

What kind of DNS records do IPv6 addresses use?A) AB) SIXC) AAAAD) NSSIX

A

C) AAAA

323
Q

What does SIP stand for?A) Standard Initiation ProtocolB) System Internetworking ProtocolC) Session Initiation ProtocolD) Sector Information Protocol

A

C) Session Initiation Protocol

324
Q

What type of server supports EAP-encrypted passwords in accordance with the 802.1X standard?A) WAP serverB) WEP serverC) RADIUS serverD) NAS server

A

C) RADIUS server

325
Q

What do you need to install a legal copy of Windows 10 into a virtual machine using VMware Workstation?A) A valid VM keyB) Valid Windows 10 installation mediaC) A valid ESXi keyD) A second NIC

A

B) Valid Windows 10 installation media

326
Q

Which of the following would enable you to use iSCSI to read and write data over the network?A) Serial-attached SCSIB) SMBC) Storage area networkD) Network attached storage

A

C) Storage area network

327
Q

A thermostat that you can control remotely with an app on your smartphone would certainly fit under which of the following?A) TDMAB) BYODC) BluetoothD) IoT

A

D) IoT

328
Q

A Bluetooth PIN code is at least_________ digits long.A) 3B) 4C) 6D) 8

A

B) 4

329
Q

In which deployment model does the company own all devices, issue whichever device it chooses to a given employee, and retain control of which apps are installed?A) BYODB) COBOC) COPED) CYOD

A

B) COBO

330
Q

Adding a generator to a server room is an example of what?A) Power conversionB) Power redundancyC) UPSD) Load balancing

A

B) Power redundancy

331
Q

Which of the following devices would most likely be a UC gateway?A) VoIP telephoneB) Desktop running Windows serverC) Managed switchD) Router

A

D) Router

332
Q

An SNMP manager listens on which port when used with TLS?A) 161B) 162C) 10161D) 10162

A

D) 10162

333
Q

What does nslookup do?A) Retrieves the name space for the networkB) Queries DNS for the IP address of the supplied host nameC) Performs a reverse IP lookupD) Lists the current running network services on localhost

A

B) Queries DNS for the IP address of the supplied host name

334
Q

One of your users calls you with a complaint that he can’t reach the site www.google.com. You try and access the site and discover you can’t connect either but you can ping the site with its IP address. What is the most probable culprit?A) The workgroup switch is down.B) Google is down.C) The gateway is down.D) The DNS server is down.

A

D) The DNS server is down.

335
Q

A user authenticates from a laptop using a username, password, and a smart card. Which two authentication factors are in use? (Choose two.)A) Something you areB) Something you haveC) Something you knowD) Somewhere you are

A

B) Something you have&C) Something you know

336
Q

Using classful subnetting, what is the default subnet mask for the IP address 128.90.10.2?A) 0.0.0.0B) 255.0.0.0C) 255.255.0.0D) 255.255.255.0

A

C) 255.255.0.0128.90.10.2 is a class B address, so the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.

337
Q

A company is deploying a new mobile app for their sales team to use when traveling. Which of these would provide the best access to the app from any location?A) 802.11B) ANT+C) LTED) Z-Wave

A

C) LTELTE (Long Term Evolution) is a cellular network standard and it commonly provides remote access from most locations.

338
Q

A workstation has received a DHCP address with a lease time of 8 days. How long will elapse before the workstation attempts to renew the address with the DHCP server?A) 8 hoursB) 1 dayC) 4 daysD) 7 days

A

C) 4 daysThe first DHCP renewal timer (T1) occurs halfway into the lease duration. In this example, the renewal attempt occurs four days after lease.

339
Q

Which of these connectors is commonly associated with cable modems?A) RJ11B) BNCC) FD) MT-RJ

A

C) FCable modems use an F-connector to connect the cable coax to the modem.

340
Q

A network administrator is installing a category 6 patch panel in an IDF. Which of the following would be used during this installation?A) 110 blockB) RepeaterC) SFP+D) Fiber distribution panel

A

A) 110 blockIt’s common to find punch down blocks used to connect workstation cable runs to a patch panel.

341
Q

A transceiver uses a fiber to transmit and another fiber to receive. Which of these would BEST describe this transceiver type?A) DuplexB) 568BC) CrossoverD) BNC

A

A) DuplexDuplex transceivers use two fibers. One fiber transmits data, and the other receives.

342
Q

Which of the following BEST describes file level access to a network-connected storage device?A) SATAB) NASC) EthernetD) RAID

A

B) NASNAS (Network Attached Storage) provides file-level access to resources on a network-connected storage device.

343
Q

Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the segmentation and reassembly of data?A) Application LayerB) Presentation LayerC) Session LayerD) Transport Layer

A

D) Transport Layer

344
Q

Star-bus is an example of a __________ topology.A) TransitionalB) SystemC) HybridD) Rampant

A

C) Hybrid

345
Q

Coaxial cables all have a(n) ________________rating.A) resistanceB) wattC) speedD) Ohm

A

D) Ohm

346
Q

Which of the following is a duplex fiber-optic connection?A) LCB) RJ-45C) STD) SC

A

A) LC

347
Q

When used for Ethernet, unshielded twisted pair uses what type of connector?A) RG-58B) RJ-45C) RJ-11D) RS-232

A

B) RJ-45

348
Q

Which of the following connectors are used by 10BaseFL cable? (Select two.)A) SCB) RJ-45C) RJ-11D) ST

A

A) SC & D) ST

349
Q

Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?A) HubsB) Media convertersC) UTP cablesD) Switches

A

D) Switches

350
Q

What is the maximum distance for 1000BaseLX without repeaters?A) 1 mileB) 2500 metersC) 20,000 feetD) 5000 meters

A

D) 5000 meters

351
Q

What is the standard connector for the 10 GbE fiber standard?A) STB) SCC) MT-RJD) There is no standard.

A

D) There is no standard.

352
Q

How many pairs of wires are in a CAt 5e-rated cable?A) 2B) 4C) 8D) It doesn’t specify.

A

B) 4

353
Q

Which of the following would never be seen in an equipment rack?A) Patch panelB) UPSC) PCD) All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.

A

D) All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.

354
Q

Jane needs to increase network throughput on a 10BaseT network that consists of 1 hub and 30 users. Which of the following hardware solutions would achieve this most inexpensively?A) Add a fiber backbone.B) Upgrade the network to 100BaseT.C) Replace the hub with a switch.D) Add a router.

A

C) Replace the hub with a switch.

355
Q

Rack mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?A) MbpsB) MBpsC) InchesD) U

A

D) U

356
Q

What does ARP stand for?A) Address Reconciliation ProcessB) Automated Ranking ProtocolC) Address Resolution ProtocolD) Advanced Resolution Protocol

A

C) Address Resolution Protocol

357
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts in a /19 subnet?A) 254B) 8,192C) 16,382D) 8,190

A

D) 8,190

358
Q

What is a router?A) A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP addressB) A device that separates your computers from the InternetC) A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple computersD) A synonym for a firewall

A

A) A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address

359
Q

Which area does NOT require user training?A) Acceptable use policiesB) Recycle policiesC) Password policiesD) System and workplace security

A

B) Recycle policies

360
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of social engineering?A) Dumpster divingB) Man-in-the-middleC) Shoulder surfingD) Phishing

A

B) Man-in-the-middle

361
Q

Which statement is NOT true of a DMZ?A) All hosts in a private network should be placed in the DMZB) Hosts that are exposed to the public network should be placed in a DMZC) A bastion host provides the first level of protection for the DMZD) Honey pots and honey nets can be placed in a DMZ to distract attackers

A

A) All hosts in a private network should be placed in the DMZ

362
Q

Which choice is NOT a command protocol in SNMP?A) snmpgetB) snmpstepC) snmpsetD) snmpgetnext

A

B) snmpstep

363
Q

A manager is implementing and access control system that requires users to be physically located at the data center door before granting access. Which of the following would provide this functionality?A) Asset tracking tagsB) Smart cardC) Token generatorD) Biometrics

A

D) Biometrics

364
Q

Which network class is associated with 128.14.222.7?A) Class AB) Class BC) Class CD) Class D

A

B) Class B

365
Q

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?A) fe80::49d:af88:58ab::fa33B) fe80::aedec:48ff:fe00C) fe80::af:e8f5:25h6:687bD) fe80::f404:ccff:feb8:a6b4

A

D) fe80::f404:ccff:feb8:a6b4

366
Q

Which of the following provides a standard format for transferring log information between systems?A) SSHB) SyslogC) SCADAD) SNMP

A

B) Syslog

367
Q

A network manager has asked you to coordinate the installation of a new smartjack. What location should you use for this installation?A) Highest point in the buildingB) Demarc pointC) Outside with a satellite line of sightD) As close as possible to SAN

A

B) Demarc pointA smartjack is commonly installed by a network service provider at the demarcation point of your network.

368
Q

A security administrator would like to prevent the use of cameras while a mobile phone is physically located on company property. Which of these technologies would be the best way to implement this function?A) Ensure that WPA2 is used on all wireless networksB) Create a Group Policy for camera useC) Define a policy on the MDMD) Manually disable all mobile network connections

A

C) Define a policy on the MDMControl and management of mobile devices is commonly centralized through the use of a mobile device manager (MDM). Policies can be defined and pushed out to mobile devices to control authentication, data use, phone usage, and more.

369
Q

A network administrator has identified a fiber link that is experiencing a 3 db signal loss. How much of the signal is remaining on this connection?A) 3%B) 10%C) 33%D) 50%

A

D) 50%A 3 dB signal difference would be twice the strength if it was increasing, and half the strength if it was decreasing..

370
Q

A network administrator has configured VLANs that need to extend across multiple switches. Which of the following would be the best way to provide this VLAN communication?A) IPsec tunnelsB) 802.1X authenticationC) Spanning tree protocolD) 802.1Q trunks

A

D) 802.1Q trunks802.1Q (dot one Q) trunking is used to extend multiple VLANs between switches using a single physical (or logical) link.

371
Q

An IPv6 device needs to communicate to an IPv6 device on another subnet. Which of the following would be used to identify a local router?A) SLAACB) RSC) DADD) 4in6

A

D) 4in6The page counter is used to determine when the next maintenance kit should be installed, so it’s important to reset the counter after the maintenance process.

372
Q

Which of these topologies would be MOST commonly used by IoT devices?A) RingB) MeshC) StarD) Bus

A

B) MeshIoT (Internet of Things) devices commonly self-form to create a wireless mesh “cloud” containing all of the IoT devices in the immediate area.

373
Q

What type of cloud-based delivery model allows the user to create their own software without maintaining a development infrastructure?A) IaaSB) HybridC) PaaSD) SaaS

A

C) PaaSPaaS (Platform as a Service) simplifies the development process through the use of predefined application code that runs on a cloud-based service.

374
Q

A company has subnetted their Class C network address into four subnets with a /26 subnet mask. What are the addresses of the four subnets?A) 0, 1, 2, 3B) 128, 64, 32, 16C) 0, 64, 128, 192D) 1, 2, 4, 8

A

C) 0, 64, 128, 192

375
Q

Which statement is true of a NAT router?A) NAT routers replace the source IP address with its own IP addressB) NAT routers allow public addresses to exist on the LAN side of the routerC) All hosts on the LAN side of a NAT router are assigned the same IP address as the public address in the routerD) The NAT function is performed at the ISP facility

A

A) NAT routers replace the source IP address with its own IP address

376
Q

Which of the following is a NOT an element of a route metric?A) MTUB) Hop distanceC) CostD) Bandwidth

A

B) Hop distance

377
Q

Which of the following is NOT a network information or troubleshooting utility?A) tracertB) pathpingC) FTPD) Bandwidth tester

A

C) FTP

378
Q

Which choice describes a significant difference between Telnet and SSH?A) Telnet is an Internet Telephony protocol, SSH is a Secure Sharing protocolB) Telnet runs on a client, SSH runs on a serverC) Telnet runs on a server, SSH runs on a clientD) Telnet is unencrypted, SSH is encrypted

A

D) Telnet is unencrypted, SSH is encrypted

379
Q

What is the job of DDNS?A) DDNS allows a local device to randomly change its DNS nameB) DDNS rotates the IP address of a local deviceC) DDNS tracks IP address changes of a local device and updates DNS to reflect those changesD) DDNS prevents the IP address of a local device from being changed

A

C) DDNS tracks IP address changes of a local device and updates DNS to reflect those changes

380
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common certificate error or warning?A) Certificate is on the Certificate Relocation List (CRL)B) Self-signed certificateC) Expired certificateD) Certificate not valid for the site

A

A) Certificate is on the Certificate Relocation List (CRL)

381
Q

What is the Cisco protocol to perform port bonding?A) LACPB) HSRPC) CARPD) Inter-VLAN Routing

A

A) LACP

382
Q

What is the speed of an OC-1 line?A) 1.544mpbsB) 64kbpsC) 155mbpsD) 51.85mbps

A

D) 51.85mbps

383
Q

Which term describes the process of scouting for Wi-Fi networks that may be vulnerable?A) War drivingB) SnoopingC) SniffingD) Fox hunting

A

A) War driving

384
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mobile connectivity technology?A) RFDIB) Z-waveC) ANTD) NFC

A

A) RFDI

385
Q

Which choice is NOT a standard business document?A) SLAB) MOUC) MSAD) WPA

A

D) WPA

386
Q

Which of the following is NOT a DDoS attack profile?A) Volume attackB) Protocol attackC) Application attackD) Certificate attack

A

D) Certificate attack

387
Q

Which of the choices is NOT a step to perform a man-in-the-middle attack?A) Insert an attack machine between the communicatorsB) Typosquat the DNSC) Configure the attack machine to spoof the two communicatorsD) Capture/manipulate MIM data

A

B) Typosquat the DNS

388
Q

Which is NOT a typical firewall filter?A) IP addresses and port numbersB) MAC addressesC) Environmental conditionsD) State of a conversation

A

C) Environmental conditions

389
Q

Which of the following is NOT a deterrent physical control?A) Outside lightingB) FencesC) SignageD) Security guards

A

B) Fences

390
Q

Some users on a wireless network, but not all, are having trouble accessing certain network resources. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause?A) TCP and/or UDP ports have been blocked by a firewallB) Server ports have changed to a non-standard portC) Access Control Lists have been changedD) The wireless access point has lost power

A

D) The wireless access point has lost power

391
Q

A network technician has been tasked with monitoring the network. Which network function is it NOT necessary for her to monitor?A) File hash changesB) Server utilizationC) Error alertsD) Bandwidth

A

A) File hash changes

392
Q

An attacker has created a DoS by sending STP frames from their workstation. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?A) BPDU guardB) DHCP snoopingC) SIEMD) Flood guard

A

A) BPDU guard

393
Q

A network administrator is troubleshooting a network cable with a severed wire. Which of the following would describe this issue?A) CrosstalkB) OpenC) JitterD) Short circuit

A

B) Open

394
Q

An attacker has created a DoS by sending STP frames from their workstation. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?A) BPDU guardB) DHCP snoopingC) RouterD) Flood guard

A

A) BPDU guard

395
Q

The Internet layer of the TCP model corresponds to which layer(s) of the OSI model?A) NetworkB) TransportC) Session lockD) Session, Presentation, and Application

A

A) Network

396
Q

Where does a computer get the MAC address?A) It is generated by the frameB) It is built into the network interface cardC) The MAC address is another term for the IP addressD) The receiving computer applies a MAC address to each inbound frame

A

B) It is built into the network interface card

397
Q

Which of the following is not a valid network topology?A) Bus/Linear BusB) RingC) Mesh BusD) Star Bus

A

C) Mesh Bus

398
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fire rating for network cables?A) PlenumB) Cat 6aC) RiserD) PVC

A

B) Cat 6a

399
Q

Which field would NOT be found in an Ethernet frame?A) Destination IP addressB) Source MAC addressC) EthertypeD) Destination MAC address

A

A) Destination IP address

400
Q

Which of the following is a UTP wiring standard?A) 10BaseT runs at 10 megabits per secondB) TIA A568C) IEEE 802.3D) TIA 568B

A

D) TIA 568B

401
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true of Gigabit Ethernet?A) 1000BaseT support up to 100 meter runs over UTPB) 1000BaseLX supports between 100 m and 5 km and can be used with multi-mode or single-mode fiber optic cableC) 1000BaseSX supports runs of 100 m over multi-mode fiber optic cableD) 1000BaseSX supports between 100 m and 10 km and can be used with multi-mode or single-mode fiber optic cable

A

D) 1000BaseSX supports between 100 m and 10 km and can be used with multi-mode or single-mode fiber optic cable

402
Q

Patch panels and punch down tools are used on which kind of network cables?A) Patch cablesB) Work area cablesC) Horizontal runsD) Fiber optic runs

A

C) Horizontal runs

403
Q

An SSL/TLS URL connection start with which prefix?A) httpB) wwwC) ftpD) https

A

D) https

404
Q

What ports does FTP traditionally use? (Select two.)A) 20B) 21C) 23D) 25

A

A) 20 & B) 21

405
Q

What is checked first when trying to resolve an FQDN to an IP address?A) hosts fileB) LMHOSTS fileC) DNS serverD) WINS server

A

A) hosts file

406
Q

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?A) PublicB) PrivateC) BothD) Depends on who sends the data

A

A) Public

407
Q

A content switch always works at least at which layer of the OSI model?A) 2B) 3C) 4D) 7

A

D) 7

408
Q

What service do tunnel brokers provide?A) A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.B) They provide no useful service.C) Access to IPv6 DNS records.D) A second connection for multihoming.

A

A) A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.

409
Q

A network administrator is configuring SSO. Which of these technologies would be the BEST choice for this task?A) TACACS+B) KerberosC) RADIUSD) Local Authentication

A

B) Kerberos

410
Q

A wireless network analyzer shows an SNR of 1:1. Which of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting step?A) Enable WPA2B) Change the frequencyC) Rename the SSIDD) Disable 802.1x

A

B) Change the frequency

411
Q

A network administrator has configured an 802.1Q connection. What type of traffic would be MOST associated with this link?A) 802.11 wirelessB) Dynamic routing protocolsC) Encrypted tunnelD) Multiple VLANs

A

D) Multiple VLANs

412
Q

A computer is not communicating to the Internet, and the NIC is not displaying any lights. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?A) Incorrect VLANB) Duplex MismatchC) Damaged cableD) Excessive Jitter

A

C) Damaged cable

413
Q

Which of the following is commonly used to connect a switch to a router?A) CrossoverB) RolloverC) LoopbackD) Straight-through

A

D) Straight-through

414
Q

Which of the following would provide a way to reduce excessive jitter?A) Disable STPB) Enable flood guardC) Apply QoSD) Disable auto-negotiation

A

C) Apply QoS

415
Q

A network administrator is connecting two switches with a 40 Gbit/sec connection. Which of the following would commonly be used for this link?A) QSFP+B) RJ45C) GBICD) STP

A

A) QSFP+

416
Q

A user is logging in with a username, password, and smart card. Which of the following would provide MFA?A) SMS codeB) Face scanC) PIND) Employee ID number

A

B) Face scan

417
Q

A network administrator has been asked to install an OS on a cloud-based system. Which of the following would BEST describe this cloud model?A) SaaSB) DaaSC) IaaSD) PaaS

A

C) IaaS

418
Q

Which of the following would BEST describe a differential backup?A) All files changed since the last full backupB) All files stored on a partitionC) All files changed since the previous dayD) All files changed since the last snapshot

A

A) All files changed since the last full backup

419
Q

A network engineer would like to query their routers and switches to obtain performance information. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this?A) SNMPB) SYSLOGC) SMTPD) SIEM

A

A) SNMP

420
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to determine the next hop from a device?A) netstat -rB) digC) routeD) nmap

A

A) netstat -r AND/OR C) route

421
Q

A router has failed on an Internet link. Which of the following would describe the time required to fix this issue?A) SLAB) MPLSC) MTBFD) MTTR

A

D) MTTR (Mean time to restore)

422
Q

A network administrator needs to make a change to a remote router configuration from a public WiFi hotspot. Which of the following would provide the most secure connections?A) WPSB) TelnetC) SSHD) FTP

A

C) SSH

423
Q

A user has pulled their desk away from the wall and has separated the twisted pair cabling from the RJ45 connector. Which of the following should be used to repair this connection?A) Loopback plugB) Tone generatorC) Punch-down toolD) Crimper

A

D) Crimper

424
Q

Which of the following would be MOST likely found at a demarc?A) Workgroup switchB) CSU/DSUC) NASD) Color printer

A

B) CSU/DSU

425
Q

Which is the BEST device to dole out requests to duplicate servers to ease congestion?A) DNS ServerB) Round Robin ServerC) Server Side Load BalancerD) Clusterer

A

C) Server Side Load Balancer

426
Q

A DS0 line has what bandwidth?A) 1.544mpbsB) 32kbpsC) 64kbpsD) 128kbps

A

C) 64kbps

427
Q

Which of the following is NOT a packet switching technology?A) Circuit switchB) Frame RelayC) ATMD) MPLS

A

A) Circuit switch

428
Q

What kind of download and upload speed does ADSL provide?A) Same download and upload speedB) Slower upload speed than download speedC) Faster upload speed than download speedD) Half duplex operation provides the same upload and download speed, but uploading and downloading cannot happen simultaneously

A

B) Slower upload speed than download speed

429
Q

Remote desktop is a term that describes what?A) Installing two keyboards and two monitors on the same computer that it can run two different sessions simultaneouslyB) Duplicating the output of a monitor to another monitorC) Separating the monitor from a computer so it can be operated over a distant connectionD) Using a computer to take over the screen and keyboard of another computer

A

D) Using a computer to take over the screen and keyboard of another computer

430
Q

What does ad-hoc mode describe?A) Wireless devices connected to a WAPB) A Bluetooth environment comprised of a mouse and keyboardC) Wireless network comprised only of peer computersD) 802.11 network

A

C) Wireless network comprised only of peer computers

431
Q

Which of the following is NOT an antenna type typically found in a Wi-Fi environment?A) TripoleB) DipoleC) PatchD) Yagi

A

A) Tripole

432
Q

Documenting a “find” after a war driving excursion is known as what?A) War markingB) BloggingC) War chalkingD) Updating

A

C) War chalking

433
Q

Which choice is NOT a step in planning and installing a wireless network?A) Plan the WAP locationsB) Perform site surveyC) Install patch antenna(s)D) Configure WAP security

A

C) Install patch antenna(s)

434
Q

Which statement is true about emulation?A) Emulation uses software to act like hardware that does not actually exist within the host computerB) Emulation can run an operating system within an operating system by emulating the hardware that is already in the host computerC) Emulators can run within virtual machinesD) Virtual machines run within emulators

A

A) Emulation uses software to act like hardware that does not actually exist within the host computer

435
Q

Which cloud model provides a method for keeping software up to date?A) PaaSB) SaaSC) IaaSD) BaaS

A

B) SaaS

436
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cellular data standard?A) G-3B) HSPAC) HSPA+D) LTE

A

A) G-3

437
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mobile deployment option?A) COBOB) COPEC) BYOBD) BYOD

A

C) BYOB

438
Q

Which of the following is NOT a network category type?A) LANB) WANC) CAND) SAN

A

D) SAN

439
Q

Which choice is NOT a backup methodology?A) FullB) IncrementalC) PhotographicD) Differential

A

C) Photographic

440
Q

A network administrator would like to protect all traffic sent between a network management console and the core switches. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?A) SMTPSB) SSHC) SNMPv3D) SSL

A

C) SNMPv3

441
Q

A system administrator unlocks the door to the data center with a thumbprint and a PIN. Which of the following would describe these authentication factors?A) Something you are, something you knowB) Something you have, somewhere you areC) Something you are, something you doD) Something you know, somewhere you are

A

A) Something you are, something you know

442
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent a rogue switch from having a lower bridge priority than an administratively configured switch?A) Flood guardB) Spanning Tree ProtocolC) Port security D) Root guard

A

D) Root guard

443
Q

Which of the following IP addresses would be assigned if the DHCP server was not available?A) 192.168.65.4B) 255.255.255.0C) 169.254.1.17D) 172.16.225.254

A

C) 169.254.1.17

444
Q

A system administrator is configuring a VPN to operate over tcp/443. Which of the following would BEST describe this technology?A) SSL VPNB) IPsec VPNC) Out of band VPND) SSH tunneling

A

A) SSL VPN

445
Q

A desktop administrator needs to control the screen of a Windows 10 workstation from their macOS laptop. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this task?A) VNCB) RDPC) SNMPD) SSH

A

B) RDP

446
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting a problem with phone calls to a remote location. Which of the following ports would MOST likely be involved?A) tcp/3389B) tcp/5060C) tcp/389D) udp/123

A

B) tcp/5060

447
Q

A system administrator would like to perform a backup each night of a weekly backup cycle. Which of the following would take the shortest amount of time to backup each night?A) IncrementalB) CloudC) DifferentialD) Image

A

A) Incremental

448
Q

Which of the following would be associated with something you know?A) PINB) GPS coordinatesC) Smart cardD) Fingerprint

A

A) PIN

449
Q

Which DNS record would be the best choice for managing SPF information?A) SRVB) MXC) TXTD) PTR

A

C) TXT

450
Q

A security engineer needs to authenticate users connecting to the corporate VPN concentrator. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this authentication?A) IPsecB) UTMC) SSLD) RADIUS

A

D) RADIUS

451
Q

A security administrator has configured a wireless network with CCMP using AES. Which of the following technologies is in use?A) TKIPB) WPA2C) WPSD) WEP

A

B) WPA2

452
Q

A network administrator needs an out-of-band management connection that will connect to switch and router consoles at a remote site. Which of these devices would be the BEST choice for this requirement?A) WAPB) FirewallC) ModemD) Media converter

A

C) Modem

453
Q

Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide redundant paths at the Ethernet connection on a database server?A) MIMOB) SNMPC) OSPFD) NIC teaming

A

D) NIC teaming

454
Q

Which of these would be the BEST way to manage fiber links between buildings on a campus?A) Demarcs B) Distribution panelsC) Ground platesD) CSU/DSUs

A

B) Distribution panels

455
Q

The centerpiece of any ICS will be what?A) SensorsB) PLCsC) ICS serverD) HMI

A

C) ICS server

456
Q

Through what mechanism is a change to the IT structure initiated?A) Users make a change to their environment, then report the result to the change management team.B) A user requests funding for a change to upper management, then submits a requisition to the change management team to source and purchase new equipment.C) Users submit a change request to the change management team.D) The change management team issues a proposed change to users in the organization, then evaluates the responses.

A

C) Users submit a change request to the change management team.

457
Q

When is a memorandum of understanding used?A) As part of a legal contractB) As part of a statement of work (SOW)C) When a service level agreement (SLA) expiresD) When a legal contract is not appropriate

A

D) When a legal contract is not appropriate

458
Q

What is succession planning?A) Identifying personnel who can take over certain position in response to an incidentB) The career path by which employees of an organization can grow through the ranksC) The selection of failover servers in the event of a catastrophic server failureD) The selection of failover routers in the event of a catastrophic router failure

A

A) Identifying personnel who can take over certain position in response to an incident

459
Q

What is the job of a first responder?A) Investigate data on a computer suspected to contain crime evidence.B) React to the notification of a computer crime.C) Power off computers suspected of being used in criminal activity. D) Wipe the drives of computers suspected of being used in criminal activity.

A

B) React to the notification of a computer crime.

460
Q

The placement of a rack should optimize what?A) AirflowB) HVACC) MSDSD) Emergency procedures

A

A) Airflow

461
Q

Which of the following is a tool to prevent ARP cache poisoning?A) DHCPB) DAIC) Edge firewallD) DNS snooping

A

B) DAI

462
Q

An attack where someone tries to hack a password using every possible password permutation is called what?A) Man-in-the-middleB) SpoofingC) Rainbow tableD) Brute force

A

D) Brute force

463
Q

The NSA’s TEMPEST security standards are used to combat which risk?A) RF emanationB) SpoofingC) DDosD) Malware

A

A) RF emanation

464
Q

Which PDU does an SNMP manager use to query agents?A) GetB) ResponseC) SetD) Trap

A

A) Get

465
Q

How does an SNMP managed system categorize data that can be queried?A) QoSB) MIBsC) PDUsD) UDP

A

B) MIBs

466
Q

Where does a packet sniffer put information it collects?A) Answer fileB) Capture fileC) Pocket fileD) Sniffer file

A

B) Capture file

467
Q

What tool enables you to compare current network performance with correctly functioning network performance?A) Baseline monitorB) Packet flow monitorC) Packet snifferD) Performance monitor

A

D) Performance monitor

468
Q

What are tone probes and tone generators used for?A) Locating a particular cableB) Testing the dial tone on a PBX systemC) A long-duration ping testD) As safety equipment when working in crawl spaces

A

A) Locating a particular cable

469
Q

What is wireshark?A) Protocol analyzerB) Packet snifferC) Packet analyzerD) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

470
Q

When trying to establish symptoms over the phone, what kind of questions should you ask of a novice or confused user?A) You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in his or her own words.B) You should ask detailed, close-ended questions to try and narrow down the possible causes.C) Leading questions are your best choice for pointing the user in the right direction.D) None; ask the user to bring the machine because it is useless to troubleshoot over the phone.

A

A) You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in his or her own words.

471
Q

A system administrator has identified a server that may not have been updated with the latest security patches. Which of these would be the best way to determine if any known vulnerabilities exist on this server?A) Port scanB) Protocol decodeC) SIEM reportD) Vulnerability scan

A

D) Vulnerability scanA vulnerability scan is useful for identifying any security controls, misconfigurations, or vulnerable application or processes.

472
Q

A system administrator would like to control entry to the door of a data center. Which of these security methods would be the best way to ensure that only specific users are allowed access?A) Video surveillanceB) Asset tracking tagC) BiometricsD) Smart card

A

C) BiometricsIn this example, the system administrator needs to limit access based on “something you are.” A biometric scanner would be an effective way to definitively associate access with a specific person, since the scanner would require a person to be physically present to gain access.

473
Q

A network administrator has captured traffic on an encrypted wireless network, and has found RC4 encryption and TKIP in the protocol decodes. What type of encryption is most likely configured on this wireless network?A) WPAB) WEPC) WAPD) WPS

A

A) WPAWPA encryption uses RC4 for data confidentiality and TKIP for data integrity.

474
Q

Which of these would be the best description of denial of service?A) A third-party intercepts network traffic to steal authentication credentialsB) An employee shares their VPN login with someone outside of the companyC) An attacker duplicates the MAC address of an internal laptopD) DNS amplification disables a web server

A

D) DNS amplification disables a web serverAny type of overload or disabling condition can create a denial of service.

475
Q

A security researcher has obtained a Windows executable file that can connect to a remote device and gain administrator access without the need for proper credentials. Which of the following would best describe this file?A) VulnerabilityB) MalwareC) ExploitD) Worm

A

C) ExploitAn exploit is the method or software used to take advantage of a vulnerability.

476
Q

Sam, a network administrator, has configured STP on her network. The workstations on the network now delay twenty to thirty seconds when initially connecting to the network. Which of the following would shorten this initialization time?A) Port SecurityB) Root GuardC) PortFastD) Flood Guard

A

C) PortFastPortFast allows workstations to bypass the listening and learning states of spanning tree protocol.

477
Q

Cameron manages a centralized Ethernet-connected laser printer that sits on a large desk. The desk has been pushed against the wall during a recent move, and the RJ45 connector on the cable is now damaged. Which of the following should Cameron use to resolve this issue?A) Cable testerB) Punch down toolC) TDRD) Crimper

A

D) CrimperA crimper can be used to place another RJ45 connector on the Ethernet cable.

478
Q

While troubleshooting a connectivity issue, a network administrator uses the dig command. Which of the following would best describe the administrator’s use of this command?A) Identify each route hop between two locationsB) Determine the IP address of a web serverC) View all active connections to a web serverD) Capture network packets

A

B) Determine the IP address of a web serverThe dig command is used to query DNS servers to view address information and other records associated with an IP address or fully qualified domain name.

479
Q

A network engineer is installing an outdoor 802.11 network into an open arena. As the engineer moves farther away from the antenna, the signal strength rapidly decreases. Which of the following would BEST describe this characteristic?A) AbsorptionB) InterferenceC) ReflectionD) Attenuation

A

D) AttenuationAttenuation is the reduction of a signal, and it usually describes the decrease in signal as it traverses a distance.

480
Q

Jack, a network administrator, is configuring a dynamic routing protocol that will be used on his corporate routers. This protocol makes routing decisions based on the number of hops between routers. Which of these would describe this routing protocol?A) Distance-vectorB) Open-pathC) HybridD) Link-state

A

A) Distance-vectorA distance-vector routing protocol uses the distance (often in hops) to determine the best vector to send network traffic.

481
Q

What is added to an EUI-48 address to create an EUI-64 IPv6 address?A) The local subnet address in hexadecimalB) 0xfffeC) The OUI of the NICD) A random 16 bit value

A

B) 0xfffeTo convert from an EUI-48 address to EUI-64, the seventh bit is inverted and FFFE is added between the first and last three bytes.

482
Q

The wireless network in a warehouse is operating at 5 GHz and supports a maximum throughput of 54 Mbit/sec. What wireless standard is in use?A) 802.11aB) 802.11bC) 802.11gD) 802.11n

A

A) 802.11aThe 802.11a wireless standard operates at a maximum throughput of 54 Mbit/sec and uses 5 GHz frequencies.

483
Q

What type of cable would be the best choice to connect an MDI device to an MDI-X device?A) Cross-over cableB) Rollover cableC) Straight-through cableD) Multi-mode cable

A

C) Straight-through cableA straight-through cable, or patch cable, is used to connect an MDI device to an MDI-X device.

484
Q

An organization is creating a disaster recovery plan that includes a remote recovery site. This site contains the hardware necessary to recover all IT services, but none of the software or data is installed prior to the disaster event. Which of the following would best describe this site?A) Cold siteB) HybridC) Hot siteD) Warm site

A

D) Warm siteA warm site contains rack space and cooling, and can also provide hardware. A warm site would need software and data installed before it’s ready to act as a recovery site.

485
Q

A MAC address is known as a(n) ___________ address.A) IPB) LogicalC) PhysicalD) OEM

A

C) Physical

486
Q

A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called _______________.A) SegmentsB) SectionsC) FramesD) Layers

A

C) Frames

487
Q

Which layer of the OSI seven-layer model keeps track of a system’s connections to send the right response to the right computer?A) Application LayerB) Presentation LayerC) Session LayerD) Transport Layer

A

C) Session Layer

488
Q

Of the topologies listed, which one is the most fault-tolerant?A) Point-to-pointB) BusC) StarD) Ring

A

C) Star

489
Q

Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable?A) RJ-45B) RG-59C) BNCD) Barrel

A

B) RG-59

490
Q

What is the most common category of UTP used in new cabling installations?A) Cat 3B) Cat 5eC) Cat 6D) Cat 7

A

C) Cat 6

491
Q

What is the maximum number of nodes that can be connected to a 10BaseT hub?A) 1024B) 500C) 100D) 185

A

A) 1024

492
Q

Where does a hub send data?A) Only to the receiving systemB) Only to the sending systemC) To all the systems connected to the hubD) Only to the server

A

C) To all the systems connected to the hub

493
Q

What Windows utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system?A) ipconfig /allB) ipcfg /allC) pingD) mac

A

A) ipconfig /all

494
Q

What type of cable and connector does 100BaseFX use?A) Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectorsB) STP Cat 6 with RJ-45 connectorsC) Single-mode fiber with MT-RJ connectorsD) UTP Cat 5e with RJ-45 connectors

A

A) Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectors

495
Q

How many pairs of wires do 10BaseT and 100BaseT use?A) 4B) 1C) 3D) 2

A

D) 2

496
Q

What is the big physical difference between 1000BaseSX and 100BaseFX?A) 1000BaseSX uses the SC connector exclusively.B) 1000BaseSX is single-mode, whereas 100BaseFX is multimode.C) 1000BaseSX uses the ST connector exclusively.D) There is no difference.

A

A) 1000BaseSX uses the SC connector exclusively.

497
Q

How many pairs of wires does 1000BaseT use?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4

A

D) 4

498
Q

Which of the following enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much faster network speed?A) BondingB) LinkingC) SLID) Xing

A

A) Bonding

499
Q

Which of the following network technologies use UTP cabling in a star topology?A) CrosstalkB) Fiber opticsC) 100BaseFXD) 100BaseT

A

D) 100BaseT

500
Q

How many bits does an IPv4 address consist of?A) 16B) 32C) 64D) 128

A

B) 32

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