A+ Warm-Up Flashcards
A motherboard failed on a desktop PC with an Intel Core i7-8700K processor. When looking for a replacement motherboard, which CPU socket does it need to have?
A) LGA 1366
B) LGA 1150
C) LGA 1151
D) LGA 2066
C. LGA 1151
The Core i7-8700K is a Coffee Lake-series processor, which uses the LGA 1151 socket. LGA 1150 sockets are for older i7s, and the LGA 1366 socket is for even older ones than that. The LGA 2066 socket is for processors with a capital X at the end of their model number.
You install a new NIC for a user, and he asks what it does. Which of the following best characterizes the functions of this device?
A. Multimedia
B. Communications
C. Input/Output
D. Storage
B. Communications
A network interface card (NIC) is used as a communications device. It enables the computer to talk to other computers on a network. It does not provide multimedia, input/output (such as a USB port does), or storage capabilities.
You are installing peripherals on a new computer. Which of the following devices provides both input and output?
A. Webcam
B. Projector
C. Touch screen
D. KVM switch
C. Touch screen
A touch screen provides video output, and users can touch the screen to provide input as well. A webcam is for video input, and a projector is for video output. A KVM switch lets users connect one keyboard, video, and mouse set to multiple computers and switch between them.
Your network uses thin clients. A new technician is amazed that the computers have no hard drives and asks, “If the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it found?”
A. On a DVD inserted at bootup
B. On a USB flash drive
C. On the server for session-by-session client use
D. Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard
C. On the server for session-by-session client use
Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.
What happens during the developing stage of laser printing?
A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles.
B. Heat is applied to the paper to melt the toner.
C. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner particles.
A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles.
After a laser has created an image of the page, the developing roller uses a magnet and electrostatic charges to attract toner to itself and then transfers the toner to the areas on the drum that have been exposed to the laser. The toner is melted during the fusing stage. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum in the exposing stage. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner in the transferring stage, which happens immediately after the developing stage.
You have just found out that a new BIOS upgrade exists for your computer, and you obtain a copy to install it. Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system?
A. DVD-ROM
B. Uninterruptable power supply
C. Internet connection
D. Windows administrator password
B. Uninterruptable power supply
None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.
You are installing a new hard drive and want to know if the operating system will be able to support it. What is the largest NTFS volume size supported, assuming a 64 KB cluster size as maximum?
A. 1 TB
B. 2 TB
C. 128 TB
D. 256 TB
D. 256 TB
A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64 KB is used, NTFS can support a single-volume size of 64 KB less than 256 TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (1/2 KB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2 TB. Because of this math, 1 TB and 128 TB are incorrect answers.
What kind of peripheral is used to read credit cards to initiate financial transactions? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Barcode reader
B. Signature pad
C. Magnetic reader
D. Chip reader
C. Magnetic reader
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D. Chip reader
Magnetic readers and chip readers can read credit and debit card information to initiate a financial transaction. Barcode readers read barcodes on packages. Signature pads allow for the digital input of someone’s signature.
A video editor at your company wants a second monitor, claiming that having only one monitor limits her ability to work. Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor?
A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.
B. While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop.
C. Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team.
D. Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.
A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.
Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to track. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out her work without shrinking the view excessively.
Which printer part gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper?
A. Laser-scanning assembly
B. Fusing assembly
C. Corona assembly
D. Drum
C. Corona assembly
The transfer corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper. For some printers, this is a transfer corona wire; for other printers, it is a transfer corona roller.
A technician asks you how to get a computer’s processor to run faster than it currently does. What is he trying to achieve?
A. Hyperthreading
B. Overclocking
C. Virtualization
D. Multicore support
B. Overclocking
Overclocking is when someone sets the speed of the processor to run faster than it was rated for. While overclocking can make a computer faster, it can also cause the processor to overheat, and it voids the warranty. Hyperthreading allows for a processor core to handle multiple processes simultaneously. Virtualization is when you create multiple virtual machines on a computer. Multicore means that the processor has more than one core—it’s not a configurable option.
Your goal is to build the fastest computer possible. Which of the following hard drive technologies should you choose for the fastest read performance?
A. M.2 PCIe
B. M.2 SATA
C. NVMe PCIe
D. NVMe SATA
C. NVMe PCIe
M.2 and NVMe are both relatively new SSD options, and both are incredibly fast. NVMe is slightly faster, though. SATA is limited to 600 MBps transfer speeds, whereas PCIe is not. An NVMe PCIe card can sustain data read rates of about 3,500 MBps.
Which of the following is not an example of a connector for a standard peripheral input device?
A. 1/8” jack
B. Molex
C. D-sub
D. USB
B. Molex
Peripherals most often use USB today, but they can also use D-sub connectors (rarely), and audio devices such as microphones and speakers use 1/8” jacks. Molex connectors are power connectors for PATA hard drives and optical drives.
Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client?
A. A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse
B. A computer with a low-profile case
C. A laptop
D. A dumb terminal with a NIC
D. A dumb terminal with a NIC
Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement, but thin clients do require a system unit with a NIC.
Most printers that use the electrophotographic process contain how many standard assemblies?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Nine
D. Nine
There are nine standard assemblies in an electrophotographic process printer. Early laser printers using the electrographic process contained the nine standard assemblies. Newer laser printers do not require an ozone filter and contain only eight standard assemblies.
You need to replace memory in a desktop PC and to go purchase RAM. When you are at the store, you need to find the appropriate type of memory. What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000?
A. DDR-2000
B. DDR3-2000
C. DDR3-1600
D. PC3-2000
B. DDR3-2000
Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC are used to describe the module; the initials DDR are used for the chips; and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you’re dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module’s numeric code: 2000.
Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters?
A. AC in, AC out
B. DC in, DC out
C. AC in, DC out
D. DC in, AC out
C. AC in, DC out
Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components to which they supply power.
What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom?
A. Mouse
B. Touch pad
C. Trackball
D. Track pad
C. Trackball
A trackball is a sort of stationary upside-down mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. Touch pads feature a touch-sensing surface with no ball for movement, while track pad is a more rare term meaning the same.
Marcus, a network technician, has been asked to build a virtualization workstation for his manager. Which of the following are not common requirements that Marcus should consider for this custom configuration? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Surround sound
B. Maximum RAM
C. Large, fast hard drives
D. Multiple CPU cores
A. Surround sound
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C. Large, fast hard drives
Virtualization workstations need to maximize the amount of RAM as well as CPU cores. Each virtualized instance of an operating system will be assigned its own memory and processor resources, and those resources are essentially reserved and off-limits to other virtual operating systems. Therefore, maximize both of them. Audio isn’t required on a virtualization workstation, so surround sound is not needed. Large fast hard drives will be nice but are not a primary requirement.
Which printer contains a wheel that looks like a flower with raised letters and symbols on each “petal”?
A. Inkjet printer
B. Daisy-wheel printer
C. Dot-matrix printer
D. Laser printer
B. Daisy-wheel printer
The daisy-wheel printer gets its name because it contains a wheel with raised letters and symbols on each “petal.”
You are assembling a new computer and are looking at new cooling systems. Which of the following cooling systems requires the use of a pump?
A. Liquid
B. Thermal paste
C. Heat sink
D. Heat sink plus fan
A. Liquid
Liquid cooling systems require a reservoir of liquid and a pump to circulate the liquid. It’s possible that the system could malfunction, causing a mess inside the computer. Thermal paste is used to adhere a heat sink to a processor. Heat sinks and fans do not use pumps.
Which of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices?
A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed.
B. The device can be removed with power applied after it is properly stopped in the operating system.
C. Care must be taken when swapping the device because it can be hot to the touch.
D. The device can be swapped while still hot, immediately after powering down the system.
A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed.
Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.
Why might you use a KVM switch?
A. You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another.
B. You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device.
C. You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it.
D. You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.
D. You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.
KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor. KVMs are not designed for Ethernet devices or printers, and do not switch voltage.
Peter is configuring a NAS. Which of the following should be his least-important priority to include in his NAS?
A. File sharing
B. Maximum RAM
C. Gigabit NIC
D. Media streaming
E. RAID array
B. Maximum RAM
A NAS should support file sharing and media streaming, and have a Gigabit NIC card and a RAID array. Additional RAM in a NAS offers no advantage for the performance of the NAS past a certain point. The tasks the NAS is asked to perform do not require high performance.
Which types of printers are referred to as page printers because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time? (Choose two.)
A. Daisy-wheel
B. Dot-matrix
C. Inkjet
D. Laser
E. Thermal
C. Inkjet
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D. Laser
A page printer is a type of computer printer that prints a page at a time. Common types of page printers are the laser printer and the inkjet printer.
You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called?
A. Programmable power
B. Soft power
C. Relay power
D. Hot power
B. Soft power
Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held. Programmable power, relay power, and hot power are not valid power options.
You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 10 system. Which of the following expansion slots is designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters?
A. USB
B. FireWire
C. PCI
D. PCIe
D. PCIe
Although technically PCI could be used for graphics adapters, PCIe supports high-speed, 3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better performance than older graphics adapters. USB and FireWire can stream video, but they are not used for attachment of internal graphics adapters.
You are installing a new video card that has an HDMI port. Which of the following is true about HDMI cables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They can transmit analog or digital signals.
B. They can transmit audio as well as video.
C. They are not used to connect to projectors.
D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors.
B. They can transmit audio as well as video.
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D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors.
HDMI cables transmit digital video and audio signals. They can be used to connect to projectors or monitors. HDMI cables can have standard HDMI connectors, mini-HDMI connectors, or micro-HDMI connectors.
You have been hired as a consultant for a video editing company that needs all new workstations for its six editors. Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation?
A. Gigabit NIC
B. Powerful processor
C. Maximum RAM
D. Fast hard drive
D. Fast hard drive
A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives; they also benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.
You have just installed a new printer, but it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem?
A. Wrong IP address
B. Worn print head
C. Incorrect printer drivers
D. Unsupported printer
C. Incorrect printer drivers
If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturer’s website.
Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single three-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU?
A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header.
B. Buy a four-pin to three-pin adapter.
C. Leave the plug disconnected and use only the heat sink.
D. Add an extra chassis fan.
A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header.
The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. There is no four-pin to three-pin power adapter. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs, and an extra chassis fan isn’t designed to specifically help cool the CPU.
When installing multiple add-on cards of the same type, which type of cards might you need to bridge together to function as a single unit?
A. Video
B. Sound
C. USB
D. eSATA
A. Video
PCIe video cards may be bridged together, enabling two cards to function as one system. Sound cards and I/O expansion cards such as USB and eSATA cards do not have bridging capabilities.
How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer?
A. With a DVI-I cable
B. With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVD-D connector
C. You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces
D. With a standard DVI cable
C. You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces
Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.
You have recently installed a NAS in your home so that all your family members could share media. You have a router and network cabling that supports Gigabit Ethernet. Why should you equip a NAS with a Gigabit NIC?
A. All systems, including the NAS, should communicate at the same speed.
B. The NAS should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.
C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.
D. The operating system that a NAS runs is not compatible with Gigabit Ethernet.
C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.
Optimally, the NAS should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the very least, the NAS’s link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.
Which step in the laser printer printing process occurs immediately after the exposing phase?
A. Charging
B. Fusing
C. Transferring
D. Developing
D. Developing
Developing happens after exposing. The correct order is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.
Which computer component contains all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another?
A. Motherboard
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Expansion bus
A. Motherboard
The spine of the computer is the system board, otherwise known as the motherboard. All other computer components plug into the motherboard. On the motherboard, you will find the CPU, underlying circuitry, expansion slots, video components, RAM slots, and various other chips.
You are purchasing a new video card in a desktop computer. For the best performance, which type of video card should you purchase?
A. PCI x16
B. PCI x128
C. AGP
D. PCIe x128
E. PCIe x16
E. PCIe x16
For a video card, the best standard currently available is PCIe, and the widest channel width is x16. There are no PCI x16 or PCI x128 slots, nor is there a PCIe x128 slot. AGP is an older video expansion standard that is now obsolete.
VGA cables use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Composite
D. Compressed
B. Analog
VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all of the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal. VGA signals are not digital, composite, or compressed.
You are configuring a virtualization workstation for your home use. Which of the following is required for your new system?
A. Multiple host operating systems
B. Maximum RAM allowed
C. File sharing services
D. Multiple NICs
B. Maximum RAM allowed
Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.
What voltage does the corona wire or corona roller hold?
A. +600VDC
B. –600VDC
C. 0VDC
D. –100VDC
A. +600VDC
For the toner (which has a charge of –600VDC) to be transferred from the print drum (which has a charge of –600VDC) to the paper, there must be a positive, or opposite, charge of greater difference to break the –600VDC charge from the drum.
A client wants you to build a new PC for her, with a smaller case and lower power requirements. When selecting a motherboard, which form factor should you choose for a smaller size and lower power consumption?
A. ATX
B. AT
C. Micro ATX
D. ITX
D. ITX
The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts. ATX are “standard” sized motherboards in today’s world. AT is a legacy form factor that was bigger than ATX. Micro ATX is smaller than ATX, but larger than ITX motherboards.
You have been asked to install a new hard drive for a client. Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device?
A. You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot.
B. You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side.
C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.
D. You need to be sure that the routing of the drive’s data cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.
C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.
Today’s hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. The other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.
You are interested in purchasing a new monitor and notice the contrast ratio specification. What does that refer to?
A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed
B. A term that was used with LCDs but is not a valid specification for OLEDs
C. The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels
D. A feature that changes based on the resolution setting
A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed
Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs and is relevant for all monitor types, including OLEDs. Higher contrast ratios mean the monitor displays darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio. Contrast ratio is not dependent upon resolution.
All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except ___________________. (Choose two.)
A. Network-attached storage device
B. Virtualization workstation
C. Graphic design workstation
D. Gaming PC
A. Network-attached storage device
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D. Gaming PC
Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Network-attached storage devices and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.
Which device in an inkjet printer contains the print head?
A. Toner cartridge
B. Ink cartridge
C. Daisy wheel
D. Paper tray
B. Ink cartridge
In an inkjet printer, the ink cartridge is the actual print head. This is where the ink is expelled to form letters or graphics. Toner cartridges are used by laser printers to store toner. A daisy wheel is the device that impacts the letters on the paper in a daisy-wheel printer. Paper trays are the storage bins in laser printers and inkjet printers that allow the pickup rollers to feed the paper into the printer.
Intel and AMD have integrated which of the following into their Atom and APU processor lines that had not been integrated before?
A. GPU
B. Math coprocessor
C. FSB
D. RAM controller
A. GPU
These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit (GPU). The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.
You have a motherboard with integrated video, and the video fails. You install a video add-on card. Which of the following statements are the most accurate? (Choose two.)
A. The add-on card will not function properly because of the integrated video.
B. The add-on card will function if it is bridged to the integrated video chipset.
C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it’s PCIe.
D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS.
E. The add-on card will work properly by using the integrated card’s video driver.
C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it’s PCIe.
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D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS.
Most likely, the new card will be detected and function properly once the computer is booted up. However, the driver will need to be installed. Odds are the new card will be a different model from the integrated card, which will require a new driver. On some systems, you will need to go into the BIOS and disable the integrated adapter. Bridging happens between two PCIe video adapters, not an integrated video chipset.
You are attaching an external hard drive to a computer with USB 2.0 ports. The user is concerned about data transfer speed. What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0?
A. 480 Mbps
B. 5 Gbps
C. 10 Gbps
D. 20 Gbps
A. 480 Mbps
USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps. USB 3.0 is 5 Gbps; USB 3.1 is 10 Gbps; and USB 3.2 is 20 Gbps.
Danielle has been asked to configure virtualization at her company. She recommends that her manager buy multicore processors. What justification should she give as to why virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible?
A. Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it.
B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.
C. Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place.
D. Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.
B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.
Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.
What part of a laser printer supplies the voltages for charging and transferring corona assemblies?
A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS)
B. DC power supply (DCPS)
C. Controller circuitry
D. Transfer corona
A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS)
The high-voltage power supply (HVPS) is the part of the laser printer that supplies the voltages for charging and transferring corona assemblies.
You have been asked to configure a full mesh network with seven computers. How many connections will this require?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 21
D. 42
C. 21
In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula x × (x – 1) ÷ 2. With seven computers, that amounts to 21 connections.
Which of the following protocols was designed to access information stored in an information directory, such as employee phone books?
A. FTP
B. LDAP
C. RDP
D. CIFS
B. LDAP
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is designed to access information stored in an information directory typically known as an LDAP directory or LDAP database. This typically includes employee data and network configuration data. FTP is designed to transfer files. RDP is a remote desktop protocol, and CIFS is used to share files and printers.
Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. AES
D. CCMP
B. TKIP
WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP
You have been asked to configure a client-side virtualization solution with three guest OSs. Each one needs Internet access. How should you configure the solution in the most cost-effective way?
A. Three physical NICs
B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch
C. One physical NIC, one virtual NIC, and three virtual switches
D. One physical NIC, three virtual NIC, and three virtual switches
B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch
Each virtual machine will use its own virtual NIC. The virtual NICs will communicate with a virtual switch managed by the hypervisor. The virtual switch will communicate with the physical NIC.
You need to replace defective DDR4 memory in a laptop. How many pins will the replacement memory module have?
A. 200
B. 204
C. 260
D. 288
C. 260
DDR4 SODIMMs have 260 pints. DDR2 SODIMMs have 200 pins, and DDR3 SODIMMs have 204 pins. No SODIMMs currently have 288 pins, but DDR4 DIMMs do.
Which of the following is a type of connector used with coaxial cable?
A. RG-6
B. RG-59
C. BNC
D. SC
C. BNC
Coaxial cable can use BNC connectors and F connectors. RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial standards. SC is a fiber-optic connector.
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. POP3
A. HTTP
HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses port 443; Telnet uses port 23; and POP3 uses port 110.
You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the default administrator name and password.
B. Change the SSID.
C. Enable WEP.
D. Configure it to channel 11.
A. Change the default administrator name and password.
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B. Change the SSID.
You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.
You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on a computer at work. The manager asks for a Type 2 hypervisor. What is the disadvantage of using that type of hypervisor?
A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS.
B. The guest OS will be forced to a lower priortity with the CPU than the host OS.
C. The guest OS will be forced to use less RAM than the host OS.
D. The virtual guest OS will not be able to get on the physical network.
A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS.
A Type 2 hypervisor sits on top of an existing OS, meaning that OSs installed in VMs will compete for resources with the host OS. The amount of resources available to a guest OS can be configured. Virtual OSs can get on the physical network if configured properly.
You need to replace a failed AC adapter for a client’s laptop. When replacing the adapter, which of the following purchases is acceptable to obtain the same or better results?
A. An AC adapter with a higher voltage rating than the original
B. An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original
C. A DC adapter with the same voltage rating as the original
D. An AC adapter with a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original
B. An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original
Think of wattage as a “bucket” of power that the attached device can draw from. A bigger bucket simply holds more power but does not force the power on the device. Less wattage is not advised, however. Voltage can be thought of as the pressure behind the power to the device. Anything but the proper voltage is dangerous for the device. When you replace a laptop’s AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings of the original adapter. This also means that you should use an adapter with a fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original; otherwise, obtain one that automatically switches voltages at the levels needed.
Transmitting at 10 Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel?
A. 100 meters
B. 550 meters
C. 1 kilometer
D. 40 kilometers
B. 550 meters
Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).
Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.)
A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. Default gateway
D. DNS server address
A. IP address
&
B. Subnet mask
The only mandatory IPv4 configuration items are an IP address and a subnet mask. If you are not connecting to another network, you do not need a default gateway. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses, but they are not mandatory.
You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed?
A. DSL
B. Dial-up
C. Satellite
D. BRI ISDN
E. PRI ISDN
A. DSL
Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12 Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56 Kbps, and BRI ISDN (128 Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5 Mbps) don’t even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.
You have been asked to identify the right type of cloud service to help the team of developers to provide programming elements such as runtime environments. Which service do you recommend?
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
A. PaaS
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is probably the right level of service for the developer team. It provides infrastructure, like IaaS, and also supplies needed programming elements.
A user complains that his mouse cursor randomly jumps to different places on the screen when he types. Which device might you want to disable to prevent this from happening?
A. Touchpad
B. Mouse
C. Point stick
D. Trackball
A. Touchpad
The touchpad sits below the keyboard, where a user’s palms may rest when he is typing. That contact may cause the mouse cursor to appear to jump on the screen. Disabling the touchpad should prevent this from happening.
What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination?
A. Routers
B. Bridges
C. Hubs
D. Switches
A. Routers
Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, determining the best path to take, based on the internal routing tables that they maintain.
Which of the following is the name of a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network?
A. NAT
B. APIPA
C. VLAN
D. VPN
D. VPN
A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network. NAT translates private IP address to public IP addresses. APIPA is an automatic IP address assignment if a client computer can’t reach a DHCP server. VLANs are virtual local area networks configured through switches.
Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication methods work in the 2.4 GHz range? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Bluetooth
B. Z-Wave
C. Satellite
D. 5 G mmWave
E. Zigbee
F. NFC
A. Bluetooth
&
E. Zigbee
Bluetooth and Zigbee also operate in the 2.4 GHz range. Z-Wave operates in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz ranges; satellite uses satellite waves; 5 G cellular mmWave is between 24 GHz and 86 GHz; and NFC uses 13.56 MHz.
Your manager wants to use the cloud because everyone seems to be talking about it. What should you include when you are listing the benefits of using the cloud? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Increased security
B. Increased scalability
C. Lower cost
D. Improved reliability
B. Increased scalability
C. Lower cost
D. Improved reliability
Cloud solutions are great for enhancing scalability and reliability while generally lowering costs. The biggest issue with cloud computing is security.
One of your network users has an older laptop with no Bluetooth support. He recently received a Bluetooth headset that he needs to use with his laptop. What is the quickest and cheapest way to make the headset compatible with his laptop?
A. Buy a Wi-Fi–compatible headset
B. Buy a USB Bluetooth adapter
C. Buy a Mini PCIe Bluetooth adapter
D. Replace the laptop
B. Buy a USB Bluetooth adapter
A USB Bluetooth adapter should do the trick. There are Mini PCIe Bluetooth adapters, but installing one is trickier than inserting a USB device. There aren’t really any Wi-Fi compatible headsets on the market—headsets are exactly what Bluetooth was designed for. Replacing the laptop is a much more expensive proposition.
You need to put a connector on the end of an Ethernet crossover cable. The existing end has a white and green colored wire at pin 1. What color do you need to make pin 1 on the new end?
A. White/green
B. Green
C. White/orange
D. Orange
C. White/orange
A crossover cable will flip pins 1 and 3 on each end. Therefore, this end needs to have the white/orange wire as pin 1. The correct order for this cable should be white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown.
Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
B. ::ffff:c0a8:173
C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
D. 2001::1ab4::5468
A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
B. ::ffff:c0a8:173
C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as Option A, but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.
You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40 Mbps throughput? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11 g
D. 802.11n
A. 802.11ac
C. 802.11 g
D. 802.11n
Three standards listed—802.11ac (1,300 Mbps), 802.11 g (54 Mbps), and 802.11n (600 Mbps)—give users the required throughput.
Your manager wants you to install a networked Internet appliance that prevents network traffic–based attacks and includes anti-malware and anti-spam software. What should you install?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. UTM
D. Endpoint management system
C. UTM
It sounds like the manager wants a unified threat management (UTM) device. They are designed to be one-stop network protection devices. Networked intrusion detection and prevention systems will detect network attacks but do not have anti-malware or anti-spam capabilities. An endpoint management system is not a security appliance.
The process by which the processor slows down to conserve power is officially called ____________.
A. Underclocking
B. Cooling
C. Disengaging
D. Throttling
D. Throttling
The processor can reduce how fast it’s working, which is called throttling, to help conserve battery life. CPUs do not perform underclocking, cooling, or disengaging.
What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL?
A. Router
B. Firewall
C. Bridge
D. NAS
B. Firewall
The job of a firewall is to block unwanted network traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other, as do bridges. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.
What port does the RDP protocol work on?
A. 53
B. 143
C. 389
D. 3389
D. 3389
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53; IMAP4 works on port 143; and LDAP works on port 389.
You are running an 802.11 g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11 g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen?
A. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps, while the users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps.
B. The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network.
C. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps. The users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps, unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11 Mbps.
D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.
D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.
The good news is that 802.11 g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is, if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.
You have been asked to advise a group of several universities that want to combine research efforts and store data in the cloud. Which type of cloud solution might be best for them?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid
C. Community
When multiple organizations with similar objectives want to combine efforts in a cloud, the best choice is generally a community cloud. This allows for the flexibility and scalability normally found in a public cloud, but it also limits the number of users to a smaller, trusted group.
A user complains that his 2-in-1 laptop screen does not properly detect where he places his finger on the screen. What should you do first to resolve the issue?
A. Replace the touchscreen.
B. Replace the touchpad.
C. Recalibrate the touchscreen.
D. Recalibrate the touchpad.
E. Degauss the touchscreen.
F. Degauss the touchpad.
C. Recalibrate the touchscreen.
If the touchscreen is not responding properly, the first step is to recalibrate it. If it continues to have problems, the screen may be defective and might need to be replaced. Degaussing is a process used on old CRT monitors and is not relevant to touchscreens.
You are installing a network at a friend’s house, and it’s impossible to run a network cable from one point in the house to another. He does not want to use wireless networking. Which of the following is the best option to get network connectivity between the two points?
A. Power over Ethernet injector
B. Power over Ethernet switch
C. Ethernet over Power
D. Bridge
C. Ethernet over Power
Ethernet over Power can transmit network signals over power lines within a closed circuit, such as a house. It’s the best choice. PoE devices provide power to devices that only have an Ethernet connection available. A bridge is for connecting disparate network segments and dividing collision domains.
Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address?
A. ::1
B. FE80::
C. FF00::
D. ::FFFF
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.
Which of the following technologies can operate in the 125 kHz to 134 kHz range?
A. Bluetooth
B. RFID
C. NFC
D. LTE
B. RFID
Radio frequency identification (RFID) can operate in three frequency bands: 125 kHz to 134 kHz, 13.56 MHz, or 856 MHz to 960 MHz. Bluetooth is 2.4 GHz; NFC is 13.56 MHz; and LTE is between 600 MHz and 6 GHz.
You are configuring two email servers on your company’s network. Which network protocol do the servers use to transfer mail to each other?
A. POP3
B. IMAP4
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
D. SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer email between servers. POP3 and IMAP4 are used to download email. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol and not related to email.
There has recently been a string of hardware thefts in your office building. What should you recommend that your users implement to help avoid this problem?
A. Enable GPS tracking.
B. Use a docking station.
C. Use a cable lock.
D. Use the screensaver lock.
C. Use a cable lock.
Sometimes the only way to ensure that equipment doesn’t walk away is to lock it down physically. Laptops come equipped with holes for cable locks that can be used to secure them to a desk or other workstation. GPS tracking might help after the device is stolen, but it’s best to prevent that in the first place. A docking station does not prevent physical theft, nor does a screensaver with a password.
____________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting.
A. Token passing
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. Demand priority
B. CSMA/CD
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.
Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. RARP
C. ARP
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse—it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.
What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
C. 5
QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100 ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10 ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.
You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on an office computer. The host OS is Windows 7, and there will be three Windows 7 guest OSs. Which of the following is true about the need for antivirus security?
A. The host OS needs an antivirus program, but virtual machines can’t be affected by viruses.
B. The host OS antivirus software will also protect the guest OSs on the VMs.
C. Installing antivirus software on the virtual switch will protect all guest OSs.
D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed.
D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed.
Each instance of the OS you are running requires its own security software.
A user wants her laptop to have a full-sized optical drive and external hard drive. Which of the following accessories is most likely to have full-sized bays for these devices?
A. Laptop base
B. Port replicator
C. Docking station
D. Mini PCIe dock
C. Docking station
A docking station is a device that a laptop can be plugged into that replicates common laptop ports, and may also have full-sized bays for PC desktop expansion cards and storage devices, such as hard drives and optical drives. A port replicator will replicate laptop ports but does not usually have expansion bays. There is no specific laptop base accessory or a Mini PCIe dock. (Mini PCIe is an internal laptop technology.)
Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. Cellular
D. Ethernet
A. Bluetooth
Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).
You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router’s IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this?
A. Default gateway
B. Subnet mask
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
A. Default gateway
The router is your doorway out into other networks, and it is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you would not be able to get to external networks. The subnet mask tells a host which network it’s on. The DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses, and a DHCP server provides IP configuration information to hosts.
What is the primary function of the SSID?
A. To secure communication between a web server and a browser
B. To secure communication between a server and a remote host
C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection
D. To serve as a type of password used to secure a wireless connection
C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection
A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.
What does a DHCP server need to be configured with to operate properly?
A. DNS server
B. Scope
C. Range
D. DHCP relay agent
B. Scope
Every DHCP server needs to have a scope, which is the range of addresses available to clients, as well as other options that it can give to client computers. A DHCP server can optionally provide clients with the address of a DNS server. There is no DHCP range. A DHCP relay agent is a system configured on a subnet with no DHCP server that relays DHCP requests to the DHCP server.
Your manager tells you to replace the inverter on a broken laptop. Where will you find this component?
A. Underneath the keyboard
B. In the display
C. Next to the heat sink and fan
D. Near the CPU
B. In the display
The inverter, which transforms AC power into DC power for an LCD backlight, is found in the display. It’s not underneath the keyboard, next to the heat sink and fan, or near the processor, which are all located in the bottom half of the laptop.
What is the lowest grade of UTP that is rated for 100 Mbps transmission?
A. CAT-5
B. CAT-5e
C. CAT-6
D. CAT-6a
A. CAT-5
CAT-5 was the first UTP standard ratified for 100 Mbps transmissions. Before that, CAT-3 was popular but only supported 10 Mbps. CAT-5e, CAT-6, and CAT-6a all support at least 1 Gbps and came after CAT-5.
Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet?
A. 10.25.11.33
B. 18.33.66.254
C. 155.118.63.11
D. 192.186.12.2
A. 10.25.11.33
DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.
You are installing a single 802.11 g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues?
A. 2, 5, and 7
B. 1, 8, and 14
C. 1, 6, and 11
D. 3, 6, and 9
C. 1, 6, and 11
There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4 GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.
You are setting up a cloud contract with a provider. Your team needs the ability to increase capacity without intervention from the provider. What do you request?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Measured service
B. On-demand self-service
The ability to expand services without provider intervention is called on-demand self-service. Rapid elasticity means you can quickly increase capacity, but it usually requires supplier intervention. Resource pooling is taking resources from multiple machines and making them available as one pool. Measured service is how many suppliers track usage and charge accordingly.
A user has requested a laptop memory upgrade. The technician attempts to put in new memory, but the memory module is barely too wide for the slot. What is the most likely scenario?
A. The technician is trying to install DDR4 into a motherboard with DDR3 slots.
B. The technician is trying to install DDR3 into a motherboard with DDR4 slots.
C. The technician is trying to install MicroDIMMs into SODIMM slots.
D. The technician is trying to install DIMMs into SODIMM slots.
A. The technician is trying to install DDR4 into a motherboard with DDR3 slots.
Laptops use SODIMMs (or possibly MicroDIMMs), which are much smaller than standard DIMMs used in desktops. DDR2 and DDR3 SODIMMs are 67.6 millimeters wide, whereas DDR4 SODIMMs are 69.6 millimeters wide. It’s likely that the technician has DDR4 SODIMMs and the motherboard supports DDR3 SODIMMs.
Apps for Android-based smartphones and tablets can be downloaded from which store?
A. App Store
B. Google Play
C. Android Store
D. Microsoft Store
B. Google Play
The app store for Android-based devices is Google Play. iOS devices download apps from the App Store. Windows-based apps can be downloaded from the Microsoft Store.
A technician is configuring a mobile client to use email through an ISP. Which port number should he configure to use SMTP?
A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 995
A. 25
SMTP sends mail to the server on TCP port 25. POP3 uses port 110. IMAP4 uses port 143. POP3 uses port 995 securely over SSL or TLS.
You have fixed a printer problem and verified full functionality. What is the next step to take in the best practice methodology?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Conduct internal or external research.
C. Review system and application logs.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause.
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
After verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures as needed, the final step in the best practice methodology is to document findings, actions, and outcomes.
You boot up a Windows 10 desktop computer. The Windows splash screen flashes briefly, and then there is no display. What is the best next step to take to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Replace the failed monitor
B. Replace the failed video card
C. Reboot and enable low-resolution video mode
D. Try a second monitor
C. Reboot and enable low-resolution video mode
Multi-touch refers to which feature of a touch screen device?
A. The ability to touch multiple parts of the screen at once to provide input
B. The ability to touch the screen multiple times consecutively as part of the same input stream
C. The ability for multiple people to use the touch screen device
D. The ability to use a stylus or a finger as an input device
A. The ability to touch multiple parts of the screen at once to provide input
Multi-touch simply means that the touch screen can accept multiple inputs from different parts of the screen at the same time. This allows for functionality such as pinch to zoom. It could mean that multiple people are using the touch screen at once, but it does not have to mean that.
Which of the following are disabled when airplane mode is switched on? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cellular
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. Settings app
E. Lock screen
A. Cellular
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
Airplane mode disables all radio communications, including cellular, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth (and NFC as well). It does not affect the opening of any other apps or the lock screen.
You are troubleshooting a Windows-based desktop computer that is experiencing unexpected shutdowns. Which of the following would be a good next step to resolve the issue? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Replace the motherboard, CPU, and RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
C. Reinstall Windows to see if it resolves the problem.
D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem.
B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
&
D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem.
Intermittent shutdowns are hard to troubleshoot but are most likely hardware related. When troubleshooting, always make one change at a time to try to resolve the issue. Replacing the RAM or the CPU to see if it resolves the problem could be a good next step, but replacing three components at once is too many changes unless you have specific reason to believe it is all three. Reinstalling Windows is probably overkill as well. Narrow down the issue before implementing sweeping solutions such as that.
You have an inkjet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with excessive amounts of ink, and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. A faulty ink cartridge
B. A corrupt print driver
C. A faulty fuser
D. Too much humidity in the air
A. A faulty ink cartridge
If an ink cartridge is faulty or develops a hole, it can release excessive amounts of ink, which will lead to smearing. A corrupt print driver would result in printing garbage. Inkjet printers do not have a fuser. Excessive humidity may cause smearing, but it wouldn’t cause the disbursement of too much ink.
Which of the following is the name of the protocol used to transmit data in NFC peer-to-peer mode?
A. NDEF
B. NFCP
C. LLCP
D. SNEP
D. SNEP
NFC uses Simple NDEF Exchange Protocol (SNEP) in peer-to-peer mode. It’s based on LLCP (Logical Link Control Protocol).
Which of the following are universally common items that are synced between a mobile device and a larger computer? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Office documents
B. Contacts
C. Operating system files
D. Email
E. Configuration settings
F. Apps
B. Contacts
D. Email
F. Apps
When a desktop computer boots up, there is no video on the LCD monitor, just a blank screen. The system makes one beep when it powers on, and air is coming out of the case fan. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The motherboard has failed.
B. The video card has failed.
C. The monitor is disconnected.
D. The CPU or RAM has failed.
C. The monitor is disconnected.
When troubleshooting, always question the obvious. In this case, the system beeps once, which is usually a signal from the BIOS that POST completed successfully, and air is coming from the system fan. All of that appears to be normal. Check to see that the monitor is connected properly to the desktop computer and that it’s receiving power.
You are having problems with the video card in one of your computers. Where could you check for troubleshooting information?
A. Another computer with the same video card
B. The video card manufacturer’s website
C. The manual that came with the card
D. The server log
B. The video card manufacturer’s website
The manufacturer’s website is the first place you should go for information on your products, including troubleshooting information. Many years ago, manufacturers would provide paper manuals with their products, but that’s almost unheard of today, unless you download a PDF version from the website. Server logs can show error codes, but they won’t tell you how to fix anything.
You need to provide users with memory cards that hold enough data for their needs. How much data can a microSDXC memory card hold?
A. 4 GB
B. 32 GB
C. 128 GB
D. 2 TB
D. 2 TB
MicroSDXC cards can hold up to 2 TB. SDHC cards can hold up to 32 GB, and standard SD cards can hold up to 4 GB.
You are pairing a Bluetooth headset to a mobile device. On the mobile device, after finding the device for pairing, what is the next step to take?
A. Enable Bluetooth.
B. Test connectivity.
C. Enter the appropriate PIN code.
D. Enable pairing.
C. Enter the appropriate PIN code.
The next step is to enter the PIN code. The steps, in order, are as follows: enable Bluetooth, enable pairing, find a device for pairing, enter the appropriate PIN code, and test connectivity.
You have implemented a solution that resolved an audio problem on a laptop computer. Following the best practice methodology, what is the next step to take?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
D. Review system and application logs.
B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
The fourth step in the best practice methodology is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, which was done already. The next step is to verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. The final step is to document findings, actions, and outcomes. Reviewing system and application logs is part of identifying the problem, which is the first step.
A user tells you that his Android phone case is bulging, and the device has been hot to the touch lately. You suspect a swollen battery. Which of the following is a good next step?
A. Replace the device
B. Leave the device on to drain the battery, and then recharge the device
C. Turn the device off, let it cool to room temperature, and then recharge the device
D. Use the battery calibration utility
E. Freeze the system
A. Replace the device
With a swollen battery, the best solution is to replace the device. If you are experienced with mobile device batteries, you may be able to replace the battery, but be careful! You should not charge a swollen battery or freeze the system. A battery calibration utility will do no good.
Which of the following is the most common input method for mobile devices?
A. Stylus
B. Resistive touch screen
C. Capacitive touch screen
D. Keyboard and mouse
C. Capacitive touch screen
Most mobile devices today use capacitive touch screens, which allow the user to use their finger as an input device. Resistive touch screens sense pressure, and a stylus is commonly used with them. Keyboards and mice are too large for most mobile devices.
In a mobile device, which of the following are examples of RTOSs? (Choose two.)
A. SIM OS
B. Baseband OS
C. iOS
D. Android
A. SIM OS
&
B. Baseband OS
The two real-time OSs (RTOSs) that mobile phones have are the baseband OS and the SIM OS. iOS and Android are not RTOSs.
You have discovered a fix for a broken laptop. Before implementing changes, what should you consider, according to the best practice methodology?
A. The user’s budget
B. Company reputation
C. Upgrade feasibility
D. Corporate policies
D. Corporate policies
According to the best practice methodology, you should always consider corporate policies, procedures, and impacts before implementing changes. The user’s budget, company reputation, and upgrade feasibility are not mentioned in the best practice methodology to resolve problems.
If the video on your laptop is not working, what should you do to troubleshoot it? (Choose two.)
A. Toggle the video function key
B. Try using an external monitor
C. Remove the display unit and reattach it
D. Power the system off and back on
A. Toggle the video function key
&
B. Try using an external monitor
Two helpful things to try are toggling the video output function key (usually something like Fn+F8) and plugging an external monitor into the laptop. Removing the display is possible but not necessary yet. Powering the system off and back on isn’t likely to correct the problem.
You are configuring wireless communication for several smartphones. Which of the following wireless communication methods has the shortest operational range?
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. IR
C. NFC
Near field communication (NFC) has a maximum range of about 10 centimeters. Wi-Fi depends on the standard, but it usually has a range of 30 meters or more. Bluetooth Class 2 devices can operate at about 10 meters, and infrared (IR) has a maximum range of about 1 meter.
You are enabling email on a mobile client. Which of the following is not a standard integrated commercial provider for email?
A. iCloud
B. Hotmail
C. Yahoo Mail
D. Exchange Online
B. Hotmail
Four commercial email providers to be familiar with are iCloud, Google/Inbox, Exchange Online, and Yahoo Mail. Hotmail used to be a commercial email provider, but it no longer exists; it’s now part of Outlook.com.
When you turn on a desktop computer, you hear a loud squealing noise coming from inside the case. Which components are potential culprits for making the noise? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CPU fan
B. Power supply fan
C. HDD
D. SSD
E. CPU
F. RAM
A. CPU fan
B. Power supply fan
C. HDD
Only components with moving parts can make ticking, clicking, or squealing noises. It’s probably a fan of some sort (such as the CPU fan or power supply fan), or it could be a conventional hard drive. SSDs, CPUs, and RAM do not have moving parts and therefore could not be causing this problem.
A network cable for a crucial server has failed. There are no pre-made Ethernet cables available, but there is bulk cable and connectors. Which tool do you need to use to make a new cable?
A. Crimper
B. Punch-down tool
C. Cable tester
D. Loopback plug
A. Crimper
A crimper is used to make network cables. Punch-down tools are used to connect the wires of a cable to a wiring rack, such as a 110-block. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly (and may be handy after you complete the cable). A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive.
You have a mobile touch screen device with a screen size of 11ʺ. What is the most likely classification of this device?
A. Tablet
B. Phablet
C. Smartphone
D. GPS
A. Tablet
Tablets generally have a screen size between 7ʺ and 13ʺ. Phablets were historically between 5ʺ and 7ʺ, and smartphones are smaller than phablets. GPS touch screens are usually around the same size as the screens on smartphones.
Which of the following is not a requirement for installing iTunes on a Windows machine?
A. A 1 GHz processor or better
B. 1 GB of RAM or higher
C. 400 MB of available disk space
D. Broadband Internet connection
B. 1 GB of RAM or higher
iTunes will run on a computer with 512 MB of RAM. 1 GB is not required unless you want to play 720p high-definition videos. A 1 GHz processor, 400 MB disk space, and broadband Internet are required.
You are solving a problem with a desktop computer that was caused by human error. When is the appropriate time to implement preventive measures, according to the best practice methodology?
A. When documenting findings, actions, and outcomes
B. When testing the theory to determine cause
C. When verifying full system functionality
D. When questioning the user to identify user changes
C. When verifying full system functionality
The fifth step in the best practice methodology is to verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. This step occurs after a plan of action to resolve the problem has been established and before findings, actions, and outcomes have been documented.
You turn a computer on and it doesn’t boot up properly. You hear a rhythmic ticking sound coming from inside the case. What is most likely the problem?
A. The motherboard
B. The power supply fan
C. The HDD
D. The video card
C. The HDD
The only components that make noise are the ones that have moving parts, such as fans and conventional hard disk drives. In most cases, a rhythmic ticking sound will be something that’s generated by a conventional hard disk drive (HDD).
Which iPhone version introduced the Lightning connector?
A. iPhone 4
B. iPhone 5
C. iPhone 6
D. iPhone 8
B. iPhone 5
The iPhone 5 was the first iPhone to use the Lightning connector. All newer iPhones use it as well.
A friend asks you why she would ever disable cellular data networking. Which of the following is not a valid reason to disable cellular data networking?
A. You have a limited amount of data in your monthly plan.
B. You have access to a reliable Wi-Fi signal.
C. You are about to download an update to your phone.
D. Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network.
D. Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network.
Whenever you have a reliable Wi-Fi signal available, which you do not pay for “as you go,” you should feel free to disable your cellular access to data networking. The wireless network is often faster and does not cost you anything to use. If data networking works better when you leave the cellular network available as a fallback, you can choose to disable it only for certain large downloads or disable it completely until the download is complete. Phone calls will continue to be sent over the cellular network. This does not imply that your data is not using an available Wi-Fi connection. Therefore, unless you are particularly sensitive to the situation or know that data is going out over your cell access, you might not need to disable the cellular data-networking feature.
You are identifying the problem while troubleshooting a network issue. Which of the following are proper steps to help identify the problem? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes.
B. Conduct internal or external research based on symptoms.
C. Review the system and application logs.
D. Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer.
A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes.
C. Review the system and application logs.
E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer.
The three sub-steps to identify the problem are: question the user and identify user changes to computer; inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes; and review the system and application logs. Conducting internal or external research is part of establishing a theory of probable cause. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem is part of testing the theory to determine cause.
A laptop user with an 802.11ac wireless network card just switched desk locations. In the new location, she says that her wireless drops connectivity intermittently and seems to have slow transfer speeds. Which of the following is most likely to resolve these issues?
A. Replace the network card
B. Run ipconfig to ensure that she is receiving the right IP address from the DHCP server
C. Install a new WAP closer to her new desk
D. Use a network monitor to ensure that there are no IP address conflicts
C. Install a new WAP closer to her new desk
Distance matters in wireless networks. Being too far away from an access point will result in a weaker signal, which can cause intermittent signal drops and poor performance. Moving closer to the wireless access point (WAP) or wireless router can help, as can installing additional WAPs or wireless routers. The IP address from the DHCP server won’t matter, and since she reported no error message, there is not likely to be an IP address conflict. Unless there are other issues, replacing the NIC seems to be overkill.
One of your friends wants to play a console-based game on her tablet. What type of accessory would you most recommend she connect and configure to help the experience?
A. VR headset
B. Game pad
C. AR headset
D. Extra battery pack
B. Game pad
For game players, a game pad or gaming controller may be a good accessory to have. VR headsets could also be good, but only for certain games. An AR headset isn’t likely to help with gaming. An extra battery pack could help extend the playing time, but it isn’t needed if the tablet is plugged in.
You need to enable clients to synchronize their mobile devices to their laptops. Which of the following are common connection types to enable laptop synchronization? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cellular
B. Bluetooth
C. Wi-Fi
D. USB
E. Tethering
C. Wi-Fi
&
D. USB
The two most common connection types for synchronization to a desktop (or laptop) are Wi-Fi and USB. Cellular and Bluetooth are not used for desktop synchronization. Tethering is when a laptop or other device is granted cellular network access by connecting to a mobile device, such as a smartphone.
You have been troubleshooting a laptop for an hour and have established a theory of probable cause for the problem. What is the next step you should take?
A. Test the theory to determine the cause.
B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures.
D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
A. Test the theory to determine the cause.
The second step in the best practice methodology to resolve problems is to establish a theory of probable cause, which has been done here. The next step is to test the theory to determine cause. After that, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, verify full system functionality, and document findings.
While troubleshooting a client computer, you decide to obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server. After releasing the existing address, which command do you use to get new IP information from the DHCP server?
A. ipconfig /refresh
B. ipconfig /renew
C. ifconfig /release
D. ifconfig /start
B. ipconfig /renew
The ipconfig command is perhaps the most-used utility in troubleshooting and network configuration. The ipconfig /renew command will send a query to the DHCP server asking it to resend and renew all DHCP information. For a more detailed look at the ipconfig command, type ipconfig /? at the command prompt. The ifconfig command is used with Linux and macOS clients. There are no /refresh or /startswitches for these commands.
You need to set up a Bluetooth headset for a user. He wants to know the farthest he can be away from his phone and still have it work. You do not have the documentation handy. What is the most likely maximum range that this Bluetooth accessory will have?
A. 10 centimeters
B. 10 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 1 kilometer
B. 10 meters
Most mobile Bluetooth accessories are Class 2 devices, which have a maximum functional range of 10 meters. The actual range will depend on the headset’s properties.
You need to configure email for a mobile client. His device has a setting referring to port 587. Which mail protocol is likely using this protocol?
A. SMTP with SSL
B. SMTP with TLS
C. IMAP4 with SSL/TLS
D. POP3 with SSL/TLS
B. SMTP with TLS
SMTP with TLS uses port 587 by default. With SSL, SMTP uses port 465. IMAP4 with SSL/TLS uses port 993, while POP3 with SSL/TLS uses port 995.
A user pushes the power button on her desktop computer but nothing happens. She double-checks that it is plugged in and that the wall outlet is working properly. Which components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Power supply
B. Motherboard
C. Power cord
D. CPU
E. RAM
A. Power supply
&
C. Power cord
If the wall outlet is functioning and the power cable is connected properly (always check the obvious), then the most likely culprits are the power supply or the power cord. The motherboard, CPU, and RAM are unlikely to cause a complete power failure in a computer.
The display on a laptop computer is continuously flickering. Which of the following are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A. A failing display
B. Interference from a nearby fan
C. A failing backlight
D. A failing inverter
E. Incorrect video driver
C. A failing backlight
&
D. A failing inverter
Perpetually dim or flickering screens are most likely caused by a failing backlight or inverter, which supplies power to the backlight. LCD devices are not subject to interference from fans. An incorrect video driver will not cause a flickering image.
A user is concerned about security after setting up wireless communications on his tablet. Which wireless communication method has an operational range of about 1 meter and a viewing angle of about 30 degrees?
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. IR
D. IR
Infrared has an operational range of about 1 meter. Near field communication (NFC) has a maximum range of about 10 centimeters. Wi-Fi depends on the standard, but it usually has a range of 30 meters or more. Bluetooth Class 2 devices can operate at about 10 meters.
You need to configure a mobile client to send encrypted emails. Which standard is used to encrypt and decrypt email messages on mobile devices?
A. SSL
B. TLS
C. IMAPS
D. S/MIME
D. S/MIME
Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) is the public key encryption standard used for encrypting and decrypting email. SSL and TLS can encrypt network traffic but not an email message. IMAP is an email protocol, but there is no IMAPS.
A desktop computer is experiencing continuous reboots. It gets to the BIOS screen and then reboots every time. Which two components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Power supply
B. RAM
C. CPU
D. Motherboard
C. CPU
&
D. Motherboard
Continuous reboots are most likely caused by the motherboard or CPU failing. It’s possible it’s the RAM, but less likely. The power supply is the least likely cause of the problem in this scenario.
You believe that a network card is beginning to fail. Which of the following tools should you use to see if the network card is capable of sending and receiving data from an RJ-45 port?
A. Tone generator and probe
B. Loopback plug
C. Multimeter
D. Cable tester
B. Loopback plug
A loopback plug is used to test the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. The plug gets plugged into the NIC, and then a loopback test is performed using troubleshooting software. A tone generator and probe is used to trace a cable. Multimeters test for electrical issues. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly.
Which of the following are advantages of e-readers using E Ink over tablets? (Choose two.)
A. More vivid colors
B. Longer battery life
C. Easier to read in bright light
D. Better screen resolution
B. Longer battery life
&
C. Easier to read in bright light
E-readers that use electrophoretic ink (E Ink) have a longer battery life than tablets and are easier to read in bright light conditions. They do not have more vivid colors or better screen resolution.
Which of the following most accurately describes what an IMEI is?
A. The phone’s serial number
B. The description of the user and mobile network
C. The carrier code
D. The code used for NFC pay applications
A. The phone’s serial number
The international mobile equipment identity (IMEI) is a 15-digit serial number that is unique to each phone. The international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) is a unique 15-digit identifier that describes a specific mobile user and their network. The secure element identifier (SEID) is a very long hexadecimal code that uniquely identifies the phone; it is used in security applications, NFC, and features like Apple Pay.
A Windows user complains that her computer keeps crashing. What is the proprietary crash screen she is most likely seeing?
A. Stop sign
B. Pinwheel
C. BSOD
D. Black screen
C. BSOD
When Windows-based systems crash, as can happen due to a memory, CPU, or motherboard problem, they will most likely display a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD). The good news is that the BSOD can often provide useful information, such as an error code, to help troubleshoot the problem. There is no stop sign proprietary crash screen, and the pinwheel is used in macOS and OS X. A black screen may indicate a system crash but is not proprietary to one operating system.
You support an old impact printer at work. When the printer prints, there is always a blank horizontal line in the middle of each line of output. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.
B. The print ribbon is not advancing properly.
C. The print head needs to be replaced.
D. The wrong print driver is installed.
C. The print head needs to be replaced.
If there is a consistent blank space, it likely means that a pin is not firing properly and the print head needs to be replaced. If the print ribbon were old, you would have consistently faded printing. If the ribbon were not advancing properly, you would get light and dark printing. If the wrong driver were installed, you would get garbage.
A user wants to attempt to ensure that their boss can’t see where they are, based on tracking their iPhone. Which option should they disable?
A. Location Services
B. GPS
C. Tracking Services
D. Airplane Mode
A. Location Services
Apple calls its GPS services Location Services. For the phone to use GPS (and to be tracked), Location Services should be enabled. There is no Apple service called Tracking Services. Airplane Mode would turn off GPS (and Location Services), but it needs to be enabled, not disabled.
You need to pair two Bluetooth devices with each other. Which of the following is true regarding Bluetooth pairing?
A. Bluetooth connections support wireless device control but not file transfers.
B. Bluetooth is not yet a fully standardized protocol.
C. Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as Wi-Fi connections.
D. You must reboot the paired devices to complete the connection.
C. Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as Wi-Fi connections.
The range of Bluetooth connections is considered short compared to Wi-Fi connections. Bluetooth is a fully standardized protocol that supports file transfers using FTP. Rebooting, or even restarting, paired devices is not a requirement for Bluetooth connection.
You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee’s computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password?
A. Cable header
B. Power reset connector
C. Toggle switch
D. Jumper
D. Jumper
Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.
Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies?
A. You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply.
B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.
C. You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply.
D. You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices that you have installed.
B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.
Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components, power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components, and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.
You want to enhance your display capabilities. Which of the following is possible to do with multi-monitor settings?
A. Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces.
B. Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor.
C. Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop
D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.
D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.
The multi-monitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don’t even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver. Multi-monitor settings do not cause two Desktops to merge, nor do they allow two laptops to display the same Desktop.
Which type of system simply needs to meet recommended requirements for standard versions of operating systems and support desktop applications?
A. Thin client
B. Thick client
C. Network-attached storage device
D. Virtualization workstation
B. Thick client
Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.
Which of the following is fed through an extruder on a 3D printer to create objects?
A. Plastic
B. Metal
C. Filament
D. Extrusion powder
C. Filament
3D printers use filament to create objects. Filament is often plastic, but it can contain metals too. There is no extrusion powder.
You are replacing a motherboard in a computer that uses an AMD Ryzen 3 processor. Which CPU socket type do you need to ensure that the motherboard has?
A. AM2
B. AM3
C. AM4
D. LGA 1151
C. AM4
The AMD Ryzen 3, Ryzen 5, and Ryzen 7 CPUs use Socket AM4. AM2 and AM3 are used for older processors, such as the Phenom II, Athlon II, Sempron, and Opteron. Any socket that starts with LGA in its socket name is for Intel processors.
You are choosing an optical drive format for a client. Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25 GB?
A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R
B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc
C. Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R
D. Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R
B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc
Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25 GB. A double-sided, single layer DVD can store about 9.4 GB, and a double-sided, double-layer DVD can store about 171 GB.
Which of the following have been common methods to backlight an LCD monitor? (Choose two.)
A. RGB OLEDs
B. LEDs
C. Incandescent bulbs
D. Halogen bulbs
E. Fluorescent bulbs
B. LEDs
&
E. Fluorescent bulbs
Early LCD monitors featured one or more fluorescent bulbs that were used to produce light that shone through the LCD panel. Modern LCD monitors have LED panels to generate the light, the advantage being that there is now a separate LED for each picture element instead of a common light source for the entire monitor. OLEDs do provide light, but RGB OLEDs are not used. Incandescent and halogen bulbs are not used for backlighting.
Robin has been asked to lead training for new technicians at a local PC distributor specializing in gaming PCs. For which one of the following should she not recommend upgraded parts?
A. High-end cooling
B. A RAID array
C. High-end video
D. Better sound card
B. A RAID array
Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.
Which laser printer component permanently presses the toner into the paper?
A. Transfer corona
B. Fuser assembly
C. Printer controller circuitry
D. Paper transport assembly
B. Fuser assembly
The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts signals from the PC into signals for the various printer assemblies. The paper transport assembly controls the movement of the paper through the printer.
You are installing a new computer, and the user wants to use virtualization. Which two hardware components need to support virtual technology for this to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. Motherboard
C. CPU
D. BIOS
C. CPU
&
D. BIOS
For virtualization to work, both the CPU and BIOS need to support it. The operating system does as well. Virtualization support may need to be manually enabled in the BIOS. RAM does not need to support virtualization, and neither does the motherboard (except for the BIOS).
You need to install a new hard drive into a desktop computer, Which of the following is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system?
A. Drive interface
B. Disk controller
C. Hard disk
D. Host adapter
A. Drive interface
A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.
A user with an iPhone 7 needs to charge her device and asks you to bring a cable. Which of the following connector types should you ensure that the cable has?
A. Thunderbolt
B. Lightning
C. USB-C
D. Micro-USB
B. Lightning
Starting with the iPhone 5, Apple products use the proprietary Lightning connector for charging and connecting peripherals. Thunderbolt connectors are on MacBooks for peripherals. iPhones do not have built-in USB connectors.
Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC?
A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed
B. A computer running Windows IoT
C. A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims
D. A computer to replace a Blu-ray player and DVR
A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed
The Windows 10 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2 TB or 3 TB drive. Windows IoT typically runs on a thin client. A type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC would be used to create automotive wheel rims. A NAS is an ideal choice to take the place of both the Blu-ray player and DVR.
Which type of printers can be used with multipart forms?
A. Inkjet printers
B. Laser printers
C. Thermal printers
D. Dot-matrix printers
D. Dot-matrix printers
Dot-matrix printers are impact printers and therefore can be used with multipart forms. Daisy-wheel printers can be used with multipart forms as well.
You have just replaced a processor in a computer and now need to add a cooling mechanism. What should you use to attach the cooling system to the processor?
A. Heat sink
B. Thermal paste
C. Fan
D. Superglue
B. Thermal paste
Thermal paste is used to attach heat sinks and fans to processors. A heat sink usually gets attached to the processor using thermal paste, and then the fan is attached to the heat sink. Superglue would make it adhere, but it does not transfer heat properly—it would likely melt and cause a mess.
You are installing a new power supply in a desktop computer. Which of the following statements about power supplies is true?
A. You must make sure that the voltage selector switch on the back of the power supply is switched to the lower setting if the computer is going to be used in Europe.
B. SATA hard drives most often use the same type of power connector that PATA hard drives use.
C. Power supplies supply power to ATX-based motherboards with connectors known commonly as P8 and P9.
D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output.
D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output.
PC power supplies accept alternating current (AC) as input and produce direct current (DC) for the internal components. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. Legacy AT-based motherboards called for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.
Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in?
A. Thunderbolt
B. HDMI
C. DVI
D. VGA
A. Thunderbolt
Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA’s DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect. HDMI, DVI, and VGA are not equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in.
Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements?
A. CAD/CAM design workstation
B. Network-attached storage device
C. A/V editing workstation
D. Gaming PC
B. Network-attached storage device
CAD/CAM design workstations, A/V editing workstations, and gaming PCs can all benefit from video enhancements. A NAS does not benefit from enhanced video and might not use a monitor at all.
Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?
A. +600VDC
B. –600VDC
C. +6000VDC
D. –6000VDC
A. +600VDC
Because the toner on the drum has a slight negative charge (–100VDC), it requires a positive charge to transfer it to the paper; + 600VDC is the voltage used in an EP process laser printer.
You are training new technicians to install RAM and pointing out differences between packages. Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose two.)
A. 180
B. 184
C. 200
D. 204
E. 232
F. 240
B. 184
&
F. 240
DIMMs used in desktop motherboard applications have one of four possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM is implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying, and DDR4 DIMMs have 288 pins. Older dual-channel DIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.
You are choosing a flash standard for a client. They want the smallest flash cards possible. Which standard should you recommend?
A. SD
B. CompactFlash
C. microSD
D. miniSD
E. xD
C. microSD
The smallest of the options is microSD, at 15 mm × 11 mm. Perhaps “micro” gives it away, but that also makes it easy to remember. SD cards are 32 mm × 24 mm. CompactFlash cards are the largest, at 36 mm × 43 mm. MiniSD cards measure at 21.5 mm × 20 mm, and xD cards are 20 mm × 25 mm.
What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called?
A. Default resolution
B. Refresh rate
C. Burned-in resolution
D. Native resolution
E. Aspect ratio
D. Native resolution
An LCD’s native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity. There is no default or burned-in resolution. The refresh rate is how quickly the image is re-drawn on the screen, and the aspect ratio is the ratio of the resolution.
Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client?
A. Has enhanced video capabilities
B. Has a high-performance hard drive
C. Has as much RAM installed as possible
D. Can run a full version of Windows
D. Can run a full version of Windows
These standard systems do not have any special requirements, only that they can run Windows and desktop applications. Thick clients do not need enhanced video, hard drives, or RAM.
What is typically included in the EP laser printer toner cartridge? (Choose three.)
A. Toner
B. Print drum
C. Laser
D. Cleaning blade
A. Toner
B. Print drum
D. Cleaning blade
An electrophotographic (EP) laser printer toner cartridge includes the toner, print drum, and cleaning blade. The laser is usually contained within the printer, not within the toner cartridge.
Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power?
A. Start ➢ Restart
B. Start ➢ Hibernate
C. Reset button
D. Power button
C. Reset button
The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.
What are the output voltages that have been commonly produced by PC power supplies over the years? (Choose five.)
A. +3.3VDC
B. –3.3VDC
C. +5VDC
D. –5VDC
E. +12VDC
F. –12VDC
G. +110VDC
H. –110VDC
A. +3.3VDC
C. +5VDC
D. –5VDC
E. +12VDC
F. –12VDC
A PC’s power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, –5VDC, +12VDC, and –12VDC from a 110VAC input.
Which of the following connector types are capable of conducting power and transmitting data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Lightning
B. Molex
C. USB-C
D. DB-9
E. micro-USB
A. Lightning
C. USB-C
E. micro-USB
USB cables and eSATA cables can transmit power and data. You will find Lightning, USB-C, and micro-USB connectors on the ends of USB cables. A Molex connector is power-only. A DB-9 is for serial cables and is data-only.
Maria is setting up a gaming PC and wants to know which type of video cables to purchase. Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for a gaming PC?
A. DVI
B. VGA
C. HDMI
D. YCbCr
C. HDMI
Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output, as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the video output technology of choice. VGA, DVI, and component video (YCbCr and YPbPr) can’t make the same claim.
Which of the following most accurately describes how to obtain a firmware upgrade for your laser printer?
A. Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website.
B. Pay to download the firmware upgrade from the manufacturer’s website.
C. Have a certified laser printer technician come to your site and install a new firmware chip.
D. Contact the manufacturer of the printer, and they will send you the firmware upgrade on a DVD.
A. Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website.
Firmware upgrades for laser printers are downloaded for free from the manufacturer’s website. A technician does not need to install a new chip, because firmware is upgraded via software. It’s unlikely that the manufacturer will send you the upgrade on a DVD; it will refer you to its website to download it.