Nervous System + Psychology Flashcards
1
Q
Structural pathology of Wernike Encephalopathy?
A
Mamillary body necrosis
2
Q
Temporal lobe encephalitis is caused by what kind of infection?
A
Herpes virus infection
3
Q
Rapidly progressive dementia + myoclonic jerks =
A
Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
4
Q
4 tumors that form psamomma bodies
A
-Meningioma -Papillary thyroid carcinoma -Mesothelioma -Papillary serous carcinoma of the ovary or endothelium
5
Q
Slow growing + Well circumscribed + Intracranial mass + Whorled pattern of cellular growth + Psamomma bodies =
A
Meningioma
6
Q
S-100 positive tumors (2) What does it indicate?
A
-Schwannoma -Melanoma Indicates that it is of neural crest cell origin
7
Q
Elongated cells + Regular oval nuclei + Biphasic growth pattern + S-100 positive =
A
Schwannoma
8
Q
Relapsing and remitting ocular problems and tingling + worse after heat =
A
Multiple Sclerosis
- Ocular problems = optic neuritis, internuclear opthalmoplegia
- Sensory defects
9
Q
Complication of a subarachnoid hemorrhage =
How does it present =
A
Arterial vasospasm
Presents as new onset confusion or focal neurological deficit. Not seen on CT.
10
Q
Drug to prevent subarachnoid hemorrhage complication and its mechanism.
A
Nimodipine - selective Ca channel blocker
11
Q
Cystic cavities in the brain are lined by =
A
astrocytes
12
Q
Diagnosis of tetanus is made via
A
History and Physical only
13
Q
Ascending (flaccid) paralysis after a febrile illness is what disease?
A
Guillain-Barre disease
14
Q
Guillain-Barre disease microscopic pathology
A
Endoneurial inflammatory infiltrate of macrocytes and lymphocytes
15
Q
Hemangioma in the retina and/or cerebellum + Congenital cysts/neoplasms in the kidney, liver or pancreas =
A
Von Hippel Lindau
16
Q
Cystic tumor in the cerebellum of a child =
A
Pilocytic astrocytoma
17
Q
Which kind of aneurysm rupture results in -> deep intraparenchymal hemorrhage + focal/acute neurological deficits + hypertension?
A
Carcot-Bouchard aneurysm
18
Q
Rupture of _ results in a subdural (crescent shaped) hematoma + gradual onset of symptoms
A
cortical bridging veins
19
Q
Wernike Syndrome triad = Reversible with _ treatment
A
Ocular dysfunction Ataxia Confusion Reversible with Thiamine treatment
20
Q
Korsakoff Syndrome symptoms (2) =
A
Confabulation
Permanent memory loss
21
Q
Young child + Precocious puberty + Perinaud syndrome + Obstructive hydrocephalus =
A
Pineal germinoma
22
Q
Perinaud Syndrome definition
A
paralysis of upward gaze
23
Q
Transtentorial (uncal) herniation symptoms (3)
A
- Ipsilateral CN III damage => oculomotor nerve palsy + fixed/dilated pupil
- Contralateral LCST damage/Ispislateral cerebral peduncle damage
- Ipsilateral PCA damage => occipital cortex damage
24
Q
What is the term for: monocular vision loss + pain on eye movement + afferent pupillary defect?
A
Optic neuritis
25
First area damaged by global cerebral ischemia
Pyramidal cells of the hippocampus
26
Cerebellar ataxia + Loss of position/vibration + Kyphoscoliosis + Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy =
Freidrich's ataxia
27
Definition - xanthochromia
blood in the CSF
28
Definition - lissencephaly
Congenial absence of gyri on the brain. Clinically associated with severe mental retardation.
29
Definition - Hydrocephalus ex vacuo
Ventricular enlargement due to brain atrophy. Not accompanied by an increase in CSF pressure.
30
Etiology of Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration?
Autoimmune
31
Most common CNS tumor in immunocompromised patients
Primary CNS lymphoma associated with EBV infection
32
Definition - Argyll Robertson pupils
small, irregularly shaped pupils that DO NOT react to light but DO constrict with accomodation
33
Vitamin E deficiency closely resembles what neurological disease?
Freidrich's ataxia
34
Childhood cerebellar tumors (2)
-Medulloblastoma -Pilocytic Astrocytoma
35
Muscles most often affected in myasthenia gravis?
Extraocular muscles -\> ptosis, diplopia
36
Nerve controlling hiccups?
Phrenic nerve
37
Where does the phrenic nerve arise and innervate?
Arises from C3-C5 Innervates the diaphragm ipsilaterally
38
Symptoms of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) (3)
"Wacky, Wobbly, Wet" -dementia -ataxic gait -urinary incontinence
39
Term for abnormally slow relaxation of muscles
myotonia
40
Alzheimer's disease: Where in the brain has markedly reduced acetylcholine levels? (2)
-Nucleus basalis of Meynert -Hippocampus
41
Acyclovir is used to treat what type of infections?
viral infections
42
Osmotic demyelination occurs in what brain structure?
central pons "Central Pontine Myelinolysis"
43
Opsoclonus-Myoclonus syndrome is associated with what tumor?
Neuroblastoma
44
How to get decerebate (extensor) posturing?
Lesion to the brainstem at/below the level of the red nucleus (rostral midbrain)
45
How to get decorticate (flexor) posturing?
Lesion to the brainstem above the level of the red nucleus (rostral midbrain) ex: cerebral hemisphere
46
"Endoneurial inflammatory infiltration" refers to what disease?
Guillain-Barre
47
"Endoneurial arteriolar hylanization" refers to what disease?
Diabetic microangiopathy of endoneurial arterioles. Leads to nerve ischemia and peripheral neuropathy.
48
Most common CN affected by diabetic mononeuropathy = Symptoms (3) =
CN III -\> acute onset diplopia + down and out position of the eye + ptosis
49
Pathology of Diabetic Mononeuropathy of CN III
Ischemic nerve damage to the core of the nerve, therefore affecting only the somatic fibers, not the autonomic/parasympathetic fibers. Pupillary reflex stays intact.
50
Viruses that invade the dorsal root ganglia and their locations (3)
HSV 1 - above the waist HSV 2 - below the waist, genital region VZV - thoracic or trigeminal dermatomes
51
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome =
N. meningitidis infection leading to DIC, septic shock and hemorrhagic destruction of the adrenal glands
52
Patients with Neisseria infections have what kind of immune impairment?
C5-C9 deficiency which leads to an inability to form the MAC
53
Definition - Synaptophysin
Protein found in the synaptic vesicles of neurons, neuroendocrine cells and neuroectodermal cells. CNS tumors of neuronal origin are synaptophysin positive.
54
2 main causes of ring-enhancing lesions in HIV patients
- Toxoplasma gondii - multiple lesions
- Primary Central Nervous System Lymphoma (PCNSL) - solitary, due to EBV
55
Congenital toxoplasmosis symptom triad =
-Hydrocephalus -Intracranial calcifications -Chorioretinitis
56
1 year old full term infant brought into ED with a large and full anterior fontanelle and bilateral retinal hemorrhages. Mom says baby rolled off bed. What is the diagnosis?
Abusive head trauma.
57
Name the muscles in the ear and their innervation (2)
-Stapedius muscle - CN VII -Tensor tympani muscle - CN V
58
Sciatic nerve spinal roots
L4-S3
59
Role of axillary nerve (3)
-Motor to deltoid muscle -Motor to teres minor muscle -Sensory to skin over lateral shoulder
60
Lesion to what nerve(s) cause = contralateral spasticity + hyperreflexia + paresis?
UMN lesion
61
What nerve is at risk during an appendectomy? What does that nerve innervate?
Illiohypogastric nerve. It innervates -motor to anterolateral abdominal muscles -anterior branch - sensory to the skin above the pubic region -lateral branch - sensory to the skin of the gluteal region
62
Injury to the R temporal lobe results in what kind of visual defect?
Injury to Meyer's loop that carries the lower retinal fibers that contain information from the upper visual field. Contralateral superior quadrantanopia = "pie in the sky defect"
63
What are the changes seen in the "axonal reaction" (4)
-Cell swelling -Nucleus moves into periphery -Nissl substance displaced throughout cell -Increased protein synthesis
64
What is a "Marcus Gunn pupil"?
-Caused by optic nerve damage or retinal injury -When light is shone into the affected eye, there is decreased bilateral light reflex (decreased pupillary constriction) -Tested with "swinging flashlight test"
65
3 D's of Botulinum Toxin ingestion?
-Diplopia -Dysphagia -Dystonia
66
Innervations of CN V =
V1 = opthalmic branch -\> eye sensation V2 = maxillary -\> muscles of mastication V3 = mandibular -\> anterior 2/3 tongue sensation
67
What nerve is responsible for foot drop + steppage gate?
Common peroneal nerve Spinal roots L4-S2
68
What is the motor function of the obturator nerve?
Adduction of the thigh Spinal roots L2-L4
69
When preforming an interscalene nerve block to anesthetize the brachial plexus, what other nerve is involved?
The phrenic nerve also passes through the interscalene sheath
70
What two thing are measured to detect a neural tube defect?
- Alpha-fetoprotein = in the amniotic fluid and maternal serum
- Acetylcholinesterase = in the amniotic fluid
71
Vocal cords are controlled by what nerve?
CN X - Vagus nerve, Recurrent laryngeal nerve branch
72
Main antigenic component of N. meningitidis?
Pili/fimbrae
73
Most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhages in the elderly?
Amyloid angiopathy - caused by A-beta amyloid deposition in the walls of vessels.
74
Common brain locations of amyloid angiopathy hemorrhages (2)
-Occipital lobe -\> homonymous hemianopsia -Parietal lobe -\> contralateral hemisensory loss
75
Nerve most commonly affected by ill-fitting crutches ("crutch palsy")
Radial nerve Spinal roots C5-T1
76
Rathke's pouch is derived from?
Ectoderm -\> surface ectoderm
77
Posterior pituitary is derived from?
Ectoderm -\> neural tube
78
What is the "length constant/space constant" of a nerve?
A measure of how far along an axon an electrical signal can propagate. Smaller constant = Less propagation distance
79
What is the "time constant" of a nerve?
A measure of the time it takes to change the membrane potential. Smaller constant = Faster membrane potential change time
80
Location of a femoral nerve block?
Inguinal crease
81
Patients with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk for what neurological disease?
Early onset Alzheimer's disease
82
Area Postrema - location and function
Location = dorsal surface of the medulla at the caudal end of the 4th ventricle Function = samples chemicals in the blood, chemoreceptor trigger zone, controls vomiting
83
Treatment for essential tremor =
Propranolol
84
What is the main distinguishing feature of Atypical depression compared to Major depression?
Mood reactivity - a positive event WILL improve mood of someone with atypical depression
85
Pellagra - cause and symptoms
Cause = Niacin deficiency Symptoms = dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea
86
Class of drug prescribed for insomnia without depressive symptoms =
Benzodiazepines
87
Definition of pica
Compulsive consumption of a non-food or non-staple food source for \>1 month. Seen in pregnancy and school children. May be associated with a nutritional deficiency. Substances consumed: -earth/soil -raw starch (flour, cornstarch) -ice
88
Which antidepressant has the side effect of painful erections for \>4 hours?
Trazodone "trazo-bone"
89
First line treatment for Bulimia nervosa?
Fluoxetine (SSRI)
90
First line treatment for PTSD?
SSRI
91
First line treatment for OCD?
SSRI
92
a=optic chiasm (CN II)
b=oculomotor nerve (CN III)
c=trochlear nerve (CN IV)
d=abducens nerve (CN VI)
e=opthalmic nerve (CN V1)
f=maxillary nerve (CN V2)
g=anterior cerebral artery
f=internal carotid artery
93
35 year old male, increasingly depressed, grimaces intermittently, rigid jerking and purposeless movements of the fingers, increasingly impulsive
Huntington's disease
94
Constipation that is not reversible with over the counter laxatives. Malfunction of which nerve =
Pelvic splanchnic nerve innervates the anal sphincter
S2,S3, S4
“Pelvic splanchnic 2-4 keeps the shit above the floor”
95
Sudden onset R arm weakness + difficulty speaking + no other symptoms + completely resolved in 20 minutes
TIA
96
tremor that is alleviated by intentional movement is seen in what disease
Parkinson disease
97
slow, zig zag tremor when pointing/extending towards a target.
problem is located where?
Intenion tremor.
Cerebellar dysfunction.
98
Sleep terrors occur during _ sleep.
Nightmares occur during _ sleep.
Sleep terrors - slow wave sleep (non-REM therefore no recollection)
Nightmares - REM sleep
99
Somatic symptom disorder - unconscious or conscious?
Unconscious
100
Conversion disorder (Functional neurological symptom disorder) - unconscious or conscious?
Unconscious - patient seems indifferent to the symptoms but the symptoms are debilitating
101
Malingering - unconscious or conscious?
Conscious - looking for secondary gains
102
Munchausen syndrome or Munchausen syndrome by proxy - unconscious or conscious?
Conscious - looking for primary gain of attention
Facticious disorders
103
Person who is preoccupied with needing things a certain way, needs to control everything around them and that is "just the way they are"
Obsessive compulsive PERSONALITY
Ego-syntonic
104
Person with compulsions that they know are not reasonable btu they cannot help but do them (inconsistent with their own beliefs)
Obsessive Compulsive DISORDER
Ego-dystonic
105
Dysthymic disorder
Mild depression (at least 2 SIG E CAPS symptoms)
Lasts at least 2 years
106
Symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder
SIG E CAPS - need at least 5 for at least 2 weeks
Sleep disturbance
loss of Interest (anhedonia)
Guilt/feelings of worthlessness
Energy loss/fatigue
Concentration problems
Appetite/weight changes (loss)
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Suicidal ideation
Patient must also report depressed mood
107
Cyclothymic disorder
Milder bipolar disorder
Fluctuates beween minor depression and hypomania
Lasts at least 2 years
108
Bipolar II
Hypomania + Depression
109
Bipolar I
At least 1 manic episode with or without hypomania or depression
Note: depressive symptoms do not have to be present for the dx to be made
110
Hypomania symptoms
Same as mania (DIG FAST) except the mood symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment
No psychotic features
Lasts 4 consecutive dasy
111
Mania symptoms
DIG FAST - need at least 3 and needs to markedly impair functioning
Distractibility
Irresponsibility (hedonism)
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
increased in goal-directed Activities/Agitation
decreased need for Sleep
Talkativeness/pressured speech
112
Hallucinations or delusions without a major mood episode + periods of concurrent mood episode with schizophrenic symptoms lasting for \> 2 weeks
Schizoaffective disorder
There are no periods of time when there is just the mood disorder. There must be times when there are just schizophrenic symptoms though.
113
* Flat affect
* Social withdrawal
* Lack of motivation
* Lack of speech or thought
Negative symptoms of Schizophrenia
Treated with second generation anti-psychotics
114
* Delusions
* Hallucinations (auditory)
* Disorganized speech
* Disorganized/Catatonic behavior
Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia
Treated with both first and second generation anti-psychotics
115
Dementia ECG - normal or abnormal?
Normal
116
Waxing and waning consciousness + acute onset + abnormal ECG =
delerium
117
Dissociative amnesia =
Unable to recall important personal ifnormation subsequent to a severe trauma or stress
118
Girl who at age 3 begins to developmentally regress and loses verbal skills. Begins to have ataxia and wrings her hands constantly.
Rett Syndrome
-X linked dominant- males die in utero
119
Withdrawal symptoms - hypersomnolent, hyperphagic, withdrawn, psychomotor retardation, vivid dreams =
Cocaine
120
Timeline for:
- Breif psychotic disorder
- Schizophreniform disorder
- Schizophrenia
- Breif psychotic disorder = \<1 month
- Schizophreniform disorder = 1-6 months
- Schizophrenia = \>6 months
121
Medulla - nuclei of CN IX, X, XII
122
Pons - nuclei of V, VI, VII, VIII
123
Midbrain
124
Midbrain
125
The presence of what proteins increases the risk for early onset Alzheimer's?
* APP (amyloid precursor protein, chr 21)
* Presenilin-1
* Presenilin-2
126
An increased amount of ApoE2 increases/decreases the risk for Alzheimer's?
Decreases risk
127
An increased amount of ApoE4 increases/decreases the risk for Alzheimer's?
Increases the risk
128
“Bright red fovea centralis that is surrounded by a contrasting white macula”
Cherry red macula spot
Seen in: Tay Sachs (no abdominal findings), Niemann Pick (hepatosplenomegaly)
129
Mechanism of phenytoin gingival hyperplasia =
Increased PDGF -\> increases proliferation of gingival cells and alveolar bone
130
N. meningitidis endotoxin =
Outer membrane lipooligosaccharide (LOS)
Blood levels of LOS correlate with mortality
131
Oligoclonal bands of IgG seen on CSF fluid indicates a dx of
Multiple Sclerosis
132
Initial resistance to passive extension followed by a sudden release of resistance =
“Clasp knife spasticity” - seen in an UMN lesion
133
Prion transformation: _ structure to _ structure
Alpha helical
Beta pleated sheet
134
Viral esophagitis + Pneumocystis pneumonia is diagnostic for
HIV!
Esophagitis = CMV
Pneumonia = PJP
Patient is likely at risk for other immunocompromised/AIDs defining illnesses
135
Demyelination of posterior columns + LCST =
Subacute combined degeneration - vitamin B12 deficiency
“Combined” = degeneration of ascending AND descending tracts
136
Bilateral wedge shaped strips of necrosis over the cerebral convexity, parallel and adjacent to the longitudinal cerebral fissure
Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (Global cerebral ischemia)
Results in watershed infarcts
137
Surgical deep brain stimulation of chronic Parkinson’s patients targets what 2 structures. Mechanism?
Structures: STN or GPi
Stimulation inhibits the nuclei therefore putting the circuitry onto the "yes movement" circuit by disinhibiting the thalamus
138
What nerve is vulnerable to injury in the posterior triangle of the neck?
CN XI -\> damage causes weakness of the trapezius = impaired abduction of the arm above horizontal, drooping shoulder, winged scapula
139
Viral meningitis causes (3)
* Enteroviruses (Polio, Coxsackie, Echo)
* Arboviruses (Cali encephalitis, Hanta, Rift valley)
* HSV-2
140
Bony spicule shaped deposits on retina +vision loss beginning with night blindness =
Retinitis pigmentosa
141
Fundoscopy: crinkling of retina + changes in vessel direction. Loss of vision like a curtain being drawn down.
Retinal detachment
142
Grayish-green subretinal membrane and subretinal hemorrhages in a 67 yo smoker who is having vision problems
Wet, age related macular degeneration
Treatment = VEGF inhibitors
143
HTN + intracerebral bleed
Hypertensive vasculopathy -\> lenticulostriate arteries - charcot bouchard aneurysm -\> rupture -\> inhibits basal ganglia -\> contralateral hemiparesis + hemisensory loss + headache + nausea (symptoms are gradual)
144
Lesion in the ventromedial nucleus in the hypothalamus
Lesion = always hungry -\> hyperphagia, obesity
Ventromedial nucleus = satiety center
Stimulated by leptin
145
Lesion in the lateral hypothalamus nucleus
Lesion = never hungry -\> anorexia
Lateral nucleus = hunger center
Inhibited by leptin
146
3 brain tumors that are GFAP+
* Astrocytomas (adults and kids)
* Oligodendrogliomas (adults)
* Ependymomas (kids)
147
Acute onset worst headache of my life =
Subarachnoid hemorrhage from a berry aneurysm
148
Microglial nodules in the brain + multinucleated giant cells + dementia =
HIV associated dementia
149
Alpha-synuclein =
Parkinson's disease/Lewy body dementia
150
Round circular tau proteins =
Frontotemporal dementia
151
Tangles of tau protein =
Alzheimer's disease
152
Amyloid in the brain + Dementia
Alzheimer's Disease
153
R sided frontal lobe lesions
Disinhibited behavior
154
L sided frontal lobe lesions
Apathy and depression
155
Round pearly mass behind tympanic membrane + conductive hearing loss in that ear + intermittent ear discharge
Cholesteatoma
- Squamous cell debris
- Congenital or acquired
- May erode middle ear structure
156
On ophthalmoscopic exam: arteriovenous nicking, flame shaped hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots
HTN retinal hemorrhages
157
What happens to the ciliary muscles and zonular fibers and the lens during accommodation?
Ciliary muscles contract -\> zonular fibers relax -\> lens thickens -\> able to focus on near images
158
Conductive Rinne and Weber test?
Rinne: bone \> air on affected side
Weber: lateralizes to affected side
159
Sensorineural Rinne and Weber test?
Rinne: air \> bone (normal)
Weber: lateralizes to unaffected side
160
What CN? Motor of submandibular and sublingual gland?
CN VII
161
What CN? Sensation of tonsillar region, Sensation of inner surface of tympanic membrane, Motor of parotid gland?
CN IX
162
Noise exposure induced hearing loss is caused by damage to
Damage to hair cells in the organ of corti
Loss of high frequency hearing first
163
Lacunar infarcts in the deep brain are caused by
Hypertensive arteriolosclerosis
Immediate CT imaging does not show the infarct because it is so small
A few weeks later, the necrotic tissue becomes a cystic space and can now be seen
164
Anterior communicating aneurysm symptoms (3)
Berry aneurysm
- bitemporal hemianopsia (compression of optic chiasm)
- visual acuity problems (compresion of optic nerves in optic chiasm)
- rupture (thunderclap headache) -\> contralateral lower extremity hemiparesis and sensory deficits
165
Posterior communicating aneurysm symptoms (3)
Berry aneurysm
ipsilateral CN III palsy
- mydriasis
- ptosis
- down & out eye
166
Middle cerebral artery aneurysm
Berry aneurysm
MCA ischemia = contralateral upper extremity and facial hemiparesis, sensory deficits
167
Acute stress disorder diagnosis timeline
Greater than 3 days but less than 1 month
acute stress disorder -\> PTSD
168
PTSD diagnosis timeline
Greater than one month
acute stress disorder -\> PTSD
169
A drop in PaCO2 does what to cerebral vasculature?
Vasoconstricts cerebral vasculature -\> reducing cerebral blood flow -\> reducing intracerebral pressure
170
Afferent limb of the light reflex
optic nerve, optic tract (-\> pretectal nucleus in midbrain)
-damage to the retina, optic nerve or optic tract will inhibit the light reflex
171
Efferent limb of the light reflex
parasympathetic fibers of the occulomotor nerve (CN III)
