Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MOD Midterm > Neoplasia > Flashcards

Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

A clonal process initiated by a genetic mutation conferring growth advantage on the cells involved
Can be benign or malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can benign tumors cause harm?

A

SC compression, airway compression, hemorrhage, hormone secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are hematopoietic malignancies?

A

Leukemias and lymphomas are malignant

Do not stay localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the stroma of breast carcinoma cells

A

Fibrous and contributes to the hard scirrhous nature of the tumor mass (helps with identification of the mass during palpation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The cellular clone that encompasses the tumor cellularity is the primary population responsible for what?

A

Invasion, spread and metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Induction of changes in surrounded stroma by the tumor can result in what?

A

Formation of a friendly microenvironment that cancer growth may depend on
Characteristic texture of the cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

Malignant tumor derived from epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

Malignant tumor derived from mesenchyme(ex. Bone, muscle, fibrous tissue, cartilage, fat, BVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

From totipotent stem cells
Has epithelial elements stemming from ectoderm as well as mesenchymal elements
Defined on the basis of more than one germ cell layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are hamartomas?

A

An overgrowth of mature tissues that normally occur in an area of the body but with disorganization and often with one element predominating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are choristomas?

A

A mass of tissue histological ply normal for a part of the body other than the one in which it is located (heterotopic/ectopic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

One cell type is replaced with another typically as a stress responses
This new cell type is prone to acquisition of genetic damage leading to dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Disordered growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is carcinoma in situ?

A

Full thickness, severe dysplasia
Can be proliferative, pleomorphic and expansive
Has to have a basement membrane otherwise it is just an invasive carcinoma
Can be larger than the invasive component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the morphologic changes that lead to cancer?

A

Metaplasia —> dysplasia —> carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is differentiation?

A

How much does the neoplasm resemble the cells of origin?
A lot = well differentiated
Not at all = poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a malignant tumor of gastric epithelium?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What morphologic feature (microscopically viewable) can reflect the tumors rate of growth?

A

Mitotic features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the telltale morphologies of poorly differentiated malignancy?

A 
Anaplasia (lack of differentiation) 
Pleomorphism (variability of cell size/shape) 
Abnormal nuclear morphology 
Increased or abnormal mitosis 
Loss of polarity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stains showing a feature in malignant cells like mucin-production reflect a degree of what?

A

Glandular differentiation —> adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Immunostains showing the tumor cells express Ags or other cellular components of the cell of origin may also reflect what?

A

Higher levels of differentiation

Ex. Thyroid carcinoma showing positive staining of thyroglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endocrine tumors are often associated with what?

A

Hormone secretion

Often very well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In acute leukemias the cancerous cells have halted maturation at what stage?

A

Blast stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In chronic leukemias the cancer cells consist of what type of cells?

A

Mature blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are smooth muscle tumors?
Leimyomata (well circumscribed uterine tumor) | Leiomyosarcoma (poorly circumscribed, necrotic, hemorrhagic uterine tumor)
26
What are the types of metastasis?
Lymphatic spread, hematogenous spread, direct seeding
27
What is metastasis via lymphatic spread?
Gain entry to lymphatic vessels MC route of spread for carcinomas Depends on regional drainage
28
What is metastasis via hematogenous spread?
Gain entry to arterial/venous vessels Classic for sarcoma but may be seen in carcinomas Lung, liver, and bone are primary targets
29
What is metastasis is via direct seeding?
Gain entry to a free compartment/body cavity (like the peritoneal space) Also known as trans-coelomic spread
30
Describe a sentinel LN biopsy
At the time of surgery tracer dye is injected into the tumor The first LN to take up this dye is known as the sentinel LN These LNs are preferentially removed This isolates the most likely site of metastasis for emulation and prevents more extensive lymphadenectomy
31
What is Virchow node?
Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (classically left sided) Often associated with carcinoma especially in older adults Any thoracic or abd carcinoma may be responsible
32
What is TNM staging?
T: tumor size, extent of invasion N: degree and manner of nodal Mets M: presence/absence of distant Mets
33
What are the features of malignancy?
Tumor differentiation (morphology, staining qualities, hormone secretion, serum markers) Rate of growth (mitotic figures) Local invasion (TNM staging) Metastasis
34
What types of cancers does asbestos cause?
Lung, esophageal, gastric, and colon carcinoma | Mesothelioma
35
What is the typical use of asbestos?
Formerly used for many applications bc of fire, heat and friction resistance Still found in existing construction as well as fire resistant textiles, friction materials (i.e. brake linings), underlayment and roofing papers, and floor tiles
36
What type of cancer can benzene cause?
Acute myeloid leukemia
37
What is the typical use for benzene?
Component of light oil Many applications exist in printing and lithography, pain, rubber, dry cleaning, adhesives and coatings and detergents Formerly widely used as solvent and fumigant
38
What type of cancer is caused by radon and its decay products?
Lung carcinoma
39
What is the typical use for radon?
From decay of minerals containing Uranium | Potentially serious hazard in quarries and underground mines
40
What type of cancer is caused by vinyl Cl?
Hepatic angiosarcoma | *boards*
41
What is the typical use for vinyl chloride?
Refrigerant Monomer for vinyl polymers Adhesive for plastics Formerly inert aerosol propellant in pressurized containers
42
Cancer risk increases with what?
Age - Increasing changes for sporadic mutations - Waning immunity
43
What sets many childhood cancers apart from adult cancers?
Germline mutations
44
What are acquired predisposing conditions for cancer?
Chronic inflammation Precursor lesions Immunodeficiency
45
Why does screening work?
IDs cancer early and before they are cancers
46
What is the colon adenoma to carcinoma sequence?
Occurs with colon polyps
47
Benign neoplasms are not typically the precursor to what?
Their malignant counterparts
48
What are paraneoplastic syndromes?
Some cancer bearing individuals develop signs and sx that cannot readily be explained by the anatomic distribution of the tumor or by the elaboration of hormones indigenous to the tissue from which the tumor arose
49
Wha are two lung cancers with typical paraneoplastic syndromes?
Squamous carcinoma | Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma
50
Describe the paraneoplastic syndrome that occurs with squamous cell carcinoma?
Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy Elaboration of PTHrP Works on PTH receptors to give pts hypercalcemia
51
Describe the paraneoplastic syndrome that occurs with small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma?
Cushing syndrome | Hypercortisolism due to excessive ACTH secretion by tumor cells
52
What is Trousseau syndrome?
Paraneoplastic thrombophilia classically associated with pancreatic carcinoma (Look for this type of cancer when pt as thrombus that cannot be explained)
53
Describe acute promyelocytic leukemia
The leukemic cells express tissue factor which activates Factor X High levels of annexin II receptors on plasma cells convert plasminogen into plasmin Both TF and Ann II are highly expressed by APL cells
54
Describe disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
An acquired coagulopathy Endothelial injury and anticoagulation dysfunction cause widespread thrombin release Pro inflammatory cytokines activate platelets Lodged thrombin cause ischemic damage As coagulation factors are consumed and endothelial injury continues hemorrhage can develop
55
In which type of cancer is ERBB2 amplification seen?
Breast carcinoma | This can be used in Tx
56
Which genetic aberration is seen in chronic myeloid leukemia?
BCr-ABL PCR
57
Which genetic aberration is also seen in breast cancer?
BRCA1/2 | Germline testing for this aberration can be used for risk assessment and management
58
What type of testing is done for lung carcinoma?
EGFR and ALK testing | Can be used for tx
59
What are the different uses of the Philadelphia chromosome?
Diagnose And Treat (imatinib [gleevec/glivec] tyrosine kinase inhibitor, extremely effective at controlling this cancer clone) Monitor (BCR-ABl PCR)
60
Wha are direct carcinogens?
Carcinogenic right out of the gate | No need for conversion
61
What are indirect carcinogens?
A metabolic process must take place for the substance to become an active carcinogen
62
What is cytochrome p450 responsible for?
Converting most indirect carcinogens into their active forms Highly polymorphic - the potency of the active carcinogen will vary from person to person
63
What are pyrimidine dimers?
Ex. Thymine dimers Form in the presence of UVB rays These dimers distort the DNA which blocks the progress of DNA and RNA polymerase
64
How is removal of pyrimidine dimers primarily accomplished under normal circumstances?
Utilizing NER
65
What is Xeroderma pigmentosum?
Absence of NER Marked freckle hyperpigmentation, atrophy and numerous warty and nodular growths occur Tumors (skin cancers) can develop in most pts before 10 yrs of age
66
What happens if you overwhelm NER especially by excess exposure to UV light?
Sporadic melanomas and other skin cancers
67
Ionizing radiation exposure can cause what?
Downstream carcinogenesis even years after initial exposure
68
What is the human T cell leukemia virus (HTLV1) associated with?
Endemic T cell leukemias/lymphomas
69
What are hepatitis B and C viruses associated with?
Hepatocellular carcinomas
70
What is H pylori associated with?
B cell lymphomas of the stomach
71
Describe human papilloma virus (HPV)
Associated with squamous carcinoma of the cervix, anogenital region and pharynx/larynx High risk serotypes associated with cancer are able to integrate viral sequences into the host chromosomes E6 and E7 are the viral proteins associated with oncogenesis
72
As progressive integration of E6/7 proteins occurs there is inactivation of what?
Tumor suppressor genes and upregulation of oncogenic pathways
73
Describe Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)
Implicated in oncogenesis in B cell lymphomas as well as certain carcinomas First virus associated with cancer when described in associated with endemic Burkitt lymphoma
74
EBV infection results in what?
Immortalization and increased replication of B lymphocytes EBNA 2 upregulates oncogenes LMP induces cell proliferation
75
What mutation occurs in Burkitt lymphoma?
IgH/MYC
76
What is Burkitt lymphoma?
A form of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in which cancer starts in B cells Recognized as a fast growing human tumor and is associated with impaired immunity and rapidly fatal if untreated
77
Which tumor marks would be present in the breast?
CA 15-3
78
Which tumor markers would be present in the liver/bile duct?
CEA, AFP, CA-19
79
Which tumor marker is present in the ovaries?
CA-125
80
Which tumor markers are present in the stomach, pancreas and colorectal system?
CEA, CA 19-9
81
Which tumor markers would be present in the prostate?
PSA
82
Which tumor markers would be present in the testicle?
AFP, BHCG

MOD Midterm (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions