NCLEX - W2 - Infection Prevention

Question 1

A nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected infection. What is the most important action the nurse should take to prevent the spread of infection?
●
a) Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
●
b) Wear a mask when entering the patient’s room.
●
c) Perform hand hygiene frequently.
●
d) Monitor the patient’s temperature regularly.

Answer 1

c) Perform hand hygiene frequently.
●
Rationale:
Hand hygiene is the single most important activity for preventing and controlling infection.

Question 2

Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for developing a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?
●
a) A 20-year-old patient admitted for an appendectomy.
●
b) A 75-year-old patient with diabetes who has a Foley catheter.
●
c) A 35-year-old patient admitted for a tonsillectomy.
●
d) A 50-year-old patient admitted for a cholecystectomy.

Answer 2

b) A 75-year-old patient with diabetes who has a Foley catheter.

Rationale:
Patients with diabetes and those with indwelling catheters are at increased risk for developing HAIs.

Question 3

A nurse is caring for a patient on Contact Precautions for MRSA. What PPE should the nurse wear when entering the patient’s room?
●
a) Gloves only.
●
b) Gloves and gown.
●
c) Mask, gloves, and gown.
●
d) Mask and gloves.

Answer 3

b) Gloves and gown.

Rationale:
Contact Precautions require gloves and gowns to be worn when entering a patient’s room to prevent the spread of infection by direct or indirect contact

Question 4

A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. What is the most important principle of surgical asepsis the nurse should follow?
●
a) Keep the patient warm and comfortable.
●
b) Avoid touching non-sterile surfaces with sterile gloves.
●
c) Administer pain medication before the procedure.
●
d) Explain the procedure to the patient.

Answer 4

b) Avoid touching non-sterile surfaces with sterile gloves.

Rationale: Maintaining sterility is the foundation of surgical asepsis. Any contact with non-sterile surfaces will contaminate the sterile field.

Question 5

What type of isolation precautions should be implemented for a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis?
●
a) Contact Precautions.
●
b) Droplet Precautions.
●
c) Airborne Precautions.
●
d) Standard Precautions.

Answer 5

c) Airborne Precautions.

Rationale:
Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles, requiring the use of Airborne Precautions.

Question 6

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a fever, chills, and a productive cough. What type of laboratory test would be most helpful in identifying the causative organism of the infection?
●
a) Complete Blood Count (CBC)
●
b) Culture and sensitivity of sputum
●
c) Urinalysis
●
d) Electrolyte panel

Answer 6

b) Culture and sensitivity of sputum

Rationale: A sputum culture and sensitivity test will help identify the bacteria causing the infection and which antibiotic it is susceptible to.

Question 7

A nurse is teaching a patient about how to prevent antibiotic-resistant infections. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective?
●
a) “I should take antibiotics for every cold I get.”
●
b) “I can stop taking my antibiotics once I feel better.”
●
c) “I should only take antibiotics that are prescribed for me.”
●
d) “I don’t need to worry about antibiotic resistance, it’s not a big deal.”

Answer 7

c) “I should only take antibiotics that are prescribed for me.”

Rationale: Taking antibiotics only when prescribed and completing the full course is crucial to preventing antibiotic-resistant infections.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of an emerging infectious disease?
●
a) Measles
●
b) Polio
●
c) COVID-19
●
d) Tuberculosis

Answer 8

c) COVID-19

Rationale: COVID-19 is a recently identified infectious disease.

Question 9

What type of immunity is acquired through vaccination?
●
a) Passive immunity.
●
b) Active immunity.
●
c) Innate immunity.
●
d) Herd immunity.

Answer 9

b) Active immunity.

Rationale: Vaccinations introduce a weakened or inactive form of a pathogen, stimulating the body to create antibodies and develop active immunity.

Question 10

What is the role of the Joint Commission in infection prevention and control?
●
a) To conduct research on new infectious diseases.
●
b) To develop and distribute vaccines.
●
c) To establish standards for infection control practices in healthcare facilities.
●
d) To provide education to the public on infection prevention.

Answer 10

c) To establish standards for infection control practices in healthcare facilities.

Rationale: The Joint Commission establishes standards and National Patient Safety Goals that include infection prevention and control measures.

Question 11

A nurse is providing care to a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. difficile). What type of hand hygiene should the nurse use after providing care?
●
a) Alcohol-based hand rub.
●
b) Washing hands with soap and water.
●
c) Using sterile gloves.
●
d) Applying lotion to the hands.

Answer 11

b) Washing hands with soap and water.

Rationale: Spores from C. difficile are not effectively killed by alcohol-based hand rubs, so thorough washing with soap and water is required

Question 12

Which of the following actions by a healthcare worker can contribute to the development of multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs)?
●
a) Performing hand hygiene before and after patient care.
●
b) Prescribing antibiotics for viral infections.
●
c) Isolating patients with known infections.
●
d) Using sterile technique for invasive procedures.

Answer 12

b) Prescribing antibiotics for viral infections.

Rationale: Overuse and misuse of antibiotics contribute to the development of MDROs

Question 13

A nurse is preparing to don sterile gloves using the closed method. In what order should the nurse perform the following steps?
1.
Grasp the inside of the cuff of the glove for your dominant hand.
2.
Pull the glove over your dominant hand.
3.
Grasp the folded cuff of the glove for your non-dominant hand, touching only the inside of the glove.
4.
Pick up the sterile gown by the inside of the neckline.
5.
Pull the glove over your non-dominant hand.
●
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
●
b) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
●
c) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
●
d) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

Answer 13

b) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

Rationale: The closed method of gloving is used when wearing a sterile gown, and the order of steps ensures that the sterile gloves are donned without contaminating the outer surfaces.

Question 14

What is the purpose of a Protective Environment isolation precaution?
●
a) To protect healthcare workers from patients with highly contagious diseases.
●
b) To protect immunocompromised patients from environmental pathogens.
●
c) To prevent the spread of airborne infections.
●
d) To reduce the risk of surgical site infections.

Answer 14

b) To protect immunocompromised patients from environmental pathogens.

Rationale: Protective Environment precautions create a controlled environment for patients with weakened immune systems to minimize their exposure to potential pathogens.

Question 15

A nurse is assessing a patient for signs and symptoms of a localized infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
●
a) Fever and chills.
●
b) Redness, swelling, and pain at the site of infection.
●
c) Hypotension and tachycardia.
●
d) Nausea and vomiting.

Answer 15

b) Redness, swelling, and pain at the site of infection.

Rationale: Localized infections present with classic signs of inflammation at the infected site

Question 16

A nurse is teaching a patient about ways to prevent the spread of infection in the community. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
●
a) “I should always wear a mask when I’m in public.”
●
b) “It’s okay to share personal items, like razors and toothbrushes.”
●
c) “I should cover my mouth and nose when I cough or sneeze.”
●
d) “Hand hygiene is only necessary after using the restroom.”

Answer 16

c) “I should cover my mouth and nose when I cough or sneeze.”

Rationale: Covering coughs and sneezes prevents the spread of respiratory droplets, a common mode of transmission for many infections.

Question 17

Which of the following interventions can help to break the chain of infection at the portal of entry?
●
a) Administering antibiotics as ordered.
●
b) Maintaining intact skin integrity.
●
c) Isolating the infected patient.
●
d) Wearing a mask.

Answer 17

b) Maintaining intact skin integrity.

Rationale: Intact skin acts as a natural barrier against pathogens, breaking the chain of infection at the portal of entry.

Question 18

What is the most common type of HAI?
●
a) Surgical site infections (SSIs)
●
b) Urinary tract infections (UTIs)
●
c) Central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSIs)
●
d) Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)

Answer 18

b) Urinary tract infections (UTIs)

Rationale: UTIs, especially catheter-associated UTIs (CAUTIs), are the most common type of HAI

Question 19

A nurse is caring for a patient who is immunocompromised. What is the rationale for using standard precautions when caring for this patient?
●
a) The patient is known to have a contagious infection.
●
b) The patient is at increased risk for acquiring infections.
●
c) The patient’s blood and body fluids are known to be infectious.
●
d) The patient is receiving chemotherapy.

Answer 19

b) The patient is at increased risk for acquiring infections.

Rationale: Standard precautions are used for all patients to protect both the patient and the healthcare worker, regardless of known infection status. Immunocompromised patients are especially vulnerable to infection.

Question 20

Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates appropriate use of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
●
a) Wearing the same gloves for multiple patients.
●
b) Reusing a gown for the same patient.
●
c) Removing gloves promptly after providing care and performing hand hygiene.
●
d) Wearing a mask outside of the patient’s room.

Answer 20

c) Removing gloves promptly after providing care and performing hand hygiene.

Rationale: Correct use of PPE includes removing gloves after each patient interaction and performing hand hygiene to prevent cross-contamination.

Question 21

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient who was treated for an infection. What education should the nurse provide to the patient to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance?
●
a) “It’s okay to save leftover antibiotics for future use.”
●
b) “You can stop taking the antibiotics when your symptoms improve.”
●
c) “Complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if you feel better.”
●
d) “Share your antibiotics with family members who have similar symptoms.”

Answer 21

c) “Complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if you feel better.”

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics as prescribed is essential to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

Question 22

What is the role of an infection control nurse?
●
a) To provide direct patient care to patients with infections.
●
b) To prescribe antibiotics.
●
c) To monitor infection trends and educate staff on infection prevention practices.
●
d) To clean and disinfect patient rooms.

Answer 22

c) To monitor infection trends and educate staff on infection prevention practices.

Rationale: Infection control nurses play a key role in surveillance, education, and policy development related to infection prevention and control

Question 23

What are the body’s primary defenses against infection?
●
a) Intact skin and mucous membranes.
●
b) Antibodies and white blood cells.
●
c) Fever and inflammation.
●
d) Antibiotics and vaccines.

Answer 23

a) Intact skin and mucous membranes.

Rationale: Intact skin and mucous membranes are the first line of defense, providing a physical barrier against pathogens.

Question 24

A nurse observes a coworker reusing a syringe for multiple patients. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
●
a) Ignore the behavior.
●
b) Report the behavior to the supervisor later.
●
c) Immediately intervene and stop the coworker from reusing the syringe.
●
d) Discuss the behavior with the coworker privately after the procedure.

Answer 24

c) Immediately intervene and stop the coworker from reusing the syringe.

Rationale: Reusing syringes is a serious breach of infection control practices and puts patients at risk of bloodborne infections. Immediate intervention is required to protect patient safety.

Question 25

What is the purpose of using sterile technique when performing procedures such as urinary catheterization?
●
a) To reduce the number of bacteria on the skin.
●
b) To prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the sterile body cavity.
●
c) To make the procedure more comfortable for the patient.
●
d) To decrease the risk of allergic reactions.

Answer 25

b) To prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the sterile body cavity.

Rationale: Sterile technique is used to maintain a sterile field and prevent the introduction of pathogens into normally sterile areas of the body.

Question 26

26. A nurse is preparing to add a sterile solution to a sterile field. Which of the following actions would contaminate the field?
    ●
    a) Pouring the solution from a height of 6 inches.
    ●
    b) Touching the inside of the sterile container with sterile gloves.
    ●
    c) Placing the bottle cap on a non-sterile surface.
    ●
    d) Wearing a mask and gown.

Answer 26

c) Placing the bottle cap on a non-sterile surface.

Rationale: Placing the bottle cap on a non-sterile surface would contaminate the cap, which could then contaminate the sterile solution when the cap is replaced.

Question 27

27. A nurse suspects that a patient may have a multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infection. What type of diagnostic test is used to confirm the presence of an MDRO?
    ●
    a) Complete Blood Count (CBC)
    ●
    b) Urinalysis
    ●
    c) Culture and sensitivity testing
    ●
    d) X-ray

Answer 27

c) Culture and sensitivity testing

Rationale: Culture and sensitivity testing identifies the specific organism causing the infection and determines its susceptibility to different antibiotics. This information is crucial in confirming the presence of an MDRO.

Question 28

A patient is placed on Airborne Precautions. What type of room is required for this patient?
●
a) A private room with a closed door.
●
b) A private room with a sink.
●
c) A private room with negative air pressure and a HEPA filter.
●
d) A semi-private room with a curtain separating the beds.

Answer 28

c) A private room with negative air pressure and a HEPA filter.

Rationale: Airborne Precautions require a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of infectious particles through the air. The HEPA filter helps remove airborne contaminants

Question 29

What factors might increase a patient’s susceptibility to infection?
(Select all that apply):
●
a) Advanced age
●
b) Malnutrition
●
c) Stress
●
d) Immunosuppressive therapy

Answer 29

A, B, C, D

All of them

Rationale: All these factors can compromise the immune system and increase a patient’s susceptibility to infection.

Question 30

A nurse is caring for a patient with an infected wound. The nurse notes purulent drainage from the wound. What is the characteristic of purulent drainage?
●
a) Clear and watery.
●
b) Thick and yellow or green.
●
c) Bloody.
●
d) Pink and tinged with blood.

Answer 30

b) Thick and yellow or green.

Rationale: Purulent drainage is a thick, often foul-smelling drainage that contains white blood cells and bacteria, giving it a yellow or green color.