NBME 9 Flashcards

1
Q

7 year old boy with 1 month history of urinary incontinence (daytime enuresis) and passage of hard, painful stools. Treatment?

A

Osmotic laxative; stool accumulates and applies pressure to bladder
-**desmopressin used for constipation 2/2 diabetes insipidus

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2
Q

22 year old woman w/ 2 week history yellowing skin, increasing SOB, scleral icterus, jaundice, increased reticulocytes - Bilirubin, LDH, Alk phos trends

A
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Increased indirect bilirubin - unconjugated bilirubin from lysed RBCs
  • increased LDH - lysed RBCs
  • normal alk phos
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3
Q

27 year old man hx of schizophrenia on olanzapine brought to ED for episodes of agitation. Given haloperidol which resolved agitation but subsequently was agitated and holding arms rigidly at his side. Treatment?

A
  • diphenhydramine (or benztropine)- anticholinergic med that restores balance in dopaminergic/cholinergic pathways
  • *patient having acute dystonic reaction to antipsychotic dopamine antagonists (haloperidol)
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4
Q

Patients with atrial fibrillation should be started on what type of therapy?

Those without afib but with TIA or stroke?

A

Anticoagulation i.e. warfarin

Aspirin or clopidogrel (anti platelet agents)

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5
Q

47 year old with 12-hour hx spinning sensation that worsens when he closes his eyes. Hearing is normal. Horizontal-rotary nystagmus present. What does he have?

A

-Vestibular neuritis (inflammation of vestibular portio 8th cranial nerve usually post-infectious)

Menieres disease would present with episodic vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

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6
Q

Indication for topical mupirocin

A

Superficial bacterial infections like impetigo

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7
Q

Treatment for candidal diaper rash?

A

Nystatin

**look for satellite lesions; use of abx= higher risk for development

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8
Q

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis (before age 16)

  • Subtypes
  • extraarticular manifestations
A
Oligoarticular disease - fewer than 5 joints and ANA positivity
Polyarticular disease - greater than 5 joints, negative ANA
Systemic disease (still's disease) - variable joint involvement, rash, quotidian fever, serositis 

-Uveitis (slit lamp exam), rash, lymphadenopathy

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9
Q

Management of stable supraventricular tachycardia (regular, narrow complex)

A

Adenosine (short-active blockade of AV node), vagal maneuvers
- can also use B blockers/CCBs

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10
Q

Indication of Amiodarone

A

Ventricular and refractory supra ventricular tachycardias

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11
Q

What kind of murmur does Aortic stenosis present with?

Treatment of severe Aortic stenosis

A
  • systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur with radiation to carotids best heard at upper right sternal border
  • Valve replacement
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12
Q

72 yo man w/ PMHx DVT 8 months ago presents with 3 month hx of swelling and discoloration of leg, edema, discomfort.

A
  • Postphlebitic aka post-thrombotic syndrome characterized by venous insufficiency s/p DVT.
  • *edema, skin pigmentation, pain, vein dilation, venous ulcer formation weeks to months after DVT

vs. thrombophlebitis= inflammation w/ underlying thrombus, superficial phlebitis= painful, erythematous, palpable thickened cord along affected vein

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13
Q

Initial management of MALT lymphoma

A

MALT lymphoma due to H. Pylori infection (B lymphocytes stimulated by T Lymphocytes reactive to H. Pylori) –> tx= eradication of H. Pylori therefore:

  1. Antibiotics - usually resolves condition
  2. Refractory disease- radiotherapy or immunotherapy (rituximab)
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14
Q

Next step in management for 27 yo woman who has been on PPI at max dose over 6 months for GERD without control of sxs.

A

24 hour esophageal pH monitoring= gold standard to diagnose GERD and may identify people who have not yet developed esophagitis
- patients that do not respond to PPI may require surgery (Nissen fundiplication)

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15
Q

Lab findings in a man with alcoholic hepatitis which is frequently accompanied by cholestasis

A
  • disproportionate rise in alk phos vs ALT/AST, high bilirubin, and high GGT
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16
Q

Cause of stress incontinence

Cause of urge incontinence

Cause of overflow incontinence

A
  • weakness of pelvic floor muscles – urethral incompetence (loss of support of urethra)
  • detrusor instability/overactive bladder (treat with oxybutynin)
  • neurogenic bladder; spinal cord injury–> urinary retention and overflow incontinence
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17
Q

Pregnant woman with peritoneal signs 2/2 appendicitis. Management?

A

Exploratory laparotomy even though she’s pregnant; do not get CT first

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18
Q

Positive predictive value and negative predictive value calculation

Sensitivity and specificity calculation

A

PPV: true positives/(true positives + false positives)
NPV: true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives)
**horizontal

Sensitivity: True positive/(true positive + false negative)
Specificity: True negative/(true negative + false positive)
**vertical

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19
Q

Tx of BPH in patient with orthostatic hypotension

A

Finasteride over a1-blocker i.e. tamsulosin) b/c tamsulosin would worsen orthostatic hypotension
- first line is usually a1 blocker

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20
Q

Which nephropathy is associated with HIV, sickle cell disease, and opioid abuse and how is it diagnosed?

A

FSGS - kidney biopsy

*urine cytology is for urinary tract malignancy

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21
Q

6 year old boy brought in with hair loss and lump on his scalp with concomitant lymphadenopathy- diagnosis?

A

Tinea capitus– trichophyton tonsurans

22
Q

Presentation and diagnosis of osteosarcoma

A

Usually with pain and swelling but can also present with fragility fracture. ** causes bony destruction presenting as cortical/periosteal irregularity and elevation on x-ray

  • biopsy of bony lesion necessary for diagnosis (though MRI may precede this)
23
Q

Woman with abdominal cramps and loose stools/flatulence who eats sugar free gum and diet soda; what is the causative agent?

A

Sorbitol- can be used as a laxative; osmotic effect b/c poorly absorbed in small bowel

24
Q

Outcome of untreated childhood umbilical hernia?

A

Progressive enlargement of umbilical ring

-

25
Q

Imaging modality for nephrolithiasis

A

CT scan of abdomen without contrast

26
Q

Woman with dry skin, nipple discharge, lethargy, no period for 6 months who would like to conceive - what is next step in diagnosis?

A

TSH- hypothyroidism = common cause of infertility due to increase in prolactin (nipple discharge, anovulatory cycles oligomenorrhea)

27
Q

Patient s/p Roux en Y with nausea, vomiting, confusion, and following. Which vitamin is deficient?

A

Thiamine (B1)

  • Wernicke Encephalopathy - encephalopathy, gait ataxia, opthalmoplegia - most common in Roux en Y
  • Dry Beriberi - symmetrical peripheral neuropathy
  • Wet beriberi - high output cardiac failure
28
Q

Sxs of zinc deficiency

A

delayed wound healing, loss of taste/smell, acrodermatitis enteropathica *periacral and perioral dermatitis, alopecia, diarrhea

29
Q

Which of the following is the most important determinant of specificity?
false positives, false negatives, positive tests, negative tests?

A

False positives
Specificity = 1 - false positive rate
Test is specific if it has a low false positive rate; high specificity rules in diagnosis

Sensitivity = 1 - false negative rate
- sensitive if low false negative rate: can rule out diagnosis

30
Q

Management of Glioblastoma

A
  1. Resection if possible
  2. Resection not possible–> stereotactic brain biopsy for histologic diagnosis
  3. Radiation/chemo
31
Q

What immunizations are necessary in HIV patients?

A

Influenza, PPSV23 and 13-valent pneumococcal (13 first, then 23 afterwards after some time); Hep B if not immune

32
Q

Sickle cell patient with acute vaso-occlusive crisis and hypoxia–> tx?

A

pain management, hydration, and OXYGEN to avoid acute chest syndrome; hydroxyurea can be considered in patients with frequent pain episodes but acute tx as above

33
Q

Patient with bacterial endocarditis presenting with septic shock–> what kind of antibiotic coverage?

A

Broad spectrum: gentamicin and vancomycin (cover for MRSA)

34
Q

Tx of afib w/ RVR

Hemodynamically stable:

Hemodynamically unstable:

A

Stable: diltiazem, labetalol, or amiodarone (first 2 preferred b/c rate control)

Unstable: synchronized cardioversion

35
Q

Colon cancer screening for high risk vs. average risk patients?

A
High risk (1st degree relative with colon cancer)- screening every 5 years starting at 40 or 10 years younger than diagnosis 
- avg risk- screening starting at age 50 then every 10 years if normal
36
Q

Lung cancer screening

A

Low dose CT annually for adults 50-80 with 20 pack year smoking hx that currently smoke or have quit within last 15 years

37
Q

What vitamins and minerals are commonly deficient in patients with alcohol use disorder?

A

Vitamins: thiamine, folate, vitamin B12, vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), vitamin A
Minerals: magnesium, iron, zinc

38
Q

Drugs that lead to SJS

A

B-lactam antibiotics, sulfa drugs, anti epileptics (carbamazepine), NSAIDs, allopurinol

39
Q

HOCM murmur/Tx

A

Systolic murmur increased with valsalva maneuver, standing, hypovolemia
- beta blockers**

40
Q

Imaging modality best for tamponade

41
Q

23 year old woman with 3-year hx intermittent cough productive of copious sputum; severe pneumonia at age 13; x-ray with bronchial thickening- dx?

A

Bronchiectasis

  • irreversible, abnormal dilatation and thickening of bronchi from recurrent necrotizing infections/inflammation
  • chronic bronchial obstruction, tobacco use, CF, primary immunodeficiency disorders, kartagener syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
42
Q

Asbestosis presentation

A

Pulmonary crackles, digital clubbing, signs of pulmonary HTN/RVH- parasternal heave, loud P2, widely split S2
- on x-ray- bilateral infiltrates with lower lung predominance (subpleural densities)

43
Q

Beryollosis

A

non-caveating granulomatous with lymphadenopathy similar to sarcoid; aerospace/nuclear engineering

44
Q

Risk factors for placenta accreta

A

Previous cesarean deliveries (due to uterine scarring) and placenta previa

45
Q

Preoperative prophy for total knee replacement

A

1st/2nd gen cephalosporin (gram positive coverage) - cefazolin

46
Q

Preoperative prophy for GI surgery

A

Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole - gram negative/anaerobic coverage

47
Q

Concern for soft tissue sarcoma- what do you do?

A

Core-needle biopsy - get biopsy in order to guide management - make a pathologic diagnosis

48
Q

DKA vs Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

A

DKA- more common in DM1

  • low bicarb (<18) and low pH due to acidosis
  • ketones in serum/urine due to fatty acid breakdown in liver which become ketones (without insulin)
  • hyperglycemia (>250)but not as severe as HHS
  • fluids and continuous insulin, monitor K+ (hypokalemia)

HHS- more common DMII

  • no ketosis; severe hyperglycemia (>600) and hyperosmolality leading to volume depletion and neurologic complications
  • Bicarb>18
  • aggressive fluids, electrolyte replacement, insulin
49
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes of lung cancers:

Small cell

Squamous cell

Adenocarcinoma

A

Small cell - cushing syndrome, SIADH, peripheral neuropathy, lambert eaton, subacute cerebellar degeneration

Squamous - Hypercalcemia (PTHrP)

Adenocarcinoma - migratori thrombophlebitis, nonbacterial verrucous endocarditis, hypercoagulability

All - anemia, DIC, eosinophilia, thrombocytosis, acanthosis nigricans

50
Q

Best imaging for suspected ovarian, tubal, uterine pathology

51
Q

Hot shower exacerbating eye discomfort (blurry vision)

A

MS- optic neuritis