NAVLE Wrong Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What organisation regulated meat and poultry products including eggs?
A
USDA
2
Q
What organisation regulates almost all food, seafood and use of veterniary drugs?
A
FDA
3
Q
What organisation regulates pesticides and water standards?
A
EPA
4
Q
What is the most likely cause of these fuzzy brown, colaescing lesions that result in a very high mortality rate in hatcheries?
A
Saprolegnia
5
Q
What is a benefit of alfaxalone?
A
Has minimal dose-dependent effects on cardiopulmonary
6
Q
What does the does reflex assess?
A
dazzle reflex examines CN II separate of visual cortex (cortical lesion animals will still have a dazzle)
7
Q
What is 4-ipomeanol?
A
pneumotoxic compound that is produced by fungus Fusarium solani acting on the sweet potato
8
Q
Describe a characteristic presentation of swine influenza:
A
Rapid spread of disease and very high temperatures
9
Q
What would be a useful test for brucella screening monitoring in dairy herds?
A
Brucella milk ring test
10
Q
What disease process would you be expecting with prolapsed, erythematous, proliferative lesion in a macaw?
A
Cloacal papilloma
11
Q
What medications have been associated with the onset of congestive heart failure in cats?
A
Corticosteroids
12
Q
What is unilateral progressive paresis suggestive of in budgerigars?
A
Renal neoplasia
13
Q
What is the cause of Eperythrozoonosis in pigs?
A
Mycoplasma suis
Vectored by biting insects, causes anaemia, fever, icterus and reproductive failure
Young pigs> older pigs
Tetracycline Ab’s = treatment of choice
14
Q
(What medication can be used to treat ear mites (psorptes) in rabbits?
A
ivermectin/selemectin - never use fibronil (Frontline) in rabbits ear it is very toxic
15
Q
What is the best treatment against Eimeria in cattle?
A
Lasalocid
16
Q
What is the cause of infectious laryngotrachitis?
A
Herpesvirus - diagnosed by intratracheal inclusion bodies in tracheal epithelium
17
Q
How would the appetite appear in a dog with EPI?
A
Ravenous
18
Q
What are the characteristic signs of hyperkalaemia?
A
Increased PR interval, widened QRS complex, lack of P waves, tall tented T waves
19
Q
What is the most common cause of crypto infection in humans?
A
Water contamination
20
Q
What is the most likely cause of non-alopecic crusting midline lesions in the horse?
A
Haematobia
21
Q
What is the vector for african swine fever?
A
The soft tick - Ornithodorus
22
Q
What two pathogens are most likely to cause gangrenous mastitis in a cow?
A
Mannheima and staph aureus
23
Q
What pathogen should be vaccinate against when moving sheep to lush pasture/a feedlot situation?
A
Enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringens
24
Q
When are IgM titres typically observed?
A
identify infection @ 1-2 weeks of exposure –> peak at 3-6 weeks –> negative by 12 weeks
25
When do IgG titres develop?
normally 2 weeks post infection --> stay present for very long time
26
Why is terbutaline often given for cases of asthma in cats?
beta -2 adrenergic agonist - bronchodilation + mild effects on heart
27
What does sago palm ingestion commonly cause?
Acute liver failure
28
What is the suspected cause of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?
Recent vaccination
29
What structures would you expect to find in the guttural pouches?
7,9,10, 11 and 12
Sympathetic trunk + internal carotid
30
What organ does toxicity of aminoglycosides affect?
normally affects the kidneys
31
What is the infectious agent invovled in turkey coryza?
Bordatella avium
32
What drug should be given for hairball treatment?
Laxatone - contains petroleum/mineral gel
33
What disease does clostridium haemolyticum cause?
Redwater disease
34
What should be fed in cases of hyperkalaemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)?
Timothy hay - low in potassium
35
How does omeprazole work?
Proton pump blocker
36
How does cimetidine/ranitidine/famotidine work?
H2 antagonists
37
What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in kittens?
GI parasites
38
What are the three stages of parturition in the foal?
1. fetal repositioning into the dorsosacral position
2. Rupture of chorioallantois + ends with birth of foal
3. Stage 3 characterised by passage of fetal membranes (placenta)
39
What is Tyzzers disease?
Acute necrotising hepatitis caused by Clostridium piliformis
40
What is the most effective strategy to rid a herd of Leptospira harjo bovis?
Treat all herd with tetracycline antibiotics and then vaccinate to eliminate carriers
41
What are the clinical signs of fescue grass toxicity seen in cattle?
Lameness + sloughing of the rear hooves
41
What are the clinical signs of fescue grass toxicity seen in cattle?
Lameness + sloughing of the rear hooves
42
What is the cause of fowl plague?
Avian influenza
43
What will happen if you give oral ampicillin in a rabbit?
Clostridial enterotoxaemia
44
Shoudl stallions with Taylorella equigenitalis ever be bred?
No - these animals should never be bred
45
What treatment should be instituted for brodifacoum toxicity?
Vitamin K1 administration for 4-6 weeks
46
What is the treatment for a 3rd degree AV block?
Pacemaker implantation
47
How many permanent teeth do goats have?
32
48
Name the toxin in beetles that causes colic
Canthardin
49
What equine pathogen is associated lung pathology?
Parascaris equorum
50
What are the three requirements for a definitive diagnosis of PCVA2?
1. Doubling of mortality
2. Lymphoid depletion (histopathology)
3. High number of PCVA2 antigen in tissue (IHC on tissue)
51
What organs do aminoglycosides affect?
Kidneys
52
Describe the innervation of the iris contrictor muscle:
Innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system of CNIII
53
What is the prinicipal cause of FIP?
Coronavirus
54
What is a foodborn illness that can cause haemorrhagic diarrhoa and haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) in suscpetible animals?
E.coli O157:H7
55
What is the top differential for a hamster that appears with a wet tail?
Proliferative ileitis
56
What nerve is responsible for tear production?
CN VII
57
What is the treatment for mammary gland hyperplasia in cats?
OVH
58
What is the formula for calculating prevalence in a population?
P = ID
Incidence (number of new cases in a period of time) and duration (how long the cases last)
59
What does a clicking sound on manipulation of the stifle mean?
Means damage to the medial meniscus
60
How long is the oestrus cycle of the goat, cow and pig?
21 days
61
How long is the oestrus cycle of the sheep?
17 days
62
What is the effect of vitamin E deficiency in chicks?
Nutritional encephalomalacia
63
What are the main symptoms that were associated with mare reproductive loss syndrome?
Abortion + neonatal fetal loss + fibrinous pericarditis
64
What is the treatment for aspergillosis in chickens?
Cull them
65
Who is most commonly affected by perineal adenomas?
Older intact males
66
What is the most liver specific enzyme in cow, sheep, goat and horse?
Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
67
What is the definitive diagnostic test for canine distemper virus?
Immunofluroscent assay of affected epithelium
68
What is the treatment of choice for splints in horses?
Rest + NSAID's
69
What does fusobacterium necrophorum typically cause in young piglets?
Necrotic rhinitis
70
What mycotoxin causes hyperoestrogenism and pseudopregnancy in pigs?
Zearaleone
71
What should be done prior to managing an anaesthetic in ruminants?
Withold feed + water for a sufficient period of time to minimise bloat
72
What do turkeys have a high requirement for?
Choline
73
What is the cause of spirochaetal colitis?
Brachyspira pilosicoli
74
What is a major side effect of the chemotherapeutic drug adriamycin in dogs?
Cardiotoxicity
75
What chemotherapeutic drug causes ileus?
Vincristine
76
What chemotherapeutic causes anaphylaxis?
L - asparaginase
77
What chemotherapeutic drug causes nephrotoxicity?
Cisplatin
78
What chemotherapeutic drug causes cystitis?
cyclophosphamide
79
What poultry disease has been transmitted to humans through the consumption of infected eggs?
Salmonella enterititis
80
What vitamin deficiency results in blunted choanal papillae and poor feather quality in birds?
Vitamin A deficiency
81
What is an example of an osmotic diuretic?
Mannitol
82
What is the most common gastric neoplasia in a horse?
Squamous cell carcinoma
83
What parasite in horses can result in thrombosis of the mesenteric artery?
S. vulgaris
84
Murine respiratory mycosis in rats is typically characterised by what clinical signs?
Nasal discharge + ataxia
85
Where does Anaplasma phagocytophilum live?
In neutrophils
86
What is the cause of big head in sheep?
Clostridium novyi type A: through wounds, treat with penicillin, multivalent clostrideal toxoids
87
What is the survival time from an osteosarcoma in cats?
Typically 12 months or more - stark contrast to dogs
88
How is dermatomyositis typically diagnosed?
Skin + muscle biopsy
89
What are the normal parameters for sperm?
70% normal morphology, 30% forwards motility
90
Why does parvovirus survive so long in the environment?
Non-enveloped virus
91
How long is a mares oestrus cycle?
6 days
92
What is the main concern with praire dogs?
Yesinea pestis - occurs from bites by infected fleas
93
How is cat gut suture broken down?
Phagocytosis
94
How are vicryl, maxon and PDS typically broken down?
Hydrolysis
95
What is the definitive host of Dictyocaulus arnfeldi?
Donkey
96
What is the most common cause of no hairs on the ears of daschsunds?
Canine pinnal alopecia - congenital
97
How does heparin work?
Binds to antithrombin --> accelerates interaction of antithrombin + activated factor X or thrombin
98
How many airsacs do birds have?
9 air sacs
99
What is the cause of avian encephalmyelitis?
Marble spleen disease
100
What disease of cats causes oral ulcers?
Calicivirus
101
What is the most common cause of aural haematomas in pigs?
Biting from other pen mates
102
What is the most common cause of Theilers disease?
Tetanus antitoxin
103
What is the most common cause of Tyzzers disease?
Bacillus or Clostridium piliformis
104
What is the cause of skin fragility syndrome in cats?
Poorly regulated diabeties due to hyperadrenocorticism
105
What do you expect to see on vaginal cytology in a bitch in pro-oestrus?
Red blood cells + <90% cornified cells
106
What is the best treatment for feline constipation?
Cisapride
107
What endocrinopathy predisposes to SARDS?
Hyperadrenocorticism
108
What is a potential cause of primary anterior uveitis?
Coccidiois immitis infection
109
What is the normal amount of water to drink for a horse?
50-70ml water/kg/day
110
What is the normal urine production in a horse per day?
10-15 ml/kg/day
111
What is the most likley cause of a yellow sticky ascites in cats?
FIP
112
Antidote for ethylene glycol
4-MP
113
What is the most common type of cardiac regurg in horses?
Atrial regurgiation - often incidental
114
What is the best method of evaluating a horses response to anaemia?
Bone marrow sampling
115
How is extraocular polymyositis treated?
Prednisolone +/- azathioprine
116
What is the most common brain lesion associated with listeriosis?
Microabscesses
117
What is the best treatment for Potomac horse fever?
Oxytetracycline - 7-10d course
118
How should pigs be treated in an APP outbreak?
Inject all pigs with enrofloxacin
119
What is the only FDA approved treatment for demidicosis?
Amitraz (Mitaban)
120
What bloodwork abnormality is typically asscoiated with renal carcinoma?
Polycythaemia
121
What are three lesions that can result in a raised plaque appearance in a birds mouth?
Candida, hypovitaminosis A and trichomoniasis
122
What are the chances of survivial from an abdominal ulcer in calves?
Guarded - less than 10%
123
What is the most common skin tumour of the cat?
Basal cell tumour
124
Most common respiratory disease of barn raised calves 1-6 months
Enzootic pneumoniae - P.mulitcoda
125
What is the most common side effect of ivermectin?
Neurotoxicity
126
3 parapox viruses that can cause lesions in humans
Pseudocowpox, Bovine papular stomatitis, contagious ecthyemea of goats and sheep
127
Treatment for calicivirus
Clindamycin + sucrulfate
128
Meningeal worm in Llamas
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
129
Treatment for cat given fleet enema
Calcium gluconate
IV fluid therapy
Phosphorus binders
130
Carrier of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Dermacentor tick
131
Treatment of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Doxycycline
132
Induction of abortion in cow
Before 4 months and last month - PGF 2a
Anywhere inbetween - PGF2a an dexamethasone
133
Treatment for Glassers disease in herd of pigs
Long acting injections of ceftiofur for every pig
134
Cat predisposed to cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma
White cat
135
Tumour containing different number of chromosomes to host
Transmissible venereal cell tumour
136
Canine distemper
Paramyxoviridae
137
Cattle lungworm
Dictyocaulus viviparus
138
Most equine uroliths
Ca carbonate
139
Side effect of pradofloxacin in dogs
Bone marrow suppression
140
Treatment for Giardia
Fenbendazole/Metronidazole
141
What is the best strategy for diagnosis of dermatophytosis?
microscopic examination of macroconidia
142
cat with a severe chemosis
chlamydophila
143
chemotherapeutic drug causing fatal pulomary oedema in cats
cisplatin (cis-plat-splats cats)
144
2 differentials for fish with chronic low mortality + internal granulomas
Mycobacteriosis and Francisellosis
145
Most important mycotoxin of cattle
Aflatoxin
146
Fowlpox virus
intracyctoplasmic inclusions
147
Nervous coccidoisis cause
Eimeria
148
What drugs should be used for erysipelas
Penicillins + tetracyclins
149
Signalment of heaves in horses
> 6y
150
Best control method for Mareks
In-ovo vaccination
151
Cow with small bladder and pitting ventrally
ruptured urethra
152
Vitamin K3 is contraindicated in horses due to
nephrotoxciosis
153
A dog with greasy seborrhoea of the face + dorsal trunk
Skin scrape
154
Copper coloured eyes
Portosystemic shunt
155
Shortest acting and most potent to longest acting and most potent insulin
Regular, NPH, Lente, PZI, Ultralente
