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T-1A > Navigation Questions > Flashcards

Navigation Questions Flashcards

0
Q

When is station passage for an RMI/BDHI?

A

When the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course

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1
Q

When is station passage for a VOR

A

When the TO/FROM indicator makes the first positive indication to FROM

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2
Q

When is station passage for a TACAN?

A

When the range indicator stops decreasing

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3
Q

When is station passage for an ADF?

A

On initial passage when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course

subsequent passes are at the first definite passage of the bearing pointer through the 45 degree index

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4
Q

What would require an IFR flight plan?

A

Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways
Operating at night, unless the mission can not be flown under IFR
A airspace

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5
Q

Destination requirements for filing IFR

A

Must have a compatible IFR approach

May file to point along route where WX +- 1hr allows continued flight to destination under VFR

May file to an airport along route with a compatible instrument approach then continue to destination under VFR

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6
Q

What weather is required at destination in order to file IFR

A

+- 1hr at or above lowest compatible mins

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7
Q

For a circling approaches does the forecast weather need to meet CEILING, VISIBILITY, or both requirements?

A

both ceiling and visibility to circle

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8
Q

For a straight-in or side step approaches does the weather have to meet CEILING, VISIBILITY, or requirements for both?

A

only published visibility

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9
Q

What weather would require an IFR alternate to be filed?

A

worst weather (tempo or prevailing) at destination +-1 hr does not permit VFR descent from MEA and is less than:

2000’ vis 3 SM

(AETC always when less than 2000 and 3

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10
Q

Besides weather why else must an alternate be filed?

A

WX +-1 hr less than 2000 and 3 and unable to make VFR descent from MEA to landing and destination is:

All compatible approaches require radar
Required NAVAIDS unmonitored
No wx reporting capability
Lowest compatible approach mins greater than or equal to 1500/3
(AETC) +- 1 hr forecast winds exceed aircraft limits
(AETC) Denial of RVSM would prevent from reaching destination

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11
Q

What disqualifies an airport from being an alternate?

A

except IAW with 202V3 8.8.2

Radar required for all approaches
A-with "NA' on all compatible approaches
GPS is the only available navaid
Winds out of limits +- 1 hr (AETC)
A-with applicable note on all compatible approaches
RVSM required to reach alternate(AETC)
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12
Q

What is considered a “HEAVY” aircraft?
LARGE?
SMALL?

A

HEAVY > 255,000 lbs
LARGE 41,000 - 255,000 lbs
SMALL 12,500 - 41,000 lbs

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13
Q

What weight category does the T-1 fall under?

A

Small

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14
Q

How long should a T-1 wait before taking off or landing behind a “HEAVY” or “LARGE” aircraft

A

3 minutes

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15
Q

What are the max holding airspeeds and altitudes?

A

0-6,000 MSL 200 KTS
6,000-14,000 MSL 230 KTS
above 14,000 MSL 260 KTS

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16
Q

What are the airspeeds for the approach categories A,B,C,D,E

A 
Category A       < 91 KTS
Category B          91- less than 121 kts
Category C       121- less than 141 kts
Category D       141- less than 166kts
Category E    > 166 kts
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17
Q

What are approach categories based on?

A

1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration

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18
Q

What approach category does the T-1 fall in to?

A

Normal approaches - B

Circling - C

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19
Q

On a DD175 at least one waypoint or NAVAID should be filed within the first _____NM of each ARTCC along the route of flight

A

200

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20
Q

What is the protected airspace for each category while circling?

A 
A  1.3
B  1.5
C  1.7
D  2.3
E  4.5
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21
Q

What is the minimum landing distance available (LDA) for all student flown touch and goes or full stops? (3 FTS OI 4.2.2.5)

A

7,000’

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22
Q

Why might a VDP not be published on an approach plate?

217V1 12.1.1.3.1

A

1) an obstacle might penetrate the 20:1 glide slop
2) period of time FAA did not publish VDPs

*no way of knowing if the VDP is not published due to 20:1 glide slop, use caution when descending out of MDA at unfamiliar airport without ALS

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23
Q

What four items are included in delcared distances?

A

TORA
TODA
ASDA
LDA

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24
Q

What is TORA

A

Take-off run available- The length of runway available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane takeoff

25
Q

What is TODA?

A

Takeoff distance available- the length of the takeoff run plus the length of the clearway if available

26
Q

What is ASDA?

A

Accelerate Stop Distance Available- the runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff

27
Q

What is LDA

A

Landing Distance Available- the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing

28
Q

T/F when computing a refusal speed the shortest of ASDA and TORA will be used?

A

True

29
Q

While being vectored to final for an ASR or PAR you should attempt radio contact with ATC after _____ of silence

A

1 minute

30
Q

While on final for an ASR you should attempt radio contact with ATC after _______of radio silence

A

15 seconds

31
Q

When can you go to

Non-towered airfields

A 
Left hand traffic 
IP (certified)
Day VMC
Single ship
LOA
Low approach only
CTAF
0-tac/overheads
2-aircraft max
200-kts max
3000' ceiling
3 SM vis
32
Q

Can I file to a destination? (RATPAWTT)

A 
Runway requirements
Approach to be flown
Towered airfield
P-field
Alternate requirements
Weather
TOLD
Trouble T
33
Q

When can you land at a P-coded airfield (JAMIECW)

A 
Joint-Use
Alternate
Majcom
Interceptor
Emergency
C-coded aircraft
Wing/cc
34
Q

Class A airspace

A

Vis-NA

Cloud clearance-NA

35
Q

Class B

A

Vis - 3 sm

Cloud clearance - clear of clouds

36
Q

Class C and D

A

vis - 3 sm
cloud clearance 1,000 above - 500’ below - 2,000 horizontal

152-3

37
Q

Class E and G above 10,000’

A

vis - 5 sm

cloud clearance - 1,000’ below - 1,000’ above - 1 sm horizontal

38
Q

What is crew rest period?

A

Normally a minimum 12hr non duty period before the flight duty period begins includes:

  • free time
  • time for meals
  • time for transportation
  • and rest
39
Q

When does the flight duty period begin and end?

A

Begins: when a crew member reports for the mission brief or other official duty

Ends: At engine shutdown at the end of the mission

40
Q

What are the maximum flying times during the flight duty period for T-1 crews?

A

8 hrs total,

6.5 hrs instructional

41
Q

What are crew rest requirements?

A

at least 10 continuous hours of restful activities
including an opportunity for 8 consecutive hours of sleep
during the 12 hours immediately prior to the Flight Duty Period

42
Q

Aircrew members will not fly within ____ hrs of ______?

multiple answers

A

72 hrs after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow

48 hrs of transiting more than 4 time zones (AETC)

24 hrs of compressed gas diving exceeding 10 minutes in duration

12 hrs of altitude chamber (above 25,000’)

12 hrs of consuming alcohol or impaired by its after effects

43
Q

What is the standard length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern?

A

1 minutes at or below 14,000’

1.5 minutes above 14,000’

217v1 8.1.1

44
Q

What information will ATC provide if they clear you to a non charted holding pattern?

A 
Direction of holding from the fix
Holding fix
Holding course
Leg length
Direction of turn
45
Q

ATC should issue holding instruction _____before reaching a clearance limit

A

5 minutes

46
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

surface - 6,000’ MSL — 200 KIAS
6,001 - 14,000’ MSL — 230 KIAS
Above 14,000’ MSL — 265 KIAS

USAF 310 KIAS
USN 230 KIAS

47
Q

When are you considered established in holding?

A

Upon initial passage of the holding fix

48
Q

During holding all turns should be made at ________ unless correcting for known winds

A
  • 3 degrees per second
  • 30 degrees of bank
  • Bank angle commanded by flight director system

** whichever is the least

49
Q

When do you begin outbound timing during a holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the fix.

If unable to determine abeam position, start timing when wings level

50
Q

In holding pattern when do you start timing for the inbound leg?

A

When wings level on the inbound course

51
Q

who has authority to authorize a 48’/NM reduction from published climb gradient from the TERPS climb gradient?

A

Operations supervisor or equivalent

11-217v1 7.3

52
Q

what are the load limits for single generator ops?

A

280 amps - between 32,500 and 41,000’

400 amps - below 32,500

53
Q

While operating on standby or emergency power what hydraulic powered systems will not be functional?

A

Normal landing gear extension
Flaps
Speed brakes
Anti-skid system

54
Q

What happens if the #1 inverter fails?

A

2 inverter transfers power to the primary buses leaving the secondary buses powerless

55
Q

When the AC BUS SHED illuminates what do you lose?

A

loss of flap position indicator

loss of both oil pressure indicators

56
Q

What are the VOR service volumes?

A

Terminal – 1,000 - 12,000 AGL –25nm

Low – 1,000 - 18,000 AGL – 40 nm

High – 1,000 - 14,500 AGL – 40nm

          - - 14,500 - 60,000 AGL -- 100nm
          - - 18,000 - 45,000 AGL -- 130 nm

217v3 1.2.4.1.1

57
Q

What are VOR/DME tolerances when testing on the ground?

A

+-4 degrees
1/2 mile or 3% whichever is higher

217V1 6.6.13.6

58
Q

What are required fuel reserves?

A

Must be able to increase total flight time between refueling points by 10% up to a max of 45 minutes

or 20 minutes whichever is greater

assuming max endurance at 10,000’

59
Q

What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for a visual approach?

A

1,000’ and 3 miles

60
Q

What are runway requirements?

A

6,000 X 100

61
Q

What is the priority for receiving weather?

A 
Local military wx unit
OWS
Another military wx unit
FAA wx briefer
FSS

T-1A (9 decks)

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