Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NATOPS > NATOPS CHECK QUESTIONS > Flashcards

NATOPS CHECK QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of “Min go”

A

Speed at which you can lose an engine and still achieve take-off speed with the runway remaining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What changes to T/O data when runway is lengthened

A

Max Abort increases, Min Go decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to NATOPS what can we do to affect/change max brake speed?

A

Configure from flaps 30 - flaps 20 ??? Factors are listed as Temperature, Pressure, and Gross Weight. (We can only affect gross weight. (XI-29-10). But also we can use less than hard brakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

7 land ASAPS

A
  1. Any Fire, Fire/Temp light
  2. LO FUEL light
  3. L/R PSI light
  4. Uncommanded Loss of Fuselage Fuel
  5. Loss of 1 Hyd Pump in each System
  6. EHAT Light on for 2 min Elec Airflo Light not on, GBO
  7. Symptoms of Decompression sickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is on Flight hyd system?

A

1/2 Flight Controls
Isolation Valve
AFCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the last land ASAP

A

…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the both engine’s wind milling glide ratio?

A

10.2 : 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5 secondary indications of gear down and locked?

A
  1. Wheels Warning Light - Off
  2. Land Gear Tx Light - Off
  3. AOA Indexers - On
  4. Lower Anti-Smash - Off
  5. With Taxi Light Switch On, Light - On
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Seat man separation happens when?

A

2 Seconds after Ejection If Below 13,000 +/- 1,500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can drop-tank fuel be transferred to the fuselage with a complete electrical failure?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which fuselage cell supplies fuel to the engine?

A

Aft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What Are the Indications of a Left Weight Off Wheels Switch Failure?

A
  1. Landing gear handle lock engaged
  2. AOA indexer lights disabled
  3. RADALT Attenuated
  4. EPR Reading in flight
  5. Canopy seal depressurized
    Other Affected Systems:
  6. Stores Jettison disabled
  7. Flaperon Popups Enabled
  8. Chaff dispensers disabled
  9. NWW BLEED AIR valve open
  10. AOA and total temp probe heaters disabled
  11. Strut lock and tow link indications disabled
  12. Forward equipment cooling valve open
  13. 23 deg rudder stops disabled
  14. ACLS inoperative
  15. APC disabled
  16. Stall warning horn disabled
  17. EXCITER GND PWR switches enabled
  18. EGI IBIT capability enabled
  19. With MODE S enabled, Mode 3/A and C will be disabled until Mode S is deselected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CAUSE OF: Both L & R FUEL PSI caution lights on at the same time

A

Electric fuselage fuel boost pump failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CAUSE OF: L or R Starter caution light

A

Starter valve not fully closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CAUSE OF: L or R CSD OVERHEAT caution light

A

CSD temp exceeds 260 deg F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CAUSE OF: ANTI-SKID caution light

A
  1. Anti-skid off or inoperative

2. Brake handle not stowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many degrees of asymmetry in speed brakes cause the electrical synchronization system to actuate retracting both speed brakes?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CAUSE OF: RUD THROW caution light

A

Extended throws available in clean configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CAUSE OF: OXYGEN caution light

A
  1. Less than 3 liters of oxygen remaining (out of 30 max)

2. Less than 50 PSI pressure (normal 70-100 PSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which Navigation mode cannot be operator selected?

A

Dead reckoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When using the emergency flaps switch, why should the flap lever match the desired position?

A

If the electric switch is off, and the Hyd pressure becomes available; the flaps will move to the commanded position of the flap lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What two things does the gyro switch power?

A
  1. Turn rate gyros

2. ARI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With low fuel, what inflight refueling steps will ensure that all fuel goes to the fuselage tank?

A
  1. Wing dump switch - DUMP

2. Refueling switch - OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Emergency O2 lasts approximately _____ (depending on breathing rate and altitude).

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List the inputs to the fuel control unit:

A
  1. Throttle position
  2. Burner can pressure
  3. Engine rpm
  4. Compressor inlet temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How much time is required between cycling the emergency flap/slat system?

A

3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What airspeed is required to provide hydraulic pressure from windmilling engines alone?

A

140 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the engine start cycle limits? (How many times, for how long, and for how long between each)?

A

3 starts: 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off, 60 on, 60 off, 60 on, 30 minutes rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Approximately how long does it take to conduct and in-flight alignment? And it is recommended to fly _____ for better alignment.

A

10 minutes, straight and level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can running DFCS IBIT during taxi produce valid results?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Are crew members authorized to use ICS during stray voltage checks and AERO 7 pin removal?

A

NO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is the canopy seal pressure dumped when the canopy jettison handle is pulled?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What cools the CSD oil on deck and airborne?

A

On deck: Air ejectors

Airborne: Ram air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the max allowable deviation from field elevation for the forward altimeter, beyond which the A/C shall not be flown?

A

75’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You can dump down to how much fuel in the fuselage tank in a normal flight attitude and at a high AOA?

A

3,700 lbs (normal attitude)

2,700 lbs (high AOA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When can a circuit breaker be reset more than once? And can multiple simultaneously popped circuit breakers be reset once?

A

When in extremis.

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Aux brakes provide how many brake applications if accumulator is full?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The aux brake priority valve reserves the last _____ to _____ applications for emergency/parking brake.

A

4, 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

For wing spread and control checks, what is required for prior to selecting ASR ON?

A
  1. Flap selector lever must be up

2. Emer flaps switch must be off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the max crosswind for a section go?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What methods can be used to update the nav system?

A
  1. Tacan
  2. Radar
  3. Overfly
  4. EGI to EGI present position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Can UHF 3 be controlled by the CDNU?

A

Yes

43
Q

Does selecting a radio to transmit on the ISC control panel deselect other radios?

A

Yes

44
Q

The standard landing configuration is:

A
  1. Flaps - 30
  2. Slats - OUT
  3. Speed brakes - Extended
45
Q

With vert ref in PRI where does attitude come from? In SEC?

A

The primary EGI

The secondary EGI

46
Q

What is required for flaperon popup operation?

A
  1. Flaperon popup switch - armed
  2. Both throttles - IDLE
  3. Weight on Wheels
  4. Wings spread and locked
47
Q

In a no flap/no slat configuration, slowing to ____ for emergency gear extension will result in a stall below what gross weight?

A

150 KIAS

43,000 lbs

48
Q

CAUSE OF: ELECTRONIC AIRFLOW caution light:

A

Pressure downstream of the aft bleed air shutoff valve is less than 5 psi.

49
Q

CAUSE OF: L FILTER caution light:

A

Greater than a 5 psi Differential Across the Filter ( bypass opens at 8-10 psi ).

50
Q

CAUSE OF: Wheels Warning light:

A

Landing gear not down and locked with flaps not up and either throttle below 83+/-3%

51
Q

CAUSE OF: R FUEL PSI caution light at 23,000’ MSL:

A

Right engine driven centrifugal boost pump failure. Descend and reduce thrust.

52
Q

Acceptable indications at MRT before takeoff for:

  1. Fuel flow
  2. EGT
  3. Oil Pressure
A
  1. 6000-10500 lbs/hr
  2. 690-832 deg C
  3. 40-50 PSI
53
Q

When are the 23 degree rudder stops activated?

A

Flaps down and weight off wheels

54
Q

What is cooled by the auxiliary heat exchanger?

A
  1. Fuel tank pressurization
  2. Anti-g suit
  3. Canopy seal
  4. Windshield wash
55
Q

Switching A/C cockpit switch to ram air does what?

A
  1. Closes the cabin bleed air shutoff valve
  2. Drives dual-temp control valves full hot
  3. Enables operation of the ram air valve
56
Q

CAUSE OF: LOW FUEL caution light:

A

Fuselage fuel remaining is approximately 2,500 lbs.

1,800 lbs at high angles of attack.

57
Q

How long is one cycle of the emergency flaps and how long is the required wait time between cycles?

A

45 seconds

3 minutes

58
Q

Pitch and roll limits of the radalt:

A

Pitch: +/-40 deg
Roll: +/-30 deg

59
Q

What configuration and AOA are used for single engine landing?

A

Flaps: 20 deg
Boards: IN
AOA: 17 Units

60
Q

Horizontal stab leading edge deflection limits for:

  1. Flaps up
  2. Flaps Down / ASR
A
  1. Flaps up: 1.5 deg up and 10 deg down.

2. Flaps down/ASR: 1.5 deg up and 24 deg down.

61
Q

Does ECS operation have an effect on the TDSIU TEMP light?

A

No.

62
Q

How is the canopy override system activated? What happens if the handle is held in the override position?

A

Hold the handle forward. Left in the override position the pneumatic supply is depleted from the normal supply.

63
Q

How much time should be allowed between actuation of bleed air valve?

A

10 seconds

64
Q

CAUSE OF: LOW OIL caution light:

A
65
Q

After landing check oil within how many minutes of landing? If not, what is the alternate check?

A
  1. 5 minutes of landing

2. Run up engines to 75% for 30 seconds before shutdown.

66
Q

How do you reset form lights if they overheat?

A
  1. Cycle ext lights master switch OR

2. rotate formation switch to off then back to on

67
Q

Pitot heat provides heat to what on deck and what airborne?

A

On Deck: Pitot Tube

Airborne: Pitot Tube, Total Temp probe, and AOA Probe

68
Q

Is the aircrew authorized to transmit on ICS during stray voltage checks or aero-7 pin removal?

A

NO

69
Q

What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for flaps 30, slats out?

A

115, 17

70
Q

What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for single engine?

A

122, 17

71
Q

What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for NF/NS approach?

A

157, 13

72
Q

How much does engine anti-ice reduce thrust?

A

100 lbs per side.

73
Q

When should defog be turned on?

A

5 minutes prior descent after prolonged cold soaking.

74
Q

Max crosswind component for a section go:

A

10kts

75
Q

The yellow ATT caution on the EADI indicates a discrepancy between PRI & SEC attitudes by how much?

A

5 deg pitch or

6 deg roll

76
Q

In a total electrical failure, does the CDNU receive battery power?

A

NO

77
Q

What Conditions Cause the DFCS IBIT to Abort?

A
  1. AFCS emergency disconnect actuated
  2. Selecting abort on the CDNU
  3. Leaving the DFCS test page
78
Q

Rudder throw limits?

A

On deck flaps down/ASR: 35 degrees
Airborne flaps down: 23 degrees
Airborne flaps up: 4 degrees
On deck flaps up: 4 degrees

79
Q

CAUSE OF Wheels warning light:

A
  1. Landing gear not down and locked
  2. Either throttle less than 83+/-3%
    and
  3. Flaps not up
80
Q

When tanking, the FUS FUEL HIGH PSI light illuminates, what is the concern and what may be the cause if the tanker is not a US source?

A

Chimney buckling, tanker transferring in excess of 55 psi

81
Q

Concern of Chimney Buckling?

A

Binding of the Flight Controls and Fuel Leaks?

82
Q

CAUSE OF: CSD OVERHEAT caution light:

A

Temp in excess of 260 deg +/- 10

83
Q

At what temperature does the CSD uncouple?

A

354 deg F

84
Q

What are the ejection seat colors?

A 
BPOW
Pilot: Brown
ECMO 1: Purple
ECMO 2: Orang
ECMO 3: White
85
Q

What is the ejection seat time delay?

A

ECMO 3: 0.0 sec
ECMO 2: 0.4 sec
ECMO 1: 0.8 sec
Pilot: 1.2 sec

86
Q

Does the TDSIU have its own cooling system?

A

Yes

87
Q

Is hot pitting authorized following aerial refueling?

A

No, probe tip must be inspected to ensure fuel isn’t pumped out of the probe and overboard into the engine.

88
Q

The battery of a HUNG HARM may cause rocket ignition up to how long

A

45 minutes

89
Q

What systems use NWW bleed air?

A
  1. CSD ejectors
  2. Cross bleed start
  3. Windshield air
90
Q

Fuel tank pressurization schedule:

A

NORMAL:
On Deck: Wings: 0 psi / Drops: 0 psi
Airborne Dirty: Wings: 0 psi / Drops: 0 psi
Airborne Clean: Wings: 7 psi / Drops: 25 psi

Override:
On Deck: Wings: 7 psi / Drops: 25 psi
Airborne (dirty and clean): Wings: 12 psi / Drops: 25 psi

Fuselage tank press: 1.25-2 psi from ram air

91
Q

Are VOR approaches involving procedure turns authorized?

A

NO

92
Q

CAUSE OF: R STARTER caution light

A

Right starter valve is not fully closed

93
Q

CAUSE OF: Both FUEL PSI caution lights:

A

The fuselage electric boost pump has failed (pressure downstream of centrifugal pumps has fallen to 11-15 psi)

94
Q

CAUSE OF: ANTI-SKID caution light

A
  1. System Off or Inoperative (Brake Release Signaled for Longer than 3.5 seconds)
  2. Brake Selector Handle Pulled
95
Q

CAUSE OF: TDSIU TEMP caution light

A

Excessive TDISU Temperature

96
Q

What does the EFM do?

A
  1. Energizes the electric boost pump
  2. Enables push to crank
  3. Opens fuel gate valve
97
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed to avoid compressor stalls:

A

230-280 KIAS

98
Q

What Airspeed and RPM is most conducive the Formation of Engine Icing?

A

Low Airspeed and High RPM

99
Q

List indications of engine icing:

A
  1. Reduction of RPM
  2. Increase in EGT
  3. Loss of thrust
100
Q

What does airflow from the aux heat exchanger go to?

A

FAC WASH

  1. Fuel tank pressurization
  2. Anti-g suit
  3. Canopy seals
  4. Windshield wash
101
Q

The 24VDC 0.33A NiCad batter supplies power to what?

A

ASR and YRI

102
Q

CAUSE OF: HYD SYS caution light:

A

. Either Hyd System Below 1400psi

. Off When Both Systems Above 1900psi

103
Q

Leaving spin inputs in too long will result in what?

A

Progressive Spin in the Direction of the Inputs

104
Q

CAUSE OF: HOOK LIFT light:

A

The hook is in transition

NATOPS (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions