NATOPS CHECK QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of “Min go”

A

Speed at which you can lose an engine and still achieve take-off speed with the runway remaining.

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2
Q

What changes to T/O data when runway is lengthened

A

Max Abort increases, Min Go decreases

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3
Q

According to NATOPS what can we do to affect/change max brake speed?

A

Configure from flaps 30 - flaps 20 ??? Factors are listed as Temperature, Pressure, and Gross Weight. (We can only affect gross weight. (XI-29-10). But also we can use less than hard brakes.

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4
Q

7 land ASAPS

A
  1. Any Fire, Fire/Temp light
  2. LO FUEL light
  3. L/R PSI light
  4. Uncommanded Loss of Fuselage Fuel
  5. Loss of 1 Hyd Pump in each System
  6. EHAT Light on for 2 min Elec Airflo Light not on, GBO
  7. Symptoms of Decompression sickness
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5
Q

What is on Flight hyd system?

A

1/2 Flight Controls
Isolation Valve
AFCS

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6
Q

Explain the last land ASAP

A

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7
Q

What is the both engine’s wind milling glide ratio?

A

10.2 : 1

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8
Q

5 secondary indications of gear down and locked?

A
  1. Wheels Warning Light - Off
  2. Land Gear Tx Light - Off
  3. AOA Indexers - On
  4. Lower Anti-Smash - Off
  5. With Taxi Light Switch On, Light - On
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9
Q

Seat man separation happens when?

A

2 Seconds after Ejection If Below 13,000 +/- 1,500 ft

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10
Q

Can drop-tank fuel be transferred to the fuselage with a complete electrical failure?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Which fuselage cell supplies fuel to the engine?

A

Aft

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12
Q

What Are the Indications of a Left Weight Off Wheels Switch Failure?

A
  1. Landing gear handle lock engaged
  2. AOA indexer lights disabled
  3. RADALT Attenuated
  4. EPR Reading in flight
  5. Canopy seal depressurized
    Other Affected Systems:
  6. Stores Jettison disabled
  7. Flaperon Popups Enabled
  8. Chaff dispensers disabled
  9. NWW BLEED AIR valve open
  10. AOA and total temp probe heaters disabled
  11. Strut lock and tow link indications disabled
  12. Forward equipment cooling valve open
  13. 23 deg rudder stops disabled
  14. ACLS inoperative
  15. APC disabled
  16. Stall warning horn disabled
  17. EXCITER GND PWR switches enabled
  18. EGI IBIT capability enabled
  19. With MODE S enabled, Mode 3/A and C will be disabled until Mode S is deselected
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13
Q

CAUSE OF: Both L & R FUEL PSI caution lights on at the same time

A

Electric fuselage fuel boost pump failure

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14
Q

CAUSE OF: L or R Starter caution light

A

Starter valve not fully closed

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15
Q

CAUSE OF: L or R CSD OVERHEAT caution light

A

CSD temp exceeds 260 deg F

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16
Q

CAUSE OF: ANTI-SKID caution light

A
  1. Anti-skid off or inoperative

2. Brake handle not stowed

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17
Q

How many degrees of asymmetry in speed brakes cause the electrical synchronization system to actuate retracting both speed brakes?

A

8

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18
Q

CAUSE OF: RUD THROW caution light

A

Extended throws available in clean configuration

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19
Q

CAUSE OF: OXYGEN caution light

A
  1. Less than 3 liters of oxygen remaining (out of 30 max)

2. Less than 50 PSI pressure (normal 70-100 PSI)

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20
Q

Which Navigation mode cannot be operator selected?

A

Dead reckoning

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21
Q

When using the emergency flaps switch, why should the flap lever match the desired position?

A

If the electric switch is off, and the Hyd pressure becomes available; the flaps will move to the commanded position of the flap lever.

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22
Q

What two things does the gyro switch power?

A
  1. Turn rate gyros

2. ARI’s

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23
Q

With low fuel, what inflight refueling steps will ensure that all fuel goes to the fuselage tank?

A
  1. Wing dump switch - DUMP

2. Refueling switch - OFF

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24
Q

Emergency O2 lasts approximately _____ (depending on breathing rate and altitude).

A

15 minutes

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25
List the inputs to the fuel control unit:
1. Throttle position 2. Burner can pressure 3. Engine rpm 4. Compressor inlet temp
26
How much time is required between cycling the emergency flap/slat system?
3 minutes
27
What airspeed is required to provide hydraulic pressure from windmilling engines alone?
140 KIAS
28
What are the engine start cycle limits? (How many times, for how long, and for how long between each)?
3 starts: 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off, 60 on, 60 off, 60 on, 30 minutes rest.
29
Approximately how long does it take to conduct and in-flight alignment? And it is recommended to fly _____ for better alignment.
10 minutes, straight and level.
30
Can running DFCS IBIT during taxi produce valid results?
No.
31
Are crew members authorized to use ICS during stray voltage checks and AERO 7 pin removal?
NO.
32
Is the canopy seal pressure dumped when the canopy jettison handle is pulled?
Yes.
33
What cools the CSD oil on deck and airborne?
On deck: Air ejectors | Airborne: Ram air
34
What is the max allowable deviation from field elevation for the forward altimeter, beyond which the A/C shall not be flown?
75'
35
You can dump down to how much fuel in the fuselage tank in a normal flight attitude and at a high AOA?
3,700 lbs (normal attitude) | 2,700 lbs (high AOA)
36
When can a circuit breaker be reset more than once? And can multiple simultaneously popped circuit breakers be reset once?
When in extremis. | No.
37
Aux brakes provide how many brake applications if accumulator is full?
15
38
The aux brake priority valve reserves the last _____ to _____ applications for emergency/parking brake.
4, 7
39
For wing spread and control checks, what is required for prior to selecting ASR ON?
1. Flap selector lever must be up | 2. Emer flaps switch must be off.
40
What is the max crosswind for a section go?
10 kts
41
What methods can be used to update the nav system?
1. Tacan 2. Radar 3. Overfly 4. EGI to EGI present position
42
Can UHF 3 be controlled by the CDNU?
Yes
43
Does selecting a radio to transmit on the ISC control panel deselect other radios?
Yes
44
The standard landing configuration is:
1. Flaps - 30 2. Slats - OUT 3. Speed brakes - Extended
45
With vert ref in PRI where does attitude come from? In SEC?
The primary EGI | The secondary EGI
46
What is required for flaperon popup operation?
1. Flaperon popup switch - armed 2. Both throttles - IDLE 3. Weight on Wheels 4. Wings spread and locked
47
In a no flap/no slat configuration, slowing to ____ for emergency gear extension will result in a stall below what gross weight?
150 KIAS | 43,000 lbs
48
CAUSE OF: ELECTRONIC AIRFLOW caution light:
Pressure downstream of the aft bleed air shutoff valve is less than 5 psi.
49
CAUSE OF: L FILTER caution light:
Greater than a 5 psi Differential Across the Filter ( bypass opens at 8-10 psi ).
50
CAUSE OF: Wheels Warning light:
Landing gear not down and locked with flaps not up and either throttle below 83+/-3%
51
CAUSE OF: R FUEL PSI caution light at 23,000' MSL:
Right engine driven centrifugal boost pump failure. Descend and reduce thrust.
52
Acceptable indications at MRT before takeoff for: 1. Fuel flow 2. EGT 3. Oil Pressure
1. 6000-10500 lbs/hr 2. 690-832 deg C 3. 40-50 PSI
53
When are the 23 degree rudder stops activated?
Flaps down and weight off wheels
54
What is cooled by the auxiliary heat exchanger?
1. Fuel tank pressurization 2. Anti-g suit 3. Canopy seal 4. Windshield wash
55
Switching A/C cockpit switch to ram air does what?
1. Closes the cabin bleed air shutoff valve 2. Drives dual-temp control valves full hot 3. Enables operation of the ram air valve
56
CAUSE OF: LOW FUEL caution light:
Fuselage fuel remaining is approximately 2,500 lbs. | 1,800 lbs at high angles of attack.
57
How long is one cycle of the emergency flaps and how long is the required wait time between cycles?
45 seconds | 3 minutes
58
Pitch and roll limits of the radalt:
Pitch: +/-40 deg Roll: +/-30 deg
59
What configuration and AOA are used for single engine landing?
Flaps: 20 deg Boards: IN AOA: 17 Units
60
Horizontal stab leading edge deflection limits for: 1. Flaps up 2. Flaps Down / ASR
1. Flaps up: 1.5 deg up and 10 deg down. | 2. Flaps down/ASR: 1.5 deg up and 24 deg down.
61
Does ECS operation have an effect on the TDSIU TEMP light?
No.
62
How is the canopy override system activated? What happens if the handle is held in the override position?
Hold the handle forward. Left in the override position the pneumatic supply is depleted from the normal supply.
63
How much time should be allowed between actuation of bleed air valve?
10 seconds
64
CAUSE OF: LOW OIL caution light:
65
After landing check oil within how many minutes of landing? If not, what is the alternate check?
1. 5 minutes of landing | 2. Run up engines to 75% for 30 seconds before shutdown.
66
How do you reset form lights if they overheat?
1. Cycle ext lights master switch OR | 2. rotate formation switch to off then back to on
67
Pitot heat provides heat to what on deck and what airborne?
On Deck: Pitot Tube | Airborne: Pitot Tube, Total Temp probe, and AOA Probe
68
Is the aircrew authorized to transmit on ICS during stray voltage checks or aero-7 pin removal?
NO
69
What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for flaps 30, slats out?
115, 17
70
What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for single engine?
122, 17
71
What is the base airspeed and approach AOA for NF/NS approach?
157, 13
72
How much does engine anti-ice reduce thrust?
100 lbs per side.
73
When should defog be turned on?
5 minutes prior descent after prolonged cold soaking.
74
Max crosswind component for a section go:
10kts
75
The yellow ATT caution on the EADI indicates a discrepancy between PRI & SEC attitudes by how much?
5 deg pitch or | 6 deg roll
76
In a total electrical failure, does the CDNU receive battery power?
NO
77
What Conditions Cause the DFCS IBIT to Abort?
1. AFCS emergency disconnect actuated 2. Selecting abort on the CDNU 3. Leaving the DFCS test page
78
Rudder throw limits?
On deck flaps down/ASR: 35 degrees Airborne flaps down: 23 degrees Airborne flaps up: 4 degrees On deck flaps up: 4 degrees
79
CAUSE OF Wheels warning light:
1. Landing gear not down and locked 2. Either throttle less than 83+/-3% and 3. Flaps not up
80
When tanking, the FUS FUEL HIGH PSI light illuminates, what is the concern and what may be the cause if the tanker is not a US source?
Chimney buckling, tanker transferring in excess of 55 psi
81
Concern of Chimney Buckling?
Binding of the Flight Controls and Fuel Leaks?
82
CAUSE OF: CSD OVERHEAT caution light:
Temp in excess of 260 deg +/- 10
83
At what temperature does the CSD uncouple?
354 deg F
84
What are the ejection seat colors?
``` BPOW Pilot: Brown ECMO 1: Purple ECMO 2: Orang ECMO 3: White ```
85
What is the ejection seat time delay?
ECMO 3: 0.0 sec ECMO 2: 0.4 sec ECMO 1: 0.8 sec Pilot: 1.2 sec
86
Does the TDSIU have its own cooling system?
Yes
87
Is hot pitting authorized following aerial refueling?
No, probe tip must be inspected to ensure fuel isn't pumped out of the probe and overboard into the engine.
88
The battery of a HUNG HARM may cause rocket ignition up to how long
45 minutes
89
What systems use NWW bleed air?
1. CSD ejectors 2. Cross bleed start 3. Windshield air
90
Fuel tank pressurization schedule:
NORMAL: On Deck: Wings: 0 psi / Drops: 0 psi Airborne Dirty: Wings: 0 psi / Drops: 0 psi Airborne Clean: Wings: 7 psi / Drops: 25 psi Override: On Deck: Wings: 7 psi / Drops: 25 psi Airborne (dirty and clean): Wings: 12 psi / Drops: 25 psi Fuselage tank press: 1.25-2 psi from ram air
91
Are VOR approaches involving procedure turns authorized?
NO
92
CAUSE OF: R STARTER caution light
Right starter valve is not fully closed
93
CAUSE OF: Both FUEL PSI caution lights:
The fuselage electric boost pump has failed (pressure downstream of centrifugal pumps has fallen to 11-15 psi)
94
CAUSE OF: ANTI-SKID caution light
1. System Off or Inoperative (Brake Release Signaled for Longer than 3.5 seconds) 2. Brake Selector Handle Pulled
95
CAUSE OF: TDSIU TEMP caution light
Excessive TDISU Temperature
96
What does the EFM do?
1. Energizes the electric boost pump 2. Enables push to crank 3. Opens fuel gate valve
97
Turbulent air penetration speed to avoid compressor stalls:
230-280 KIAS
98
What Airspeed and RPM is most conducive the Formation of Engine Icing?
Low Airspeed and High RPM
99
List indications of engine icing:
1. Reduction of RPM 2. Increase in EGT 3. Loss of thrust
100
What does airflow from the aux heat exchanger go to?
FAC WASH 1. Fuel tank pressurization 2. Anti-g suit 3. Canopy seals 4. Windshield wash
101
The 24VDC 0.33A NiCad batter supplies power to what?
ASR and YRI
102
CAUSE OF: HYD SYS caution light:
. Either Hyd System Below 1400psi | . Off When Both Systems Above 1900psi
103
Leaving spin inputs in too long will result in what?
Progressive Spin in the Direction of the Inputs
104
CAUSE OF: HOOK LIFT light:
The hook is in transition