NAPPI PRACTICE EXAMS 1 & 2 - PROCEDURES RELATED

Question 1

2. Comparing CBCT images to CT simulation images and making adjustments is known as:

A. Registration
B. Representation
C. Rendering
D. Recording

Answer 1

A. Registration

Question 2

4. Which type of leukemia does NOT use bone marrow transplants as a form of treatment?

A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

Answer 2

C. CLL

Question 3

5. which of the following is NOT assessed during a complete blood count study?

A. plasma
B. Hemoglobin
C. Hematocrit
D. Glucose

Answer 3

D. Glucose

Question 4

7. Brachytherapy is used for:

A. short distance radiation therapy
B. external beam radiation therapy
C. extended distance radiation therapy
D. stereotactic radiation therapy

Answer 4

A. short distance radiation therapy

Question 5

8. a patient is receiving arc therapy for 27 treatments. The total dose is 54 Gy, with a daily dose of 200 cGy. The arc will deliver 250 MU. The gantry is moving 360 degrees. Calculate the arc speed.

A..56 MU/degree
B. .69 MU/degree
C. 1.44 MU/degree
D. 1.80 MU/degree

Answer 5

B. .69 MU/degree

Question 6

10. If a lymphoma spreads in a random pattern, it is most likely -

A. Hodgkins
B. Non-Hodgkins
C. Chronic
D. Acute

Answer 6

B. Non-Hodgkins

Question 7

11. What is the tolerance dose to 1/3 the kidneys according to Emami et al.?

A. 2300 cGy
B. 3000 cGy
C. 4500 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

Answer 7

A. 2300 cGy

Question 8

12. What is the most common type of brain tumors?

A. astrocytoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. glioblastoma multiforme
D. metastatic tumors

Answer 8

D. metastatic tumors

Question 9

15. Parallel opposed fields have a hinge angle of:

A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

Answer 9

C. 180 degrees

Question 10

18. the gantry, collimator, and treatment couch all rotate around the:

A. central axis
B. target
C. isocenter
D. past point

Answer 10

C. isocenter

Question 11

19. what is the most common type of skin cancer?

A. squamous cell carcinoma
B. melanoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma

Answer 11

C. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 12

20. the part of the tumor that can be seen or palpated is?

A. GTV
B. PTV
C. ITV
D. CTV

Answer 12

A. GTV

Question 13

22. what is true about hand blocks and cast blocks?

A. cast blocks are cut to match the angle of the photon beam to reduce penumbra
B. hand blocks are custom for each patient
C. cast block can have 7.5% transmission
D. a positive block shields the periphery of the radiation field

Answer 13

A. cast blocks are cut to match the angle of the photon beam to reduce penumbra

Question 14

25. what is the dmax for a 6 MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

Answer 14

A. 1.5 cm

Question 15

26. which lymph node is located below the mastoid tip and is involved in many HN cancers?

A. jugulodigastric
B. obturator
C. mesenteric
D. iliac

Answer 15

A. jugulodigastric

Question 16

27. what device is used to spread the beam of electrons when utilizing electron therapy?

A. bending magnet
B. electron gun
C. scattering foil
D. flattening filter

Answer 16

C. scattering foil

Question 17

28. the distance from the source to radiation to the isocenter is known as:

A. source-to-axis distance
B. source-to-surface distance
C. central axis
D. source to collimator distance

Answer 17

A. source-to-axis distance

Question 18

29. after what dose would permanent hair loss most likely occur?

A. 1500 cGy
B. 2500 cGy
C. 3500 cGy
D. 4500 cGy

Answer 18

D. 4500 cGy

Question 19

31. the radiation oncologist wants 100% of the dose to be delivered at the patient’s skin surface. The patient is going to be treated with an energy of 6 MV. What bolus thickness would be required?

A. .5 cm
B. 1.0 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 2.0 cm

Answer 19

C. 1.5 cm

Question 20

32. The most common pathology for cancers of the oral cavity are:

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Transitional cell carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma

Answer 20

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 21

35. the standard format used to transfer images from diagnostic imaging computers to treatment planning computers is defined by:

A. DICOM
B. PACS
C. DRR
D. EMR

Answer 21

A. DICOM

Question 22

36. What is the wedge angle needed when there is a hinge angle of 90 degrees?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees

Answer 22

C. 45 degrees

Question 23

37. What can be used to treat anaphylactic shock?

A. Epinephrine
B. Methotrexate
C. Prednisone
D. Amifostine

Answer 23

A. Epinephrine

Question 24

40. Tumors that are slow growing and encapsulated are most likely:

A. superficial
B. deep
C. benign
D. malignant

Answer 24

C. benign

Question 25

41. the breast tissue that is located near the axilla is called:

A. Cooper’s ligaments
B. Tail of Spence
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Pectoralis minor

Answer 25

B. Tail of Spence

Question 26

42. Which of the following would not be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription?

A. beam energy
B. dose
C. bolus
D. monitor units

Answer 26

D. monitor units

Question 27

43. What is the correct order (listed in superior to inferior) of the three divisions of the pharynx:

A. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx
B. hypopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx
C. nasopharynx, oropharynx, hypopharynx
D. nasopharynx, hypopharynx, oropharynx

Answer 27

C. nasopharynx, oropharynx, hypopharynx

Question 28

45. If a brain tumor is classified as “well-differentiated”, it would be given a grade of:

A. G1
B. G2
C. G3
D. GX

Answer 28

A. G1

Question 29

47. At what age does the American Cancer Society suggest for men and women to have a screening colonoscopy?

A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

Answer 29

C. 50

Question 30

48. what is the equivalent square for a rectangular field measuring 8 cm x 12 cm?

A. 4.8 cm x 4.8 cm
B. 9.6 cm x 9.6 cm
C. 10.5 cm x 10.5 cm
D. 11.2 cm x 11.2 cm

Answer 30

B. 9.6 cm x 9.6 cm

Question 31

49. How are tumors accurately diagnosed and staged?

A. CT simulation
B. MRI
C. Mammography
D. Biopsy

Answer 31

D. Biopsy

Question 32

52. All of the following types of treatment planning require a CT simulation, except:

A. 2D
B. 3D
C. 4D
D. IMRT

Answer 32

A. 2D

Question 33

55. What is the appropriate way to change an error made in the patient’s treatment chart?

A. Cover the error using white out and write the correct entry over it
B. Draw multiple lines through the error until it is not legible and sign your name
C. Draw a single line through the error and your initials
D. Do not make any changes to the error

Answer 33

C. Draw a single line through the error and your initials

Question 34

56. Which of the following are considered an early effect of radiation?

A. cataracts
B. alopecia
C. fibrosis
D. leukemia

Answer 34

B. alopecia

Question 35

58. What is the type of condition that is associated with cancers of the oral cavity?

A. Plummer Vinson Syndrome
B. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
C. Ebstein-Barr Virus
D. Cryptorchidism

Answer 35

A. Plummer Vinson Syndrome

Question 36

59. the cause of a disease is defined by:

A. Epidemiology
B. Etiology
C. Screening
D. Incidence

Answer 36

B. Etiology

Question 37

60. A treatment plan for an AP/PA L spine requires field weighting. The fields will be weighted 3:1 respectively. If the total dose is 250 cGy, what dose will the AP field receive?

A. 62.5 cGy
B. 83.3 cGy
C. 187.5 cGy
D. 250.0 cGy

Answer 37

C. 187.5 cGy

Question 38

62. At least how much bone marrow needs to be in a treatment field for bone marrow depression to occur?

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Answer 38

D. 25%

Question 39

63. What is the most common type of soft tissue sarcoma to occur in children?

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Answer 39

C. Rhabdomyosarcoma

Question 40

64. IMRT is possible with the use of:

A. Cerrobend blocks
B. Compensators
C. Wedges
D. MLCs

Answer 40

D. MLCs

Question 41

65. What is the dmax for a 9 MeV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.2 cm
C. 2.8 cm
D. 3.0 cm

Answer 41

B. 2.2 cm

Question 42

67. Regarding patient billing, “professional” charges are those that involve:

A. the radiation oncologist
B. the radiation therapist
C. the simulation
D. the treatment

Answer 42

A. the radiation oncologist

Question 43

68. a common chemotherapy treatment used to treat Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

Answer 43

D. ABVD

Question 44

69. All of the following planes that can be viewed on a CT scan EXCEPT:

A. Axial
B. Coronal
C. Sagittal
D. Lateral

Answer 44

D. Lateral

Question 45

72. What is the most common type of primary brain tumor in children?

A. Astrocytoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Glioblastoma multiforme
D. Ependymoma

Answer 45

A. Astrocytoma

Question 46

73. The radiation beam has an intensity of 50 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm from the source. What is the intensity at 12 cm from the source?

A. 18 mR/hr
B. 30 mR/hr
C. 95 mR/hr
D. 139 mR/hr

Answer 46

D. 139 mR/hr

Question 47

74. What is the most sensitive part of the human cell?

A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Proteins
D. Mitochondria

Answer 47

B. DNA

Question 48

75. What does BID treatment mean?

A. Two treatments in one week
B. Two treatments in one day
C. Three treatments in one week
D. Three treatments in one day

Answer 48

B. Two treatments in one day

Question 49

76. An alpha cradle is what type of immobilization device?

A. positioning aid
B. simple immobilization device
C. complex immobilization device

Answer 49

C. complex immobilization device

Question 50

77. What radiation therapy technique would produce the most accurate positioning for patient treatment?

A. IGRT
B. IMRT
C. weekly port films
D. triangulation

Answer 50

A. IGRT

Question 51

79. What are the two most toxic materials in Cerrobend blocks?

A. Tin and Cadmium
B. Lead and Bismuth
C. Bismuth and Tin
D. Cadmium and Lead

Answer 51

D. Cadmium and Lead

Question 52

81. What staging system is used for gynecological cancers?

A. Dukes
B. Clarks
C. Ann Arbor
D. FIGO

Answer 52

D. FIGO

Question 53

check correctness - there is another question in practice test 1 about “contrast” and the answer is also Window Width… So is contrast = shades of gray
82. What is the term that describes the various shades of gray that is present on a CT image?

A. Window level
B. Window median
C. Window width
D. Window height

Answer 53

C. Window width

Question 54

83. Where is the most common location for pancreatic tumors to arise?

A. Body
B. Tail
C. Head
D. Fundus

Answer 54

C. Head

Question 55

85. Where is the field size defined?

A. on the patient’s skin surface
B. at the isocenter
C. in the collimator
D. at the source of radiation

Answer 55

B. at the isocenter

Question 56

87. What does the Pap smear screen for?

A. Prostate cancer
B. Cervical cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Rectal cancer

Answer 56

B. Cervical cancer

Question 57

88. Which of the following is NOT a B symptom?

A. fever
B. night sweats
C. hives
D. weight loss

Answer 57

C. hives

Question 58

89. the orthogonal pair of images is considered images that are taken at angles of ______ degrees from each other

A. 10
B. 45
C. 90
D. 180

Answer 58

C. 90

Question 59

91. the CT number for water is?

A. -1000
B. 0
C. 1
D. 1000

Answer 59

B. 0

Question 60

92. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the treatment table, the patient to hold on to the lifter’s:

A. hands
B. arms
C. shoulders
D. neck

Answer 60

C. shoulders

Question 61

94. Arteriovenous Malformations are most likely treated with:

A. electron beam
B. brachytherapy
C. SBRT
D. SRS

Answer 61

D. SRS

Question 62

95. the main function of an immobilization device is to?

A. make the patient comfortable during treatment
B. create a reproducible setup that can be maintained throughout treatment
C. prevent the patient from falling
D. prevent the patient from talking throughout the treatment

Answer 62

B. create a reproducible setup that can be maintained throughout treatment

Question 63

96. Patients experiencing extreme difficulty swallowing from head and neck treatments may require a ________ to ensure they receive adequate nutrition

A. PEG tube
B. NG tube
C. PICC line
D. Catheter

Answer 63

A. PEG tube

Question 64

98. A liposarcoma tumor is what type of tissue?

A. fat
B. striated muscle
C. cartilage
D. smooth muscle

Answer 64

A. fat

Question 65

99. a brachytherapy applicator that is used to treat cervical cancer is:

A. intraluminal
B. Intracavitary
C. Interstitial
D. Intra-arterial

Answer 65

B. Intracavitary

Question 66

101. Which of the following bowel surgery preserves the anal sphincter?

A. anterior resection
B. abdominoperineal resection
C. pancreaticoduodenectomy
D. hysterectomy

Answer 66

A. anterior resection

Question 67

102. Why are diagnostic CTs not optimal for treatment planning?

A. flat couch top
B. small bore
C. slice thickness cannot be changed
D. spacing between slices cannot be changed

Answer 67

B. small bore

Question 68

103. Where is the most common location to measure a patient’s pulse?

A. apical artery
B. carotid artery
C. radial artery
D. femoral artery

Answer 68

C. radial artery

Question 69

104. The most common location for bone metastasis of prostate cancer is?

A. Ribs
B. Hip
C. Spine
D. Shoulder

Answer 69

C. Spine

Question 70

105. The cells ability to repair itself is represented in which region of the dose-response relationship graph?

A. D subscript o
B. D subscript q
C. n
D. TD 5/5

Answer 70

B. D subscript q

Question 71

106. ALARA stands for?

A. As Little As Reasonably Affordable
B. As Low As Reasonably Achievable
C. As Low As Realistically Attainable
D. As Little As Realistically Achievable

Answer 71

B. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

Question 72

107. A common chemotherapy combination used to treat breast cancer is

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

Answer 72

B. CMF

Question 73

108. Which of the following is primarily used to treat small tumors within the cranium for one fraction using very high dose?

A. Intensity modulated radiation therapy
B. Total body irradiation
C. Stereotactic radiosurgery
D. Stereotactic body radiation therapy

Answer 73

C. Stereotactic radiosurgery

Question 74

110. If the dose given for a single treatment fraction is different than ________ of the prescription, it is considered a medical event

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

Answer 74

D. 50%

Question 75

111. CT simulation laser tolerance is?

A. +/- 1mm
B. +/- 2mm
C. +/- 1 cm
D. +/-2 cm

Answer 75

B. +/- 2mm

Question 76

112. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cell defines which type of cancer?

A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Chronic Myelogenic Leukemia
D. Acute Myelogenic Leukemia

Answer 76

A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Question 77

113. Which of the following energies is the most penetrating?

A. Cobalt-60
B. 10 MeV
C. 6 MV
D. 10 MV

Answer 77

D. 10 MV

Question 78

114. The vagina is located _________ to the bladder and ___________ to the rectum

A. anterior, posterior
B. posterior, anterior
C. medial, lateral
D. superior, inferior

Answer 78

B. posterior, anterior

Question 79

117. What is the most common pathology for bladder cancer?

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma

Answer 79

B. Transitional cell carcinoma

Question 80

118. What part of the staging system describes the lymph node involvement?

A. T
B. N
C. M
D. G

Answer 80

B. N

Question 81

119. A microorganism that is the cause of an infectious disease is called:

A. pathogen
B. reservoir
C. droplet
D. antigen

Answer 81

A. pathogen

Question 82

121. All of the following are qualities of melanomas EXCEPT:

A. asymmetry
B. uneven borders
C. non-uniform coloring
D. diameters smaller than 6 mm

Answer 82

D. diameters smaller than 6 mm

Question 83

122. Cancer screening tests that can detect cancer in EARLY stages is:

A. sensitive
B. specific
C. detailed
D. precise

Answer 83

A. sensitive

Question 84

check correctness - check against Mosby too, you remember a similar question
123. To find the area of an irregularly shaped field use:

A. Clarkson Integration
B. Equivalent Square
C. Monte Carlo Computation
D. Mayneord “F” Factor

Answer 84

A. Clarkson Integration

Question 85

125. Immunosuppressed patients should follow what type of precaution?

A. reverse isolation precaution
B. contact precaution
C. droplet precaution
D. airborne precaution

Answer 85

A. reverse isolation precaution

Question 86

127. What would be used to decrease skin sparing?

A. wedges
B. compensators
C. bolus
D. IMRT

Answer 86

C. bolus

Question 87

129. Percocet is what type of medication?

A. antiemetic
B. analgesic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. antispasmodic

Answer 87

B. analgesic

Question 88

130. What is the most common pathology for esophageal tumors?

A. squamous cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. small cell carcinoma
D. clear cell carcinoma

Answer 88

B. adenocarcinoma

Question 89

133. The CT number for air is?

A. -1000
B. 0
C. 100
D. 1000

Answer 89

A. -1000

Question 90

134. Forward planning is when the:

A. planner chooses desired parameters and then the isodose curves are generated
B. planner chooses tolerance doses of all tissues in treatment area and then parameters are created
C. planner chooses isodose curves and parameters are created
D. planner choose parameters and isodose curves

Answer 90

A. planner chooses desired parameters and then the isodose curves are generated

Question 91

136. When a wedge is in the path of the radiation beam:

A. Beam hardening increases
B. Beam hardening decreases
C. PDD increases
D. PDD decreases

Answer 91

A. Beam hardening increases

Question 92

137. Which imaging study injects radioactive material into a patient before imaging?

A. Nuclear medicine
B. Radiography
C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
D. Computed Tomography

Answer 92

A. Nuclear medicine

Question 93

138. When viewing a sagittal slice of the male pelvis, the prostate is located __________ to the rectum and ______________ to the bladder

A. anterior, posterior
B. posterior, anterior
C. superior, inferior
D. inferior, superior

Answer 93

A. anterior, posterior

Question 94

140. All of the following are localized treatments EXCEPT:

A. surgery
B. External beam radiation therapy
C. chemotherapy
D. brachytherapy

Answer 94

C. chemotherapy

Question 95

141. An example of a hormonal agent used to treat breast cancer is?

A. doxorubicin
B. methotrexate
C. cisplatin
D. tamoxifen

Answer 95

D. tamoxifen

Question 96

142. At least what dose is needed to the lens of the eyes to cause blindness?

A. 100 cGy
B. 500 cGy
C. 750 cGy
D. 1000 cGy

Answer 96

D. 1000 cGy

Question 97

143. At least what distance is needed between the compensator and patient’s skin surface to maintain skin sparing during photon therapy treatments?

A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm

Answer 97

B. 20 cm

Question 98

144. The small bowel can be moved out of the treatment field by using a special board and the patient is in which position?

A. supine
B. prone
C. right lateral decubitus
D. left lateral decubitus

Answer 98

B. prone

Question 99

146. A chemotherapy that can cause cardiac toxicity is?

A. Adriamycin
B. Bleomycin
C. Mitomycin
D. Actinomycin

Answer 99

A. Adriamycin

Question 100

147. The beam flattening filter is used for what type of treatments?

A. electron
B. proton
C. photon
D. orthovoltage

Answer 100

C. photon

Question 101

148. Cryptorchidism increases the risk for what type of cancer?

A. Testicular
B. Ovarian
C. Prostate
D. Penis

Answer 101

A. Testicular

Question 102

149. list the following in order from smallest volume to largest volume
     PTV
     GTV
     CTV

A. GTV, PTV, CTV
B. CTV, GTV, PTV
C. GTV, CTV, PTV
D. PTV, GTV, CTV

Answer 102

C. GTV, CTV, PTV

Question 103

check correctness
151. All of the following are common locations for metastatic bone disease EXCEPT:

A. distal femur
B. vertebrae
C. pelvic bone
D. ribs

Answer 103

A. distal femur

Question 104

152. Chest tubes should be kept at what level

A. above the patient’s chest
B. same level as patient’s chest
C. below patient’s chest
D. 18-24” above chest

Answer 104

C. below patient’s chest

Question 105

153. The type of brachytherapy implant used for endometrial cancers is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

Answer 105

A. intracavitary implants

Question 106

154. on a dose-response graph, the portion of the curve that represents 37% of cell survival is:

A. D subscript o
B. D subscript q
C. n
D. TD 5/5

Answer 106

A. D subscript o

Question 107

155. Which type of leukemia has stem cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome?

A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

Answer 107

D. CML

Question 108

check correctness
158. Viewing images after the patient has been treated is considered?

A. Registration
B. Reconstruction
C. Online review
D. Offline review

Answer 108

D. Offline review

Question 109

160. the most common pathology for tumors within the endometrium is?

A. squamous cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. clear cell carcinoma
D. sarcoma

Answer 109

B. adenocarcinoma

Question 110

161. A patient who has mouth sores due to his/her treatment should eat foods that are all of the following EXCEPT:

A. soft
B. bland
C. spicy
D. room temperature

Answer 110

C. spicy

Question 111

162. The DRR is created from?

A. CT
B. MRI
C. X-ray
D. Port film

Answer 111

A. CT

Question 112

163. two posterior spine fields are required to treat a patient. They are treated with 6 MV and to get a depth of 5 cm - one field measures 6 cm x 15 cm at 110 SSD.
     Another field measures 6 cm x 20 cm at 110 SSD.

What is the required gap needed for this treatment?

A. .1 cm
B. .3 cm
C. .8 cm
D. 1.2 cm

Answer 112

C. .8 cm

Question 113

166. Which of the following is considered a minor reaction to contrast media?

A. hypertension
B. tachycardia
C. vascular shock
D. hives

Answer 113

D. hives

Question 114

167. What is the method of MLC movement when the MLCs only move when the beam is turned off?

A. dynamic
B. step n shoot
C. sliding window
D. classic

Answer 114

B. step n shoot

Question 115

168. Where does mesothelioma occur?

A. centrally located within the lungs
B. periphery of the lungs
C. lining of the lungs
D. in the mediastinum

Answer 115

C. lining of the lungs

Question 116

170. When a brachytherapy source is placed directly into a tube within the body this is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

Answer 116

D. interluminal implants

Question 117

171. A patient receiving a dose of 3000 cGy to the upper-abdominal region would need which of the following medications to relieve a common side effect?

A. antiemetic
B. analgesic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. anti-diarrheal

Answer 117

A. antiemetic

• an antiemetic prevents vomiting

Question 118

an “analgesic” relieves what?

Answer 118

pain

Question 119

174. A patient is to be treated with 6 MV and a depth of 6 cm. The linear accelerator is calibrated to 100 SAD. The patient has a separation of 26 cm. At midplane, the field is 12 x 12 cm. The field size on the patient’s skin is?

A. 9.1 x 9.1 cm
B. 10.4 x 10.4 cm
C. 11.3 x 11.3 cm
D. 13.8 x 13.8 cm

Answer 119

B. 10.4 x 10.4 cm

Question 120

176. All of the following are true about non-small cell lung cancer EXCEPT?

A. connected to tobacco use
B. more common in women
C. tumors are not centrally located
D. better prognosis compared to small cell lung cancer

Answer 120

A. connected to tobacco use

Question 121

177. a chemotherapy that can be used as a radiosensitizer is?

A. cisplatin
B. dexamethasone
C. doxorubicin
D. vincristine

Answer 121

C. doxorubicin

Question 122

179. the depth where the total dose is delivered is known as?

A. PDD
B. TMR
C. Dmax
D. PSF

Answer 122

C. Dmax

Question 123

181. What is the name of the largest salivary gland?

A. submandibular gland
B. sublingual gland
C. submantle gland
D. parotid gland

Answer 123

D. parotid gland

Question 124

182. a patient’s prescribed total dose is 5400 cGy. The patient is prescribed to receive 180 cGy per fraction for 30 fractions at 100 SSD. What is the total dose the patient would receive if they were accidentally treated at 90 SSD?

A. 4374 cGy
B. 4860 cGy
C. 6000 cGy
D. 6666 cGy

Answer 124

D. 6666 cGy

Question 125

185. a patient who is undergoing breast cancer treatments is complaining of a skin reaction after receiving 14 treatments at 180 cGy per fraction. Which option is most likely to be her reaction?

A. faint erythema
B. erythema
C. dry desquamation
D. Moist desquamation

Answer 125

B. erythema

Question 126

186. What is the ratio of absorbed dose at a depth compared to the absorbed dose at dmax known as?

A. Percent Depth Dose
B. Dmax
C. Dose equilibrium
D. Tissue-air-ratio

Answer 126

A. Percent Depth Dose

Question 127

187. What is the main location of lymphatic drainage for the right breast?

A. left axillary nodes
B. right axillary nodes
C. left supraclavicular nodes
D. right supraclavicular nodes

Answer 127

B. right axillary nodes

Question 128

189. If you want to adjust the contrast of the CT image, you will be adjusting the:

A. window width
B. window level
C. field of view
D. scan field of view

Answer 128

A. window width

Question 129

191. a patient is going to be treated on a linear accelerator using an energy of 6 MV to a depth of 5 cm. The SSD is 91 cm. The TAR is .875 and the output is 1.02 cGy/mu. The patient will receive 180 cGy per treatment. How many monitor units must be delivered?

A. 158. MU
B. 176 MU
C. 202 MU
D. 206 MU

Answer 129

C. 202 MU

Question 130

192. chemotherapy administration into the spinal cord is known as:

A. intraperitoneal
B. intrathecal
C. intravenous
D. intraarterial

Answer 130

B. intrathecal

Question 131

196. What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A. infiltrating lobular carcinoma
B. infiltrating ductal carcinoma
C. lobular carcinoma in situ
D. ductal carcinoma in situ

Answer 131

B. infiltrating ductal carcinoma

Question 132

197. a thermoplastic mold that is flexible when in hot water and then can mold around the patient’s body is also called:

A. alpha cradle
B. vac-lok
C. aquaplast
D. cerrobend

Answer 132

C. aquaplast

Question 133

199. what area of the head and neck region is typically treated with a field size of 6x6 cm due to the lack of nodal involvement?

A. Pharynx
B. Larynx
C. Oral cavity
D. Parotid glands

Answer 133

B. Larynx

Question 134

practice exam 2:
1. the obturator node is most likely associated with a tumor in which organ?

A. breast
B. head and neck
C. prostate
D. pancreas

Answer 134

C. prostate

Question 135

practice exam 2:
3. all of the following have a direct relationship with PDD, except?

A. energy
B. depth
C. field size
D. SSD

Answer 135

B. depth

Question 136

practice exam 2:
4. a patient who has a skin reaction to radiation therapy should follow all of the following except:

A. use lotions only as prescribed
B. ventilate the area
C. wash the area with hot water and soap
D. avoid direct sunlight to the area

Answer 136

C. wash the area with hot water and soap

Question 137

practice exam 2:
5. what is another name for small cell lung cancer?

A. oat cell
B. adenocarcinoma
C. transitional cell
D. mesothelioma

Answer 137

A. oat cell

Question 138

practice exam 2:
7. what is the dmax for a 15 MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

Answer 138

C. 3.0 cm

Question 139

practice exam 2:
10. Gleason grading is used to grade tumors of which organ?

A. bladder
B. rectum
C. prostate
D. vagina

Answer 139

C. prostate

Question 140

practice exam 2:
11. if a patient has two different types of treatments at the same time, this is termed?

A. adjuvant
B. sequential
C. substantial
D. concurrent

Answer 140

D. concurrent

Question 141

practice exam 2:
13. the CT number for bone is?

A. -1000
B. 0
C. 100
D. 1000

Answer 141

D. 1000

Question 142

practice exam 2:
14. which blood examination tests the kidney and liver function?

A. TBI
B. CBC
C. BUN
D. creatine

Answer 142

C. BUN

Question 143

practice exam 2:
16. what part of the staging system describes metastatic disease

A. T
B. N
C. M
D. G

Answer 143

C. M

Question 144

practice exam 2:
18. safety check tolerance limits are:

A. 1 degree
B. 2 mm
C. 2%
D. functional

Answer 144

D. functional

Question 145

practice exam 2:
20. which gynecological cancer is the most deadly?

A. endometrial
B. ovarian
C. cervical
D. vaginal

Answer 145

B. ovarian

Question 146

practice exam 2:
21. a chemotherapy that can cause pulmonary toxicity is?

A. adriamycin
B. bleomycin
C. mitomycin
D. actinomycin

Answer 146

B. bleomycin

Question 147

practice exam 2:
23. if a patient has a superficial skin lesion on his/her forehead, the treatment technique most likely used is:

A. IMRT
B. conformal radiation therapy
C. SRS
D. electron therapy

Answer 147

D. electron therapy

Question 148

practice exam 2:
24. the term used to describe how many people have a specific disease is:

A. epidemiology
B. etiology
C. specificity
D. sensitivity

Answer 148

A. epidemiology

Question 149

practice exam 2:
25. the most common location for breast cancer to arise is the:

A. upper outer quadrant
B. upper inner quadrant
C. lower outer quadrant
D. lower inner quadrant

Answer 149

A. upper outer quadrant

Question 150

practice exam 2:
29. at approximately what vertebral level is the pancreas located?

A. T10-T11
B. T11-T12
C. T12-L1
D. L1-L2

Answer 150

D. L1-L2

Question 151

practice exam 2:
31. after aspiration, what percentage of bone marrow cells must be plasma cells to be diagnosed as multiple myeloma?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

Answer 151

B. 10%

Question 152

practice exam 2:
33. a common chemotherapy treatment used to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

A. CHOP
B. CMF
C. MOPP
D. ABVD

Answer 152

A. CHOP

Question 153

practice exam 2:
34. which magnet arrangement would create a more confined radiation beam?

A. 0 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees

Answer 153

D. 270 degrees

Question 154

practice exam 2:
35. a treatment plan for an AP/PA T-spine requires field weighting. The fields will be weighted 2:1 respectively. If the total dose is 300 cGy, what dose will the PA field receive?

A. 100 cGy
B. 150 cGy
C. 200 cGy
D. 300 cGy

Answer 154

A. 100 cGy

Question 155

practice exam 2:
37. The part of the skin that produces pigment is:

A. melanocyte
B. dermis
C. epidermis
D. stratum basale

Answer 155

A. melanocyte

Question 156

practice exam 2:
39. Where is “Point A” located?

A. 2 cm superior to the cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the endocervical canal
B. 2 cm superior to the cervical os and 5 cm lateral to the endocervical canal
C. 2 cm superior to the uterus and 2 cm lateral to the vaginal canal
D. 2 cm superior to the uterus and 5 cm lateral to the vaginal canal

Answer 156

A. 2 cm superior to the cervical os and 2 cm lateral to the endocervical canal

Question 157

practice exam 2:
40. All of the following are types of biopsies EXCEPT:

A. fine needle
B. past point
C. core needle
D. incisional

Answer 157

B. past point

Question 158

practice exam 2:
41. which imaging study uses high frequency sound waves and images soft tissue in the body?

A. nuclear medicine
B. ultrasound
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. computed tomography

Answer 158

B. ultrasound

Question 159

practice exam 2:
42. What is the most common type of primary brain tumor in adults?

A. astrocytoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. glioblastoma multiforme
D. ependymoma

Answer 159

C. glioblastoma multiforme

Question 160

practice exam 2:
44. a patient is receiving arc therapy for 34 treatments. The total dose is 54 Gy, with a daily dose of 180 cGy. The arc will deliver 200 MU. The gantry is moving from 330 to 179 in a clockwise rotation. Calculate the arc speed -

A. .76 MU//degree
B. .96 MU/degree
C. 1.05 MU/degree
D. 1.32 MU/degree

Answer 160

B. .96 MU/degree

Question 161

practice exam 2:
46. which of the following would be included on a radiation therapy treatment prescription?

A. bolus
B. monitor units
C. treatment position
D. immobilization device

Answer 161

A. bolus

Question 162

practice exam 2:
47. how many lobes are within the right lung?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 162

C. 3

Question 163

practice exam 2:
48. the most common clinical presentation for endometrial cancer is?

A. palpable mass
B. pelvic pain
C. post-menopausal bleeding
D. abdominal pain

Answer 163

C. post-menopausal bleeding

Question 164

practice exam 2:
50. the type of chemotherapy drug that has a chemical structure similar to that of mustard gas is?

A. antimetabolite
B. alkylating agent
C. antitumor antibiotic
D. nitrosoureas

Answer 164

B. alkylating agent

Question 165

practice exam 2:
51. What is the wedge angle needed when there is a hinge angle of 150 degrees?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees

Answer 165

A. 15 degrees

Question 166

practice exam 2:
53. which type of leukemia is most common in pediatrics?

A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

Answer 166

A. ALL

Question 167

practice exam 2:
55. Which of the following statements is true?

A. bigger field sizes cause more scatter
B. bigger field sizes cause less scatter
C. field sizes have no effect on scatter

Answer 167

A. bigger field sizes cause more scatter

Question 168

practice exam 2:
56. If the total dose delivered for the patient’s entire treatment is different than ______ of the prescription, it is considered a medical event?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

Answer 168

A. 20%

Question 169

practice exam 2:
57. if the treatment planner chooses the tolerance doses for the organs at risk, as well as tumor volume and then that treatment computer creates a plan, this is most likely?

A. forward planning
B. inverse planning
C. 2D planning
D. 3D planning

Answer 169

B. inverse planning

Question 170

practice exam 2:
59. a patient’s treatment plan consists of 4 fields. One field is going to receive 45 cGy. The wedge factor is .72, the output factor is .90 cGy/MU and the TMR is .765. How many monitor units will be needed for this field?

A. 50 MU
B. 65 MU
C. 91 MU
D. 363 MU

Answer 170

C. 91 MU

Question 171

practice exam 2:
62. What is the dmax for a 10 MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

Answer 171

B. 2.5 cm

Question 172

practice exam 2:
63. Which of the following is not a daily check for the linear accelerator?

A. door interlock
B. beam on light
C. emergency switches
D. audio-visual monitor system

Answer 172

C. emergency switches

Question 173

practice exam 2:
64. which lymph node of the head and neck region is difficult to reach during surgery?

A. delphian node
B. jugulodigastric node
C. node of rouviere
D. superior deep jugular node

Answer 173

C. node of rouviere

Question 174

practice exam 2:
65. what is used during total body irradiation treatments to increase the skin dose without altering the beam’s penetration?

A. compensator
B. wedge
C. block
D. beam spoiler

Answer 174

D. beam spoiler

Question 175

practice exam 2:
67. what staging system is used for lymphoma?

A. dukes
B. clarks
C. ann arbor
D. figo

Answer 175

C. ann arbor

Question 176

practice exam 2:
68. which of the following would be prescribed if the patient needs an anti-inflammatory medication?

A. torecan
B. lomotil
C. hydrocortisone
D. compazine

Answer 176

C. hydrocortisone

Question 177

practice exam 2:
69. lymph nodes located on either side of the sternum and could be included in a trt for breast cancer is?

A. supraclavicular nodes
B. internal mammary nodes
C. axillary nodes
D. mediastinal nodes

Answer 177

B. internal mammary nodes

Question 178

practice exam 2:
71. what type of lung cancer is associated with the use of smoking tobacco and is located in the periphery of the lungs?

A. small cell lung cancer
B. non-small cell lung cancer
C. oat cell lung cancer
D. mesothelioma

Answer 178

B. non-small cell lung cancer

Question 179

practice exam 2:
73. which imaging technique can visualize the MLCs and treatment field?

A. CBCT
B. MVCT
C. KV-pair
D. MV portal imaging

Answer 179

D. MV portal imaging

Question 180

practice exam 2:
74. What test screens for breast cancer?

A. mammography
B. pap smear
C. colonoscopy
D. PSA

Answer 180

A. mammography

Question 181

practice exam 2:
75. the treatment plan and the linear accelerator communicate through

A. R&V system
B. PACS
C. DICOM
D. HIPAA

Answer 181

A. R&V system

• record and verify system

Question 182

practice exam 2:
77. a total dose of 30 Gy is prescribed over 10 fractions. This treatment would most likely be:

A. curative
B. keloid
C. heterotrophic bone
D. palliative

Answer 182

D. palliative

Question 183

practice exam 2:
79. In order to bring the beam’s dmax closer to the skin surface and reduce skin sparing, what must be added to the treatment plan for photon therapy?

A. wedge
B. compensator
C. bolus
D. blocks

Answer 183

C. bolus

Question 184

practice exam 2:
81. when creating a treatment plan for IMRT, the type of planning used is most likely:

A. forward planning
B. inverse planning
C. 2D planning
D. 3D planning

Answer 184

B. inverse planning

Question 185

practice exam 2:
83. the palatine tonsils are located in the:

A. nasopharynx
B. oropharynx
C. hypopharynx
D. larynx

Answer 185

B. oropharynx

Question 186

practice exam 2:
85. what is the method of MLC movement when the MLCs move while the beam is being delivered?

A. dynamic
B. step and shoot
C. static
D. classic

Answer 186

A. dynamic

Question 187

practice exam 2:
89. what is the tolerance dose to 3/3 of the brain according to Emami et al.?

A. 2300 cGy
B. 3000 cGy
C. 4500 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

Answer 187

C. 4500 cGy

Question 188

practice exam 2:
90. The most common location for vaginal tumors to arise the?

A. anterior wall
B. posterior wall
C. inferior medial wall
D. superior lateral wall

Answer 188

B. posterior wall

Question 189

practice exam 2:
91. a block that is used to shield the periphery of the treatment field and leave the central portion open is called:

A. hand block
B. cast block
C. negative block
D. positive block

Answer 189

C. negative block

Question 190

practice exam 2:
92. when using unsealed ionization chambers to measure radiation, what correction factors are needed?

A. dose and depth
B. energy and size
C. temperature and energy
D. temperature and pressure

Answer 190

D. temperature and pressure

Question 191

practice exam 2:
93. esophageal cancers in the upper portion are most likely:

A. squamous cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. small cell carcinoma
D. clear cell carcinoma

Answer 191

A. squamous cell carcinoma

Question 192

practice exam 2:
95. where is the most common location for osteosarcoma?

A. proximal femur
B. distal femur
C. ribs
D. distal tibia

Answer 192

B. distal femur

Question 193

practice exam 2:
97. the Gleason grading system takes scores from how many different locations of the organ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Answer 193

B. 2

Question 194

practice exam 2:
98. what is the equivalent square for rectangular field measuring 7.5 cm x 14 cm?

A. 4.8 cm x 4.8 cm
B. 6.2 cm x 6.2 cm
C. 9.8 cm x 9.8 cm
D. 10.4 cm x 10.4 cm

Answer 194

C. 9.8 cm x 9.8 cm

Question 195

practice exam 2:
102. a patient has a tumor in the central nervous system. This patient experiences symptoms like pain, problems with bowel control and bladder control. In which area of the CNS would this tumor most likely be?

A. frontal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. occipital lobe
D. spinal cord

Answer 195

D. spinal cord

Question 196

practice exam 2:
104. when using an isocentric technique, as the gantry rotates to different angles around the patient’s body, what will change?

A. source to axis distance
B. source to surface distance
C. patient position
D. patient support assembly

Answer 196

B. source to surface distance

Question 197

practice exam 2:
105. 1 Gray is equal to how many rad?

A. 1 rad
B. 10 rad
C. 100 rad
D. 1000 rad

Answer 197

C. 100 rad

Question 198

practice exam 2:
106. All of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators EXCEPT:

A. moveable
B. asymmetric
C. tungsten
D. cerrobend

Answer 198

D. cerrobend

Question 199

practice exam 2:
108. a spinal field at 110 SSD uses 320 MU for a treatment. What would the new MU be if the doctor changes the SSD to 100?

A. 264 MU
B. 290 MU
C. 352 MU
D. 387 MU

Answer 199

A. 264 MU

Question 200

practice exam 2:
109. Which of the following is a radioprotector?

A. doxorubicin
B. amifostine
C. cyclophosamide
D. 5-FU

Answer 200

B. amifostine

Question 201

practice exam 2:
112. what part of the body divides stages 1 and 2 from the stages 3 and 4 of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A. carina
B. umbilicus
C. diaphragm
D. aorta

Answer 201

C. diaphragm

Question 202

practice exam 2:
113. the amount of time it takes a radioactive source to reach half of its original value is known as:

A. half-life
B. activity
C. intensity
D. average life

Answer 202

A. half-life

Question 203

practice exam 2:
114. what part of the staging system describes the tumor size?

A. T
B. N
C. M
D. G

Answer 203

A. T

Question 204

practice exam 2:
115. which of the following imaging studies does NOT use radiation?

A. nuclear medicine
B. radiography
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. computed tomography

Answer 204

C. magnetic resonance imaging

Question 205

practice exam 2:
116. in which plane are CT slices originally obtained?

A. axial
B. coronal
C. sagittal
D. lateral

Answer 205

A. axial

Question 206

117. what is the most common pathology for tumors within the anus?

A. adenocarcinoma
B. transitional cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Merkel cell

Answer 206

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 207

practice exam 2:
119. a common combination of chemotherapy drugs used to treat breast cancer is:

A. CMF
B. ABVD
C. MOPP
D. PLV

Answer 207

A. CMF

Question 208

practice exam 2:
121. when a brachytherapy source is placed directly into the tumor this is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

Answer 208

B. interstitial implants

Question 209

practice exam 2:
122. which of the following is a radiosensitzer?

A. doxorubicin
B. ethyol
C. sulfhydryls
D. amifostine

Answer 209

A. doxorubicin

Question 210

practice exam 2:
123. 4D treatment planning incorporates _________ in addition to regular treatment planning.

A. involuntary motion
B. respiratory motion
C. multiple treatment sites
D. larger treatment margins

Answer 210

B. respiratory motion

Question 211

practice exam 2:
124. which test screens for prostate cancer?

A. prostate specific antigen
B. prostate sensitive antigen
C. prostate significant an
D. prostate specific antitoxin

Answer 211

A. prostate specific antigen

Question 212

practice exam 2:
125. which of the following will have the most skin sparing?

A. therapeutic electron beam
B. diagnostic xrays
C. orthovoltage
D. megavoltage xrays

Answer 212

D. megavoltage xrays

Question 213

practice exam 2:
127. a leiomyosarcoma tumors is what type of tissue?

A. fat
B. striated muscle
C. cartilage
D. smooth muscle

Answer 213

D. smooth muscle

Question 214

practice exam 2:
129. connective tissue in the breast that provides support is called:

A. cooper’s ligaments
B. tail of spence
C. latissimus dorsi
D. pectoralis minor

Answer 214

A. cooper’s ligaments

Question 215

practice exam 2:
131. the maximum collimator setting on a linear accelerator is 40x40 cm at 100 SAD. What extended distance is needed for a TBI treatment in order to cover a field of 100x100 cm?

A. 200 cm
B. 250 cm
C. 300 cm
D. 350 cm

Answer 215

B. 250 cm

Question 216

practice exam 2:
132. all of the following are contraindications for using contrast media EXCEPT:

A. patients under 50
B. patients over 50
C. patients with impaired kidney function
D. patients who have had reactions to contrast media in the past

Answer 216

A. patients under 50

Question 217

practice exam 2:
133. what is the most effective radiosensitizer?

A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. helium

Answer 217

B. oxygen

Question 218

practice exam 2:
134. what is the term that describes the AVERAGE level of shades of gray present on a CT image?

A. window level
B. window median
C. window width
D. window height

Answer 218

A. window level

Question 219

practice exam 2:
135. if a wedge is added to a field, what needs to change about the MU?

A. the MU will decrease
B. the MU will increase
C. the MU will remain the same

Answer 219

B. the MU will increase

Question 220

practice exam 2:
139. what is the dmax for a 12 MeV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.2 cm
C. 2.8 cm
D. 3.0 cm

Answer 220

C. 2.8 cm

Question 221

practice exam 2:
141. which type of leukemia has Auer Rods within the leukemic cells?

A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

Answer 221

B. AML

Question 222

practice exam 2:
142. a cyclotron is used for what type of treatment?

A. external beam radiation therapy
B. proton therapy
C. electron therapy
D. orthovoltage therapy

Answer 222

B. proton therapy

Question 223

practice exam 2:
143. a name for a value that represents a specific shade of gray on the CT image is:

A. window width
B. window level
C. CT number
D. CT density

Answer 223

C. CT number

Question 224

practice exam 2:
145. a chemotherapy that can be used as a radioprotector is?

A. amifostine
B. etoposide
C. tamoxifen
D. leuprolide

Answer 224

A. amifostine

Question 225

practice exam 2:
146. when radioactive seeds are placed within a prostate, this is considered which type of brachytherapy?

A. intraluminal
B intracavitary
C. interstitial
D. intra-arterial

Answer 225

C. interstitial

Question 226

practice exam 2:
147. DRRS can be created from the CT scans after a process called:

A. registration
B. reconstruction
C. transmission
D. transformation

Answer 226

B. reconstruction

Question 227

practice exam 2:
149. where does most of the scatter that contributes to the “scatter factor” occur?

A. gantry head
B. patent
C. wedges
D. bolus

Answer 227

A. gantry head

Question 228

practice exam 2:
150. what is the most common way to measure the radiation output in a linear accelerator?

A. Ion chambers
B. Gieger-muller detector
C. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
D. Diodes

Answer 228

A. Ion chambers

Question 229

practice exam 2:
152. tumors that can grow and spread quickly ad are not encapsulated are most likely?

A. superficial
B. deep
C. benign
D. malignant

Answer 229

D. malignant

Question 230

practice exam 2:
158. a benign condition of uncontrolled growth of connective tissue is:

A. heterotopic bone
B. keloid
C. arteriovenous malformation
D. sarcoma

Answer 230

B. keloid

Question 231

practice exam 2:
159. which of the following combinations make up Lipowitz metal (cerrobend):

A. tin, lead, cadmium, bismuth
B. iron, bismuth, aluminum, lead
C. bismuth, aluminum, lead, cadmium
D. lead, iron, cadmium, tin

Answer 231

A. tin, lead, cadmium, bismuth

Question 232

practice exam 2:
160. at what vertebral level does the spinal cord end?

A. T6-T7
B. T11-T12
C. L1-L2
D. L5-S1

Answer 232

C. L1-L2

Question 233

practice exam 2:
161. the best scenario for a therapeutic ratio is:

A. the lethal tumor dose is higher than normal tissue tolerance
B. the lethal tumor dose is equal to normal tissue tolerance
C. the lethal tumor dose is less than normal tissue tolerance

Answer 233

C. the lethal tumor dose is less than normal tissue tolerance

Question 234

practice exam 2:
162. if you want to adjust the brightness of your CT image, you will be adjusting the:

A. window width
B. window level
C. field of view
D. scan of view

Answer 234

B. window level

Question 235

practice exam 2:
163. what is the minimum amount of hours that must pass between BID treatments?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Answer 235

D. 6

Question 236

practice exam 2:
164. All of the following are located within the oral cavity except:

A. buccal mucosa
B. alveolar ridge
C. retromolar trigone
D. adenoids

Answer 236

D. adenoids

Question 237

practice exam 2:
169. what is the type of condition that is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
B. Familial adenomatous polyposis
C. Ebstein Barr virus
D. Human papillomavirus

Answer 237

C. Ebstein Barr virus

Question 238

practice exam 2:
170. the part of the body that has the most bone marrow is:

A. shoulder girdle
B. pelvis
C. femur
D. ribs

Answer 238

B. pelvis

Question 239

practice exam 2:
171. images within the therapy department are shared and stored through:

A. DICOM
B. PACS
C. DRR
D. EMR

Answer 239

B. PACS

Question 240

practice exam 2:
173. the wall that absorbs the useful beam is known as:

A. primary barrier
B. secondary barrier
C. useful barrier
D. scatter barrier

Answer 240

A. primary barrier

Question 241

practice exam 2:
174. transmission through MLC leaves should be less than ___

A. .1%
B. .2%
C. 1%
D. 2%

Answer 241

D. 2%

Question 242

***practice exam 2:
175. Cancer screening tests that can determine a certain type of cancer is:

A. sensitive
B. specific
C. detailed
D. precise

Answer 242

B. specific

Question 243

practice exam 2:
176. what is the most common pathology for tumors within the anus?

A. adenocarcinoma
B. transitional cell carcinoma
C. squamous cell carcinoma
D. epidermoid carcinoma

Answer 243

C. squamous cell carcinoma

Question 244

practice exam 2:
177. which of the following sets the standards for handling toxic materials such as Cerrobend?

A. HIPAA
B. OSHA
C. DICOM
D. HL7

Answer 244

B. OSHA

Question 245

practice exam 2:
178. when treating a superficial lesion with electron therapy on the lip, what can be used to prevent dose to the gingiva?

A. block
B. transmission filter
C. internal shield
D. bolus

Answer 245

C. internal shield

Question 246

practice exam 2:
180. what is the tolerance limit for the optical distance indicator?

A. +/- 1 mm
B. +/- 2 mm
C. +/- 1 cm
D. +/- 2 cm

Answer 246

B. +/- 2 mm

Question 247

practice exam 2:
182. when comparing MV port films prior to the treatment, they are compared with?

A. CT slices
B. MRI slices
C. DRRs
D. Xrays

Answer 247

C. DRRs

Question 248

practice exam 2:
183. what is the SI unit to describe the amount of radiation a person absorbs?

A. sievert
B. gray
C. rem
D. rad

Answer 248

A. sievert

Question 249

practice exam 2:
184. when a brachytherapy source is placed directly into a vessel that is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

Answer 249

C. intervascular implants

Question 250

practice exam 2:
186. what is the largest gland in the body?

A. liver
B. stomach
C. adrenal
D. pancreas

Answer 250

A. liver

Question 251

practice exam 2:
187. if the lower third of the esophagus receives a dose of 6500 cGy, what would most likely be the effect?

A. perforation
B. ulceration
C. obstruction
D. fistula

Answer 251

A. perforation

Question 252

practice exam 2:
188. viewing images before the patient has been treated and making adjustments if necessary is considered:

A. CT simulation
B. Reconstruction
C. Online review
D. Offline review

Answer 252

C. Online review

Question 253

practice exam 2:
190. all of the following are presentations of inflammatory breast cancer EXCEPT:

A. peau d’ orange
B. breast hardening
C. erythema
D. palpable mass

Answer 253

D. palpable mass

Question 254

practice exam 2:
192. what type of device can help reduce hot spots in a treatment plan with multiple fields or compensate for irregular contours?

A. bolus
B. wedge
C. hand blocks
D. cast blocks

Answer 254

B. wedge

Question 255

practice exam 2:
194. when determining the monitor units needed to treat fields at extended distances, what is needed for calculation?

A. Clarkson Integration
B. Equivalent Square
C. Monte Carlo Computation
D. Mayneord F Factor

Answer 255

D. Mayneord F Factor

Question 256

practice exam 2:
195. after a dose of 300 cGy to the testes, sterility is most likely

A. permanent
B. temporary
C. no effect
D. acute

Answer 256

B. temporary

Question 257

practice exam 2:
196. where is the most common location within the oropharynx for cancers to occur?

A. adenoids
B. tonsils
C. vocal chords
D. pyriform sinus

Answer 257

B. tonsils

Question 258

***practice exam 2:
197. cancer screening tests that can determine a certain type of cancer is:

A. sensitive
B. specific
C. detailed
D. precise

Answer 258

B. specific

Question 259

practice exam 2:
198. all of the following could be found on the treatment prescription except:

A. total dose
B. fractionated dose
C. monitor units
D. bolus

Answer 259

C. monitor units

Question 260

practice exam 2:
199. during the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will lead to:

A. an increased patient dose
B. a decreased patient dose
C. the same patient dose
D. no patient dose

Answer 260

A. an increased patient dose