Namp Ch 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What’s an RCN?

A

Report Control Number
Ref. 10.9.3.2

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2
Q

How is a RCN assigned?

A

Originating activity must assign a RCN to each DR in the following formats:
Element 1 - service designation code (N,V,R) of the originating activity
…..
Ref. 10.9.3.2

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3
Q

Who manages the command Tool Control Program?

A

Material Control Officer

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4
Q

What is the foundational element of the QPT Program and AMSTRP?

A

PQS (Personnel Qualification Standards)

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5
Q

What is AMSTRP?

A

Aviation Maintenance and Supply Training and Readiness Program

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6
Q

What is the AMSTRP?

A

provides maintenance training standardization, identification of training resources, and a standardized method for measuring the manpower readiness of work centers, divisions, and Maintenance Departments.

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7
Q

What directs the AMSTRP?

A

NAVMC 4790.1 directs the AMSTRP

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8
Q

What is locally produced guides for training and qualification elements not covered by a QPT, AMSTRP, or NAVEDTRA PQS?

A

JQR (Job Qualification Requirements)

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9
Q

What types are there of formal training?

A

7

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10
Q

What is Class A type formal training?

A

Basic knowledge and skills required for entry level performance. NEC or MOS not normally awarded.

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11
Q

What type formal training is Class C?

A

Advanced knowledge and skills required to fill a billet coded with an NEC or MOS. Awards NEC or MOS

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12
Q

What type of formal training is Class D?

A

Professional CNO mandated or non-pipeline refresher training. NEC not normally awarded.

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13
Q

What is a Class F formal training?

A

Individual functional skill training required by fleet, ACC, TYCOM, or SYSCOM instructions. No NEC awarded.

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14
Q

What formal training is Class G?

A

Segment course of an NEC or MOS producing pipeline. Does not, by itself, award an NEC or MOS and may be attended outside the entire pipeline

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15
Q

What is formal training class R?

A

Training upon initial enlistment or induction which provides general indoctrination and prepares the recruit for early adjustment to military life by providing skill and knowledge in basic military subjects.

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16
Q

What is Class T formal training?

A

Team training to fleet personnel, officers and enlisted, enroute to duty as members of ship’s company. No NEC is awarded.

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17
Q

Who produces IST syllabi and training devices utilizing policies contained in Reference a.

A

NAVAIRSYSCOM

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18
Q

what governs seat forecasting and quota management?

A

CNO and BUPERS

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19
Q

What is IST?

A

In-Service Training

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20
Q

Information directed to be read, such as COMNAVAIRFOR AMAs, Type Wing or MAW advisories, or CO memos must be logged on what form/equivalent?

A

Must be logged on the Required Reading and Maintenance Information Record (OPNAV 4790/34) or an electronic equivalent form

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21
Q

Reading materials no longer required to be read will be purged from file how often?

A

Each month

22
Q

NAMP Indoctrination Training will be completed within what time frame of personnel reporting onboard?

A

45 days

23
Q

NAMP Indoc may be taught by?

A

The applicable Program Manager or QA Program Monitor

24
Q

All personnel assigned to _______ must receive NAVOSH and Safety Training applicable to their duties

A

Maintenance Department

25
Q

Which NAVEDTRA must Navy Model Managers and Developers complete?

A

NAVEDTRA PQS 43401 Advanced Skills Management (305) Model Manager Watch Station.

26
Q

How are deviations requested?

A

Must be requested by name and by course in writing via naval letter or message. Request must include the convening date for the course the individual will attend after return from deployment

27
Q

Deviations expirations

A

deviations must expire no later than 120 days after return to home base and no later than 180 days after return to home base

28
Q

Who designated the Assistant Maintenance Officer (AMO) as Aviation Maintenance Training Program Manager?

A

MO

29
Q

AMO designation will be via?

A

In writing via ASM, designations may be documented in a list included as an enclosure in the Monthly Personnel Plan

30
Q

What is MPP?

A

Monthly Personnel Plan

31
Q

When should the MPP be published?

A

no later than the 1st day of each month. the Monthly Personnel Plan will be published by the Aviation Maintenance Training Program Manager

32
Q

how often will Division officers review work center records?

A

quarterly reviews

33
Q

Division Officers will perform initial review of each individual’s qualification/certification record within?

A

30 days of the member reporting to the division and perform a semi-annual (every 6 months)

34
Q

The Division Officer may delegate training record, training syllabus, and semi-annual training progress reviews to?

A

Division or Branch Chief

35
Q

Who must perform an initial qualification/certification record review within 30 days of a new memebr reporting to the work center?

A

Work Center Supervisor

36
Q

How often should work center supervisors review the the Required Reading File?

A

monthly

37
Q

Fuel samples must be taken within what time frame preceding the aircraft’s initial launch?

A

within 24 hours, fuel samples are not valid for more than 24 hours

38
Q

Fuel sampling will be conducted per?

A

T/M/S maintenance technical manuals. for aircraft without specified fuel sampling procedures follow the general requirements of NAVAIR 01-1A-35

39
Q

Allow maximum possible time before sampling. How long should aircraft have for settling time?

A

minimum of 2 hrs settling time, after aircraft movement or refueling to allow for water an solids to settle

40
Q

Who visually inspects fuel samples ?

A

Naval Aircrewman, Line/Power Line Supervisor, CDI, CDQAR, or QAR

41
Q

if contaminants are present what happens?

A

Retain contaminated sample, drain approx 1 gallon of fuel in bucket and take another sample

42
Q

If second fuel sample is contaminated what happens?

A

Immediately notify Maintenance Control, initiate discrepancy work order, give both samples to QA for inspection

43
Q

Fuel samples will be visually inspected for clear and bright appearance with no visible water or sediment by swirling and checking directly under the swirl vortex for discoloration, water, cloudiness, sediment per what manual?

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-109

44
Q

For Test Cell Fuel Sampling, a contaminated sample will be retained, how much will be drained from low point and take another sample?

A

5 gallons but not more than 10 gallons

45
Q

NRFI and inactive fuel cells or tanks must be preserved and protected against contamination per what manual?

A

NAVAIR 15-01-500

46
Q

Protective measures like approved covers or caps must be placed on open removed fuel cells, lines, and components per what manual?

A

NAVAIR 01-1A-20

47
Q

who publishes a training syllabus for the T/M/S aircraft for Fuel Surveillance Program?

A

Wing

48
Q

Who designates a Fuel Surveillance Program Manager?

A

Maintenance Officer designates in writing via ASM

49
Q

Fuel Surveillance Program Manager will perform an audit using the Computerized Self Evaluation Checklist (CSEC) within what time frame when designated?

A

within 60 days and annually thereafter

50
Q

Who designates the Fuel Surveillance Program Monitor?

A

QAO designates the Power Plants QAR

51
Q

When embarked and aircraft is suspected of receiving any fuel other than JP-5, will aircraft move to hangar?

A

Aircraft will not be moved to hangar bay until flashpoint has been certified to be above 120 degrees Fahrenheit

52
Q
A