NAB Flashcard Haul
1
Q
Gerontologists Categories - How is Young-Old Defined?
A
65 to 74 years old
2
Q
Gerontologists Categories - How is Old-Old Defined?
A
75 to 84 years old
3
Q
Gerontologists Categories - How is Oldest-Old Defined?
A
Over 85 + years old
4
Q
The morning meal must be served within how many hours after the previous meal?
A
14 Hours, but if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident approves16 hours may elapse
5
Q
A full time social worker is required if the facility has more than how many beds?
A
120 Beds
6
Q
What qualifications are required of a full time social worker?
A
BS (Bachelors of Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation counseling. Also, 1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting
7
Q
When can the DON act as charge nurse?
A
When ADC (Average Daily Census) is 60 or lower
8
Q
What is a substantial weight loss or gain?
A
5% gain/loss in one month, 7.5% in 3 months, or a 10% gain/loss in a 6 month period
9
Q
How often are physicians required to visit their patients?
A
Once every 30 days for the first 90 day period, then at least every 60 days thereafter
10
Q
A comprehensive care plan must be developed within how many days of comprehensive assessment (MDS / RAI)?
A
7 Days
11
Q
If marked BID a medication is administered?
A
Twice a Day
12
Q
If marked TID a medication is administered?
A
Three Times a Day
13
Q
If marked QID a medication is administered?
A
Four Times a Day
14
Q
If marked QD a medication is administered?
A
Every Day
15
Q
If marked QOD a medication is administered?
A
Every Other Day
16
Q
If marked HS a medication is administered?
A
At Bedtime
17
Q
If marked AC a medication is administered?
A
Before Meals
18
Q
If marked PC a medication is administered?
A
After Meals
19
Q
If marked PO a medication should be given by which route?
A
Orally (by mouth)
20
Q
If marked R a medication should be given by which route?
A
Rectally
21
Q
If marked IM a medication should be given by which route?
A
Intramuscularly
22
Q
If marked OD a medication should be given by which route?
A
Right Eye
23
Q
If marked OS a medication should be given by which route?
A
Left Eye
24
Q
If marked OU a medication should be given by which route?
A
Both Eyes
25
If marked AD a medication should be given by which route?
Right Ear
26
If marked AS a medication should be given by which route?
Left Ear
27
If marked AU a medication should be given by which route?
Both Ears
28
Activities of Daily Living (ADL) include? (5 areas)
1. Ambulation/Locomotion
2. Eating
3. Toileting
4. Personal Hygiene/Bathing,
5. Communicating
29
How are Controlled Substances rated?
On a Schedule from 1 to 5.
1 = Strictest (no medicinal use and highly addictive)
5 = Least strict (more medicinal use and less addictive)
30
What controls are necessary for #2 scheduled substance?
Must have Separate Locked Storage. Must be Accounted for Each Shift.
31
If an applicant isn't hired how long must their application be kept in file?
1 Year
32
How many hours of In-Service must C.N.A.'s have each year?
12 hours
33
A facility must give how many days notice to a Union for a desired contract change?
90 Days
34
A Union must give how many days notice before a strike?
10 Days
35
What is the purpose and retention requirement for Form I-9 in the U.S.?
Form I-9 verifies employee work eligibility, filled by employee (1st day) and employer (within 3 days). Retain longer of 3 years after hire or 1 year after termination.
36
An employee who enlists/is drafted into military duty shall be deemed to be on leave of absence. They are entitled to reinstatement to their position if application is made within how many days after termination of military duty?
90 days
37
What is the FMLA, and what does it provide to employees?
The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provides eligible employees with up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave per year for certain family and medical reasons, while maintaining their group health benefits.
38
How many months must an employee have worked to be eligible for FMLA?
Company must employee how many employees?
12 months.
Company to employ 50+ employees within 75 miles.
39
Who can an employee be tending to under FMLA?
IMMEDIATE family members who require legit care (includes birth)
40
What are the notice times for FMLA?
If FMLA reason is forseeable (child's birth), requires 30 days notice.
Unforseeable: as soon as practicably possible.
41
An accidental death must be reported to OSHA within what time frame?
Within 8 hours
42
An injury requiring more than first aid care must be reported to OSHA within what time frame? How many employees must be affected for report?
Within 24 hrs. Only 1 employee needed
43
Balance sheet is made up off which three items?
Assets, Liabilities, and Owners Equity (all on a particular date)
44
Components of Income Statement (also called P&L)
9 parts
Income minus expenses.
1. Total Revenue:
2. Cost of Goods Sold (COGS): The direct costs of the goods sold by the company.
3. Gross Profit: Revenue minus COGS.
4. Operating Expenses: Costs of running the company that are NOT directly tied to the production of goods or services, such as salaries, rent, and utilities.
5. Operating Income: Gross profit minus operating expenses.
6. Other Income/Expenses: Revenue or costs not related to the company's main business activities, such as interest earned on investments or interest paid on loans.
7. Pre-tax Income: Operating income plus/minus Other Income/expenses.
8. Taxes
9. Net Income: Pre-tax income minus taxes, representing the profit or loss for the period.
45
What is a contingency liability
Liabilities that may or may not be incurred by a facility depending on the outcome of a future event?
(ex. Court Case)
46
Residents funds in excess of what amount must be kept in an interest bearing account?
Medicaid- $50; Medicare-$100
47
(Cash + Current Receivables) / Current Liabilities =
Acid Test Ratio
48
Current Ratio
Measures a company's ability to pay short-term obligations with short-term assets
= (Current Assets / Current Liabilities)
49
Double entry rules for Debits
Increases for Dividends, Expenses, and Assets
Decreases for Liabilities, Equity, and Revenue
50
Double entry rules for Credits
A credit:
-Recorded on the right side of the account ledger
-Makes decreases to expense or asset accounts
-Makes increases to revenue
-Makes increases to liability or equity accounts
51
Services which are not generally provided to most residents and which may be
separately billable are called?
Ancillary Services (ex. Labs, Radiology, Pharmacy Services, and Rehab
Therapies)
52
Doorway threshold maximums
53
What is the acceptable air temperature range in a facility?
71 - 81 Degrees Fahrenheit
54
Soiled Linen carts should be decontaminated how often?
Weekly (minimum) or ASAP when visibly contaminated.
55
How often must fire drills be performed?
Once Each Quarter On Each Shift
56
What is the minimum width of egress doors?
32 Inches
57
How often must the QA Committee meet?
Quarterly
58
Private rez room must have X sq ft of usable space? Two+ person rez room must have Z sq ft of usable space per resident?
X = 100 sqft
Z = 80 sqft
59
For Profit Organizations are governed by?
A Board of Directors
60
Non-Profit Organizations are governed by?
A Board of Trustees
61
Maslow's hierarchy of needs
62
Theory X advocates?
The use of Fear of Punishment to motivate (assumes employees are inherently
lazy and dislike work)
63
Theory Y advocates?
Rewards employees for accomplishing goals (assumes employees like work as much as play)
64
Theory Z advcocates?
Employees who buy into the company culture and philosophy will be productive and happy
65
What are Herzberg's two factors in job satisfaction?
Hygiene Factors: prevent dissatisfaction but don't motivate (e.g., salary, work conditions).
Motivation Factors: drive satisfaction and performance (e.g., recognition, growth).
Both are needed for motivation; hygiene factors remove dissatisfaction, while motivation factors increase satisfaction and performance.
66
Type of authority characterized by direct supervision over a subordinate?
Line Authority
67
Type of authority characterized by advisory capacity?
Staff Authority
68
The Safety Medical Devices Act requires that a serious injury or death be reported to whom and when?
69
The Fair Labor Standards Act requires overtime be computed how and what rate?
OT computed at 1.5X the regular pay rate. Based on 14 day period with
any time over 8 hrs daily and over 80 hrs in the 14 day period being overtime. (8/80 method)
70
To avoid retraining and a competency evaluation program a C.N.A. must have worked for how long?
24 Consecutive Months
71
What does QAC stand for?
Quality Assurance Committee
72
What does Polypharmacy mean?
The use of 9 or more medications for a given resident
73
What is the Medicare definition of Hospice Care?
Supportive care provided to terminally ill patients and their families in the final 6 months of a patients life.
74
Palliative Care is defined as?
Management and support provided for reduction or abatement of pain. Doesn't
include treatment to cure medical condition or to artificially prolong life.
75
The Age Discrimination Act protects employees in what age group?
Prohibits age discrimination against those 40+ in federally assisted programs.
Applies to federal employment and private entities receiving federal funds.
76
What is Form 941? When must it be filed and by whom?
Form 941 is the federal income tax return form. It is filed QUARTERLY by the EMPLOYERS to show:
-how much INCOME their employees made
&
-how much tax was WITHHELD
77
What information is included in Form 941?
Amount withheld for federal income taxes and the employer's & employee's share of FICA and Medicare taxes.
78
Medicaid residents must be notified when their account rises to within what amount of the resource limit the state has established?
Within $200 of the limit
79
Days of Cash
= (Cash and Cash Equivalents) / [(Total Op. Expenses - Depreciation) / 365]
Counts the number of days that a company can continue to meet its operating expenses using readily available cash
80
Days in Resident Accounts Receivable
= Net Resident Accounts Receivable from all Sources / (Net Annual Patient Revenue / 365)
This formula represents the average time customers take to repay a business for their purchases, reflecting credit and collection process efficiency
81
DSO (Daily Sales Outstanding)
Measures accounts receivable as a proportion of revenue
82
The operating budget is composed of what two categories?
Revenues and Expenses
83
Cash Budget
(definition)
The type of budget that projects cash inflows and outflows.
84
Operating Budget vs Capital Budget
Operating Budget What It Covers: Expected revenue and daily expenses and revenues like wages and COGS.
Time Horizon: Concentrates on the financial activities for the upcoming fiscal year, keeping the business solvent and operational.
Capital Budget is for Investments in big-ticket items and projects, such as new buildings, heavy machinery, and big software upgrades.
Time Horizon: Looks at spending that will benefit the company over several years, focusing on long-term growth.
85
Liquid assets include?
Short term notes, cash, and accounts receivable
| Liquid assets are like current assets minus inventory
86
What space must be provided below automatic sprinkler heads?
18 inches (items may not be stored above 18 inches below the sprinkler heads)
87
Building additions must be separated by a fire barrier with at least the following rating?
2 hours
88
Food should be served at what temperatures?
140F for hot items and at or below 41F for refrigerated items
89
Schedule 1 Drugs
High tendency for abuse and no medical use (ex. Marijuana, Heroin, Ecstasy, LSD, etc.)
90
Schedule 2 Drugs
Have a high tendency for abuse, may have an acceptable medical use, and can be available by prescription
(ex: Cocaine, Opium, Morphine, Fentanyl, Amphetamines, etc.)
91
Schedule 3 Drugs
Drugs with modest potential for addiction and have a currently accepted medical use
(ex. Anabolic Steroids, Codeine, Ketamine, etc.)
92
Schedule 4
Drugs with low potential for abuse and limited addictive properties and a current accepted medical use? (ex. Valium, Xanax, Phenobarbital, Rohypnol)
93
Schedule 5
Drugs with lowest potential for abuse, current accepted medical use, often don't require a prescription (ex. Cough suppressants with Codeine)
94
What's a fringe benefit?
Benefits to a job aside from the salary, like health insurance, 401k, or childcare benefits
95
What does ERISA stand for?
What rights does it protect for employees?
Employee Retirement Income Security Act.
ERISA does NOT mandate that employers offer health or retirement benefit plans. ERISA makes the employers actually follow through on what they promise.
96
What is journalizing in accounting?
Recording financial transactions in the journal as they occur, using debits and credits.
97
What is posting in accounting?
Transferring information from the journal to individual accounts in the ledger.
98
What is balancing in accounting?
Calculating the difference between the debit and credit sides of an account to determine its balance.
99
What is reconciling in accounting?
Matching two sets of records (e.g., bank statements and ledgers) to ensure figures are accurate and aligned.
100
What is FUTA?
How is FUTA calculated and reported by employers?
What's the tax form numebr?
Fed Unemployment Tax Act:
Employers owe payroll tax of 6% on the first $7,000 of each employee's annual earnings to fund state unemployment benefits. State tax credits often reduce this rate to just 0.6%.
Employers report FUTA tax ANNUALLY via IRS Form 940.
Employers pay Unemployment tax, not employees.
101
What does a "current trial balance" report?
The credits and debits of each account in a ledger at a point in time.
102
What is a flashover?
A fire that very suddenly combusts and becomes out of control.
103
Must a totally Private Pay Health Care Facility be licensed?
Yes
104
What are the two most important risk management tools?
Education and Quality Control
105
Under COBRA, a continuation of employee insurance must be offered in the following 6 qualifying events?
1. Termination of the employee's employment for any reason other than gross misconduct.
2. Reduction in the number of hours of employment, making the employee ineligible for the employer's health plan.
3. Divorce or legal separation from the covered employee.
4. The covered employee becomes eligible for Medicare.
5. Death of the covered employee, offering continuation coverage to the surviving dependents.
6. A dependent child ceasing to be a dependent under the terms of the health plan.
106
Employees pay what portion of the FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act) cost?
Employee and employer pay the same amount:
Each pay 7.65% of federal income.
(6.2% for social secuirty and 1.45% for Medicare) for combined total of 15.3% of income.
107
The percentage of accounts outstanding for more than 60 days should never exceed?
5%
108
Just about all doors in a SNF must have a fire protection rating of...
1.5 hours
109
What is the national standard for budgeting the time required for cleaning a facility?
One hour per day per housekeeping employee per 1,000 sq.ft.
110
The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps by?
12 inches. (Handrails are required on both sides of a stairway)
111
Class A fire extinguishers must be located every?
75 feet of travel distance
112
When/where must OSHA accident reports be posted?
The entire month of February (every year) in a common area that employees see
113
What act established the position of long term care ombudspersons?
The Older Americans Act of 1965
114
How long must vegetables be boiled to kill off the Botulism causing bacteria?
20 minutes
115
Forward Reach max and min height
High forward reach shall be 48 inches maximum and the low forward reach shall be 15 inches minimum above the floor
116
EEOC enforces which three acts?
Equal Pay Act
Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
117
OSHA is under the?
U.S. Department of Labor
118
Under COBRA an employee has how many days to elect to COBRA coverage?
60 Days
119
A toilet seat for the disabled must be how high?
17 to 19 inches from the floor
120
Under OSHA what is the maximum penalty for each "serious violation"?
$7,000
121
Under OSHA what is the maximum penalty for falsifying records?
$70,000
122
The minimum square footage calculation in a room excludes the following areas?
Toilet, Closets, and Wardrobe (the area the bed occupies is included in the sq.ft. calculation.
123
The travel distance between Class B fire extinguishers may not be more than how many feet?
50 Feet
124
What document establishes the fire rating of building materials?
The Life Safety Code
125
According to OSHA what is the color for safety and first aid?
Green
126
A facility must be free of med errors greater than what percentage?
5% or greater
127
How many hours must an employee work to be full time?
35+ hours a week
128
The freezer should be kept at or below what temperature?
0 F
129
The Refrigerator should be kept at or below what temperature?
40 F
130
How often must a physician visit a patient during the first 90 days?
Every 30 days, visits are considered timely if they occur no later than 10 days after the date the visit was required.
131
How often must a physician visit a patient after the first 90 days? (with what lenience period)
At least every 60 days, visits are considered timely is they occur no later than 10 days after the date required.
132
Benzodiazepine or other anxialytic/sedative drugs are used to?
What category are they?
Control anxiety or agitation
Cat. 4
133
The 5 steps of the grieving process?
1.Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Depression
5. Acceptance
134
A decrease in density of bones causing structural weakness throughout the skeleton?
Osteoporosis
135
The first and second most common form of arthritis?
1. Osteoarthritis
2. Rheumatoid Arthritis
136
Under the Civil Rights Act, this occurs when the selection rate for any protected group is less than 80% of the rate of the non-protected group?
Adverse Impact
137
Error of Central Tendency:
The error by supervisors using rating scales when consistently giving only moderate scores to employees on performance appraisals, regardless of whether the employee is a poor or an outstanding performer
138
Fair Labor Standards Act covers...
Minimum wage, overtime, standard workweek definitions, equal pay, child labor, and record keeping requirements
139
Job Analysis
Process of studying and collecting information about the tasks, duties, responsibilities, and working conditions of a job.
140
The practice of posting available jobs on bulletin boards and encouraging employees to apply for openings?
Job Bidding
141
A statement of the tasks to be done based on the job analysis, usually including a list of
duties and responsibilities of the position in order of importance?
Job Description
142
Key Job Comparison
A method of establishing wage rates for jobs, based on comparing all jobs in the organization to a touchstone job in the facility, such as nursing?
143
Halo Effect?
Bias where one impressive area overshadows all the others, potentially leading to an unjustifiably favorable evaluation of their skills, performance, and qualifications.
144
Leniency Error
Consistently giving high ratings to all employees in an attempt to avoid conflict?
145
Employees must receive their W-2 no later than what date each year?
January 31 (each year)
146
When must a resident's personal account balance be turned over upon their death?
Within 30 days after the death
147
In which type of accounting are revenues recorded when they are earned, and expenses recorded when they are incurred, regardless of when cash is received or paid
out?
Accrual Basis of Accounting
148
A system of accounting in which revenues are recorded when cash is received, and expenses are recorded when cash is paid out?
Cash Basis of Accounting (not allowable with Medicare and Medicaid)
149
A financial statement that shows cash receipts and disbursements leading to a net change in cash in a given period?
Cash Flow Statement
150
Cost Shifting
Practice by health care providers of charging private-pay patients more than the actual costs of their care in order to compensate for shortfalls in reimbursement for patients covered by Medicaid and other government programs when those programs pay less than actual costs
151
The three ratios that measure the liquidity of a business entity? (its ability to pay off its
short term obligations)
Current Ratio, Quick Ratio, and Acid Test Ratio
152
Shipping arrangement under which the seller of the goods bears the costs of
transportation to the buyer's location?
F.O.B. (Freight on Board) Destination
153
Shipping arrangement under which the buyer of the goods pays a separate charge for
the transportation costs. The goods while in transit are the property of the buyer, who thus bears financial liability for the goods if they are lost in transit?
F.O.B. (Freight on Board) Shipping Point
154
Has management responsibility for providing comprehensive health care services on a
prepayment basis?
HMO (Health Management Organization)
155
A Form 1099-MISC must be issued when an independent contractor is paid more than
this amount during a single year?
$600
156
What is a Capital (Finance) Lease and give an example.
A lease where the lessee essentially buys and owns the asset over time. Example: Leasing machinery with the agreement to own it after 5 years for a nominal fee.
157
What is an Operating Lease and give an example.
A lease used for short-term leasing without transfer of ownership. Example: Renting retail space in a mall for 2 years, with payments treated as an operating expense.
158
Charged with identifying and eliminating fraud, abuse, and waste in Medicare, Medicaid,
and other DHHS programs?
Office of Inspector General
159
Factoring of Receivables vs. Pledging of Receivables
Both are processes of selling a/r as a means of short-term financing
When FACTORING, the seller transfers not only the receivables, but also the risk of default.
When PLEDGING, the borrower is still responsible for collecting and then uses the proceeds to pay the lender.
160
Use of a/r as security or collateral for a loan. When this is done "with recourse", the
borrower remains responsible for collecting the receivables but promises to use the
proceeds for repaying the debt?
Pledging of Receivables
161
A financial statement that treats hypothetical events as though they had actually happened, and hence includes fictitious data in whole or in part?
Pro Forma Statement
162
How do Medicare A, Medicaid, and Private Insurance determine how much to reimburse?
Medicare A: Patient Driven Payment Model. Acuity-based model where each resident is paid based on an evaluation of their needs.
Medicaid: Varies by state; often a case-mix model similar to RUG or a per diem rate.
Private insurance: SNFs bill private insurers based on the terms of the contract with the insurance company, which may involve per diem rates, fee-for-service for specific treatments, or bundled payments.
163
ROE (Return on Equity)?
A means of assessing a companies profitability.
ROE = Annual Net Income / Total Shareholders Equity
164
Shareholder's Equity =
Total Assets - Total Liabilities
165
In what three areas does the Statement of Cash Flows show receipts and
disbursements?
Operating, Investing, and Financing
166
Soiled linen and trash collection containers must be limited to a capacity of?
32 gallons within an 64 square foot area.
167
Each resident must have a private closet which includes?
Clothes Racks and Shelves accessible to the resident
168
CMS' Statement of Deficiencies and Plan of Correction Form?
Form 2567 is a document used in healthcare facility inspections to list violations and required corrections. It details deficiencies, their severity, and the facility's corrective action plan.
169
Survey - Severity Level 1Tags?
Letters A,B,C - deficiencies in this range are not serious. No actual harm or potential to cause harm, just a minor negative impact on residents.
170
Survey - Severity Level 2 tags?
Letters D,E,F - These tags are cited when there is noncompliance with no actual harm to residents but possibility of minimal harm to residents
171
Survey - Severity Level 3 tags?
Letters G,H,I - A SNF facility receives severity level 3 tags when an inspection finds deficiencies that result in actual harm to residents but are not considered widespread or systemic.
172
Survey - Severity Level 4 tags?
A SNF facility receives severity level 4 tags, also known as "Immediate Jeopardy" tags, when an inspection identifies deficiencies that pose immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety, causing or likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to residents
173
What is an unincorporated business owned by an individual, in which the owner is responsible for both personal and business debts?
Sole Proprietorship
174
Partnership
Type of business where partners are personally liable for all of the business debt?
175
What are the 5 functions of management?
Planning, Organization, Staffing, Leading (directing), and Controlling
176
A form of business that is incorporated under the laws of one of the states. There may be a single stockholder or thousands of holders. It is a separate legal entity from its owners and therefore the owners are not personally responsible for the corporate
debts?
Corporation
177
Which of the following professionals is authorized to dispense medications?
A. registered nurse
B. licensed nurse, physician and, in some states, medication aide.
C. licensed nurse and physician
D. pharmacist
D. Pharmacist
(Administer" means the direct application of a drug to the body of a patient by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means. "Dispense" means preparing and packaging a prescription drug or device in a container and labeling the container with information required by state and federal law.)
178
When to use Class A/B/C/D fire extinguishers?
"Class A extinguishers will put out fires in ordinary combustibles including wood, cloth, rubber, paper, as well as many plastic materials.
Class B extinguishers are for use on flammable liquids like grease, gasoline, solvents, lacquers, alcohols, oils and other similar substances.
Class C extinguishers are suitable for use only on electrically energized equipment fires.
Class D extinguishers are designed for use on flammable metallic substances like potassium and sodium."
179
Which one of the following statements is true regarding reference checking and reference giving in the screening of job candidates? A. Reponses to reference checks must be factual and reflect only information contained in the written personnel records. B. Department managers have a duty to exercise their professional judgment in responding to requests for references on former employees. C. Checking candidate references and responding to reference requests is best done by department managers rather than the organization's HR specialists. D. Checking references is a helpful but not a critical step in candidate screening.
A. Reponses to reference checks must be factual and reflect only information contained in the written personnel records.
180
What is Participatory Budgeting?
Participatory budgeting involves lower-level managers in budget creation, enhancing sense of ownership and accuracy but can be slow and prone to manipulation by employees to ease goal achievement.
181
What should be the temperature range in a dry storage area? A. 50 to 70 degrees F. B. Below 45 degrees F. C. 60 to 80 degrees F. D. 72 to 82 degrees F
A. 50 to 70 degrees F
182
Effective delegation of authority occurs when... A. subordinates are given the responsibility to complete a task, but all authority is retained by the supervisor. B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions. C. tasks are delegated to subordinates who do not as yet have the necessary competence for the tasks, so that they will learn from the experience. D. only part of a job, rather than the whole job, is delegated to subordinates.
B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions
183
When must you submit a report to a manufacturer if their device has injured your patient?
You must submit a report to the manufacturer of the device no later than 10 work days after the day that you become aware of information, from any source, that reasonably suggests that a device has or may have caused or contributed to a serious injury to a patient of your facility. If the manufacturer is not known, you must submit the report to feds
184
Journal v Ledger?
The journal consists of raw accounting entries that record business transactions, in sequential order by date. The general ledger is more formalized and tracks five key accounting items: assets, liabilities, owner's capital, revenues, and expenses
185
A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) (formerly called a Material Safety Data Sheet, or MSDS) must contain which of the following sets of information about a hazardous chemical? A. precautions for safe handling, emergency and first aid procedures, phone number of a poison control center B. signs and symptoms of exposure, known acute and chronic health hazards, recommended brands and sources C. odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, first aid procedures D. whether gloves, eye protectors, or other protective clothing is required during use; whether the chemical is listed as a cancer-causing agent); net weights of containers commonly available for purchase
C. odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, first aid procedures
186
16 sections required of a Safety Data Sheet?
"An Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is a critical document required by OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, detailing the handling, storage, and emergency procedures of hazardous materials to ensure workplace safety and compliance Here's a brief summary of each of the 16 sections required in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) as per OSHA's guidelines:
1. **Identification**: Provides the chemical's name and recommended uses, alongside the supplier's contact information.
2. **Hazard(s) Identification**: Lists the chemical's hazards, warning information, hazard classifications, signal words, hazard and precautionary statements, and any pictograms.
3. **Composition/Information on Ingredients**: Details on the ingredients, including substances, mixtures, and any trade secret claims.
4. **First-Aid Measures**: Describes initial care or first-aid instructions for exposures via different routes like inhalation or skin contact.
5. **Fire-Fighting Measures**: Offers guidance on extinguishing a fire caused by the chemical, including suitable extinguishing methods and protective measures for firefighters.
6. **Accidental Release Measures**: Provides recommendations for responding to spills, leaks, or releases to minimize exposure and environmental impact.
7. **Handling and Storage**: Advises on safe handling and storage conditions to prevent accidents and ensure stability of the chemical.
8. **Exposure Controls/Personal Protection**: Suggests exposure limits, engineering controls, and personal protective equipment to minimize worker exposure.
9. **Physical and Chemical Properties**: Lists the chemical's physical and chemical characteristics, like appearance, odor, boiling point, and flammability.
10. **Stability and Reactivity**: Describes the chemical's stability, conditions to avoid, and potential hazardous reactions.
11. **Toxicological Information**: Provides data on health effects, exposure routes, and toxicology assessments like acute toxicity estimates.
12. **Ecological Information (non-mandatory)**: Offers information on the chemical's potential environmental impacts if released.
13. **Disposal Considerations (non-mandatory)**: Gives guidance on proper disposal, recycling, and handling practices to minimize exposure.
14. **Transport Information (non-mandatory)**: Contains information for safe transportation, including classification information and precautions.
15. **Regulatory Information (non-mandatory)**: Identifies safety, health, and environmental regulations specific to the product.
16. **Other Information**: Indicates when the SDS was prepared or last revised and may include other useful information not specified elsewhere.
This structure ensures consistency and comprehensiveness in communicating chemical hazard information to ensure safety in the workplace."
187
The person who should most often be called upon to resolve employee problems and grievances is: A. the facility or agency administrator B. the immediate supervisor C. a labor union representative D. the governing body
B. the immediate supervisor
188
PR vs Advertising vs Marketing
PR (Public Relations) manages the company's reputation and fosters positive public perceptions through unpaid media and communications.
Advertising involves creating and paying for messages to promote products or services across various media channels.
Marketing is an overarching strategy that combines understanding consumer needs with promoting and selling products or services, including PR and advertising efforts.
189
When an employee in the course of carrying out job duties commits a negligent act that results in an injury to a customer, who may the customer sue in civil court for monetary damages?
A. the employee only
B. the employer only
C. the employer and the employee
D. the employer, the employee, and the employee's labor union, if any.
C. the employer and the employee
190
Respondeat superior
Legal doctrine that allows for the employer to be held liable for the actions of their employees. Thus, the customer may choose to sue both the employer for their vicarious liability and the employee for their direct negligence
191
What are the width requirements for car accessible (disabled) parking spaces and how close must they be to entrance?
Spaces must be at least 96 inches wide and provide the shortest possible route to the entrance.
192
How wide must the access aisle be for a disabled parking space?
The access aisle must be at least 60 inches wide
193
What is the maximum slope allowed for disabled parking spaces?
No more than a 1:48 (2.08%) slope in all directions.
194
What are the requirements for the signage of disabled parking spaces?
Must have a sign with the international symbol of accessibility, mounted at least 60 inches above the ground (to the bottom of the sign).
195
How many full-time employees (FTEs) do you have if you have two employees who work 2,080 hours per year, and 4 employees who work 1,040 hours per year?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
B. 4
196
Equation for Full time Employees (FTEs)
FTEs = (Total hours worked by all employees in a time period) /(Number of hours considered full-time for one employee in that time period)
Say a company has three employees. Two are full-time at 35 hours per week. One is part-time at 17.5 hours per week. FTE's would be 2.5.
197
Which of the following would be the best agency to assist a residential facility in developing its Fire Safety Plan? A. OSHA B. NFPA C. the state survey agency D. the local fire department
D. Local Fire Dept
NFPA sets life safety code standards, but Fire Department would help facility tailor to those standard
198
Return on Investment (ROI)
Measures the gain or loss on an investment relative to the amount of money invested.
ROI = Net Profit / Cost of Investment
199
The path from Revenue to Net Profit (Total Revenue, Gross Profit, Operating Profit, Net Profit)
200
What is a profit margin and how is it calculated?
Shows how much of each dollar in revenues is translated into profits. Any type of profit margin is caluclated as the profit divided by the total revenue. multiplied by 100 to get the percentage. For example:
Operating profit margin = (Operating Profit / Total Revenue) * 100
201
Debt-to-Equity Ratio (D/E)
Indicates the proportion of equity and debt a company is using to finance its assets
D/E Ratio = Total Liabilities / Shareholder’s Equity
202
Break-Even Analysis
Determines the point at which cost or expenses and revenue are exactly equal; no net loss or gain, and one has "broken even". It's particularly useful for pricing strategies.
203
Cash Flow Analysis
Involves understanding the inflows and outflows of cash, helping to determine the liquidity position of the business. It involves categorizing cash flows into operations, investing, and financing activities.
204
Current Assets
All assets that a company expects to convert into cash, sell, or consume within one year or within the normal operating cycle of the business, whichever is longer. Examples include...
-Cash and Cash Equivalents: Currency, bank deposits, and short-term investments that are easily convertible to known amounts of cash and are subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value.
-Accounts Receivable
-Prepaid Expenses: Payments made in advance for goods or services to be received in the future, such as insurance, rent, and utilities.
205
Current Liabilities
Debts or obligations that are due to be paid to creditors within one year. Examples include:
Accounts Payable
Short-term Loans: Borrowings that are scheduled to be repaid within one year, including bank overdrafts.
Accrued Expenses: Expenses that have been incurred but not yet paid, such as wages, taxes, and utilities.
Deferred Revenue: Money received by a company for goods or services yet to be delivered or performed.
206
The use of a disinfectant by environmental services staff should correspond to the rating for that product that is on the container label and that is issued by the A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C. U.S Department of Agriculture (USDA) D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
207
What current ratios below, at, or above 1.0 indicate...
Below 1: Indicates potential liquidity issues, with current liabilities exceeding current assets, possibly requiring additional financing or asset liquidation.
At 1: Shows the company can meet short-term obligations but lacks a buffer for unexpected expenses, necessitating careful cash flow monitoring.
Above 1: Suggests good short-term financial health, with current assets surpassing liabilities, though a very high ratio may imply inefficient asset use.
208
One of the main roles of an ombudsman is to A. inspect LTC facilities and enforce state licensing law. B. provide legal advice on legal problems. C. screen applicants for admission to nursing homes to ensure appropriate placement of persons with serious mental illness or mental retardation.
D. seek informal resolution of the problems that residents of nursing homes and assisted living communities may have with facility management.
D. seek informal resolution of the problems that residents of nursing homes and assisted living communities may have with facility management.
209
Rule, Policy, Program, Procedure, Norm, Standard.
210
Tylenol is an example of ... A. an antibiotic B. an analgesic C. an antihypertensive D. a sedative
When you have the answer, please define that category.
B. analgesic
Analgesic is med that relieves pain w/o causing loss of consciousness. Analgesics block pain signals from being sent to/received by the brain.
211
Which of these is not a legal question that employers may ask of job applicants? A. Are you able to perform the essential functions of this job with or without a reasonable accommodation? B. Would you demonstrate how you would perform a job function? C. Are you able to meet the attendance requirements of this job? D. Do you have a disability that would interfere with your ability to perform?
D. Do you have a disability that would interfere with your ability to perform?
You can't ask a job applicant about their disability or medicals
212
On a balance sheet, net accounts receivable is calculated by subtracting which of the following from gross accounts receivable? A. allowance for bad debt B. depreciation expense C. aging of accounts receivable D. notes receivable
A. allowance for bad debt
213
The Fair Labor Standards Act does NOT include A. rights and restrictions on collective bargaining by labor unions. B. requirements for overtime pay. C. a nationwide minimum wage. D. limitations on the hiring of children.
A. rights and restrictions on collective bargaining by labor unions
214
Someone who commits a tort is called a...
Tort-Feasor
215
Workers Compensation provides which one of the following? A. full medical and hospital payments B. partial medical and hospital payments C. punitive damages D. replacement of all lost wages
A. full medical and hospital payments
Primary goal of worker's comp is to cover medical expenses and a portion (not all) of lost wages without the need for litigation.
216
Which of the following is the best temporary investment for an organization's surplus funds that must remain liquid? A. stocks B. bonds C. mutual funds D. money market account
D. Money Market
An example of the money market instrument is a Treasury Bill (T-Bill). T-Bills are short-term securities issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury with maturity periods commonly of one month (4 weeks), three months (13 weeks), or six months (26 weeks).
They are sold at a discount from their face value, and when they mature, the government pays the holder the full face value. The difference between the purchase price and the face value is the interest earned by the investor.
217
Leadership development training should be provided to A. Administrators and AITs B. Administrators, AITs, and department heads C. Administrators, AITs, department heads, and other supervisory staff D. All employees
D. All employees
218
An organization is considering the purchase of a piece of equipment that costs $6,000 and has a useful life of 10 years (with no salvage value). It is estimated that the item will reduce annual operating costs by $800 over each of the next ten years. What would be the payback period? A. 7.50 years B. 1.33 years C. 0.75 years D. Cannot be determined with the provided information
A. 7.50
219
What's a payback period?
Payback period = point at which the equpiment has broken even
220
Apraxia
A motor disorder caused by brain damage, where there's difficulty in executing voluntary muscle movements, despite having the desire and physical ability to perform the movements.
221
Agnosia
The inability to process sensory information properly, leading to a failure to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells.
222
What's an ADRC?
Aging and Disability Resource Centers (ADRCs) serve as single points of entry into the long-term services and supports (LTSS) system for older adults, people with disabilities, caregivers, veterans and families. Some states refer to ADRCs as “access points” or “no wrong door” systems.
223
What does an A.R.D. stand for and how does it pertain to the MDS completion date?
ARD = Assessment Reference Date. It is the date when the assessment of a resident was actually completed. This date is different than the MDS completion date, which occurs when the MDS is updated to account for the new assessment.
224
What does SCSR stand for?
Significant Change in Status Reassessment
225
What does PASRR stand for and what is it's use.
"Pre-admission Screening and Resident Review" - used to make sure folks with intellectual disabilities and mental disorders aren't wrongly admitted into Nursing Homes
226
What are the two levels of the PASRR evaluation
Both are screenings for possible ID or Mental Disorders. Level one is kind of a catch-all screening while level 2 is a more in-depth screening.
227
A facility's emergency generator is required to transfer power within:
10 seconds
228
A volunteer contacts an administrator requesting to do a nurse aide's duties without pay. According to the regulations of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA), the administrator should:
a) recommend an appointment for a regular hiring interview.
b) schedule one day of orientation devoted to the duties of a nurse aide.
c) schedule for the volunteer's mandatory nurse aide training and competency evaluation.
d) recommend other opportunities for volunteering at the nursing facility.
c) schedule for the volunteer's mandatory nurse aide training and competency evaluation.
Key provision of OBRA is the requirement for nurse aides to complete NATCEP before providing direct care to residents.
Even if the individual wishes to volunteer and not receive pay, OBRA regulations still require them to complete the necessary nurse aide training and competency evaluation before performing nurse aide duties.
229
If a skilled nursing facility wants a discount on civil money penalties, they must waive their right to a hearing in writing within:
a 5 davs.
b 7 days.
c 60 days.
d 90 days.
c 60 days
230
A facility may waive their right to a hearing for civil money penalties.
How are they discounted for waiving this right at different time frames?
7 days for 35% discount
8-60 days for 20% discount
After 60 days, no discount
231
Which intervention is permitted by the facility when a confused resident pilfers through others' belongings without permission?
a) Provide locks to secure resident's belongings as requested.
b) Initiate the discharge process for the wandering resident.
c) Prohibit resident from entering other resident rooms.
d) Call the attending physician for medication adjustment.
a) Provide locks to secure resident's belongings as requested.
232
When was OBRA?
1987
233
How often must a facility provide free laundry services?
At least weekly
234
Potentially hazardous foods that require refrigeration must be stored at a temperature at or below:
a) 40°F
b)41°F.
c) 42°F.
d) 43°F
a) 40°F
The internal temperature of the actual food items themselves must be kept at 41°F or below.
The refrigerated environment/equipment that the foods are stored in should be set at 40°F or below.
235
Which facility employee is responsible for ensuring the psychosocial care plan is developed?
Social Worker
236
Which of the following must be made available to a nursing facility at the time of a resident's admission?
a) Orders containing medications and care
b) Copies of the resident's insurance cards
c) Summary of treatment in a previous healthcare facility
d) Rehabilitation potential from a physician or therapist
a) Orders containing medications and care
237
Which of the following actions should a nursing facility take in response to a resident who falls while walking down the hall?
a) Respect the resident's dignity and not intervene unless the resident is unsafe.
b) Restrain the resident if medically necessary.
c) Ensure that a staff member walks with the resident at all times.
d) Implement changes to prevent future occurrences.
d) Implement changes to prevent future occurrences.
The other answer choices either violate residents' rights, create excessive restrictions, or do not comprehensively address the underlying fall risk factors as required by OBRA's emphasis on dignity, quality of life and accident prevention.
238
The public policy that was initially responsible for the protection of resident funds is the:
A) Safe Harbor Act.
b) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
d) Consumer Protection Act.
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
239
A resident has a Medicare stay in a nursing facility. How long of a break in services must pass before the resident qualifies for another 100 days of Medicare coverage?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 180 davs
b) 60 days
240
Which of the following aspects of memory loss is an early sign of Alzheimer's type dementia?
a) Short-term memory
b) Procedural memory
c) Crystalized memory
d) Long-term memory
a) Short-term memory
241
The Taft-Hartley Act is also known as the _______________. What was its stance on unions?
Labor Management Relations Act (LMRA)
Anti-union
242
National Labor Relations Act had what stance on unions?
Strengthened unions and advocated for collective bargaining
243
Doctor types: DO vs. MD
DO (Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine)
-Trained in osteopathic medicine.
-Emphasizes holistic approach, considering body's structure and function.
MD (Doctor of Medicine)
-Trained in allopathic medicine.
-Focuses on diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases.
244
The purpose of disciplining an employee is to:
a) Demonstrate the facility's strong investigation system to a survey team.
b) Create and demonstrate an environment of zero tolerance.
c) Change the employee's behavior from unacceptable to acceptable
d) set an example for the other employees in the facilitv.
c) Change the employee's behavior from unacceptable to acceptable
245
Organization bylaws typically include:
organization chart, financial statements, personnel manual, and articles of incorporation.
246
Power of Attorney:
Legal document that grants someone (the "agent" or "attorney-in-fact") the authority to act on behalf of another person (the "principal") in legal and financial matters.
247
Advanced Directive:
A legal document that allows individuals to specify their healthcare preferences and end-of-life care instructions in advance.
248
Living Will:
A living will is a specific type of advance medical directive that outlines an individual's preferences for medical treatment and end-of-life care in the event of incapacitation.
249
Durable Power of Attorney
Like a POA (financial and legal decisions) but remains in effect even if the person granting the power becomes incapacitated
250
5 Stages of Grieving
1. Denial: Refusal to accept the reality of the loss.
2. Anger: Feelings of frustration, resentment, or rage.
3. Bargaining: Attempting to negotiate or make deals to change the outcome.
4. Depression: Overwhelming sadness, loneliness, and despair.
5. Acceptance: Coming to terms with the reality of the loss and integrating it into one's life.
251
Which of the following types of payroll withholdings are voluntary under federal law?
A) Estimations of state and federal income taxes
B) Health and dental insurance premiums
C) Federal unemplovment compensation taxes
D) Court-ordered wage garnishments
B) Health and dental insurance premiums
252
What are the 5 "rights" of medication administration?
Right Patient: Ensuring correct patient by verifying their identity using at least two patient identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number.
Right Medication: checking the medication label against the medication order.
Right Dose: Administering the correct dosage of medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider, considering factors such as the patient's age, weight, and medical condition.
Right Route: Administering the medication via the correct route, such as oral, intravenous, intramuscular, etc
Right Time: Administering the medication at the correct time interval as specified in the medication order
253
For care recipients who elect the hospice benefit, Medicare covers:
a) 80% of hospice services related to the qualified diagnosis.
b) 100% of hospice services related to the qualified diagnosis
c) 80% of room and board as well as care related to the terminal illness.
d) 100% of room and board as well as care related to the terminal illness.
100% of hospice services related to the qualified diagnosis
254
A profit and loss statement is sometimes referred to as a/an:
a) cash flow schedule.
b) operating statement.
c) general ledger.
d) income statement.
d) income statement.
255
A report that categorizes outstanding balances by the length of time the invoices or accounts receivable have been outstanding.
Aging Report
256
A schedule that records and summarizes accounts receivable that are considered uncollectible and will likely be written off as bad debt.
Bad Debt Schedule
257
This report provides a detailed record of accounts that have been deemed uncollectible and written off as bad debt, allowing organizations to adjust their financial records accordingly.
Write-off Report
258
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 300 form must be posted and displayed in a prominent location for employers with a minimum of how many employees?
11 employees.
259
Employers must post the OSHA Form 300A, which summarizes the information from the OSHA 300 Log, in a visible and accessible location for employees to view each year during what date range?
From February 1st to April 30th.
260
Direct v. indirect costs
Direct Costs: Expenses directly tied to producing a product or service.
EX: Raw materials, labor directly involved in production.
Indirect Costs: Expenses not directly linked to producing a product or service. EX: Rent, utilities, administrative salaries,
261
Worker's compensation is typically covered entirely by...
The employer
262
Management Function:
Planning
Definition: Determining goals and developing strategies to achieve them.
Example: A company creating a 5-year strategic plan outlining its objectives, target markets, and resource allocation.
263
Management Function:
Organization
Definition: Structuring resources and delegating tasks to achieve organizational goals efficiently.
Example: Establishing departments, teams, and reporting lines to facilitate smooth operations and coordination.
264
Management Function:
Staffing
Definition: Recruiting, hiring, and retaining qualified employees to fill organizational roles.
Example: A company conducting job analyses, advertising vacancies, interviewing candidates, and onboarding new hires.
265
Management Function:
Leading (Directing)
Definition: Motivating, guiding, and influencing employees to achieve organizational objectives.
Example: A manager setting clear expectations, providing feedback, and inspiring their team to perform at their best.
266
Management Function:
Controlling
Definition: Monitoring performance, evaluating results, and taking corrective actions to ensure goal achievement.
Example: A company tracking sales figures, analyzing variances from targets, and implementing strategies to address performance gaps.
267
According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, healthcare organizations must retain records of recordable incidents for how many years?
5 years
268
What are the 4 late loss ADLS
Bed mobility, transfer, toilet use, and eating
269
To be effective, feedback on job performance should be
a) primarily based on self-appraisal.
b) given periodically throughout employment.
c) given only at regularly scheduled reviews.
d) done at the point of service.
b) given periodically throughout employment.
270
The level of deficiency for which a facility can submit an IDR is ____ and above
Level G
271
Plan of Correction and IDR request must be submit within how many days of a 2567 form?
10
