Mock National Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Profit and Loss Statement (PILAR)

A
Profit
Income
Loss
Expenses
Revenue

-Income statement money made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Balance Sheet (LANCE)

A
Liabilities
Assets
Net worth
Capital
Equity

-Financial well being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General Ledger

A

Summarizes the debits and credits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is not on the income statement

Income
Revenue
Profit
Capital

A

Capital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ uses rewards to shape specific employee behaviors

A

Operant Conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The ___ requires employers to document employee performance

A

EEOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

New employees should ___ to learn how to do their jobs

A

Be paired with experienced co-workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After initial orientation, all further training sessions in a nursing home are called ___

A

In-services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Attending physician visits are timely per federal regulation if completed___

A

Every thirty days for the first 90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

After the initial visit, the physician cannot alternate visits with a ___

A

Nurses aide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The attending physician is not required to ____

A

Re-sign facsmile orders transmitted to the facility

the faxed order was signed by the physician prior to transmission to the facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Specialized rehabilitative services do not include___

A

Restorative Nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Specialized rehabilitative therapy must be provided under written order of the___

A

The attending physician or a licensed physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A facility is not required to ___

A

Pay for all dental care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ___ is responsible to determine if a facility’s drug records are in order and all controlled drugs are accounted for and maintained and reconsiled

A

Consultant pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The consultant pharmacist must review each resident’s drug regimen___

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Under HIPAA when a worker moves from one job to another, their new employer’s health plan can exclude coverage for a preexisting health condition for no more than ___ months

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The first step in formulating a marketing strategy is to do a

A

Market audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The consultant pharmacist must report any irregularities to the DON and the

A

ADON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Salmonella is found in

A

Chicken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common contributing factor for food-borne illness is

A

Improper storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hot foods should leave the kitchen at ___F

A

135F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cold foods should be kept at ___F and below

A

41 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The freezer temperature should be set at ___F

A

20F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Raw meats should be stored on/in the ___ in the refrigerator

A

Bottom shelf

Raw meats should be separated from other foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vegetables and fruits should be stored in the refrigerator

A

12 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Food should be stored ___ inches off the floor

A

6 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A three compartment sink has ___ compartments

A

wash, rinse, sanitize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A dishwasher that uses hot water wash and rinse cycles have a wash cycle at ___ F and final rinse cycle at __ F

A

150, 180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A low temperature dishwasher uses hot water at ___F and bleach at 50 PPM of bleach

A

120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which is true?

  • Must keep refuse container in good repair/no leaks
  • Must keep dumpsters and compacter with lids covered
  • Must keep garbage storage areas clean and odor free
A

All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The ___ has authority to make critical decisions regarding operation of a facility

A

Governing body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

___focus on torts and disputes between private individuals

A

Civil laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The ___ protects US worker health and safety in the work place

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ___ develops safety and infection control standards in nursing homes

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The facility safety committee must meet at least ___ to discuss unsafe practices and behaviors, analyze reports and identify prevention measures

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Under the universal precautions required by OSHA, ___ would not be considered a bodily fluid

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The main objective of OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard does not include

A

Reporting worker injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

____ protects workers from injury from unexpected hazardous energy discharge by the use of energy isolating devices

A

Lockout/Tag out Program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The OSHA compliance and regulatory program does not include

A

Assessing multimillion dollar fines for willful violations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

OSHA administers the

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Employers must provide new workers initial training on the MSDS and other OSHA safety rules

A

Upon Hire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Employers must provide worker training in NEW OSHA standards within ___ days of implementation of a new law

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Employers must record all worker related injuries and illness in OSHA log ___ which is the summary of employee illnesses and injuries

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

OSHA protects primarily ___ from workplace injuries and death

A

Wage earners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

OSHAs general duty clause requires employers to

A

Provide a workplace free of recognizable hazards that can cause injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most often cited OSHA violation is

A

Failure to post materials safety data sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Employers must post year end summary of injuries and illnesses between ___ and ___ of each year

A

Feb 1, April 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Employers post year end summary of illnesses and injuries

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Occupational illnesses would not include

A

A sprained ankle resulting from a fall at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Employers must report to OSHA fatal or seriously injuries involving three or more employees within ___

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The ___ department helps residents adjust to facility life and counsels residents and families regarding psychosocial and financial issues

A

Social services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A drug label is not required to ___

A

The physicians name and manufactures name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

___ keeps the facility clean and odor free

A

Housekeeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___ keeps sheets, gowns, tablecloths clean and in good condition

A

Laundry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Specific standards of behavior are called

A

Norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Residents do not have the right to

A

A bath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Residents do not have the right to

A

Share a room with a spouse if only one spouse agrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Any action taken by a facility to punish or penalize residents is called

A

Discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A manual or physical method or mechanical device, material or equipment attached or adjacent to a residents body that restricts movement is called

A

Physical restraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A facility is not required to

A

Advise the resident of their rights within fourteen days of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A facility is not required to provide residents who do not understand the predominant language in the facility

A

A roommate who speaks their native language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A facility may provide a resident jus an ORAL SUMMARY and a written copy of the statement of rights when

A

The resident speaks the predominant language and fully understands their rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which is not true

  • All drugs and biologicals must be stored in locked compartments and under proper temperature controls
  • Schedule 1 drugs must be stored in a locked compartment
  • A facility may only permit authorized personnel to have keys to locked drug compartments
  • Schedule II controlled drugs must be stored in permanently affixed compartments with separate locks from the main compartment door
A

-Schedule 1 drugs must be stored in a locked compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A physician does NOT NEED to be notified if a resident ___

A

Has a change in roommate or room assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A facility is not required to

A

Charge a reasonable fee for copying the statement of resident’s rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A facility may

A

Charge for clerical time to copy resident records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A facility must ensure residents understand theri rights and is required to inform residents

A

Verbally and in writing
In a language the resident understands
In jargon free language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which is NOT TRUE

  • Residents do not have the right to refuse treatment
  • Residents have the right to refuse to participate in experimental research
  • Residents have the right to formulate an advanced directive
  • Residents have the right to eat at any hour they want
A

-Residents do not have the right to refuse treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The development and testing of clinical treatments such as an investigational drug or therapy is called

A

Experimental research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Written instructions realating to the provision of health care when an individual is incapacitated is called

A

An advanced directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A resident who has capacity and withholds consent to treatment either directly or through an advanced directive

A

May not be treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Food being ‘attractive’ refers to the ___ of the food served

A

Visual presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A facility must provide all new employees training on how to use the MSDS (materials data safety sheets) within what time frame

A

Upon hire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When the facility completes its investigation of an abuse allegation, the administrator would do which of the following next

A

File a 5 day report to the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In the event of an allegation of abuse, the ___ must be immediately notified

A

Administrator

77
Q

The staff member most likely to handle resident grievances is the

A

Social worker

78
Q

The facility must notify Medicaid residents when their trust fund is within ___ of the ___ asset limit

A

$200 SSI

79
Q

___ is not a carbohydrate

A

Protein

80
Q

An eye condition where fluid causes increase pressure in the eye, potentially damaging the optic nerve is called

A

Glaucoma

81
Q

An eye condition where a thin layer of tissue covers the lens of the eye, causing vision problems is called

A

Cataract

82
Q

An eye condition where the macula is damaged in the retina and the individual has a loss of vision in the central field of vision and they can only see left of center and right of center but not the central point of what they’re looking at is called

A

Macular degeneration

83
Q

A respiratory condition where bacteria damage the functional ability of the lungs is called

A

Tuberculosis

84
Q

A respiratory condition where the bronchial tubes are irritated and produce large amounts of mucus and a cough is called

A

Bronchitis

85
Q

A respiratory condition where the bronchial tubes constrict, causing difficulty breathing is called

A

ASthma

86
Q

A respiratory condition where the lung tissues loses elasticity and the lungs cannot properly expand and deflate, causing breathing problems, is called

A

Emphysema

87
Q

COPD stands for

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

88
Q

The ___ must determine if a resident requires isolation

A

Physician

89
Q

Standard or universal precautions does not include

A

Sharps containers

90
Q

A facility that utilizes universal precautions can do which of the following regarding an individual with HIV requesting admission to your facility

A

Admit the individual

91
Q

The PAS or PASRR assessment is used to determine the level of services required for an individual with mental retardation and stands for

A

Pre admission Screening and Resident Review

92
Q

A condition where fluid buids up in the heart muscle and the ljungs is called

A

Congestive heart failure

93
Q

Risk of falls for all residents over 65 in a nursing home is approximately

A

70%

94
Q

The percentage of residents who are chair bound in a nursing home is

A

50%

95
Q

The most effective way to reduce the spread of germs in a nursing home is

A

Hand washing

96
Q

Nursing homes are surveyed

A

Every 15 months

97
Q

Which is NOT TRUE

  • A facility must have policies prohibiting mistreatment, abuse and misappropriation of resident property by staff
  • A facility must not use verbal, mental, sexual or physical abuse, corporal punishment or resident involuntary seclusion
  • A facility must not employ individuals who have been found guilty of abusing, neglecting, or mistreating residents
  • A facility has no obligation to investigate allegations of abuse
A

-A facility has no obligation to investigate allegations of abuse

98
Q

A facility may not ___

A

Only do a criminal background check for job applicants suspected of having prior convictions

99
Q

In a fire drill, the fire alarm does not have to be sounded between the hours of

A

10PM-6AM

100
Q

In a fire drill, residents

A

Do not need to be removed from their beds

101
Q

All exit doors to the outside in a nursing home must

A

Swing outward

102
Q

All employee injuries that require medical attention or loss of time

A

Must be entered into the OSHA injury log within 7 days

103
Q

Employee injuries that only require first aid and no loss of time

A

Do not need to be reported

104
Q

OSHA year end summary and illnesses must be posted by the time clock between

A

Feb1-April 30

105
Q

All facility survey reports must be posted in the

A

Front lobby

106
Q

If blood is spilled on the floor, staff must

A

Immediately clean and sanitize the area thoroughly

107
Q

If a resident was injured from a defective wheelchair, the administrator must

A

Notify the FDA and the manufacturer within 10 days

108
Q

A___ is not a chemical restraint

A

Diuretic

109
Q

A ___ Is not a physical restraing

A

Sleeping pill

110
Q

A resident restraint must be checked every

A

30 minuets

111
Q

A resident must be freed from restraints every

A

2 hours

112
Q

A resident must be freed from a restraint for

A

10 minutes

113
Q

The inability to control the bowel and bladder is called

A

Incontinence

114
Q

Validation therapy works best with residents who are

A

Severely demented

115
Q

Reality therapy would work best for residents who are

A

Exhibiting signs of senile dementia

116
Q

A low fat diet would be prescribed fro a person with

A

High cholesterol

117
Q

A low salt diet would be prescribed for a person with

A

High blood pressure

118
Q

Specialized therapy does not include

A

Restorative nursing

119
Q

The dietary department must staff

A

Sufficient staff to provide necessary services

120
Q

___ deals with lower body weight bearing muscles

A

Physical therapy

121
Q

___ deals with upper body strength and activities of daily living

A

Occupational therapy

122
Q

___ deals with speech and swallowing problems

A

Speech therapy

123
Q

___ involves nursing aides providing resident range of motion exercises and walking them

A

Restorative nursing

124
Q

ROM stands for

A

Range of motion

125
Q

An expense that does not change with the census is called a

A

Fixed expense

126
Q

An expense that changes with the census is a

A

Variable expense

127
Q

The administrators salary is an example of a

A

Fixed expense

128
Q

Food and medical supplies are an example of a

A

Variable expense

129
Q

An OSHA violation must be posted at the site of the violation for a minimum of ___ working days or until corrected

A

3

130
Q

If the administrator wanted to know the net worth of the facility, the administrator would look at the

A

Balance sheet

131
Q

The ___ are the books of original entry

A

Journals

132
Q

Nursing homes use the

A

Accrual basis of accounting

133
Q

An accounting system where transactions are recorded when they actually occur is called

A

Accrual basis of accounting

134
Q

An accounting system where transactions are recorded when cash actually changes hands is called

A

Cash basis of accounting

135
Q

A facility must provide a resident ___ days of advance notice of an involuntary discharge due to non payment-or non emergency medical reasons

A

30

136
Q

If a resident is transferred to a hospital for emergency care, the facility must provide the resident notice of their bed hold rights by

A

By verbally informing the resident of there rights and sending a written copy of the notice with their transfer papers to the hospital

137
Q

Per OBRA 1987 which payor source will pay to hold a bed while a resident is on therapeutic leave or is in the hospital

A

Medicaid

138
Q

A Medicaid resident goes out to the hospital and requests to return to the facility after their bed hold expired. Which is true

  • The facility does not have to readmit the resident to the facility
  • The facility can readmit the resident and require a security deposit in advance
  • The facility must readmit the resident to the next available bed
  • The resident loses their right to return to the facility upon expiration of their bed-hold
A

-The facility must readmit the resident to the next available bed

139
Q

An individual on Medicare must have a qualifying ___ day stay in the hospital before they can be admitted to a skilled nursing center

A

3

140
Q

NPO means

A

Nothing by mouth

141
Q

Per OBRA 1987 a facility is required to provide residents an environment that is

A

Homelike and deemphasizes the institutional appearance of the facility

142
Q

Linen carts must be sanitized

A

Weekly

143
Q

A resident who refused the planned meal must be provided

A

A nutritionally equivalent meal

144
Q

A facility must maintain a _ day emergency food supply per OBRA 1987

A

3 day

145
Q

Per the Taft Hartley Act, the only thing a manager may do with respect to a union is

A

Express their personal view about the benefits of a union to their workers

146
Q

___ was the first major union to form in 1935

A

CIO

147
Q

Associated Federation of Labor (AFL) is/is not spelled correctly

A

Is not

American Federation of Labor

148
Q

Provides medial assistance to the elderly and the poor based on financial need

A

Medicaid

149
Q

___ is an insurance program for individuals over 65 and certain disabled persons

A

Medicare

150
Q

Medicare part A does not cover

A

Televisions and telephone

151
Q

Medicare part A pays for

A

Semi private room

152
Q

Title 19 of the social security act is

A

Medicaid

153
Q

Under Medicare part A a patient must have a qualifying ___ day hospital stay, must not have used up ___ allowable days of skilled care and must be admitted to a nursing home with ___ days of discharge from the hospital

A

3 day qualifying
100 allowable skilled days
10 days of dc from hospital

154
Q

Medicaid (Title 19) of the social security act does not cover

A

Intensive rehabilitation/therapy

155
Q

Medicaid (Title 19) of the social security act will not pay for

A

Skilled nursing

156
Q

The main objective of OSHAs hazard communication standard is not to

A

Report worker injuries

157
Q

OSHAs blood borne pathogen control program primarily requires an employer to

A

Have a written control program for control blood borne pathogens

158
Q

OSHA’s color is

A

Green

159
Q

The ___ prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability

A

Americans with Disabilities Act

160
Q

Under the American with Disabilities Act an employer can ask a job applicant prior to hire

A

If the applicant has the ability to perform the functions of the job

161
Q

Each floor or fire section in a facility must have at least ___ located ___ from each other

A

Two exits-remotely

162
Q

Aisles, corridors and ramps must be a minimum of ___ feet or more wide

A

8

163
Q

Exit signs must be placed so a person is never more than ___ feet from any fire exit sign

A

100

164
Q

Travel distance within any resident room to an exit access door must not exceed

A

200

165
Q

In implementing management by walking around MBWA an administrator would not

A

Make correction on the spot

166
Q

If a resident was unable to swallow, a physician would not order which

Nectar
Honey
Thickeners
Low salt diet

A

Low salt diet

167
Q

A skilled nursin gfacility cannot provide

A

Acute care

168
Q

A nursing hoe must have a ___ agreement signed and in place with local hospitals

A

Transfer

169
Q

What is the approximate weight loss for a person previously weighing 175 pounds and now weighs 150 pounds

A

14%

175-150=25 25/175

170
Q

150 doses were prescribed. 2 were not given and 3 were administered incorrectly. what is the approximate medication error rate

A

3%

In this equation you are given 2 numbers 150 and 5 (3+2) Divide 5 by 150 = 0.333x100= 3.33 number 3 is the best answer

171
Q

An employee with an hourly rate of $8 works 48 hours in a 40 hour week. What is the workers gross salary per the Fair Labor Standards Act

A

$416

You know that any time over 40 hours a week is overtime paid at 1.5 times regular rate.
Step 1 calculate regular time= $8x40 +$320
Step 2 calculate your OT dollars which is 8 hours x $12 an hour (1/2 of $8=$4 +$8) yields $12 an hour. $8x$12 =$96. the total paid is $320+$96=$416

172
Q

What is the absentee rate for a facility with 200 FT employees and 120 work days in a 30 day period

A

2.0 %

You cannot touch the number of lost days
Multiply the number of FT employees by teh time period or 30 days whic is 200x30+6000
Divide 120 by 6000 = 2 %

173
Q

Using straight-line depreciation, calculate the annual depreciation for a 5 year period for an electrical generator costing $10,000 with a. $2000 salvage value

A

$1600

Subtract $2000 (salvage value) from $10000 (cost of generator) = $8000 (depreciated value). Divide $8000 by 5 (number of years you can depreciate asset) =$1600

174
Q

What is the cost per resident per day if the operating cost is $250,000 and the total number of resident days is $10,000

A

$25.00

Simply divide $250000 by 10,000 resident days =$25

175
Q

If $60,000 is borrowed at 10% common interest for ten years and only interest is paid for the first year, the first month’s payment would be approximately

A

$490

$60,000 x .10 =6000. Divide 6000 by 12 =500

the closest answer in the range is $490

176
Q

What is the approximate percentage of gross profit with an income of $400,000 and $175,000 in fixed expenses and $135,000 in variable expenses

A

19%

Add the total expenses $175,000+$135,000=$310,000
Next $400,000 - $310,000= $90,000
$90,000 divided by $400,000 = 22% so the closest answer is 19 %

177
Q

What is the payback period for an investment of $60,000 with an annual savings of $3000

A

30 years

Payback period is when you make your money back

$60,000 divided by $3000 = 20 years
Choice 3 is the best answer

178
Q

Calculate the medication error rate where 120 doses of medication were prescribed and 5 doses were not given and 4 doses were administered incorrectly

A

7.5 %

The error rate is 9 doses (5+4)

9/120=7.5 percent

179
Q

What is the percentage of weight loss for a person previously weighing 160 pounds and who now weighs 141 pounds

A

12%

160-141=19 pounds
19/160=11.8 percent
The closest answer is #1 12 percent

180
Q

How many nurse aides would you need to schedule for a facility with 120 residents if you need 3 hours of care per resident? each aide works 8 hours per shift

A

45

120 residents x 3 hours each = 360 hours
360/8=45 aides

181
Q

A facility employed 150 employees throughout the year. At the end of the year, 15 employees had been discharged and 5 resigned. What was the approximate annual turnover rate

A

13%

15+5=20 employees left
20/150=13.3 percent the answer is 13% or choice #1

182
Q

A nursing home has $300,000 in gross income and $110,000 in fixed expenses and $135,000 in variable expenses. What is the approximate percentage of gross profit

A

20%

$300,000-$245,000 (110,000+135,000)=$55,000

$55,000/$300,000=18.3%
The closest answer is 20%

183
Q

A 100 bed facility averages 95% occupancy and during a 30 month period had total expenses of $200,000. What is the average cost per resident

A

$70

100x.95=95 residents daily occupancy
$200,000/30 months=$6666 for one month
$6666/95 = $70.16 per day per resident

184
Q

What is the average daily absentee rate with a total of 100 full time employees and 120 lost work days during a 60 day period

A

2%

100x60=6000
120/6000=2%
2% is answer 1

185
Q

A new dryer costs $1500 with a useful life of 10 years. How much depreciation expense is deducted on a yearly basis using the straight line method

A

$150

$1500/10 years = $150 a year

186
Q

A nursing home with 100 beds pays the administrator $90,000 a year. The current occupancy rate is 80%. what is the administrators approximate fixed salary cost per resident day

A

$3.01

100x.80=80 residents per day
80x365=29,200 = $3.08 per resident per day
answer 2 is the best

187
Q

A 200 bed facility spent $15,000 on food in June with an average daily occupancy of 80%. How much did the facility spend per resident per day?

A

$3.12

200x.80=160 resident days
160x30 days= 4800 total resident days
$15,000/4800=$3.12 per resident

188
Q

If you invest $200,000 an expect to receive $50,000 in return annually. what is the payback period

A

4 years

$200,000/$49,000=4 years. the answer is an approximation