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Mycology Flashcards

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1
Q

Sterol of fungi

A

ergosterol

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2
Q

Rigid cell wall of fungi contain?

A

Chitin (N-acetylglucosamine) and glucan

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3
Q

Main difference of fungi from plants

A

Fungi are nonphotosynthetic. They do not form chlorophyll.

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4
Q

True or false. Less than 50 species cause more than 90% of the fungal infection.

A

True

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5
Q

Overall, fungi exert their greatest economic impact as?

A

Phytopathogens
- the agricultural industry
sustains huge crop losses every year as a result of fungal diseases of rice, corn, grains, and other plants

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6
Q

True or false. Most fungi are obligate or facultative aerobes.

A

True.

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7
Q

Fungi secrete enzymes
that degrade a wide variety of organic substrates into soluble
nutrients which are then passively absorbed or taken into the cell by active transport. This property is termed?

A

Chemotrophic

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8
Q

Fungal infections are called?

A

Mycoses

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9
Q

Most pathogenic fungi

are exogenous, their natural habitats being water, soil, and organic debris. True or false?

A

True.

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10
Q

Th e mycoses with the highest incidence?

A

candidiasis dermatophytosis

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11
Q

Immune response of most patients who develop mycosis?

A

cellular and humoral immune responses to the fungal antigens

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12
Q

Asexual reproductive structures (mitospores)
produced either from the transformation of a vegetative
yeast or hyphal cell or from a specialized conidiogenous
cell.

A

Conidia

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13
Q

Conidia may be formed on specialized hyphae,

termed?

A

conidiophores

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14
Q

Conidia that result from

the fragmentation of hyphal cells.

A

Arthroconidia (arthrospores)

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15
Q

Conidial formation through a budding process (eg, yeasts: Candida, cryptococcus)

A

Blastoconidia (blastospores)

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16
Q

If blastoconidia continue to elongate and fail to pinch off, they are called?

A

pseudohyphae (yeast-like)

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17
Q

Large, thick-walled,
usually spherical conidia produced from terminal
or intercalary hyphal cells

A

Chlamydospores (chlamydoconidia)

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18
Q

Conidia that are produced by a “vase-shaped”
conidiogenous cell termed a phialide (eg,
Aspergillus fumigatus)

A

Phialoconidia

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19
Q

Fungi whose cell walls contain

melanin, which imparts a brown to black pigment.

A

Dematiaceous fungi

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20
Q

Fungi that have two growth forms, such
as a mold and a yeast, which develop under different growth conditions (eg, Blastomyces dermatitidis forms hyphae in vitro and yeasts in tissue)

A

Dimorphic fungi

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21
Q

Tubular, branching filaments (2–10 μm in width) of fungal cells, the mold form of growth.

A

Hyphae

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22
Q

Most hyphal

cells are separated by porous cross-walls called?

A

Septa

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23
Q

Aseptate hyphae (lack crosswalls) are also called?

A

coenocytic

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24
Q

Hyphae which grow within the surface of the medium (agar)

A

Vegetative hyphae

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25
Q

Hyphae which extend above the surface

A

Aerial hyphae

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26
Q

Septa formed as a process of hyphal extension and generally have a septal pore.

A

Primary septa

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27
Q

Function of primary septa

A

allows for cytoplasmic and organelle movement

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28
Q

Imperforate septa formed to wall off aging parts of the mycelium.

A

Secondary or adventitiopus septa

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29
Q

Mucor fungi have what type of septa?

A

Aseptate

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30
Q

3 structural components of fungi cell wall

A
  1. Chitin microfibrils (N-acetylglucosamine)
  2. Chitosan (glucosamine)
  3. B-linked glucans
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31
Q

Gel-like components of fungi cell wall

A

mannoproteins

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32
Q

Dark brown to black pigments on fungi cell wall

A

melanins

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33
Q

Function of melanins in fungi cell wall (3)

A
  1. Confer resistance to enzyme lysis
  2. Confer mechanical strength
  3. Protect cells from UV light, solar radiation and desiccation
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34
Q

Aromatic polymer found in spore walls of some fungi that confers properties similar to melanin

A

sporopollenin

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35
Q

Permeability of fungi cell wall

A

semi-permeable

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36
Q

An allergic reaction to molds and spores

A

hypersensitivity

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37
Q

Poisoning of man and animals by feeds and food products contaminated by fungi which produce toxins from the grain substrate.

A

Mycotoxicoses

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38
Q

Ingestion of pre-formed toxin (mushroom poisoning)

A

Mycetismus

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39
Q

Yeasts may be gram positive and are much larger than bacteria. True or false?

A

True

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40
Q

Cylindrical, branching filaments composed of a tubular cell wall filled with cytoplasm and organelles

A

HYPHAE (MYCELIUM)

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41
Q

Unicellular organism

Round or oval fungi that bud or pinch off

A

yeasts

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42
Q

Size of most fungal hyphae

A

2-10 μm diameter

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43
Q

A mass of hyphae is called?

A

mycelia

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44
Q

Fungi that are characteristically

sparsely septate.

A

zygomycetous hyphae

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45
Q

Vegetative or substrate hyphae anchor the colony and?

A

absorb nutrients

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46
Q

Aerial hyphae project

above the colony and bear the?

A

reproductive structures

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47
Q

Fungi that lack sexual reproduction; they are represented only by an anamorph, the mitotic or asexual reproductive state.

A

Imperfect fungi

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48
Q

asexual reproductive state of imperfect fungi

A

anamorph

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49
Q

Hyphal or mycelial colony or form of growth

A

mold

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50
Q

Mass or mat of hyphae, mold colony

A

mycelium

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51
Q

Fungi that are capable of sexual reproduction, which is the teleomorph.

A

perfect fungi

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52
Q

Sexual reproductive state of perfect fungi

A

teleomorph

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53
Q

Chains of elongated buds or blastoconidia

A

Pseudohyphae

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54
Q

Hyphal cross-wall, typically perforated

A

septum

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55
Q

Asexual structures characteristic of the Order Mucorales; they are mitotic spores produced within an enclosed sporangium, often supported by one sporangiophore

A

sporangiospores

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56
Q

A specialized propagule with enhanced survival
value, such as resistance to adverse conditions or
structural features that promote dispersion

A

spore

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57
Q

During sexual reproduction, haploid

cells of compatible strains mate through a process of?

A

plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis

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58
Q

In the Phylum Ascomycota, following

meiosis, four to eight meiospores form within an ascus

A

ascospores

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59
Q

In the Phylum Basidiomycota, following

meiosis, four meiospores usually form on the surface of a specialized structure, a club-shaped basidium

A

Basidiospores

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60
Q

In the Order Mucorales, following meiosis, a

large, thick-walled called ___ develops.

A

zygospores

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61
Q

Unicellular, spherical to ellipsoid (3–15 μm) fungal

cells that usually reproduce by budding.

A

yeasts

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62
Q

Pathogenic fungi do not

produce potent toxins. True or false.

A

True

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63
Q

Because fungi are eukaryotes, they share numerous homologous genes, gene products, and pathways with their
human hosts. True or false?

A

True

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64
Q

Growth in the mold form occurs by the production of multicellular filamentous colonies called?

A

hyphae

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65
Q

The mass of intertwined

hyphae that accumulates during active growth is a?

A

mycelium

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66
Q

When a mold is
isolated from a clinical specimen, its _____, _____ and _____ are usually
sufficient to determine its genus and species.

A

growth rate, macroscopic

appearance, and microscopic morphology

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67
Q

The most helpful

phenotypic features are the ontogeny and morphology of the asexual reproductive spores, or conidia. True or false?

A

True

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68
Q

Cell wall component that activate the complement cascade and provoke an inflammatory reaction.

A

Cell wall glucans and other polysaccharides

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69
Q

Usually detected component of fungi cell wall voa special histologic stains

A

cell wall polysaccharides since they are poorly degraded by the host

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70
Q

Fungi that impart a brown or black pigment

A

dematiaceous fungi

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71
Q

The medical fungi produce two major types of asexial spores which are?

A
  1. Conidia (from most pathogenic fungi)

2. Sporangiospores (Order Mucorales)

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72
Q

The lower fungi were assigned

to the Phylum?

A

Phylum Zygomycota

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73
Q

Phylum Zygomycota, shown to be polyphyletic, has been replaced by?

A

Phylum

Glomerulomycota and four subphyla

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74
Q

Under Phylum Glomerulomycota contains the orders of zoopathogenic molds which are?

A

Mucorales and

the Entomophthorales

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75
Q

Two largest phyla of fungi

A

Ascomycota and Basidiomycota

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76
Q

Phylum which include more than 60% of the known fungi and about 85% of the human pathogens.

A

Phylum Ascomycota (or ascomycetes)

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77
Q

In Phylum Glomerulomycta, Order Mucorales, sexula reproduction results in ____ and asexual reproduction occurs via _____.

A

Sexual - zygospore

Asexual - sporangia

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78
Q

Rhizopus, Lichtheimia, Mucor, Cunninghamella are under which phylum?

A

Phylum Glomerulomycta, Order Mucorales

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79
Q

In Phylum Ascomycota (Ascomycetes)

Sexual reproduction involves a sac or ____ in which karyogamy and meiosis occur.

A

sac or ascus

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80
Q

Asexual reproduction in Phylum Ascomycota (Ascomycetes) is via?

A

conidia

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81
Q

Ascomycetous molds have what type of hyphae?

A

septate hyphae

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82
Q

(Saccharomyces,

Candida) and molds (Coccidioides, Blastomyces, Trichophyton)

A

Phylum Ascomycota (Ascomycetes)

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83
Q

In Phylum Basidiomycota (Basidomycetes)
Sexual reproduction results in _____ and four progeny
basidiospores supported by a club-shaped basidium.

A

dikaryotic hyphae

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84
Q

Type of hyphae of Phylum Basidiomycota (Basidomycetes)

A

complex septa

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85
Q

Mushrooms, Cryptococcus

A

Phylum Basidiomycota (Basidomycetes)

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86
Q

Most fungi occur in nature and grow readily on simple

sources of?

A

N and CHO

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87
Q

The traditional mycological
medium, _______, which contains glucose
and modified peptone (pH 7.0), has been used because it
does not readily support the growth of bacteria.

A

Sabouraud’s agar

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88
Q

Content of Sabouraud’s agar

A

glucose

and modified peptone (pH 7.0)

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89
Q

Sabouraud’s agar i sused for?

A

ID of morphologic characteritsics of fungi

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90
Q

agar that facilitates the

recovery of fungi from clinical specimens

A

inhibitory mold agar

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91
Q

To culture medical fungi from non-sterile specimens, these are added to the media to inhibit bacteria and saprobic molds.

A

antibacterial antibiotics

(eg, gentamicin, chloramphenicol) and cycloheximide

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92
Q

antibacterial antibiotics in culture of medical fungi ate used to inhibit?

A

bacteria

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93
Q

cycloheximide in culture of medical fungi is used to inhibit growth of?

A

saprobic molds

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94
Q

Stain that binds
to cellulose and chitin in the cell walls of fungi and fluoresces under long-wavelength ultraviolet light. It may demonstrate morphology that is diagnostic of the species (eg,
spherules with endospores in Coccidioides immitis infection).

A

calcofluor white

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95
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii cysts are identified morphologically in?

A

silver-stained specimens

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96
Q

used to stain tissue sections

when fungal infection is suspected

A

PAS

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97
Q

After primary isolation
of fungi, stains such as _____are used to distinguish fungal growth and to identify organisms by their
morphology.

A

lactophenol cotton blue

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98
Q

Specimens to be examined for fungi can be examined
unstained after treatment with a solution of ______, which breaks down the tissue surrounding
the fungal mycelia to allow a better view of the hyphal
forms.

A

10% potassium

hydroxide

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99
Q

used for specimens such as surveillance cultures and cultures of urine

A

chromogenic agars

agars that incorporate antibiotics and chromogenic enzyme
substrates that impart color to specific organisms of interest

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100
Q

FACTORS AFFECTING ESTABLISHMENT OF MYCOSIS

A
  1. Inoculum size
  2. Resistance of the host
  3. Severity of disease in mycotic infections depends more on the host immune system than on the virulence of the fungus
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101
Q

multiplication of an organism at a given site without harm to the host

A

colonization

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102
Q

invasion and multiplication of organisms in body tissue resulting in local cellular injury

A

true infection

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103
Q

Nucleus blue with clear or pink cytoplasm. What stain?

A

giemsa stain

104
Q

Yeasts and hyphae are brown-black
Counterstain is usually green
Stains the cell wall only

A

GMS (Gomori’s Methenamine Silver) or Silver Stain

105
Q

Stains cell walls pink

Counterstain is blue or green

A

PAS (Periodic Acid Schiff)

106
Q

A direct observation using 10% KOH with gentle heat to ID dermatophytes etc

A

wet mount

107
Q

Causes dermal hypersensitivity and is limited to determining cellular defense mechanisms and for epidemiologic studies

A

skin test

108
Q

Antigen detection presently available for which fungi?

A

Cryptococcosis

Histoplasmosis

109
Q

Two cultures are inoculated and incubated separately at _____ to reveal dimorphism.

A

25˚C and 37˚C

110
Q

Culture of fungi is not considered negative for growth until after ____ of incubation.

A

4 weeks

111
Q

DOC for most systemic fungal infections
Binds to sterols and alters the permeability of the cell wall and results in leakage of the intracellular contents of the fungus

A

POLYENE DERIVATIVES Amphotericin B Nystatin

112
Q

Interfere with ergosterol synthesis

Block the cytochrome P450-dependent 14α-demethylation of lanosterol, which is a precursor of ergosterol in fungi and cholesterol in mammalian cells

A

AZOLES Ketoconazole Fluconazole Itraconazole Voriconazole

113
Q

Used for muco-cutaneous candidiasis, dermatophytosis, and for some systemic fungal infections

A

AZOLES

114
Q

Azoles with few serious rare AE

A

Itraconazole and Fluconazole

115
Q

A slow acting drug used for skin and nail infections.

It accumulates in the stratum corneum and prevent hyphal penetration through these layers

A

GRISEOFULVIN

116
Q

Forms a barrier to fungal growth

A

GRISEOFULVIN

117
Q

Oral antifungal compound used primarily in conjunction with amphotericin b to treat cryptococcosis or candidiasis

A

5-FLUOROCYTOSINE (5-FC)

118
Q

MOA of 5-FLUOROCYTOSINE (5-FC)

A

Inhibits RNA synthesis

119
Q

blocks ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase

A

ALLYLAMINES Terbinafine (Lamisil)

120
Q

Orally taken to treat infections of fingernails and toenails well as other dermatophytoses

A

ALLYLAMINES Terbinafine (Lamisil)

121
Q

ID if superficial or cutaneous mycoses: Tinea (Pityriasis) versicolor

A

superficial

122
Q

ID if superficial or cutaneous mycoses: Keratomycosis (Mycotic keratitis)

A

superficial

123
Q

ID if superficial or cutaneous mycoses: Tinea nigra

A

superficial

124
Q

ID if superficial or cutaneous mycoses: Black Piedra

A

superficial

125
Q

ID if superficial or cutaneous mycoses: White Piedra

A

superficial

126
Q

A tropical disease/chronic infection of startum corneum

A

pityriasis versicolor

127
Q

Causative fungi of pityriasis versicolor

A

caused by Malassezia furfur, M. globosa, M. restricta

128
Q

Pityrosporum orbiculare

A

Malassezia furfur

129
Q

pityriasis versicolor is due to accumulation of?

A

(+) accumulation of sebum and skin oils – proliferates during times of poor hygiene

130
Q

manifest early on irregular patches of discrete, serpentine, hypo / hyperpigmented maculae on chest, upper back, arms, or abdomen and are noticeable on exposure to sunlight

A

pityriasis versicolor

131
Q

Superficial infection that presents as intermittent areas of scaling with variegated hues

A

pityriasis versicolor

132
Q

Secondary infection of pityriasis versicolor causes?

A

folliculitis extends to into hair shafts and sebaceous glands

133
Q

Most commonly affected areas: in pityriasis versicolor

A

skin of the chest, back and upper arms

134
Q

In chronic condition of pityriasis vesicolor, pruritus and inflammation may be absent. True or false?

A

True

135
Q

Dx of pityriasis vesicolor

A

direct observation of skin

Wood’s lamp -yellow fluorescence

136
Q

Seen as “spaghetti and meatballs” in microscopy

A

Malassezia furfur, M. globosa, M. restricta - tight clusters of spherical yeast cells admixed with hyphal fragments

137
Q

Seen as Creamy consistency after 2- 4 days at incubation at 35 C in Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

A

Malassezia furfur, M. globosa, M. restricta

138
Q

Microscopically 1 by 2 to 2 by 4m broadly budding yeast cells observed, bottle shaped with a collarette like thickening seen at the junction of the mother and daughter cells

A

Malassezia furfur, M. globosa, M. restricta

139
Q

Treatment for pityriasis vesicolor

A

Topical selenium sufide
Oral ketaconazole
Oral itraconazole

140
Q

Superficial mycosis from Posttraumatic / postsurgical corneal infection

A

KERATOMYCOSIS

141
Q

Etiologic agents of KERATOMYCOSIS

A

Saprophytic fungi (Aspergillus, Fusarium, Alternaria, Candida), Histoplasma capsulatum

142
Q

clinical findings in keratomycosis

A

corneal ulcers

143
Q

diagnosis of keratomycosis

A

hyphae in corneal scrapings

144
Q

Treatment for keratomycosis (4)

A

Keratoplasty
Topical pimaricin
Parenteral nystatin
amphotericin B

145
Q

Causative agent of tinea nigra

A

Exophiala werneckii

146
Q

Exophiala werneckii imparts?

A

brown to black color due to melanin

147
Q

Seen as brownish maculae on palms, fingers, face and soles of the feet

A

Tinea nigra

148
Q

Seen as Septate hyphae and yeast cells that are brown in color in microscopy or black colonies in culture

A

Tinea nigra

149
Q

Treatment for Tinea nigra

A

Topical salicylic acid

tincture of iodine

150
Q

Fungal infection of the scalp hair caused by Piedraia hortae

A

BLACK PIEDRA

151
Q

An ectothrix seen as discrete, hard, dark brown to black nodules

A

BLACK PIEDRA

152
Q

In microscopy, seen as Septate pigmented hyphae, and asci;

o unicellular and fusiform ascospores with polar filament(s)

A

Piedraia hortae

153
Q

Seen as brown to black colonies

A

Piedraia hortae

154
Q

Treatment for black piedra

A

Topical Salicylic acid
Azole creams
Topical miconazole or clotrimazole

155
Q

Fungal infection of the scalp, facial, axillary or genital hair

A

WHITE PIEDRA

156
Q

WHITE PIEDRA fungi

A

Trichosporon beigelii

157
Q

Soft, white to yellowish nodules loosely attached to the hair occur as a sleeve or collarette around the hair shaft

A

WHITE PIEDRA

158
Q

Seen as Intertwined septate hyphae, blasto- and arthroconidia in microscopy or as soft, creamy colonies

A

Trichosporon beigelii

159
Q

Treatment for white piedra

A

Shaving

Azole creams

160
Q

cutaneous mycoses

A

dermatophytosis

161
Q

Infection of the skin, hair or nails caused by a group of keratinophilic fungi, called dermatophytes

A

cutaneous mycoses

162
Q

genus on hair and skin

A

Genus microsporum M. canis

M. gypseum

163
Q

Dermatophytes on skin and nail

A

Genus epidermophyton

164
Q

epidermophytons

A

E. floccosum

165
Q

Genus that affects hair, skin and nails

A

Trichophyton

166
Q

dermatophytes digest keratin by?

A

keratinases

167
Q

dermatophytes are resistant to?i

A

cycloheximide

168
Q

dermatophytes that spread from one human body to other

A

antropophilic (T. rubrum)

169
Q

dermatophytes found in soil

A

geophilic (M. gypseum)

170
Q

dermatophytes found in animals

A

zoophilic

171
Q

dermatophytes found in cats and dogs

A

Microspora canis

172
Q

dermatophytes found found in swine

A

Microspora nanum

173
Q

dermatophytes found found in horse and swine

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

174
Q

Transmission mode of dermatophytes

A

close direct contact

Sharing clothes, combs, brushes, towels, bed sheets (Indirect)

Animal-to-human contact (Zoophilic)

175
Q

True or false. Reinfection is possible in cutaneous mycoses.

A

True

176
Q

Tinea in bearded areas

A

Tinea barbae

177
Q

Tinea infection of arms and legs

A

Tinea corporis

178
Q

Tinea infection of hair

A

Tinea capitis

179
Q

Tinea infection (Jock itch)

A

Tinea cruris

180
Q

Tinea infection (Athlete’s foot)

A

Tinea pedis

181
Q

Tinea infection of hand

A

Tinea manuum

182
Q

Tinea infection of nail

A

Tinea unguim

183
Q

More common dermatophytes are identified using?

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

184
Q

Atypical isolates if dermatophytes can be further identified by?

A

species-specific PCR tests

185
Q

develop cylindric, smooth-walled macroconidia and characteristic microconidia

A

Trichophyton species

186
Q

Appear as cottony to granular

A

T. mentagrophyte

187
Q

display abundant grape like cluster of spherical microconidia on terminal branches

A

Trichophyton species

188
Q

Appear as white, cottony surface and a deep red, nondiffusable pigment when viewed from the reverse side of the colony;microconidia are small and piriform (pear-shaped)

A

Typical colonies of T. rubrum

189
Q

Appear as flat powdery to velvety colony on the obverse surface that becomes reddish-brown on reverse

microconidia are mostly elongate

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

190
Q

Tend to produce distinctive multicellular macroconidia with echinulate walls

A

MICROSPORUM

191
Q

Both types of conidia are borne singly in these genera

A

MICROSPORUM

192
Q

Appear as white cottony surface and a deep yellow color on reverse; the thick-walled, 8-15 celled macroconidia frequently have curved or hooked tips

A

Microsporum canis

193
Q

Have tan, powdery colony; abundant thin-walled 4-6 celled macroconidia

A

Microsporum gypseum

194
Q

Produces only macroconidia which are smooth walled, clavate, 2-4-celled and formed in small clusters

A

EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

195
Q

Colonies are usually flat and velvety with a tan to olive-green tinge

A

EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM

196
Q

Crude antigen preparation used to detect Type I and IV hypersensitivity to dermatophytic antigen

A

Trichophytin

197
Q

Most prevalent of all dermatophytoses

A

Tinea Pedis (Athlete’s Foot)

198
Q

Varieties are the vesicular, ulcerative, and moccasin types, with hyperkeratosis of the sole

A

Tinea Pedis (Athlete’s Foot)

199
Q

When tinea pedis becomes chronic, the primary manifestations are?

A

peeling and cracking of skin
pain
pruritus

200
Q

Nail infection following tinea pedis

A

tinea unguium (onychomycosis)

201
Q

dermatophytosis or ringworm of the scalp and hair

A

Tinea capitis

202
Q

Infection of the hair takes place where?

A

Just above the hair root

203
Q

M. canis infection peaks when?

A

Early school years

204
Q

Spores of which tinea species impart a greenish to silvery fluorescence when examined under Wood’s light

A

Tinea Capitis and Tinea Barbae

205
Q

the chief cause of “black dot” tinea capitis produces spores within the hair shaft (endothrix)

A

T tonsurans

206
Q

In this infection, hairs do not fluoresce; they are weakened and typically break easily at the follicular opening

A

T tonsurans

207
Q

a severe combined inflammatory and hypersensitivity reaction induced by zoophilic species

A

kerion

208
Q

another manifestation of tinea capitis; acute inflammatory infection of the hair follicle caused by T schoenleinii, which leads to the formation of scutula (crusts) around the follicle

A

favus

209
Q

Favus is caused by?

A

T schoenleinii

210
Q

Favic hairs form spores where?

A

avic hairs: hyphae do not form spores but can be found within the hair shaft

211
Q

Gray-patch ringworm – communicable, ectothrix infection

A

(M. audouini / canis)

212
Q

Inflammatory ectothrix infection

A

T. mentagrophytes - animal origin

213
Q

Black-dot ringworm

A

T. tonsurans

214
Q

Fungating exophytic masses (kerions)

A

(T. tonsurans)

Favus infections

215
Q

Favus infections agents

A

T. schoenleini

T. violaceum

216
Q

Common among farm workers

A

Tinea barbae

217
Q

Agent of Tinea barbae

A

T. mentagrophytes

218
Q

allergic manifestations elsewhere on the body (usually vesicles; often on the hands) due to hypersensitivity to constituents or products of the fungus; developed in the course of dermatophytosis

A

Dermatophytids

219
Q

In skin or nails: regardless of the infecting species, branching hyphae or chains of ____ are seen

A

arthroconidia (arthrospores)

220
Q

produce arthroconidia inside the hair shaft (endothrix)

A

Trichophyton tonsurans and T violaceum

221
Q

Identification of dermatophyte species requires cultures inoculated onto inhibitory mold agar or Sabouraud’s agar slants containing _______________ to suppress mold and bacterial growth

A

cycloheximide and chloramphenicol

222
Q

Upon microscopy, the results are fusiform macroconidium, (+) microconidium

A

Microsporum

223
Q

Upon microscopy, the results are clavate macroconidium, (-) microconidium

A

epidermophyton

224
Q

Upon microscopy, the results are few cylcindrical/clavate/fusiform macroconidium and () single or clustered microconidium

A

trichophyton

225
Q

Colony morphology:
Cottony or wooly
Pigment: Lemon-yellow around growing periphery or underside of the colony

A

M. canis

226
Q

Sugary or granular colony

Pigments: Cinnamon brown to buff

A

M. gypseum

227
Q

Fluffy, granular colony, with pigments that are less intense than T. rubrum

A

T. mentagrophytes

228
Q

With burgundy red pigment

A

T. rubrum

229
Q

Colony: Flat, granular rugose with folds radiating outward from center
Pigment: Buff to tan brown

A

T. tonsurans

230
Q

Colony: Suede , gentle folds
Pigment: khaki or green yellow

A

E. floccosum

231
Q

(+) Multicelled with thick rough walls macroconidium, with unevenly dispersed, generally oval or elliptical, NO distinguishing morphologic features microconidium

A

GENUS MICROSPORUM

232
Q

Barrel or spindle shaped
Multicelled
Pointed and slightly turned to one side at the tip
Macroconidia

A

M. canis

233
Q

Less barrel shaped with rounded tips

Features not always clear cut macroconidia

A

M. gypseum

234
Q

Macroconidia:
Typically absent or present only in small numbers
Elongated and pencil shaped
Multi-celled , thin smooth walls

MICROCONIDIA
o Small, regular sized
o Abundant

A

GENUS TRICHOPHYTON

235
Q

Microconidia
Cluster in grapelike masses ( en grappe)
Spiral hyphae may also be seen

A

T. mentagrophytes

236
Q

Macroconidia
Uncommon
If (+) –pencil shaped
Thin smooth walls

A

T. rubrum

237
Q

Tear shaped, regular in size

Distributed on either side of the hyphal strands ( bird on the fence appearance)

A

T. rubrum

238
Q 
Macroconidia : NEVER seen
Microconidia
Elongated, club shaped or
Large balloon shaped forms
Admixed with the smaller oval or tear- shaped
A

T. tonsurans

239
Q 
MACROCONIDIA
o Club shaped
o (+) 3-5 cells
o Thin smooth walls
o Cluster in groups of 3 or 4
o Chlamydoconidia typically present in older cultures

MICROCONIDIA : ABSENT

A

GENUS EPIDERMOPHYTON

240
Q

Physiologic tests for dermatophytes

A
  1. In vitro hair perforation test
  2. Special amino acid and vitamin requirements
  3. Urea hydrolysis
  4. Growth on BCP-milk solids-glucose medium
  5. Growth on polished rice grains
  6. Temperature tolerance and enhancement
241
Q

If microscopic morphology not distinct, perform :

A

UREASE

HAIR BAITING TEST

242
Q

Convert urea to red color within 1-2 days

A

T. mentagrophytes

243
Q

Faint red color after 5 days

A

T. rubrum

244
Q

Invade shaft within 7-10 days  conical shaped holes in hair baiting test

A

T. mentagrophytes

245
Q

Non-invasive in hair baiting test

A

T. rubrum

246
Q

Treatment for hair infection by Interfering with the mitotic spindle and cytoplasmic microtubules

A

Griseofulvin

247
Q

In acute phase of foot infection, what is the treatment?

A

soak in KMnO4 1:5000 until acute inflammation subsides then apply antifungal

248
Q

In chronic phase of foot infection, what is the treatment?

A

Chronic phase: AM – powder; PM – cream

249
Q

Scalp infections are treated for several weeks with oral administration of?

A

griseofulvin or terbinafine

250
Q

Most effective drugs for Tinea Corporis, Tinea Pedis, and Related Infections

A

itraconazole and terbinafine

251
Q

For troublesome cases of Tinea Corporis, Tinea Pedis, and Related Infections a short course of oral ____ can be administered

A

griseofulvin

252
Q

Treatment of tinea unguium

A

oral itraconazole or terbinafine as well as surgical removal of the nail

253
Q

Most superficial and cutaneous fungal infections are caused by species of?

A

Malassezia, dermatophytes, or Candida

254
Q

The growth of dermatophytes is inhibited by ___ accounting for the reason why they are not invasive.

A

serum and body temperature

255
Q

usually cause relatively mild, chronic lesions that may require months or years of treatment and frequently recu

A

Anthropophilic dermatophytes

Microbiology (7 decks)

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