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Adenoviridae Flashcards

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1
Q

Genus of Adenoviridae

A

Mastadenovirus

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2
Q

Describe DNA of Adenovirus

A

Non-enveloped linear dsDNA

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3
Q

From what tissue site was adenovirus first isolated?

A

Adenoid tissue

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4
Q

In which tissues does AV replicate and produce disease?

A

RT
GIT
Urinary Tract
Eyes

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5
Q

Adenovirus is a frequent cause of ASYMPTOMATIC respiratory infection that produces in vitro ___

A

Cytolysis

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6
Q

Extremely hardy (3)

A

Ubiqiutous
Survives long periods outside host
Endemic throughout the year

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7
Q

Shape, diameter and characteristic of virion of AV

A

Icosahedral
70 - 90 in diameter
Fibers project from each 12 vertex or penton base
252 capsomeres

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8
Q

Composition of AV

A

13% DNA, 87%

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9
Q

Genome of AV

A

Linear dsDNA
26 - 45 kbp
Protein bound to termini, infectious

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10
Q

Important antigens of AV that are associated with major outer capsid proteins

A

Hexon
Penton base
Fiber

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11
Q

Site of replication of AV

A

nucleus

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12
Q

Outstanding features of AV

A

Excellent model for molecular studies of eukaryotic cell processes

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13
Q

2 major proteins of AV

A

polypeptide V and polypeptide

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14
Q

Pentons, hexons and fibers are important because? (3)

A

For attachment
Constitute major AV antigens
For viral classification and disease diagnosis

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15
Q

Major components of the virus particles.

A

Hexon and Penton

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16
Q

All himan adenoviruses display this common hexon antigenicity

A

Group and type specific epitopes on both hexon and fiber polypeptides

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17
Q

Occur at the 12 vertices of the capsid and have fibers protruding from them

A

Pentons

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18
Q

Carries a toxin-like activity that causes RAPID appearance of cytopathic effects and detachment of cells from the surface on which they are growing

A

Penton Base

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19
Q

Another function of Penton Base aside from having a toxin-like activity

A

Exhibits a group-reactive antigen

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20
Q

Contain type-specific antigens that are important in serotyping

A

Fibers

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21
Q

Another function of fibers aside from serotyping

A

Associated with hemagglutinating activity, which is type-specific

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22
Q

Commonly used for typing isolates in AV

A

HI tests

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23
Q

True or False. AV infections occur worldwide, year-round, but do not cause community outbreaks.

A

True

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24
Q

Mode of transmission of AV

A 
Oral route
Fecal contamination
Contaminated fomites
Direct contact
Respiratory droplets
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25
Q

Manifestations of AV are usually…

A

Subclinical and non-pathognomonic

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26
Q

Highest susceptibility of AV infection is found among

A

children from 6 months to 2 years, extending to children 5 to 9 years old

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27
Q

most frequently isolated from adenovirus-infected children

A

Low-numbered respiratory types (1, 2, 3, 5, 7)

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28
Q

Gastroenteritis types

A

40, 41

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29
Q

Acute respiratory disease among military recruits

A

3, 4, 7 (although adenoviruses cause only 2-5% of all respiratory illness in the general population)

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30
Q

found in the urine of AIDS patients

A

Types 42, 47

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31
Q

True or False. Eye infections can be transmitted in several ways, but hand-to-eye transfer is particularly important.

A

True

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32
Q

Swimming pool conjunctivitis

  • Outbreaks presumably waterborne, usually during summer
  • Commonly caused by types
A

3 and 7

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33
Q
  • Caused by type 8 adenovirus
  • Spread in 1941 from Australia via the Hawaiian Islands to the Pacific Coast
  • Spread rapidly through shipyards (hence, the disease was also called shipyard eye) and across the US
A

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

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34
Q

More recently, types ___ have caused epidemics of typical epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

A

19 and 37

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35
Q

Outbreaks of Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis traced to?

A

traced to ophthalmologists’ offices were presumably caused by contaminated ophthalmic solutions or diagnostic equipment

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36
Q

found most often in bone marrow and renal transplant recipients

A

Types 34 and 35

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37
Q

Most likely source of types 34 and 35 AV infection

A

Endogenous viral reactivation

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38
Q

Types 34 and 35 AV infection reported incidence higher in which population?

A

Pediatric

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39
Q

Frequency of occurrence during first years of life

A

Types 1, 2, 5, 6

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40
Q

Frequency of occurrence during school years

A

Types 3, 7

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41
Q

Frequency of occurence during adulthood

A

Types 4, 8, 19 (and others)

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42
Q

How many types and subgroups were identified in human adenoviruses?

A

47 types, 6 subgroups

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43
Q

Genus that infects birds

A

Aviadenovirus

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44
Q

Genus that infects mammals

A

Mastadenovirus

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45
Q

Members of a given adenovirus group resemble one another in the ____ of their DNA

A

guanine-plus-cytosine content

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46
Q

Regularly isolated from feces of healthy humans (GIT infection without manifestations)

A

Group A
Type 12
18
31

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47
Q

Isolated from throat washings of patients during epidemics of acute respiratory illness

A

Group B

Type 3, 7, 11, 14, 16, 21, 34, 35

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48
Q

From gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts of children with mild upper respiratory tract infections

A 
Group C
Type 1
2
5
6
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49
Q

Associated with conjunctivitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever (eye)

A

Group D

Type 8, 9, 10, 13, 15, 17, 19, 20, 22-30, 32, 33,36-39, 42-47

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50
Q

Associated with severe respiratory tract disease in both sporadic and epidemic forms with pharyngoconjunctival fever (RT)

A

Group E type 4

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51
Q

Enteric (GIT infection with manifestation)

A

Group F Type 40, 41

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52
Q

May be associated with severe pneumonia (RT)

A

Group B

Type 3, 7, 11, 14, 16, 21, 34, 35

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53
Q

Also isolated from adenoids and tonsillar tissues (lymphoid tissue)

A 
Group C
Type 1
2
5
6
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54
Q

AV infect and replicate in cells of ____ and do not spread beyond the _____

A

epithelial origin

regional lymph nodes

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55
Q

AV infection shed in ___

A

feces

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56
Q

Virus produces ___ in various tissues and induces inflammatory responses and cytokine production

A

cytolysis

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57
Q

AV infection is overt or not?

A

Overt

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58
Q

Virus enters human epithelial cells and continues through entire replication. Results in host cell death.

A

Lytic Infection

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59
Q

Mechanism unknown

Asymptomatic infection of lymphoid tissue

A

Chronic, latent infection

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60
Q

persist as latent infections for years in adenoids and tonsils and are shed in the feces for many months after the initial infection

A

Group C viruses

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61
Q

Viral DNA integrated into host cell DNA

Produces specific proteins that immortalize rodent cells

A

Oncogenic transformation

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62
Q

Replicative cycle is sharply divided into

A

early and latent events

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63
Q

Adenovirus infectious cycle takes about

A

24 hours

64
Q

about ____ virus particles are produced per cell

A

100,000

65
Q

Time between AV infection and the first appearance of progeny virus is the ____

A

Eclipse period

66
Q

A measure of infectious virus

A

Plaque-Forming Unit

67
Q

AC attachment via the ____; host cell receptor for some serotypes is ____, a member of the immunoglobulin gene superfamily

A

fiber structures

CAR (coxsackie-adenovirus receptor)

68
Q

Interaction of the ____ following attachment promotes internalization

A

penton base with cellular integrins

69
Q

True or False. Adsorption and internalization are separate steps in the infectious process.

A

True

70
Q

an organized, sequential process that systematically breaks down the stabilizing interactions that were established during maturation of the virus particle

A

Uncoating

71
Q

Adsorbed virus is internalized into ____

A

endosomes

72
Q

Majority of the particles (~90%) move rapidly from endosomes into cytosol (t1/2=5 minutes), triggered by the ___ of the endosome

A

acidic pH

73
Q

Transport of virus particles across cytoplasm to the nucleus by ____

A

Microtubules

74
Q

Uncoating commences in the _____ and completed in the ____; release of DNA perhaps occurring at the _____

A

cytoplasm

nucleus

nuclear membrane

75
Q

Events in the nucleus

A

Viral replication

Viral assembly (virion morphogenesis)

Mature particle is stable, infectious and resistant to nucleases

76
Q

Steps that occur before the onset of viral DNA synthesis

A

Early events

77
Q

GOALS OF EARLY EVENTS

A

Induce the host cell to enter the S phase of the cell cycle to create conditions conducive to viral replication

Express viral functions that protect infected cell from host defense mechanisms

Synthesize viral gene products needed for viral DNA replication

78
Q

must be expressed in order for other early regions to be transcribed

A

E1A early gene

79
Q

Functions to modulate the cell cycle

A

E1A gene products

80
Q

Encodes proteins that block apoptosis that occurs due to E1A functions

Necessary to prevent premature cell death that would adversely affect virus yields

A

E1B early region

81
Q

Contain the only adenovirus genes involved in cell transformation; gene products bind up cellular proteins (eg, pRb, p300, p53) that regulate cell cycle progression

A

E1A, E1B regions

82
Q

virus-encoded, covalently linked terminal protein functions as a ____

A

primer for initiation of viral DNA synthesis

83
Q

Late events begin concomitantly with ___

A

onset of viral DNA synthesis

84
Q

Where the viral proteins are synthesized

A

Cytoplasm

85
Q

Although host genes continue to be transcribed in the nucleus late in the course of infection, few host genetic sequences are transported to the cytoplasm. True or False.

A

True

86
Q

A complex involving the ____ inhibits the cytoplasmic accumulation of cellular mRNAs

A

E1B 55-kDa polypeptide and the E4 34-kDa polypeptide

87
Q

Virion morphogenesis occurs in the ____

A

nucleus

88
Q

trimer of identical polypeptides

A

Hexon Capsomere

89
Q

composed of five (5) penton base polypeptides and three (3) fiber polypeptides

A

Penton

90
Q

Late L4-encoded, assists in the aggregation of hexon polypeptides but is not part of the final structure

A

Scaffold protein

91
Q

Capsomeres self-assemble into _____

A

empty-shell capsids in the nucleus

92
Q

____ enters preformed capsid

A

Naked DNA

93
Q

serves as a packaging signal, necessary for the DNA-capsid recognition event

A

cis-acting DNA element near the left-hand end of the viral chromosome

94
Q

Another viral scaffolding protein, encoded in the ____, facilitates DNA encapsidation

A

L1 group

95
Q

Precursor core proteins are cleaved, which allows the particle to ____, and the pentons are added

A

tighten its configuration

96
Q

A virus-encoded _____ functions in some cleavages of precursor proteins

A

cysteine proteinase

97
Q

Mature particle is then stable, infectious, and resistant to _____

A

Nucleases

98
Q

Afford protection from the antiviral effect of interferon by preventing activation of an interferon-inducible kinase that phosphorylates and inactivates eukaryotic initiation factor 2

A

Small, abundant VA RNAs

99
Q

Nonessential for viral growth in tissue culture; inhibit cytolysis of infected cells by host responses

A

Adenovirus E3 region proteins

100
Q

Blocks movement of the MHC class I antigen to the cell surface, protecting the infected cell from cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated lysis

A

E3 gp19-kDa protein

101
Q

Block induction of cytolysis by TNF-alpha

A

E3-encoded proteins

102
Q

Cells infected with adenovirus have an affinity for which stain?

A

haematoxylin (a purplish-blue dye)

103
Q

Infected cells become ____ and the cell sheet _____ during staining.

A

rounded

disintegrates

104
Q

Dark basophilic inclusions within the nuclei represent __________.

A

accumulated viral proteins at the site of virus assembly

105
Q

Cytopathic effect of adenoviruses:

A

marked rounding, enlargement aggregation of affected cells into grape-like structures with inclusion bodies (intranuclear, with DNA) and crystal structures

106
Q

Virus particles in the nucleus exhibit ______ that do not contain nucleic acid

A

crystal line arrangements- proteins

107
Q

AV infected cell lyse. True or False.

A

False. Infected cells do not lyse.

108
Q

Virus particles remain in the cell after the cycle is complete and the cell is dead. True or False.

A

True

109
Q

Tissue used for AV culture

A

primary kidney and continuous epithelial cells

110
Q

Among military recruits

Characterized by fever, sore throat, nasal congestion, cough, and malaise, sometimes leading to pneumonia

Occurs in epidemic form among young military recruits under conditions of fatigue, stress, and crowding soon after induction

Caused by types 4 and 7

A

Acute respiratory disease syndrome

111
Q

Adenovirus may also be isolated from children with _____ (ARDS)

A

whooping cough

112
Q

LRT adeno infections may mimic _____.

A

RSV

113
Q

Tends to occur in outbreaks (children’s summer camps)

A

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

114
Q

Associated with bathing in inadequately chlorinated water source such as pool or lake

A

Swimming pool conjunctivitis

115
Q

Classic presentation of Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

fever, sore throat, coryza, red eyes

116
Q

PE findings in Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

pharyngitis (may be exudative)

headache, cervical lymphadenopathy

117
Q

Hallmark of Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Perinaud syndrome (pre-auricular lymphadenopathy)

118
Q

Duration of Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

1–2 weeks, usually self-limiting (5 days)

119
Q

Outcome ofPharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Complete recovery with no lasting sequelae is the common outcome (Uncommonly, exanthema and diarrhea may occur)

120
Q

Transmitted via hands and fomites; also through instrumentation, industrial trauma, contaminated ophthalmic solutions.

A

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

121
Q

Characterized by acute conjunctivitis, followed by keratitis that usually resolves in 2 weeks but may leave subepithelial opacities in the cornea for up to 2 years

A

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

122
Q

Other complications of Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

A

Palpebral edema is present, hemorrhagic conjunctivitis may develop

123
Q

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis caused by?

A

types 8, 19, and 37

124
Q

Affects children aged 5 – 15 yrs, but immunocompromised adults can also be affected (males>females)

Caused by serotypes 11 and 21

A

Acute Hemorrhagic Cystitis

125
Q

Findings in Acute Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

Dysuria, frequency and gross blood in urine

Hematuria self-limiting; usually up to 3 days

126
Q

Serotypes etiologically associated with infantile gastroenteritis

A

Serotypes 40 and 41

127
Q

Most commonly affected intestinal area in nonenteric adenovirus infection and intusussception

A

junction of ileum and cecum

128
Q

Adenovirus types 40 and 41 are abundantly present in what specimens?

A

Diarrheal stools

129
Q

Adenovirus gastroenteritis s/sx is self-limited.True or false?

A

True. Fever and watery stool usually limited, 1-2 weeks

130
Q

Most common problem in transplant patients

A

Respiratory disease

131
Q

Patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) may suffer adenovirus infections, especially in the?

A

GIT

132
Q

In contrast to most respiratory infectious agents, adenoviruses induce effective and long-lasting immunity against reinfection. True or False.

A

True

133
Q

Resistance to clinical disease directly related to the presence of _____, which probably persist for life

A

circulating neutralizing antibodies

134
Q

Maternal antibodies usually protect infants against severe adenovirus respiratory infections. True or False.q

A

True

135
Q

GROUP-REACTIVE ANTIBODY RESPONSE may be measured by ______

A

CF, IF, or ELISA testing

136
Q

GROUP-REACTIVE ANTIBODY RESPONSE:

  • -Are not protective and decline with time
  • Do not reveal the serotypes of previous viral infections
A

True

137
Q

Lab diagnosis: stable in routine viral transport medium. True or False.

A

True

138
Q

RECOMMENDED TIMING OF COLLECTION:

Throat of adults with common colds

A

1-3 days

139
Q

RECOMMENDED TIMING OF COLLECTION:

Throat, stool and eye for pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

3-5 days

140
Q

RECOMMENDED TIMING OF COLLECTION:

Eye for keratoconjuctivitis

A

2 weeks

141
Q

RECOMMENDED TIMING OF COLLECTION:

Throat and stool with children with respiratory illness

A

3 - 6 weeks

142
Q

RECOMMENDED TIMING OF COLLECTION:

Urine, throat and stool of immunocompromised patients

A

2 - 12 months

143
Q

Serology test:
For detecting infection by any member of the adenovirus group

A fourfold or greater rise in complement-fixing antibody titer between acute-phase and convalescent-phase sera indicates recent infection with an adenovirus

Gives no clue about the specific type involved

A

CF Test

144
Q

Tests for ARD

A

Nasopharyngeal swab for culture
Consider monospot test

Throat swab and culture to rule out streptococcal infection

145
Q

Tests for Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Nasopharyngeal swab for culture of respiratory viruses

Consider rapid Group A streptococcus throat swab and culture

146
Q

Viral isolation

A

Primary human embryonic kidney cells

Human epithelial cell lines (Hep-2, HeLa and KB)

147
Q

Increased glycolysis in cells in viral isolation

A

Growth medium highly acidic on infected cultures

148
Q

Isolates can be identified as adenoviruses by ______ using an antihexon antibody and infected cells

A

immunofluorescence tests

149
Q

Rapid viral detection usiing?

A

Shell Vial Technique

150
Q

diagnosis of adenovirus infections in tissue samples or body fluids

A

PCR

151
Q

Characterization of viral DNA by?

A

hybridization or by restriction endonuclease digestion patterns (for types that are difficult to cultivate)

152
Q

Has been used in patients who have undergone hematopoietic stem cell transplants.

A

Ribavirin

153
Q

Used with limited success in the tx of AV

A

Cidofovir

154
Q

Environmental surfaces can be disinfected with?

A

sodium hypochlorite

155
Q

Live adenovirus vaccine containing _____, encased in gelatin-coated capsules and given orally, was introduced in 1971.

A

types 4 and 7

Microbiology (7 decks)

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