My Micro Part 2, USMLE Flashcards

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1
Q

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

A

Naegleria fowleri

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2
Q

Tachyzoite on biopsy

A

T. gondii

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3
Q

Swimming in freshwater lakes; enters via cribriform plate

A

Naegleria
[Think Nalgene bottle filled
with fresh water containing Naegleria]

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4
Q

Toxoplasma gondii, treatment

A

Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine

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5
Q

Amoebas in spinal fluid

A

Naegleria fowleri

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6
Q

Diagnosis of trypanosome brucei

A

Blood smear

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7
Q

Origin of single flagellum of hemoflagellates

A

Kinetoplast

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8
Q

Location of kinetoplast in trypomastigote

A

Posterior

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9
Q

Falling leaf motility

A

G. lamblia

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10
Q

Scrub typhus

A

R. tsutsugamushi

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11
Q

Leishmania, vector

A

Sandflies (phlebotomus)

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12
Q

Trypanosoma brucei, vector

A

Glossina/tsetse fly

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13
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi, vector

A

Reduviid bug

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14
Q

Hemoflagellate that characteristically assumes a C or U shape in stained blood films

A

T. cruzi

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15
Q

Has an intracellular amastigote stage in cardiac muscles and other tissues

A

T. cruzi

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16
Q

Winterbottom sign

A

T. brucei

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17
Q

Romaña sign

A

T. cruzi

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18
Q

West African sleeping sickness

A

T. brucei gambiense

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19
Q

Eastern and central african sleeping sickness

A

T. brucei rhodesiense

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20
Q

T. brucei gambiense vs T. brucei rhodesiense: More severe

A

T. brucei rhodesiense

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21
Q

T. brucei, treatment for blood-borne diseases

A

Suramin

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22
Q

T. brucei, treatment for CNS penetration

A

Melarsoprol

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23
Q

Tertian malaria

A

1) P. vivax

2) P. ovale

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24
Q

Quartan malaria

A

P. malariae

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25
Q

Fever on 1st and 3rd day (every 48 hours)

A

P. vivax and ovale

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26
Q

Fever every 72 hours

A

P. malariae

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27
Q

Dormant form in the liver

A

Hypnozoite

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28
Q

Plasmodia that have dormant forms in liver

A

P. vivax and ovale

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29
Q

Contain merozoites

A

Schizonts

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30
Q

Anti-malarial that blocks heme polymerise of plasmodium

A

Chloroquine

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31
Q

Malaria treatment: Alternative for resistance to Chloroquine

A

Mefloquine or atovaquone/proguanil

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32
Q

Treatment for life-threatening malaria

A

IV quinidine or artesunate

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33
Q

Anti-malarial for hypnozoites

A

Primaquine

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34
Q

Use of these drugs require test for G6PD

A

1) Artesunate

2) Primaquine

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35
Q

Maltese cross on blood smear

A

Babesia

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36
Q

Fever and hemolytic anemia; asplenia increases risk of serve disease

A

Babesia

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37
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy with

apical atrophy, megacolon, megaesophagus;

A

T. cruzi

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38
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis

A

Leishmania donovani

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39
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis is aka

A

Kala-azar

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40
Q

T/F T. vaginalis can form cysts hence can exist outside human

A

F, cannot form cysts, cannot exist outside humans

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41
Q

Unilateral periorbital swelling during the acute stage of disease

A

Chagas disease (Romaña sign)

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42
Q

T. cruzi, treatment

A

Benznidazole or nifurtimox

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43
Q

Spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia

A

Visceral leishmaniasis

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44
Q

L. donovani diagnosis

A

Amastigotes in macrophages

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45
Q

L. donovani, treatment

A

Amphotericin B

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46
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

T. vaginalis

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47
Q

Roundworm obstructing ileocecal valve

A

A. lumbricoides

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48
Q

Roundworm that causes epigastric pain, feeling like peptic ulcer

A

S. stercoralis

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49
Q

Roundworms that cause anemia

A

Hookworms

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50
Q

Treatment for roundworms

A

Bendazoles

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51
Q

Treatment for S. stercoralis

A

Ivermectin

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52
Q

Treatment for hookworms

A

Pyrantel pamoate

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53
Q

Larvae enter bloodstream and encyst in striated muscle cells

A

T. spiralis

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54
Q

Black flies, black skin nodules, black sight (river blindness)

A

Onchocerca volvulus

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55
Q

Treatment for O. volvulus

A

Ivermectin

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56
Q

Deer fly, horse fly, mango fly

A

Loa loa

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57
Q

Elephantiasis

A

W. bancrofti

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58
Q

Allergic reaction to microfilaria

A

O. volvulus

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59
Q

Swelling in skin, worm in conjunctiva

A

Loa loa

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60
Q

W. bancrofti, vector

A

Female mosquito

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61
Q

Visceral larva migrans

A

Toxocara canis

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62
Q

Blockage of lymphatics by W. bancrofti becomes symptomatic when

A

9 mod-1 year after bite

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63
Q

Treatment for Loa loa and W. bancrofti

A

DEC

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64
Q

Nematode routes of infection: Ingested

A

Enterobius, Ascaris, Toxocara, Trichinella

[You’ll get sick if you EATT these!]

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65
Q

Nematode routes of infection: Cutaneous

A

Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necator

[These get into your feet from the SANd.]

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66
Q

Nematode routes of infection: Bites

A

Loa loa, Onchocerca volvulus, Wuchereria bancrofti

[Lay LOW to avoid getting bitten.]

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67
Q

Ingestion of larvae from raw freshwater fish causes infection

A

D. latum

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68
Q

Means by which T. solium is acquired causing INTESTINAL infection

A

Ingestion of encysted larvae in undercooked pork

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69
Q

Cysticercosis, neurocysticercosis

A

T. solium

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70
Q

Means by which T. solium is acquired causing cysticercosis and/or neurocysticercosis

A

Ingestion of eggs

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71
Q

Intermediate host of E. granulosus

A

Sheep

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72
Q

Cestode: Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

D. latum

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73
Q

Hydatid cyst

A

E. granulosus

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74
Q

Done prior to removal of hydatid cyst to prevent anaphylaxis from released daughter cysts from liver

A

Injection with ethanol or hypertonic saline

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75
Q

Treatment for cestodes except E. granulosus

A

Praziquantel

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76
Q

Treatment for E. granulosus

A

Albendazole

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77
Q

Treatment for neurocysticercosis

A

Albendazole

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78
Q

Host of schistosoma

A

Snails

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79
Q

Mode of transmission of schistosoma

A

Penetration of skin

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80
Q

Schistosoma: Hepatosplenomegaly

A

S. mansoni

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81
Q

Schistosoma: SCC of bladder with chronic infection

A

S. haematobium

82
Q

Schistosoma: Pulmonary hypertension with chronic infection

A

S. haematobium

83
Q

Schistosoma: Lateral spine

A

S. mansoni

84
Q

Schistosoma: Terminal spine

A

S. haematobium

85
Q

Treatment for Schistosoma infection

A

Praziquantel

86
Q

Treatment for Clonorchis sinensis

A

Praziquantel

87
Q

Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

88
Q

Brain cysts, seizures

A

Taenia solium (neurocysticercosis)

89
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma, Necator

90
Q

Myalgias, periorbital edema

A

Trichinella spiralis

91
Q

Portal hypertension

A

Schistosoma mansoni, Schistosoma japonicum

92
Q

Megaloblastic anemia

A

D. latum

93
Q

Viral genetics: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology.

A

Recombination

94
Q

Viral genetics: When viruses with segmented genomes (e.g., influenza virus) exchange genetic material. For example, the 2009 novel H1N1 influenza A pandemic.

A

Reassortment

95
Q

Viral genetics: Human flu, swine flu, bird flu

A

Reassortment

96
Q

Viral genetics: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein

A

Complementation

97
Q

Viral genetics: Hep D and Hep B

A

Complementation

98
Q

Viral genetics: Occurs with simultaneous infection of a cell with 2 viruses

A

Phenotypic mixing

99
Q

Live attenuated viral vaccines

A

1) Smallpox
2) Yellow fever
3) Rotavirus
4) VZV
5) Sabin polio
6) MMR
7) Influenza (intranasal)
[Live! See SMALL YELLOW ROTATING CHICKENS get vaccinated with SABIN and MMR! It’s INcredible!

100
Q

T/F Live attenuated vaccines can be given to HIV-positive patients who do not show signs of immunodeficiency

A

T

101
Q

Killed viral vaccines

A
RIP Always
Rabies
Influenza
Polio (Salk)
HAV
102
Q

Viral vaccines made of viral subunits

A

1) HBV

2) HPV

103
Q

The only ssDNA DNA virus

A

Parvovirus

104
Q

The only dsRNA RNA virus

A

Reovirus

105
Q

T/F Naked nucleic acids of negative strand ssRNA and dsRNA are not infectious

A

T, require polymerases

106
Q

The only DNA virus that does not replicate in the nucleus

A

Poxvirus

107
Q

The inly RNA viruses that does not replicate in the cytoplasm (2)

A

1) Influenza

2) Retroviruses

108
Q

Naked viruses

A
[Give PAPP smears and CPR to a naked Heppy (hippy).]
[PAPP=DNA; CPR=RNA]
Papilloma
Adeno
Parvo
Polyoma
Calici
Picorna
Reo
Hepe
109
Q

Enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from

A

Plasma membrane when they exit from cell

110
Q

The only enveloped virus that acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane

A

Herpesvirus

111
Q

All DNA viruses are linear except

A

1) Papilloma (circular, supercoiled)
2) Polyoma (circular, supercoiled)
3) Hepadna (circular, incomplete)

112
Q

All DNA viruses are icosahedral except

A

Poxvirus

113
Q

Virus that carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A

Poxvirus

114
Q

Largest DNA virus

A

Poxvirus

115
Q

Smallest DNA virus

A

Parvovirus

116
Q

Oral (and some genital) lesions, spontaneous temporal lobe encephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis

A

HSV-1

117
Q

Genital (and some oral) lesions

A

HSV-2

118
Q

Chickenpox, zoster (shingles)

A

VZV (HHV-3)

119
Q

Mononucleosis

A

EBV (HHV-4)

120
Q

Infection in immunosuppressed patients (AIDS retinitis)

A

CMV

121
Q

Burkitt lymphoma

A

EBV

122
Q

Transplant recipients

A

CMV

123
Q

Roseola (exanthem subitum)

A

HHV-6

124
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma

A

EBV

125
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV-8

126
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBV

127
Q

Not a retrovirus but has reverse transcriptase

A

HBV

128
Q

Hepatitis: Hepadnavirus

A

HBV

129
Q

Hepatitis: Picornavirus

A

HAV

130
Q

Conjunctivitis —“pink eye”

A

Adenovirus

131
Q

Acute hemorhhagic cystitis

A

Adenovirus

132
Q

Aplastic crises in sickle cell disease, “slapped cheeks” rash in children

A

Parvovirus B19

133
Q

Transplant patients, commonly targets kidney

A

BK virus

134
Q

Erythema infectiosum/Fifth disease

A

Parvovirus B19

135
Q

RBC destruction in fetus leads to hydrops fetalis and death, in adults leads to pure RBC aplasia and rheumatoid arthritis–like symptoms

A

Parvovirus B19

136
Q

Milkmaid blisters

A

Cowpox

137
Q

Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis,

A

HSV-1

138
Q

HSV-2, latent in

A

Sacral ganglia

139
Q

Most common complication of shingles

A

Post-herpetic neuralgia

140
Q

Fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy (especially posterior cervical nodes)

A

Mono (EBV)

141
Q

EBV infects B cells through this CD

A

CD21

142
Q

Atypical lymphocytes in EBV infection

A

Reactive cytotoxic T cells

143
Q

Diagnosis of EBV

A

Monospot test for heterophile antibodies

144
Q

Owl eye inclusions

A

CMV

145
Q

CMV are latent in

A

Mononuclear cells

146
Q

Roseola transmission

A

Saliva

147
Q

Dark/violaceous plaques or nodules representing vascular proliferations, seen in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients

A

HHV-8 (Kaposi sarcoma)

148
Q

HHV-8 mode of transmission

A

Sexual contact

149
Q

Multinucleated giant cells on tzanck smear

A

HSV 1 and 2, VZV

150
Q

Colorado tick fever

A

Reovirus (Coltivirus)

151
Q

1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children

A

Rotavirus

152
Q

Aseptic (viral) meningitis

A

1) Echovirus
2) Coxsackie virus
3) Poliovirus
4) Mumps

153
Q

“Common cold”

A

Rhinovirus

154
Q

Herpangina (mouth blisters, fever)

A

Coxsackie virus

155
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth disease; myocarditis; pericarditis

A

Coxsackie virus

156
Q

Hepatitis: Hepevirus

A

HEV

157
Q

Hepatitis: Flavivirus

A

HCV

158
Q

T-cell leukemia

A

HTLV

159
Q

Retroviruses (have reverse transcriptase)

A

1) HIV

2) HTLV

160
Q

“Common cold” and SARS

A

Coronavirus

161
Q

Orthomyxovirus

A

Influenza

162
Q

Paramyxovirus

A

[PaRaMyxovirus]
Parainfluenza
RSV
Measles, Mumps

163
Q

Bronchiolitis in babies

A

RSV

164
Q

Filoviruses

A

Ebola/Marburg hemorhhagic fever

165
Q

Hepatitis: Delta virus

A

HDV

166
Q

Must transcribe ⊝ strand to ⊕. Virion brings its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

A

Negative-stranded viruses

167
Q

Segmented viruses

A
[BOAR]
Bunya
Orthomyxo
Arena
Reo
168
Q

All picornaviruses are enteroviruses (decal-oral spread) except

A

Rhinovirus (acid labile)

169
Q

Picornaviruses

A
[PERCH; PicoRNAvirus, all are RNA viruses]
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
HAV
170
Q

Reservoir of yellow fever virus

A

Monkey or humans

171
Q

Most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

172
Q

Black vomitus

A

Yellow fever virus

173
Q

Diarrhea in day care centres and kindergartens

A

Rotavirus

174
Q

Councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic globules) on liver biopsy

A

Yellow fever virus

175
Q

Influenza: Promotes viral entry

A

Hemagglutinin

176
Q

Influenza: Promotes progeny virion release

A

Neuraminidase

177
Q

Genetic/Antigenic SHIFT vs DRIFT: Causes pandemics

A

Shift

178
Q

Genetic/Antigenic SHIFT vs DRIFT: Causes epidemics

A

Drift

179
Q

Genetic/Antigenic SHIFT vs DRIFT: Reassortment of viral genome segments, such as when segments of human flu A virus reassort with swine flu A virus.

A

Shift

180
Q

Genetic/Antigenic SHIFT vs DRIFT: Random mutation in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes.

A

Drift

181
Q

T/F Sudden shift is more deadly than gradual drift

A

T

182
Q

Rubella: Family

A

Togavirus

183
Q

Croup: seal-like barking cough)

A

Parainfluenza

184
Q

German measles

A

Rubella

185
Q

All contain surface F (fusion) protein, which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells.

A

Paramyxoviruses

186
Q

Fever, postauricular and other lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, and fine rash

A

Rubella

187
Q

Inspiratory stridor; Narrowing of upper trachea and subglottis leads to characteristic steeple sign on X-ray

A

Croup/acute laryngotracheobronchitis

188
Q

Measles

A

Rubeola

189
Q

Prodromal fever with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis

A

Measles

190
Q

Mild disease in children but serious congenital disease (a ToRCHeS infection)

A

Rubella

191
Q

“blueberry muffin” appearance, indicative of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

Rubella

192
Q

Koplik spots

A

Measles

193
Q

Spread of maculopapular rash of measles

A

From head and neck downward

194
Q

Parotitis, orchitis, aspetic meningitis

A

Mumps

[Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms]

195
Q

Vitamins given in measles infection to educe measles

mortality in malnourished or vitamin-deficient children

A

Vitamin A

196
Q

Lymphadenitis with Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells (fused lymphocytes)

A

Measles

197
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

A

Measles

198
Q

Bright red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucosa that precede the measles rash by 1–2 days.

A

Koplik spots of measles

199
Q

Negri bodies commonly found in Purkinje cells of cerebellum and in hippocampal neurons

A

Rabies

200
Q

Rabies virus bind to what nerve receptors

A

Ach

201
Q

A filovirus that targets endothelial cells, phagocytes, hepatocytes

A

Ebola